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  • page variable in a repeater

    - by carrot_programmer_3
    Hi I'm having a bit of an issue with a asp.net repeater I'm building a categories carousel with the dynamic categories being output by a repeater. Each item is a LinkButton control that passes an argument of the category id to the onItemClick handler. a page variable is set by this handler to track what the selected category id is.... public String SelectedID { get { object o = this.ViewState["_SelectedID"]; if (o == null) return "-1"; else return (String)o; } set { this.ViewState["_SelectedID"] = value; } } problem is that i cant seem to read this value while iterating through the repeater as follows... <asp:Repeater ID="categoriesCarouselRepeater" runat="server" onitemcommand="categoriesCarouselRepeater_ItemCommand"> <ItemTemplate> <%#Convert.ToInt32(Eval("CategoryID")) == Convert.ToInt32(SelectedID) ? "<div class=\"selectedcategory\">":"<div>"%> <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" CommandName="select_category" CommandArgument='<%#Eval("CategoryID")%>' runat="server"><img src="<%#Eval("imageSource")%>" alt="category" /><br /> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> calling <%=SelectedID%> in the item template works but when i try the following expression the value of SelectedID returns empty.. <%#Convert.ToInt32(Eval("CategoryID")) == Convert.ToInt32(SelectedID) ? "match" : "not a match"%> the value is being set as follows... protected void categoriesCarouselRepeater_ItemCommand(object source, RepeaterCommandEventArgs e) { SelectedID = e.CommandArgument); } Any ideas whats wrong here?

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  • C# Timer -- measuring time slower

    - by Fassenkugel
    I'm writing a code where: I.) The user adds "events" during run-time. (To a flowlayoutpanel) These events are turning some LEDs on/off, after "x" time has elapsed and the LED-turning functions are written in a Led-function.cs class. i.e: 1) Turn left led on After 3500ms 2) Turn right led on After 4000ms II.) When the user hits start a timer starts. // Create timer. System.Timers.Timer _timer; _timer = new System.Timers.Timer(); _timer.Interval = (1); _timer.Elapsed += (sender, e) => { HandleTimerElapsed(LedObject, device, _timer); }; _timer.Start(); III.) The timer's tick event is raised every millisecond and checks if the user definied time has ellapsed. Im measuring the elapsed time with adding +1 to an integer at every tick event. (NumberOfTicks++;) //Timer Handle private void HandleTimerElapsed(Led_Functions LedObject, string device, System.Timers.Timer _timer) { NumberOfTicks++; if (NumberOfTicks >= Start_time[0]) { LedObject.LeftLED_ONnobutton(device); } } IV.) What I noticed was that when the tick was set to 1. (So the tick event is raised every millisecond) Even if I set 3000ms to the evet the LED actually flashed around 6 seconds. When the tick was set to 100. (So every 0,1s) then the flash was more accurate (3,5sec or so). Any Ideas why im having this delay in time? Or do you have any ideas how could I implement it better? Thank you!

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  • Removing Item from Collection / Changing field of Object

    - by x Nuclear 213
    public void searchOwner(List<Appointments> appts, String owner) { Appointments theOne = null; for (Appointments temp : appts) { if (owner.equalsIgnoreCase(temp.owner.name)) { System.out.println(temp.data); temp.setResolved(true); } } } public void checkRemoval() { for (Appointments appts : appointments) { if (appts.resolved == true) { appointments.remove(appts); } //Iterator method used before enhanced for-loop public void checkRemovalI(){ Iterator<Appointments> it = appointments.iterator(); while(it.hasNext()){ if(it.next().resolved = true){ it.remove(); } } } So far this is where I am encountering my problem. I am trying to check the arrayList of Appointments and see if the field (resolved) is set to true, however I am receiving an ConcurrentModification exception during the searchOwner method when trying to set resolved = to true. I've tried using an Iterator in checkRemoval instead of an enhanced for-loop however that didn't help either. I really only need to get the part where the appointment is set to true to work, the checkRemoval seemed to be working early before implementing the changing of the boolean resolved. Any help will be greatly appreciated, thank you.

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  • Flex: Scale an Image so that its width matches contentWidth?

    - by Tong Wang
    I have a dynamic layout, where an image is loaded into an HBox: <mx:HBox ...> <mx:Image height="100%" .../> </mx:HBox> only the image's height is set on the image, so that it can take all the vertical space available, while its width is left undefined and I expect the width to scale accordingly with its height. It turns out that the image's height is equal to its contentHeight, i.e. height scales properly; however, the image's width is still the same as measuredWidth (the image's original width), and is not scaled accordingly. For example, if the image's original size is 800x600 and if the HBox is 300 in height, then image height will scale down to 300, however its width doesn't scale down to 400, instead it stays at 800. I tried to add an event listener to explicitly set the image width: <mx:Image id="img" height="100%" updateComplete="img.width=img.contentWidth;" .../> It works only the first time the image is loaded, after that, if I use Image.load() to dynamically load different images, it stops working - the image width is set to 0. Any help/advice will be highly appreciated.

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  • MVC3 html.TextBox

    - by BigTommy79
    I have login view that takes a LoginPageViewModel: public class LoginPageViewModel : PageViewModel { public string ReturnUrl { get; set; } public bool PreviousLoginFailed { get; set; } public LoginFormViewModel EditForm { get; set; } } which is rendered in the view. When a user tries to log in I only want to post the LoginFormViewModel (Model.EditForm) to the controller: public ActionResult Login(LoginFormViewModel loginDetails) { //do stuff } Using Html.TextBox I can specify the name of the form field manually 'loginDetails.UserName' and post back to the controller and everything works. @model Web.Controllers.User.ViewModels.LoginPageViewModel @using (Html.BeginForm()){ @Html.Hidden("loginDetails.ReturnUrl", Model.ReturnUrl) @Html.LabelFor(x => x.EditForm.UserName, "User Name:") @Html.TextBox("loginDetails.UserName", Model.EditForm.UserName) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(x => x.EditForm.UserName) ..... But what I want to do is to use the staticaly typed helper, something like: @Html.TextBoxFor(x => x.EditForm.UserName) But I'm unable to get this to work. Are you only able to post back the same model when useing the strongly typed helpers? Is there something I'm missing on this? Intellisense doesn't seem to give any clues such as a form field string.

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  • In ArrayBlockingQueue, why copy final member field into local final variable?

    - by mjlee
    In ArrayBlockingQueue, any method that requires lock will get set 'final' local variable before calling 'lock()'. public boolean offer(E e) { if (e == null) throw new NullPointerException(); final ReentrantLock lock = this.lock; lock.lock(); try { if (count == items.length) return false; else { insert(e); return true; } } finally { lock.unlock(); } } Is there any reason to set a local variable 'lock' from 'this.lock' when field 'this.lock' is final also. Additionally, it also set local variable of E[] before acting on. private E extract() { final E[] items = this.items; E x = items[takeIndex]; items[takeIndex] = null; takeIndex = inc(takeIndex); --count; notFull.signal(); return x; } Is there any reason for copying to local final variable?

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  • hibernate annotation bi-directional mapping

    - by smithystar
    I'm building a web application using Spring framework and Hibernate with annotation and get stuck with a simple mapping between two entities. I'm trying to create a many-to-many relationship between User and Course. I followed one of the Hibernate tutorials and my implementation is as follows: User class: @Entity @Table(name="USER") public class User { private Long id; private String email; private String password; private Set<Course> courses = new HashSet<Course>(0); @Id @GeneratedValue @Column(name="USER_ID") public Long getId() { return id; } public void setId(Long id) { this.id = id; } @Column(name="USER_EMAIL") public String getEmail() { return email; } public void setEmail(String email) { this.email = email; } @Column(name="USER_PASSWORD") public String getPassword() { return password; } public void setPassword(String password) { this.password = password; } @ManyToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL) @JoinTable(name = "USER_COURSE", joinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "USER_ID") }, inverseJoinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "COURSE_ID") }) public Set<Course> getCourses() { return courses; } public void setCourses(Set<Course> courses) { this.courses = courses; } } Course class: @Entity @Table(name="COURSE") public class Course { private Long id; private String name; @Id @GeneratedValue @Column(name="COURSE_ID") public Long getId() { return id; } public void setId(Long id) { this.id = id; } @Column(name="NAME") public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } } The problem is that this implementation only allows me to go one way user.getCourses() What do I need to change, so I can go in both directions? user.getCourses() course.getUsers() Any help would be appreciated.

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  • jQuery: Preventing an event from being attached more than once?

    - by Evan Carroll
    Essentially, I have an element FOO that I want when clicked to attach a click event to a completely separate set of elements BAR, so that when they're clicked they can revert FOO to its previous content. I only want this event attached once. When FOO is clicked, its content is cached away in $back_up, and a trigger is added on the BAR set so that when clicked they can revert FOO back to its previous state. Is there a clever way to do this? Like to only .bind() if the event doesn't already exist? $('<div class="noprint little check" />').click( function () { var $warranty_explaination = $(this).closest('.page').children('.warranty_explaination'); var $back_up = $warranty_explaination.clone(true); $(this).closest('.page').find('.warranties .check:not(.noprint)').click( function () { /* This is the code I don't want to fire more than once */ /*, I just want it to be set to whatever is in the $back_up */ alert('reset'); $warranty_explaination.replaceWith( $back_up ) } ); $warranty_explaination.html('asdf') } ) Currently, the best way I can think to do this is to attach a class, and select where that class doesn't exist.

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  • How to add List<> values to gridview?

    - by ranadheer
    I created a asp.net website. and added a class file to it. i wrote this code in classfile.(person.cs) public class Person { public string name{get; set;} public int age { get; set; } public float sal { get; set; } public Person(string n, int a, float s) { name = n; age = a; sal = s; } public List<Person> getDetails() { Person p1 = new Person("John",21,10000); Person p2 = new Person("Smith",22,20000); Person p3 = new Person("Cena",23,30000); List<Person> li = new List<Person>(); li.Add(p1); li.Add(p2); li.Add(p3); return li; } } and i want this list to display in my gridview. so, i have added a default page in website. then what should i write in default.aspx.cs file?so that my list values are shown on gridview? Thanks.

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  • Runtime Error 1004 using Select with several workbooks

    - by Johaen
    I have an Excel workbook which pulls out data from two other workbooks. Since the data changes hourly there is the possibility that this macro is used more than one time a day for the same data. So I just want to select all previous data to this date period and want to delete them. Later on the data will be copied in anyway. But as soon as I want to use WBSH.Range(Cells(j, "A"), Cells(lastRow - 1, "M")).Select the code stopes with Error 1004 Application-defined or object-defined error. Followed just a snippet of the code with the relevant part. What is wrong here? 'Set source workbook Dim currentWb As Workbook Set currentWb = ThisWorkbook Set WBSH = currentWb.Sheets("Tracking") 'Query which data from the tracking files shoud get pulled out to the file CheckDate = Application.InputBox(("From which date you want to get data?" & vbCrLf & "Format: yyyy/mm/dd "), "Tracking data", Format(Date - 1, "yyyy/mm/dd")) 'states the last entry which is done ; know where to start ; currentWb File With currentWb.Sheets("Tracking") lastRow = .Range("D" & .Rows.Count).End(xlUp).Row lastRow = lastRow + 1 End With 'just last 250 entries get checked since not so many entries are made in one week j = lastRow - 250 'Check if there is already data to the look up date in the analyses sheet and if so deletes these records Do j = j + 1 'Exit Sub if there is no data to compare to prevent overflow If WBSH.Cells(j + 1, "C").Value = "" Then Exit Do End If Loop While WBSH.Cells(j, "C").Value < CheckDate If j <> lastRow - 1 Then 'WBSH.Range(Cells(j, "A"), Cells(lastRow - 1, "M")).Select 'Selection.ClearContents End If Thank you!

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  • How can I change the default startup directory for cmd.exe?

    - by Nano HE
    Hi. My Procedure last day as below Click Start, Run and type Regedit.exe Navigate to the following branch: HKEY_CURRENT_USER \ Software \ Microsoft \ Command Processor In the right-pane, double-click Autorun and set the startup folder path as its data, preceded by “CD /d “. If Autorun value is missing, you need to create one, of type REG_EXPAND_SZ or REG_SZ in the above location. Example: To set the startup directory to D:\learning\perl, set the Autorun value data to CD /d D:\learning\perl Then I clicked Start, run and type cmd. It successfully. I could do perl practice more conveniently now. But today, I find when I try to build my Visual Studio 2005 solution which included some Pre-build event Command like this: perl.exe MyAppVersion.pl perl.exe AttrScan.pl It doesn't work. Show error: can't find the path. I check the environment variable setting and find the variable-path and it's value-c:\perl\bin\; still exist. Finially, I try to removed the Regedit.exe configuration "Autorun" value and test again. The issue fixed. I only changed the default startup directory for cmd.exe command. Why the pre-build event perl command was impacted? (I am using winxp and activePerl 5.8)

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  • Dynamic content in a Gridview

    - by mariki
    I have a gridview with couple of columns,I want to achieve the following: If user is NOT authorized display normal columns. If user IS authorized: set mouseover event for first column text and display some buttons (that are not available for NOT authorized users) in a second column when user hover over(using javascript) the first column. I am have 2 difficulties: The first one where and when should I create the buttons? I have 2 options, I can create those button on design time, in gridviews template and just set Visible value to false and then in codebehind set it to true if user is authorized. The second option would be creating this buttons dynamically in gridview_RowCreated event (or any other event) if user is authorized. The Second difficulty is setting the javascript event to show the buttons, the event should be added only if user is authorized! Note that event and buttons should have some kind of id match for Javascript function to know what should it hide/unhide when event is triggered. What should I do, what is the best practice? I know this is a long question, but please try to help :)

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  • WPF Binding Path=/ not working?

    - by Mark
    I've set up my DataContext like this: <Window.DataContext> <c:DownloadManager /> </Window.DataContext> Where DownloadManager is Enumerable<DownloadItem>. Then I set my DataGrid like this: <DataGrid Name="dataGrid1" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=/}" ... So that it should list all the DownloadItems, right? So I should be able to set my columns like: <DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding Path=Uri, Mode=OneWay}" Where Uri is a property of the DownloadItem. But it doesn't seem to like this. In the visual property editor, it doesn't recognize Uri is a valid property, so I'm guessing I'm doing something wrong. It was working before, when I had the data grid binding to Values, but then I took that enumerable out of the DownloadManager and made itself enumerable. How do I fix this? PS: By "doesn't work" I mean it doesn't list any items. I've added some to the constructor of the DM, so it shouldn't be empty.

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  • How to find unmapped properties in a NHibernate mapped class?

    - by haarrrgh
    I just had a NHibernate related problem where I forgot to map one property of a class. A very simplified example: public class MyClass { public virtual int ID { get; set; } public virtual string SomeText { get; set; } public virtual int SomeNumber { get; set; } } ...and the mapping file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="MyAssembly" namespace="MyAssembly.MyNamespace"> <class name="MyClass" table="SomeTable"> <property name="ID" /> <property name="SomeText" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping> In this simple example, you can see the problem at once: there is a property named "SomeNumber" in the class, but not in the mapping file. So NHibernate will not map it and it will always be zero. The real class had a lot more properties, so the problem was not as easy to see and it took me quite some time to figure out why SomeNumber always returned zero even though I was 100% sure that the value in the database was != zero. So, here is my question: Is there some simple way to find this out via NHibernate? Like a compiler warning when a class is mapped, but some of its properties are not. Or some query that I can run that shows me unmapped properties in mapped classes...you get the idea. (Plus, it would be nice if I could exclude some legacy columns that I really don't want mapped.)

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  • Checking servlet session attribute value in jsp file

    - by Marta
    I have a no framework java application. It consists of jsp files for view and servlets for the business logic. I must set the user session is the servlet with a firstName parameter. In the jsp file, I need to check if my firstName parameter has a value or not. If the firstName parameter is set, I need to display some html in the jsp file. If it is not set, I need to display different html in the jsp file. Servlet.java: HttpSession session = request.getSession(); session.setAttribute("firstName", customer.getFristName()); String url = "/index.jsp"; RequestDispatcher dispatcher = getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher(url); dispatcher.forward(request, response); header.jsp: // Between the <p> tags bellow I need to put some HTML with the following rules // If firstName exist: Hello ${firstName} <a href="logout.jsp">Log out</a> // Else: <a href="login.jsp">Login</a> or <a href="register.jsp">Register</a> <p class="credentials" id="cr"></p> What would be the best way to do this? Any help is much appreciated! Thank you in advance. -Marta

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  • Retain numerical precision in an R data frame?

    - by David
    When I create a dataframe from numeric vectors, R seems to truncate the value below the precision that I require in my analysis: data.frame(x=0.99999996) returns 1 (see update 1) I am stuck when fitting spline(x,y) and two of the x values are set to 1 due to rounding while y changes. I could hack around this but I would prefer to use a standard solution if available. example Here is an example data set d <- data.frame(x = c(0.668732936336141, 0.95351462456867, 0.994620622127435, 0.999602102672081, 0.999987126195509, 0.999999955814133, 0.999999999999966), y = c(38.3026509783688, 11.5895099585560, 10.0443344234229, 9.86152339768516, 9.84461434575695, 9.81648333804257, 9.83306725758297)) The following solution works, but I would prefer something that is less subjective: plot(d$x, d$y, ylim=c(0,50)) lines(spline(d$x, d$y),col='grey') #bad fit lines(spline(d[-c(4:6),]$x, d[-c(4:6),]$y),col='red') #reasonable fit Update 1 Since posting this question, I realize that this will return 1 even though the data frame still contains the original value, e.g. > dput(data.frame(x=0.99999999996)) returns structure(list(x = 0.99999999996), .Names = "x", row.names = c(NA, -1L), class = "data.frame") Update 2 After using dput to post this example data set, and some pointers from Dirk, I can see that the problem is not in the truncation of the x values but the limits of the numerical errors in the model that I have used to calculate y. This justifies dropping a few of the equivalent data points (as in the example red line).

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  • Implementing IEnumeralbe on Non-Listed Items

    - by Stacey
    I have a class that contains a static number of objects. This class needs to be frequently 'compared' to other classes that will be simple List objects. public partial class Sheet { public Item X{ get; set; } public Item Y{ get; set; } public Item Z{ get; set; } } the items are obviously not going to be "X" "Y" "Z", those are just generic names for example. The problem is that due to the nature of what needs to be done, a List won't work; even though everything in here is going to be of type Item. It is like a checklist of very specific things that has to be tested against in both code and runtime. This works all fine and well; it isn't my issue. My issue is iterating it. For instance I want to do the following... List<Item> UncheckedItems = // Repository Logic Here. UncheckedItems contains all available items; and the CheckedItems is the Sheet class instance. CheckedItems will contain items that were moved from Unchecked to Checked; however due to the nature of the storage system, items moved to Checked CANNOT be REMOVED from Unchecked. I simply want to iterate through "Checked" and remove anything from the list in Unchecked that is already in "Checked". So naturally, that would go like this with a normal list. foreach(Item item in Unchecked) { if( Checked.Contains(item) ) Unchecked.Remove( item ); } But since "Sheet" is not a 'List', I cannot do that. So I wanted to implement IEnumerable so that I could. Any suggestions? I've never implemented IEnumerable directly before and I'm pretty confused as to where to begin.

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  • Why does the VS2005 debugger not report "base." values properly? (was "Why is this if statement fail

    - by Rawling
    I'm working on an existing class that is two steps derived from System.Windows.Forms.Combo box. The class overrides the Text property thus: public override string Text { get { return this.AccessibilityObject.Value; } set { if (base.Text != value) { base.Text = value; } } } The reason given for that "get" is this MS bug: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/814346 However, I'm more interested in the fact that the "if" doesn't work. There are times where "base.Text != value" is true and yet pressing F10 steps straight to the closing } of the "set" and the Text property is not changed. I've seen this both by just checking values in the debugger, and putting a conditional breakpoint on that only breaks when the "if" statement's predicate is true. How on earth can "if" go wrong? The class between this and ComboBox doesn't touch the Text property. The bug above shouldn't really be affecting anything - it says it's fixed in VS2005. Is the debugger showing different values than the program itself sees? Update I think I've found what is happening here. The debugger is reporting value incorrectly (including evaluating conditional breakpoints incorrectly). To see this, try the following pair of classes: class MyBase { virtual public string Text { get { return "BaseText"; } } } class MyDerived : MyBase { public override string Text { get { string test = base.Text; return "DerivedText"; } } } Put a breakpoint on the last return statement, then run the code and access that property. In my VS2005, hovering over base.Text gives the value "DerivedText", but the variable test has been correctly set to "BaseText". So, new question: why does the debugger not handle base properly, and how can I get it to?

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  • Get Multiple Values From Database ASP.NET/C#

    - by user1043177
    I am trying to get/return multiple values from an SQL-Server database using and display them on an ASP.NET page. I am using a stored procedure to perform the SELECT command on the Database side. I am able to return the first value that matches the variable @PERSON but only one row is returned each time. Any help would be much appreciated. Database handler class public MainSQL() { _productConn = new SqlConnection(); _productConnectionString += "data source=mssql.database.co.uk;InitialCatalog=test_data;User ID=username;Password=password"; _productConn.ConnectionString = _productConnectionString; } public string GetItemName(int PersonID) { string returnvalue = string.Empty; SqlCommand myCommand = new SqlCommand("GetItem", _productConn); myCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; myCommand.Parameters.Add(new SqlParameter("@PERSON", SqlDbType.Int)); myCommand.Parameters[0].Value = PersonID; _productConn.Open(); returnvalue = (string)myCommand.ExecuteScalar(); _productConn.Close(); return (string)returnvalue; } Stored Procedure USE [test_data] GO SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [ppir].[GetItem] ( @PERSON int ) AS /*SET NOCOUNT ON;*/ SELECT Description FROM [Items] WHERE PersonID = @PERSON RETURN return.aspx namespace test { public partial class Final_Page : System.Web.UI.Page { MainSQL GetInfo; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { int PersonId = (int)Session["PersonID"]; GetInfo = new MainSQL(); string itemname = GetInfo.GetItemName(PersonId); ReturnItemName.Text = itemname; } // End Page_Load } // End Class } // End Namespace

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  • Setting Icon for wpf application (VS 08)

    - by baron
    Hi everyone, Before going much further i'll mention I have tried solutions in following: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/320677/how-do-i-set-the-icon-for-my-application-in-visual-studio-2008 http://stackoverflow.com/questions/198848/set-application-icon-from-resources-in-vs-05 I am trying to set an icon for my application. AFAIK, I need potentially 3 images? 1 image is the actual image in explorer when clicking on the .exe (thumbnail for the exe) 1 image (tiny) in the top left corner (16 x 16? Not entirely sure) 1 image in the start menu dock, to the left of the app (maybe 32x32? again not sure) So thats fine. Now I have selected an Icon. How do I use it in one of above situations? I have tried adding it in resources, nothing seems to happen. Following that first SO solution, "First go to Resource View (from menu: View -- Other Window -- Resource View). Then in Resource View navigate through resources, if any. If there is already a resource of Icon type, added by Visual Studio, then open and edit it. Otherwise right-click and select Add Resource, and then add a new icon." The resource view is empty, and I cannot right click in this view. If I right click on the solution properties resources I can add the icon image, but it doesn't show in either of the locations listed above. (or anywhere that I can see) What am I doing wrong?

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  • Granting administrator privileges to an application launched at startup without UAC prompt?

    - by iKenndac
    Background I've written a small C#/.NET 4.0 application that syncs various settings from a game installed in Program Files to and from other copies of the same game on different machines (think Chrome bookmark sync, but for this game). The sync itself is a relatively simple affair, dealing with files stored inside the game's Program Files folder. On my machine, this works fine without having to elevate my application through UAC. Windows 7 makes the game use Program Files virtualisation and my application works fine with that. However, on a lot of tester's machines, I'm getting reports that the application either can't work with the files and in come cases can't even see the game's folder! Having the user right-click and "Run as Administrator" solves the problem in every case. So, we just set the application's manifest to require admin privileges, right? That's fine (although not ideal) for when the user manually invokes the application or the sync process because they'll be interacting with the application and ready to accept a UAC request. However, one of the features of my application is a "Sync Automatically" option, which allows the user to "set and forget" the application. With this set, the application puts itself into the registry at HKCU\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run to be run at startup and sits in the system tray syncing the settings in the background as needed. Obviously, I need to be smarter here. Presenting a UAC prompt as soon as the user logs in to their account or at random intervals afterwards isn't the way forwards. So, my question! What's the best way to approach a situation where I'd need to run an application at startup that needs administrator privileges? Is there a way to have the user authorise an installation that causes the system to automatically run the application with the correct privileges without a prompt at startup/login?

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  • Does anyone know of any good tutorials for using the APIs from Amazon WeB Services, namely CloudWatc

    - by undefined
    Hi, I have been wrestling with Amazon's CloudWatch API with limited success. Does anyone know of any good resources (other than amazon's api docs) for using the APIs. I have tried to run them using the PHP library for CloudWatch but get nothing but error codes. I am configuring the GetMetricStatisticsSample.php file as follows: $request = array(); $endTime = date("Y-m-d G:i:s"); $yesterday = mktime (date("H"), date("i"), date("s"), date("m"), date("d")-1, date("Y")); $startTime = date("Y-m-d 00:00:00", $yesterday); $request["Statistics.member.1"] = "Average"; $request["EndTime"] = $endTime; $request["StartTime"] = $startTime; $request["MeasureName"] = "CPUUtilization"; $request["Unit"] = "Percent"; invokeGetMetricStatistics($service, $request); But this returns "Caught Exception: Internal Error Response Status Code: 400 Error Code: Error Type: Request ID: XML:" I have also tried from command line as follows - set JAVA_HOME=C:\Program Files\Java\jre1.6.0_05 set AWS_CLOUDWATCH_HOME=C:\AmazonWebServices\API_tools\CloudWatch-1.0.0.24 set PATH=%AWS_CLOUDWATCH_HOME%\bin mon-list-metrics but get C:|Program' is not recognized as an internal or external command... any suggestions? cheers

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  • In SQL, why is "select *, count(*) from sentGifts group by whenSent;" ok, but when "*" and "count(*)

    - by Jian Lin
    In SQL, using the table: mysql> select * from sentGifts; +--------+------------+--------+------+---------------------+--------+ | sentID | whenSent | fromID | toID | trytryWhen | giftID | +--------+------------+--------+------+---------------------+--------+ | 1 | 2010-04-24 | 123 | 456 | 2010-04-24 01:52:20 | 100 | | 2 | 2010-04-24 | 123 | 4568 | 2010-04-24 01:56:04 | 100 | | 3 | 2010-04-24 | 123 | NULL | NULL | 1 | | 4 | 2010-04-24 | NULL | 111 | 2010-04-24 03:10:42 | 2 | | 5 | 2010-03-03 | 11 | 22 | 2010-03-03 00:00:00 | 6 | | 6 | 2010-04-24 | 11 | 222 | 2010-04-24 03:54:49 | 6 | | 7 | 2010-04-24 | 1 | 2 | 2010-04-24 03:58:45 | 6 | +--------+------------+--------+------+---------------------+--------+ 7 rows in set (0.00 sec) The following is OK: mysql> select *, count(*) from sentGifts group by whenSent; +--------+------------+--------+------+---------------------+--------+----------+ | sentID | whenSent | fromID | toID | trytryWhen | giftID | count(*) | +--------+------------+--------+------+---------------------+--------+----------+ | 5 | 2010-03-03 | 11 | 22 | 2010-03-03 00:00:00 | 6 | 1 | | 1 | 2010-04-24 | 123 | 456 | 2010-04-24 01:52:20 | 100 | 6 | +--------+------------+--------+------+---------------------+--------+----------+ 2 rows in set (0.00 sec) But suppose we want the count(*) to appear as the first column: mysql> select count(*), * from sentGifts group by whenSent; ERROR 1064 (42000): You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '* from sentGifts group by whenSent' at line 1 it gave an error. Why is it so and what is a way to fix it? I realized that this is ok: mysql> select count(*), whenSent from sentGifts group by whenSent; +----------+------------+ | count(*) | whenSent | +----------+------------+ | 1 | 2010-03-03 | | 6 | 2010-04-24 | +----------+------------+ 2 rows in set (0.00 sec) but what about the one above that gave an error? thanks.

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  • cURL/PHP Request Executes 50% of the Time

    - by makavelli
    After searching all over, I can't understand why cURL requests issued to a remote SSL-enabled host are successful only 50% or so of the time in my case. Here's the situation: I have a sequence of cURL requests, all of them issued to a HTTPS remote host, within a single PHP script that I run using the PHP CLI. Occasionally when I run the script the requests execute successfully, but for some reason most of the times I run it I get the following error from cURL: * About to connect() to www.virginia.edu port 443 (#0) * Trying 128.143.22.36... * connected * Connected to www.virginia.edu (128.143.22.36) port 443 (#0) * successfully set certificate verify locations: * CAfile: none CApath: /etc/ssl/certs * error:140943FC:SSL routines:SSL3_READ_BYTES:sslv3 alert bad record mac * Closing connection #0 If I try again a few times I get the same result, but then after a few tries the requests will go through successfully. Running the script after that again results in an error, and the pattern continues. Researching the error 'alert bad record mac' didn't give me anything helpful, and I hesitate to blame it on an SSL issue since the script still runs occasionally. I'm on Ubuntu Server 10.04, with php5 and php5-curl installed, as well as the latest version of openssl. In terms of cURL specific options, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER is set to false, and both CURLOPT_TIMEOUT and CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT are set to 4 seconds. Further illustrating this problem is the fact that the same exact situation occurs on my Mac OS X dev machine - the requests only go through ~50% of the time.

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  • Python - Access a class from a list using a key

    - by Fake Name
    Is there any way to make a list of classes behave like a set in python? Basically, I'm working on a piece of software that does some involved string comparison, and I have a custom class for handling the strings. Therefore, there is an instance of the class for each string. As a result, I have a large list containing all these classes. I would like to be able to access them like list[key], where in this case, the key is a string the class is based off of. It seems to me that I sould be able to do this somewhat easily, by adding something like __cmp__ to the class, but either I'm being obtuse (likely), or Im missing someting in the docs. Basically, I want to be able to do something like this (Python prompt example): >>class a: ... def __init__(self, x): ... self.var = x ... >>> from test import a >>> cl = set([a("Hello"), a("World"), a("Pie")]) >>> print cl set([<test.a instance at 0x00C866C0>, <test.a instance at 0x00C866E8>, <test.a instance at 0x00C86710>]) >>> cl["World"] <test.a instance at 0x00C866E8> Thanks!

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