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  • How to (unit-)test data intensive PL/SQL application

    - by doom2.wad
    Our team is willing to unit-test a new code written under a running project extending an existing huge Oracle system. The system is written solely in PL/SQL, consists of thousands of tables, hundreds of stored procedures packages, mostly getting data from tables and/or inserting/updating other data. Our extension is not an exception. Most functions return data from a quite complex SELECT statementa over many mutually bound tables (with a little added logic before returning them) or make transformation from one complicated data structure to another (complicated in another way). What is the best approach to unit-test such code? There are no unit tests for existing code base. To make things worse, only packages, triggers and views are source-controlled, table structures (including "alter table" stuff and necessary data transformations are deployed via channel other than version control). There is no way to change this within our project's scope. Maintaining testing data set seems to be impossible since there is new code deployed to the production environment on weekly basis, usually without prior notice, often changing data structure (add a column here, remove one there). I'd be glad for any suggestion or reference to help us. Some team members tend to be tired by figuring out how to even start for our experience with unit-testing does not cover PL/SQL data intensive legacy systems (only those "from-the-book" greenfield Java projects).

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  • Class initialization and synchronized class method

    - by nybon
    Hi there, In my application, there is a class like below: public class Client { public synchronized static print() { System.out.println("hello"); } static { doSomething(); // which will take some time to complete } } This class will be used in a multi thread environment, many threads may call the Client.print() method simultaneously. I wonder if there is any chance that thread-1 triggers the class initialization, and before the class initialization complete, thread-2 enters into print method and print out the "hello" string? I see this behavior in a production system (64 bit JVM + Windows 2008R2), however, I cannot reproduce this behavior with a simple program in any environments. In Java language spec, section 12.4.1 (http://java.sun.com/docs/books/jls/second_edition/html/execution.doc.html), it says: A class or interface type T will be initialized immediately before the first occurrence of any one of the following: T is a class and an instance of T is created. T is a class and a static method declared by T is invoked. A static field declared by T is assigned. A static field declared by T is used and the reference to the field is not a compile-time constant (§15.28). References to compile-time constants must be resolved at compile time to a copy of the compile-time constant value, so uses of such a field never cause initialization. According to this paragraph, the class initialization will take place before the invocation of the static method, however, it is not clear if the class initialization need to be completed before the invocation of the static method. JVM should mandate the completion of class initialization before entering its static method according to my intuition, and some of my experiment supports my guess. However, I did see the opposite behavior in another environment. Can someone shed me some light on this? Any help is appreciated, thanks.

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  • Can a page opt out of IIS 7 compression?

    - by Glen Little
    My pages are automatically being compressed by IIS7 with GZIP. That is great... but, for one particular page, I need to stream it to the user, using Response.Flush() when needed. But when the output is being compressed, the IIS server seems to collect all my output until the page is done before compressing and sending it to the client. That nullifies my attempt to Flush the content out to the user. Is there a way that I can have this one page opt out of the compression? One possible option I've determined that if I manually set the content type to one that does not match the IIS configuration at c:\windows\system32\inetsrv\config\applicationhost.config, then IIS will not compress it. Eg. Response.ContentType = "x-text/html". This works okay with IE8, as it falls back to display the HTML. But Firefox will ask the user what to do with the unknown file type. This could work, if there was another Mime Type I could use that browsers would accept as HTML, that is not matched in the applicationhost.config. For reference, these are the mime types that will be compressed: <add mimeType="text/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="message/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/x-javascript" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/atom+xml" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/xaml+xml" enabled="true" /> Others options? Are there other options to opt out of compression?

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  • Emptying the datastore in GAE

    - by colwilson
    I know what you're thinking, 'O not that again!', but here we are since Google have not yet provided a simpler method. I have been using a queue based solution which worked fine: import datetime from models import * DELETABLE_MODELS = [Alpha, Beta, AlphaBeta] def initiate_purge(): for e in config.DELETABLE_MODELS: deferred.defer(delete_entities, e, 'purging', _queue = 'purging') class NotEmptyException(Exception): pass def delete_entities(e, queue): try: q = e.all(keys_only=True) db.delete(q.fetch(200)) ct = q.count(1) if ct > 0: raise NotEmptyException('there are still entities to be deleted') else: logging.info('processing %s completed' % queue) except Exception, err: deferred.defer(delete_entities, e, then, queue, _queue = queue) logging.info('processing %s deferred: %s' % (queue, err)) All this does is queue a request to delete some data (once for each class) and then if the queued process either fails or knows there is still some stuff to delete, it re-queues itself. This beats the heck out of hitting the refresh on a browser for 10 minutes. However, I'm having trouble deleting AlphaBeta entities, there are always a few left at the end. I think because it contains Reference Properties: class AlphaBeta(db.Model): alpha = db.ReferenceProperty(Alpha, required=True, collection_name='betas') beta = db.ReferenceProperty(Beta, required=True, collection_name='alphas') I have tried deleting the indexes relating to these entity types, but that did not make any difference. Any advice would be appreciated please.

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  • How to deserialize implementation classes in OSGi

    - by Daniel Schneller
    In an eRCP OSGi based application the user can push a button and go to a lock screen similar to that of Windows or Mac OS X. When this happens, the current state of the application is serialized to a file and control is handed over to the lock screen. In this mobile application memory is very tight, so we need to get rid of the original view/controller when the lock screen comes up. This works fine and we end up with a binary serialized file. Once the user logs back in, the file is read in again and the original state of the application restored. This works fine as well, except when the controller that was serialized contained a reference to an object which comes from a different bundle. In my concrete case the original controller (from bundle A) can call a web service and gets a result back. Nothing fancy, just some Strings and Numbers in a simple value holder class. However the controller only sees this as a Result interface; the actual runtime object (ResultImpl) is defined and created in a different bundle (bundle B, the webservice client implementation) and returned via a service call. When the deserialization now tries to thaw the controller from the file, it throws a ClassNotFound exception, complaining about not being able to deserialize the result object, because deserialization is called from bundle A, which cannot see the ResultImpl class from bundle B. Any ideas on how to work around that? The only thing I could come up with is to clone all the individual values into another object, defined in the controller's bundle, but this seems like quite a hassle.

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  • Using jQuery with Windows 8 Metro JavaScript App causes security error

    - by patridge
    Since it sounded like jQuery was an option for Metro JavaScript apps, I was starting to look forward to Windows 8 dev. I installed Visual Studio 2012 Express RC and started a new project (both empty and grid templates have the same problem). I made a local copy of jQuery 1.7.2 and added it as a script reference. <!-- SomeTestApp references --> <link href="/css/default.css" rel="stylesheet" /> <script src="/js/jquery-1.7.2.js"></script> <script src="/js/default.js"></script> Unfortunately, as soon as I ran the resulting app it tosses out a console error: HTML1701: Unable to add dynamic content ' a' A script attempted to inject dynamic content, or elements previously modified dynamically, that might be unsafe. For example, using the innerHTML property to add script or malformed HTML will generate this exception. Use the toStaticHTML method to filter dynamic content, or explicitly create elements and attributes with a method such as createElement. For more information, see http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkID=247104. I slapped a breakpoint in a non-minified version of jQuery and found the offending line: div.innerHTML = " <link/><table></table><a href='/a' style='top:1px;float:left;opacity:.55;'>a</a><input type='checkbox'/>"; Apparently, the security model for Metro apps forbids creating elements this way. This error doesn't cause any immediate issues for the user, but given its location, I am worried it will cause capability-discovery tests in jQuery to fail that shouldn't. I definitely want jQuery $.Deferred for making just about everything easier. I would prefer to be able to use the selector engine and event handling systems, but I would live without them if I had to. How does one get the latest jQuery to play nicely with Metro development?

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  • Core Data confusion: fetch without tableview.

    - by Mr. McPepperNuts
    I have completed and reproduced Core Data tutorials using a tableview to display contents. However, I want to access an Entity through a fetch on a view without a tableview. I used the following fetch code, but the count returned is always 0. The data exists when the database is opened using SQLite tools. NSManagedObject *entryObj; XYZDelegate *appDelegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext = appDelegate.managedObjectContext; NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Quote" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"id" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [request setEntity: entity]; NSArray *results = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:nil]; if (results == nil) { NSLog(@"No results found"); entryObj = nil; }else { NSLog(@"results %d", [results count]); } [request release]; [sortDescriptors release]; count returned is always 0; it should be 5. Can anyone point me to a reference or tutorial regarding creating a controller not to be used with a tableview.

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  • Rtti data manipulation and consistency in Delphi 2010

    - by Coco
    Has anyone an idea, how I can make TValue using a reference to the original data? In my serialization project, I use (as suggested in XML-Serialization) a generic serializer which stores TValues in an internal tree-structure (similar to the MemberMap in the example). This member-tree should also be used to create a dynamic setup form and manipulate the data. My idea was to define a property for the Data: TDataModel <T> = class {...} private FData : TValue; function GetData : T; procedure SetData (Value : T); public property Data : T read GetData write SetData; end; The implementation of the GetData, SetData Methods: procedure TDataModel <T>.SetData (Value : T); begin FData := TValue.From <T> (Value); end; procedure TDataModel <T>.GetData : T; begin Result := FData.AsType <T>; end; Unfortunately, the TValue.From method always makes a copy of the original data. So whenever the application makes changes to the data, the DataModel is not updated and vice versa if I change my DataModel in a dynamic form, the original data is not affected. Sure I could always use the Data property before and after changing anything, but as I use lot of Rtti inside my DataModel, I do not realy want to do this anytime. Perhaps someone has a better suggestion?

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  • Accessing Web.config directly in ASP.NET MVC 1

    - by Neil T.
    I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve?

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  • MVC View Model Intellesense / Compile error

    - by Marty Trenouth
    I have one Library with my ORM and am working with a MVC Application. I have a problem where the pages won't compile because the Views can't see the Model's properties (which are inherited from lower level base classes). They system throws a compile error saying that 'object' does not contain a definition for 'ID' and no extension method 'ID' accepting a first argument of type 'object' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) implying that the View is not seeing the model. In the Controller I have full access to the Model and have check the Inherits from portion of the view to validate the correct type is being passed. Controller: return View(new TeraViral_Blog()); View: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<com.models.TeraViral_Blog>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> Index2 </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2>Index2</h2> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <p> ID: <%= Html.Encode(Model.ID) %> </p> </fieldset> </asp:Content>

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  • Closures in Ruby

    - by Isaac Cambron
    I'm kind of new to Ruby and some of the closure logic has me a confused. Consider this code: array = [] for i in (1..5) array << lambda {j} end array.map{|f| f.call} => [5, 5, 5, 5, 5] This makes sense to me because i is bound outside the loop, so the same variable is captured by each trip through the loop. It also makes sense to me that using an each block can fix this: array = [] (1..5).each{|i| array << lambda {i}} array.map{|f| f.call} => [1, 2, 3, 4, 5] ...because i is now being declared separately for each time through. But now I get lost: why can't I also fix it by introducing an intermediate variable? array = [] for i in 1..5 j = i array << lambda {j} end array.map{|f| f.call} => [5, 5, 5, 5, 5] Because j is new each time through the loop, I'd think a different variable would be captured on each pass. For example, this is definitely how C# works, and how -- I think-- Lisp behaves with a let. But in Ruby not so much. It almost looks like = is aliasing the variable instead of copying the reference, but that's just speculation on my part. What's really happening?

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  • Cocoa framework development: sharing between projects

    - by e.James
    I am currently developing a handful of similar Cocoa desktop apps. In an effort to share code between them, I have identified a set of core classes and functions that can be common across all of these applications. I would like to bundle this common code into a framework which all of my current applications (and any future ones) can link against. Now, here's the hard part: I'm going to be developing this framework as I go, so I need each of my desktop apps to have a reference to it, but I want to be able to edit the framework source code from within each of the app projects and have the framework automatically rebuilt as required. For example, let's say I have the Xcode project for DesktopAppNumberOne open, and I decide that one of my framework classes needs to be changed. I would like to: Open and edit the source file for that framework class without having to open the framework project in Xcode. Hit "build" on DesktopAppNumberOne, and see the framework rebuilt first (because one of its sources has changed), then see parts of DesktopAppNumberOne rebuilt (because one of the frameworks it links against has changed). I can see how to do this with only one app and one framework, but I'm having trouble figuring out how to do it with multiple apps that share a single framework. Has anyone had success with this approach? Am I perhaps going about this the wrong way? Any help would be appreciated.

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  • How to use a VB usercontrol on a C# page?

    - by ks78
    Hopefully someone will be able to point me in the right direction. I've created a usercontrol in VB that handles paging more efficiently than the DataPager (at least for very large datasets). I'd like to use it in a C# project, but I've been having trouble getting it to work. I've tried simply adding PagingControl.ascx to the C# project, but when I do that the markup and VB code behind don't seem to see each other. --Is this a namespace issue? I've tried adding the PagingControl.ascx to its own VB project, then adding that project to the C# project's solution, as well as a reference. --That almost works. I can register the PagingControl usercontrol in the markup. I can access the usercontrol's properties in the code behind, but any property that involves the UI of the usercontrol fails. Its seems as if the usercontrol's form hasn't had a chance to load by the time the C# page's Page_Load event handler fires. --Maybe this is an "order of operations" problem? At what point in the C# page's lifetime should a usercontrol's form be loaded? If anyone has any ideas or insight, I'd really appreciate it. Thanks in advance.

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  • How to find Tomcat's PID and kill it in python?

    - by 4herpsand7derpsago
    Normally, one shuts down Apache Tomcat by running its shutdown.sh script (or batch file). In some cases, such as when Tomcat's web container is hosting a web app that does some crazy things with multi-threading, running shutdown.sh gracefully shuts down some parts of Tomcat (as I can see more available memory returning to the system), but the Tomcat process keeps running. I'm trying to write a simple Python script that: Calls shutdown.sh Runs ps -aef | grep tomcat to find any process with Tomcat referenced If applicable, kills the process with kill -9 <PID> Here's what I've got so far (as a prototype - I'm brand new to Python BTW): #!/usr/bin/python # Imports import sys import subprocess # Load from imported module. if __init__ == "__main__": main() # Main entry point. def main(): # Shutdown Tomcat shutdownCmd = "sh ${TOMCAT_HOME}/bin/shutdown.sh" subprocess.call([shutdownCmd], shell=true) # Check for PID grepCmd = "ps -aef | grep tomcat" grepResults = subprocess.call([grepCmd], shell=true) if(grepResult.length > 1): # Get PID and kill it. pid = ??? killPidCmd = "kill -9 $pid" subprocess.call([killPidCmd], shell=true) # Exit. sys.exit() I'm struggling with the middle part - with obtaining the grep results, checking to see if their size is greater than 1 (since grep always returns a reference to itself, at least 1 result will always be returned, methinks), and then parsing that returned PID and passing it into the killPidCmd. Thanks in advance!

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  • Trying to calculate large numbers in Python with gmpy. Python keeps crashing?

    - by Ryan Peschel
    I was recommended to use gmpy to assist with calculating large numbers efficiently. Before I was just using python and my script ran for a day or two and then ran out of memory (not sure how that happened because my program's memory usage should basically be constant throughout.. maybe a memory leak?) Anyways, I keep getting this weird error after running my program for a couple seconds: mp_allocate< 545275904->545275904 > Fatal Python error: mp_allocate failure This application has requested the Runtime to terminate it in an unusual way. Please contact the application's support team for more information. Also, python crashes and Windows 7 gives me the generic python.exe has stopped working dialog. This wasn't happening with using standard python integers. Now that I switch to gmpy I am getting this error just seconds in to running my script. I thought gmpy was specialized in dealing with large number arithmetic? For reference, here is a sample program that produces the error: import gmpy2 p = gmpy2.xmpz(3000000000) s = gmpy2.xmpz(2) M = s**p for x in range(p): s = (s * s) % M I have 10 gigs of RAM and without gmpy this script ran for days without running out of memory (still not sure how that happened considering s never really gets larger.. Anyone have any ideas? EDIT: Forgot to mention I am using Python 3.2

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  • How to detect that the internet connection has got disconnected through a java desktop application?

    - by Yatendra Goel
    I am developing a Java Desktop Application that access internet. It is a multi-threaded application, each thread do the same work (means each thread is an instance of same Thread class). Now, as all the threads need internet connection to be active, there should be some mechanism that detects whether an internet connection is active or not. Q1. How to detect whether the internet connection is active or not? Q2. Where to implement this internet-status-check-mechanism code? Should I start a separate thread for checking internet status regularly and notifies all the threads when the status changes from one state to another? Or should I let each thread check for the internet-status itself? Q3. This issue should be a very common issue as every application accessing an internet should deal with this problem. So how other developers usually deal with this problem? Q4. If you could give me a reference to a good demo application that addresses this issue then it would greatly help me.

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  • Creating a Ruby method that pads an Array

    - by CJ Johnson
    I'm working on creating a method that pads an array, and accepts 1. a desired value and 2. an optional string/integer value. Desired_size reflects the desired number of elements in the array. If a string/integer is passed in as the second value, this value is used to pad the array with extra elements. I understand there is a 'fill' method that can shortcut this - but that would be cheating for the homework I'm doing. The issue: no matter what I do, only the original array is returned. I started here: class Array def pad(desired_size, value = nil) desired_size >= self.length ? return self : (desired_size - self.length).times.do { |x| self << value } end end test_array = [1, 2, 3] test_array.pad(5) From what I researched the issue seemed to be around trying to alter self's array, so I learned about .inject and gave that a whirl: class Array def pad(desired_size, value = nil) if desired_size >= self.length return self else (desired_size - self.length).times.inject { |array, x| array << value } return array end end end test_array = [1, 2, 3] test_array.pad(5) The interwebs tell me the problem might be with any reference to self so I wiped that out altogether: class Array def pad(desired_size, value = nil) array = [] self.each { |x| array << x } if desired_size >= array.length return array else (desired_size - array.length).times.inject { |array, x| array << value } return array end end end test_array = [1, 2, 3] test_array.pad(5) I'm very new to classes and still trying to learn about them. Maybe I'm not even testing them the right way with my test_array? Otherwise, I think the issue is I get the method to recognize the desired_size value that's being passed in. I don't know where to go next. Any advice would be appreciated. Thanks in advance for your time.

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  • c++ Design pattern for CoW, inherited classes, and variable shared data?

    - by krunk
    I've designed a copy-on-write base class. The class holds the default set of data needed by all children in a shared data model/CoW model. The derived classes also have data that only pertains to them, but should be CoW between other instances of that derived class. I'm looking for a clean way to implement this. If I had a base class FooInterface with shared data FooDataPrivate and a derived object FooDerived. I could create a FooDerivedDataPrivate. The underlying data structure would not effect the exposed getters/setters API, so it's not about how a user interfaces with the objects. I'm just wondering if this is a typical MO for such cases or if there's a better/cleaner way? What peeks my interest, is I see the potential of inheritance between the the private data classes. E.g. FooDerivedDataPrivate : public FooDataPrivate, but I'm not seeing a way to take advantage of that polymorphism in my derived classes. class FooDataPrivate { public: Ref ref; // atomic reference counting object int a; int b; int c; }; class FooInterface { public: // constructors and such // .... // methods are implemented to be copy on write. void setA(int val); void setB(int val); void setC(int val); // copy constructors, destructors, etc. all CoW friendly private: FooDataPrivate *data; }; class FooDerived : public FooInterface { public: FooDerived() : FooInterface() {} private: // need more shared data for FooDerived // this is the ???, how is this best done cleanly? };

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  • Why do I get an error while trying to set the content of a tabspec in android?

    - by rushinge
    I have an android activity in which I'm using tabs. public class UnitActivity extends TabActivity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.unit_view); TabHost tabHost = getTabHost(); TabSpec spec; spec = tabHost.newTabSpec("controls"); spec.setIndicator("Control"); spec.setContent(R.layout.unit_control); tabHost.addTab(spec); spec = tabHost.newTabSpec("data"); spec.setIndicator("Data"); spec.setContent(R.layout.unit_data); tabHost.addTab(spec); } } However when I run the program it crashes with the error: "Could not create tab content because could not find view with id 2130903042". I don't understand what the problem is because R.layout.unit_data refers to a layout file in my resource directory (res/layout/unit_data.xml) as far as I can tell unit_data.xml is well formed and I've even referenced it successfully in another activity class UnitData extends Activity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.unit_data); Toast.makeText(this, "Hi from UnitData.onCreate", 5); } } which does not give an error and renders the layout just fine. What's going on? Why can't I reference this layout when creating a tab?

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  • Commercial web application--scalable database design

    - by Rob Campbell
    I'm designing a set of web apps to track scientific laboratory data. Each laboratory has several members, each of whom will access both their own data and that of their laboratory as a whole. Many typical queries will thus be expected to return records of multiple members (e.g. my mouse, joe's mouse and sally's mouse). I think I have the database fairly well normalized. I'm now wondering how to ensure that users can efficiently access both their own data and their lab's data set when it is mixed among (hopefully) a whole ton of records from other labs. What I've come up with so far is that most tables will end with two fields: user_id and labgroup_id. The WHERE clause of any SELECT statement will include the appropriate reference to one of the id fields ("...WHERE 'labroup_id=n..." or "...WHERE user_id=n..."). My questions are: Is this an approach that will scale to 10^6 or more records? If so, what's the best way to use these fields in a query so that it most efficiently searches the relevant subset of the database? e.g. Should the first step in querying be to create a temporary table containing just the labgroup's data? Or will indexing using some combination of the id, user_id, and labroup_id fields be sufficient at that scale? I thank any responders very much in advance.

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  • changing WCF endpoint does not persist data.

    - by Vinay Pandey
    Hi All, I have an application that has reference of a WCF service on machine A, now on certain situation I want tu use similar service hosted on machine B. When I changed the endpoint using following:- EndpointAddress endpoint = new EndpointAddress(new Uri(ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ServiceURLForMachineB"])); BasicHttpBinding binding = new BasicHttpBinding(); binding.SendTimeout = TimeSpan.FromMinutes(1); binding.OpenTimeout = TimeSpan.FromMinutes(1); binding.CloseTimeout = TimeSpan.FromMinutes(1); binding.ReceiveTimeout = TimeSpan.FromMinutes(10); binding.AllowCookies = false; binding.BypassProxyOnLocal = false; binding.HostNameComparisonMode = HostNameComparisonMode.StrongWildcard; binding.MessageEncoding = WSMessageEncoding.Mtom; binding.TextEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; binding.TransferMode = TransferMode.Buffered; binding.UseDefaultWebProxy = true; repositoryService = new WorkflowRepositoryServiceClient(binding, endpoint); When I call login method although method is called from machine B, but username and password in Login(string username,string password) are coming null on machine B. Any Idea what I am doing wrong here?

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  • Sql Server Compact Edition version error.

    - by Tim
    I am working on .NET ClickOnce project that uses Sql Server 2005 Compact Edition to synchronize remote data through the use of a Merge replication. This application has been live for nearly a year now, and while we encounter occasional synchronization errors, things run quite smoothly for the most part. Yesterday a user reported an error that I have never seen before and have yet to find any information for online. Many users synchronize every night, and I haven't received error reports from anyone else, so this issue must be isolated to this particular user / client machine. Here are the full details of the error: -Error Code : 80004005 -Message : The message contains an unexpected replication operation code. The version of SQL Server Compact Edition Client Agent and SQL Server Compact Edition Server Agent should match. [ replication operation code = 31 ] -Minor Error : 28526 -Source : Microsoft SQL Server Compact Edition -Numeric Parameters : 31 One interesting thing that I've found is that his data does get synchronized to the server, so this error must occur after the upload completes. I have yet to determine whether or not changes at the server are still being downloaded to his subscription. Thinking that maybe there was some kind of version conflict going on, I had a remote desktop session with this user last night and uninstalled both the application and the SQL Server Compact Edition prerequisite, then reinstalled both from our ClickOnce publication site. I also removed his existing local database file so that upon synchronization, an entirely new subscription would be issued to him. Still his errors continue. I suppose the error may be somewhat general, and the text in the error message stating that the versions should match may not necessarily reflect the problem at hand. This site contains the only official reference to this error that I've been able to find, and it offers no more detail than the error message itself. Has anyone else encountered this error? Or at least know more about SQL Compact to have a better guess as to what is going on here? Any help / suggestions will be greatly appreciated!

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  • Unit testing, mocking - simple case: Service - Repository

    - by rafek
    Consider a following chunk of service: public class ProductService : IProductService { private IProductRepository _productRepository; // Some initlization stuff public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { return _productRepository.GetProduct(id); } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } } Let's consider a simple unit test: [Test] public void GetProduct_return_the_same_product_as_getProduct_on_productRepository() { var product = EntityGenerator.Product(); _productRepositoryMock.Setup(pr => pr.GetProduct(product.Id)).Returns(product); Product returnedProduct = _productService.GetProduct(product.Id); Assert.AreEqual(product, returnedProduct); _productRepositoryMock.VerifyAll(); } At first it seems that this test is ok. But let's change our service method a little bit: public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { var product = _productRepository.GetProduct(id); product.Owner = "totallyDifferentOwner"; return product; } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } How to rewrite a given test that it'd pass with the first service method and fail with a second one? How do you handle this kind of simple scenarios? HINT: A given test is bad coz product and returnedProduct is actually the same reference.

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  • W3C error doc error? Output tag browser support.

    - by ThomasReggi
    Was looking at the reference page here : http://www.w3.org/TR/html5/offline.html I copied and pasted the code on my server here in separate files. All of the pages are linked correctly but the clock won't show. Just to double check, it wasn't my "server config" I put it on jsfiddle.net here: http://jsfiddle.net/reggi/Dy8PU/. Fails: MAC / FIREFOX 3.6.13 Wins: MAC / FIREFOX 4.0.b8 Is this dummy example code? <!-- clock.html --> <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <title>Clock</title> <script src="clock.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="clock.css"> </head> <body> <p>The time is: <output id="clock"></output></p> </body> </html> /* clock.css */ output { font: 2em sans-serif; } /* clock.js */ setTimeout(function () { document.getElementById('clock').value = new Date(); }, 1000); UPDATE: The W3C code above works on only the NEWEST Beta releases of certain browsers Below are some viable current javascript workarounds

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  • How to get SimpleRpcClient.Call() to be a blocking call to achieve synchronous communication with RabbitMQ?

    - by Nick Josevski
    In the .NET version (2.4.1) of RabbitMQ the RabbitMQ.Client.MessagePatterns.SimpleRpcClient has a Call() method with these signatures: public virtual object[] Call(params object[] args); public virtual byte[] Call(byte[] body); public virtual byte[] Call(IBasicProperties requestProperties, byte[] body, out IBasicProperties replyProperties); The problem: With various attempts, the method still continues to not block where I expect it to, so it's unable ever handle the response. The Question: Am I missing something obvious in the setup of the SimpleRpcClient, or earlier with the IModel, IConnection, or even PublicationAddress? More Info: I've also tried various paramater configurations of the QueueDeclare() method too with no luck. string QueueDeclare(string queue, bool durable, bool exclusive, bool autoDelete, IDictionary arguments); Some more reference code of my setup of these: IConnection conn = new ConnectionFactory{Address = "127.0.0.1"}.CreateConnection()); using (IModel ch = conn.CreateModel()) { var client = new SimpleRpcClient(ch, queueName); var queueName = ch.QueueDeclare("t.qid", true, true, true, null); ch.QueueBind(queueName, "exch", "", null); //HERE: does not block? var replyMessageBytes = client.Call(prop, msgToSend, out replyProp); } Looking elsewhere: Or is it likely there's an issue in my "server side" code? With and without the use of BasicAck() it appears the client has already continued execution.

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