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• C headers: compiler specific vs library specific?

  - by leonbloy

  Is there some clear-cut distinction between standard C *.h header files that are provided by the C compiler, as oppossed to those which are provided by a standard C library? Is there some list, or some standard locations? Motivation: int this answer I got a while ago, regarding a missing unistd.h in the latest TinyC compiler, the author argued that unistd.h (contrarily to sys/unistd.h) should not be provided by the compiler but by your C library. I could not make much sense of that response (for one thing shouldn't that also apply to, say, stdio.h?) but I'm still wondering about it. Is that correct? Where is some authoritative reference for this? Looking in other compilers, I see that other "self contained" POSIX C compilers that are hosted in Windows (like the GCC toolchain that comes with MinGW, in several incarnations; or Digital Mars compiler), include all header files. And in a standard Linux distribution (say, Centos 5.10) I see that the gcc package provides a few header files (eg, stdbool.h, syslimits.h) in /usr/lib/gcc/i386-redhat-linux/4.1.1/include/, and the glibc-headers package provides the majority of the headers in /usr/include/ (including stdio.h, /usr/include/unistd.h and /usr/include/sys/unistd.h). So, in neither case I see support for the above claim.

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• Is anyone familiar with SDPT.clsSDPT?

  - by David Stratton

  Normally I wouldn't ask this kind of question here, but I'm desperate at this point. I'm attempting to support a classic ASP app written by a predecessor who is no longer available. Keeping it short, several applications use a dll to perform encryption of sensitive data. This dll is named SDPT.dll, and the line of code used to create an object is set objSDPT = server.CreateObject("SDPT.clsSDPT") At this point, I am getting errors in a critical app on one of my servers, and I've actually hit a dead end. The error is a standard "Server.CreateObject Failed" message, which I know how to troubleshoot in most cases. However, in this case, all of my normal tries, plus several hours of Google searches are coming up with nothing that works. At this point, I'm not so much looking for help in troubleshooting the issue as I am in finding any sort of reference on this third party component. Even finding that is proving to be difficult, so I'm resorting to asking any of the seasoned developers that hang out here if they are familiar with this product, who it was developed by, and if any documentation on it exists anywhere.

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• How exactly do MbUnit's [Parallelizable] and DegreeOfParallelism work?

  - by BenA

  I thought I understood how MbUnit's parallel test execution worked, but the behaviour I'm seeing differs sufficiently much from my expectation that I suspect I'm missing something! I have a set of UI tests that I wish to run concurrently. All of the tests are in the same assembly, split across three different namespaces. All of the tests are completely independent of one another, so I'd like all of them to be eligible for parallel execution. To that end, I put the following in the AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: DegreeOfParallelism(8)] [assembly: Parallelizable(TestScope.All)] My understanding was that this combination of assembly attributes should cause all of the tests to be considered [Parallelizable], and that the test runner should use 8 threads during execution. My individual tests are marked with the [Test] attribute, and nothing else. None of them are data-driven. However, what I actually see is at most 5-6 threads being used, meaning that my test runs are taking longer than they should be. Am I missing something? Do I need to do anything else to ensure that all of my 8 threads are being used by the runner? N.B. The behaviour is the same irrespective of which runner I use. The GUI, command line and TD.Net runners all behave the same as described above, again leading me to think I've missed something. EDIT: As pointed out in the comments, I'm running v3.1 of MbUnit (update 2 build 397). The documentation suggests that the assembly level [parallelizable] attribute is available, but it does also seem to reference v3.2 of the framework despite that not yet being available. EDIT 2: To further clarify, the structure of my assembly is as follows: assembly - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute)

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• Accessing Web.config directly in ASP.NET MVC 1

  - by Neil T.

  I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve?

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• DataGridView with row-specific DataGridViewComboBoxColumn contents

  - by XXXXX

  So I have something like the following data structure (constructors omitted) class Child { public string Name { get; set; } public int Age { get; set; } } class Parent { public string Name { get; set; } public List <Child> Children { get; private set; } // never null; list never empty public Child FavoriteChild { get; set; } // never null; always a reference to a Child in Children } List < Parent > Parents; What I want to do is show a DataGridView where each row is a Parent from Parent list. Each row should have two columns: a text box showing the parent's name and a DataGridViewComboBoxColumn containing that parent's children, from which the user can select the parent's favorite child. I suppose I could do the whole thing manually, but I'd like to do all this with more-or-less standard Data Binding. It's easy enough to bind the DataGridView to the list of parents, and easy enough to bind the selected child to the FavoriteChild property. The part that's giving me difficulty is that it looks like the Combo Box column wants to bind to one data source for all the combo-box's contents on all rows. I'd like each instance of the combo box to bind to the list of each parent's children. I'm fairly new to C#/Windows Forms, so I may well be missing something obvious. Or it could be that "you can't get there from here." It's not too tough to make a separate list of all the children and filter it by parent; I'm looking into that possibility right now. Is this feasible, or is there a better way?

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• "Special case" records for foreign key constraints

  - by keithjgrant

  Let's say I have a mysql table, called foo with a foreign key option_id constrained to the option table. When I create a foo record, the user may or may not have selected an option, and 'no option' is a viable selection. What is the best way to differentiate between 'null' (i.e. the user hasn't made a selection yet) and 'no option' (i.e. the user selected 'no option')? Right now, my plan is to insert a special record into the option table. Let's say that winds up with an id of 227 (this table already has a number of records at this point, so '1' isn't available). I have no need to access this record at a database level, and it would act as nothing more than a placeholder that the foreign key in the foo table can reference. So do I just hard-code '227' in my codebase when I'm creating 'foo' records where the user has selected 'no option'? The hard-coded id seems sloppy, and leaves room for error as the code is maintained down the road, but I'm not really sure of another approach.

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• How to get SimpleRpcClient.Call() to be a blocking call to achieve synchronous communication with RabbitMQ?

  - by Nick Josevski

  In the .NET version (2.4.1) of RabbitMQ the RabbitMQ.Client.MessagePatterns.SimpleRpcClient has a Call() method with these signatures: public virtual object[] Call(params object[] args); public virtual byte[] Call(byte[] body); public virtual byte[] Call(IBasicProperties requestProperties, byte[] body, out IBasicProperties replyProperties); The problem: With various attempts, the method still continues to not block where I expect it to, so it's unable ever handle the response. The Question: Am I missing something obvious in the setup of the SimpleRpcClient, or earlier with the IModel, IConnection, or even PublicationAddress? More Info: I've also tried various paramater configurations of the QueueDeclare() method too with no luck. string QueueDeclare(string queue, bool durable, bool exclusive, bool autoDelete, IDictionary arguments); Some more reference code of my setup of these: IConnection conn = new ConnectionFactory{Address = "127.0.0.1"}.CreateConnection()); using (IModel ch = conn.CreateModel()) { var client = new SimpleRpcClient(ch, queueName); var queueName = ch.QueueDeclare("t.qid", true, true, true, null); ch.QueueBind(queueName, "exch", "", null); //HERE: does not block? var replyMessageBytes = client.Call(prop, msgToSend, out replyProp); } Looking elsewhere: Or is it likely there's an issue in my "server side" code? With and without the use of BasicAck() it appears the client has already continued execution.

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• iPhone: Calling dealloc on parentViewController causes an exception

  - by arielcamus

  Hi, I'm dealing with viewDidUnload and dealloc methods and I've founded a problem when calling [super dealloc]; in parent view controller. I have a lot of view controllers with custom code which I have putted outside on a parent view controller. So, when defining my view controllers I set a reference to the super class: @interface LoginViewController : AbstractViewController Then, at the dealloc method I call the AbstractViewController dealloc method: //(Login View Controller code) - (void)dealloc { [user release]; [passwd release]; [super dealloc]; } [super dealloc] execute the following code: //(Abstract View Controller code) - (void)dealloc { [dbUtils release]; [loadingView release]; [super dealloc]; } If I simulate a memory warning on iPhone Simulator, the following exception is thrown: 2010-03-03 11:27:45.805 MyApp[71563:40b] Received simulated memory warning. 2010-03-03 11:27:45.808 MyApp[71563:40b] *** -[LoginViewController isViewLoaded]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x13b51b0 kill quit However, if I comment the [super dealloc] line in AbstractViewController the exception is not thrown and my app still running. Thank you for your help once again!

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• [C#] Three System.Drawing methods manifest slow drawing or flickery: Solutions? or Other Options?

  - by Luke Mcneice

  Hi all, I am doing a little graphing via the System.Drawing and im having a few problems. I'm holding data in a Queue and i'm drawing(graphing) out that data onto three picture boxes this method fills the picture box then scrolls the graph across. so not to draw on top of the previous drawings (and graduly looking messier) i found 2 solutions to draw the graph. Call plot.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR) before the draw loop [block commented] although this causes a flicker to appear from the time it takes to do the actual drawing loop. call plot.DrawLine(channelPen[5], j, 140, j, 0); just before each drawline [commented] although this causes the drawing to start ok then slow down very quickly to a crawl as if a wait command had been placed before the draw command. Here is the Code for reference: /*plotx.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR) ploty.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR) plotz.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR)*/ for (int j = 1; j < 599; j++) { if (j > RealTimeBuffer.Count - 1) break; QueueEntity past = RealTimeBuffer.ElementAt(j - 1); QueueEntity current = RealTimeBuffer.ElementAt(j); if (j == 1) { //plotx.DrawLine(channelPen[5], 0, 140, 0, 0); //ploty.DrawLine(channelPen[5], 0, 140, 0, 0); //plotz.DrawLine(channelPen[5], 0, 140, 0, 0); } //plotx.DrawLine(channelPen[5], j, 140, j, 0); plotx.DrawLine(channelPen[0], j - 1, (((past.accdata.X - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64), j, (((current.accdata.X - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64)); //ploty.DrawLine(channelPen[5], j, 140, j, 0); ploty.DrawLine(channelPen[1], j - 1, (((past.accdata.Y - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64), j, (((current.accdata.Y - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64)); //plotz.DrawLine(markerPen, j, 140, j, 0); plotz.DrawLine(channelPen[2], j - 1, (((past.accdata.Z - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 94), j, (((current.accdata.Z - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 94)); } Is there any tricks to avoid these overheads? If not would there be any other/better solutions?

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• W3C error doc error? Output tag browser support.

  - by ThomasReggi

  Was looking at the reference page here : http://www.w3.org/TR/html5/offline.html I copied and pasted the code on my server here in separate files. All of the pages are linked correctly but the clock won't show. Just to double check, it wasn't my "server config" I put it on jsfiddle.net here: http://jsfiddle.net/reggi/Dy8PU/. Fails: MAC / FIREFOX 3.6.13 Wins: MAC / FIREFOX 4.0.b8 Is this dummy example code? <!-- clock.html --> <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <title>Clock</title> <script src="clock.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="clock.css"> </head> <body> <p>The time is: <output id="clock"></output></p> </body> </html> /* clock.css */ output { font: 2em sans-serif; } /* clock.js */ setTimeout(function () { document.getElementById('clock').value = new Date(); }, 1000); UPDATE: The W3C code above works on only the NEWEST Beta releases of certain browsers Below are some viable current javascript workarounds

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• Trying to calculate large numbers in Python with gmpy. Python keeps crashing?

  - by Ryan Peschel

  I was recommended to use gmpy to assist with calculating large numbers efficiently. Before I was just using python and my script ran for a day or two and then ran out of memory (not sure how that happened because my program's memory usage should basically be constant throughout.. maybe a memory leak?) Anyways, I keep getting this weird error after running my program for a couple seconds: mp_allocate< 545275904->545275904 > Fatal Python error: mp_allocate failure This application has requested the Runtime to terminate it in an unusual way. Please contact the application's support team for more information. Also, python crashes and Windows 7 gives me the generic python.exe has stopped working dialog. This wasn't happening with using standard python integers. Now that I switch to gmpy I am getting this error just seconds in to running my script. I thought gmpy was specialized in dealing with large number arithmetic? For reference, here is a sample program that produces the error: import gmpy2 p = gmpy2.xmpz(3000000000) s = gmpy2.xmpz(2) M = s**p for x in range(p): s = (s * s) % M I have 10 gigs of RAM and without gmpy this script ran for days without running out of memory (still not sure how that happened considering s never really gets larger.. Anyone have any ideas? EDIT: Forgot to mention I am using Python 3.2

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• Installing a Windows Service from a separate GUI - how to install .config file along with it?

  - by Shaul

  I have written a GUI (call it MyGUI) for ClickOnce deployment on any given client site. That GUI installs and configures a Windows Service (MyService), using the method described here by @Marc Gravell. Here's my code, run from inside MyGUI, which contains a reference to MyService: using (var inst = new AssemblyInstaller(typeof(MyService.Program).Assembly, new string[] { })) { IDictionary state = new Hashtable(); inst.UseNewContext = true; try { if (uninstall) { inst.Uninstall(state); } else { inst.Install(state); inst.Commit(state); } } catch { try { inst.Rollback(state); } catch { } throw; } } Take note of that first line: I'm grabbing the assembly for MyService, and installing that. Now, trouble is, the way I've done the deployment, I'm effectively referencing the service's EXE file from the GUI's app folder. So now the service fires up and starts looking for stuff in the MyService.config file, and can't find it, because it's living in someone else's app folder, with only the GUI's MyGUI.config file present. So, how do I get MyService.config to be available to the service?

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• Linker error: wants C++ virtual base class destructor

  - by jdmuys

  Hi, I have a link error where the linker complains that my concrete class's destructor is calling its abstract superclass destructor, the code of which is missing. This is using GCC 4.2 on Mac OS X from XCode. I saw http://stackoverflow.com/questions/307352/g-undefined-reference-to-typeinfo but it's not quite the same thing. Here is the linker error message: Undefined symbols: "ConnectionPool::~ConnectionPool()", referenced from: AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool::~AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool()in RKConnector.o ld: symbol(s) not found collect2: ld returned 1 exit status Here is the abstract base class declaration: class ConnectionPool { public: static ConnectionPool* newPool(std::string h, short p, std::string u, std::string pw, std::string b); virtual ~ConnectionPool() =0; virtual int keepAlive() =0; virtual int disconnect() =0; virtual sql::Connection * getConnection(char *compression_scheme = NULL) =0; virtual void releaseConnection(sql::Connection * theConnection) =0; }; Here is the concrete class declaration: class AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool: public ConnectionPool { protected: <snip data members> public: AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool(std::string h, short p, std::string u, std::string pw, std::string b); virtual ~AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool(); virtual int keepAlive(); // will make sure the connection doesn't time out. Call regularly virtual int disconnect(); // disconnects/destroys all connections. virtual sql::Connection * getConnection(char *compression_scheme = NULL); virtual void releaseConnection(sql::Connection * theConnection); }; Needless to say, all those members are implemented. Here is the destructor: AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool::~AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool() { printf("AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool destructor call"); // nothing to destruct in fact } and also maybe the factory routine: ConnectionPool* ConnectionPool::newPool(std::string h, short p, std::string u, std::string pw, std::string b) { return new AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool(h, p, u, pw, b); } I can fix this by artificially making my abstract base class concrete. But I'd rather do something better. Any idea? Thanks

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• Why does Hibernate 2nd level cache only cache queries within a session?

  - by Synesso

  Using a named query in our application and with ehcache as the provider, it seems that the query results are tied to the session within the cache. Any attempt to access the value from the cache for a second time results in a LazyInitializationException We have set lazy = true for the following mapping because this object is also used by another part of the system which does not require the reference... and we want to keep it lean. <class name="domain.ReferenceAdPoint" table="ad_point" mutable="false" lazy="false"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <id name="code" type="long" column="ad_point_id"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="ad_point_description" type="string"/> <set name="synonyms" table="ad_point_synonym" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <key column="ad_point_id" /> <element type="string" column="synonym_description" /> </set> </class> <query name="find.adpoints.by.heading">from ReferenceAdPoint adpoint left outer join fetch adpoint.synonyms where adpoint.adPointField.headingCode = ?</query> Here's a snippet from our hibernate.cfg.xml <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.SingletonEhCacheProvider</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_query_cache">true</property> It doesn't seem to make sense that the cache would be constrained to the session. Why are the cached queries not usable outside of the (relatively short-lived) sessions?

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• URL equals and checking Internet access

  - by James P.

  On http://java.sun.com/j2se/1.5.0/docs/api/java/net/URL.html it states that: Compares this URL for equality with another object. If the given object is not a URL then this method immediately returns false. Two URL objects are equal if they have the same protocol, reference equivalent hosts, have the same port number on the host, and the same file and fragment of the file. Two hosts are considered equivalent if both host names can be resolved into the same IP addresses; else if either host name can't be resolved, the host names must be equal without regard to case; or both host names equal to null. Since hosts comparison requires name resolution, this operation is a blocking operation. Note: The defined behavior for equals is known to be inconsistent with virtual hosting in HTTP. According to this, equals will only work if name resolution is possible. Since I can't be sure that a computer has internet access at a given time, should I just use Strings to store addresses instead? Also, how do I go about testing if access is available when requested?

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• c# "==" operator : compiler behaviour with different structs

  - by Moe Sisko

  Code to illustrate : public struct MyStruct { public int SomeNumber; } public string DoSomethingWithMyStruct(MyStruct s) { if (s == null) return "this can't happen"; else return "ok"; } private string DoSomethingWithDateTime(DateTime s) { if (s == null) return "this can't happen"; // XX else return "ok"; } Now, "DoSomethingWithStruct" fails to compile with : "Operator '==' cannot be applied to operands of type 'MyStruct' and '<null>'". This makes sense, since it doesn't make sense to try a reference comparison with a struct, which is a value type. OTOH, "DoSomethingWithDateTime" compiles, but with compiler warning : "Unreachable code detected" at line marked "XX". Now, I'm assuming that there is no compiler error here, because the DateTime struct overloads the "==" operator. But how does the compiler know that the code is unreachable ? e.g. Does it look inside the code which overloads the "==" operator ? (This is using Visual Studio 2005 in case that makes a difference). Note : I'm more curious than anything about the above. I don't usually try to use "==" on structs and nulls.

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• JMeter CSV Data Set is corrupting Japanese strings stored as proper UTF-8, I get Question Marks instead

  - by Mark Bennett

  I read in search terms from a simple text file to send to a search engine. It works fine in English, but gives me ???? for any Japanese text. Text with mixed English and Japanese does show the English text, so I know it's reading it. What I'm seeing: Input text: Snow Leopard ??????????????? Turns into: Snow Leopard ??????????????? This is in my POST field of an HTTP. If I set JMeter to encode the data, it just puts in the percent sequence for question marks. Interesting note: In the example above there are 15 Japanese characters, and then 15 question marks, so at some point it's being seen as full characters and not just bytes. About the Data: The CSV file is very simple in structure. There's only one field / one column, which I name TERM, and later use as ${TERM} I don't really need full CSV because it's only one string per line. There's no commas or quotes. When I run the Unix "file" command on the file, it says UTF-8 text. I've also verified it in command line and graphical mode on two machines. JMeter CSV Dataset Config: Filename: japanese-searches.csv File encoding: UTF-8 (also tried without) Variable names: TERM Delimiter: , Allow Quoted Data: False (I also tried True, different, but still wrong) Recycle at EOF: True Stop at EOF: False Staring mode: All threads A few things I've tried: Tried Allow quoted Data. It changed to other strange characters. -Dfile.encoding=UTF-8 Tried encoding the POST, but it just turned into a bunch of %nn for question marks And I'm not sure how "debug" just after the each line of the CSV is read in. I think it's corrupted right away, but I'm not sure. If it's only mangled when I reference it, then instead of ${TERM} perhaps there's some other "to bytes" function call. I'll start checking into that. I haven't done anything with the JMeter functions yet.

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• Unmanaged DLL (exporting Dialog) + Class Library (DLL) + no Windows Style/Themes

  - by Gohlool

  Hi, I have a managed application TestApplication.exe in C# and Application.EnableVisualStyles() is allready called. I have a Class Library MySharedCode.dll also in C# which uses [DLLImport()] to import some External dialogs out of an unmanaged dll. Well, now I am using (add reference) MySharedCode.dll in my TestApplication.exe and call a function MyTestConfigDlg() out of it. TestClass.MyTestConfigDlg(); OK, everything works fine and I get my dialog, but the dialog has NO XP style/themes? I just wanted to see if it's general problem with managed/unmanged modules, so I used the [DLLImport()] to call the same MyTestConfigDlg() dialog but this time directly in my TestApplication.exe! WOW! Worked as I expected. The Dialog was in XP Style/Themes! so, anybody here who can help me out? FYI: I also tried (just for test) to call MessageBoxA() API call in my Class Library Dll which later called by my TestApplication.exe and the MessageBoxA() had also no Style/Themes! Thanks in advance!

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• How to show ModelState.AddModelError when the Model is Empty in MVC4

  - by kk1076

  I am displaying a shopping cart. I need to check for empty values in Shopping cart and display a message like "The Shopping Cart is empty". When I use ModelState.AddModelError in myAction, it throws an exception as there is null reference in Model. How to display the ErrorMessage. My Action public ActionResult Index() { string id = Request.QueryString["UserID"]; IList<CartModel> objshop = new List<CartModel>(); objshop = GetCartDetails(id); if (objshop.Count > 0) { return View(objshop.ToList()); } else { ModelState.AddModelError("", "Your Shopping Cart is empty!"); } return View(); } My View @{ @Html.ValidationSummary(true) } <th > @Html.DisplayNameFor(model => model.ProductName) </th> <th > @Html.DisplayNameFor(model => model.Quantity) </th> <th > @Html.DisplayNameFor(model => model.Rate) </th> <th > @Html.DisplayNameFor(model => model.Price) </th> @foreach (var item in Model) { <td> @Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => item.ProductName)</td> <td> @Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => item.Quantity)</td> <td> @Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => item.Rate) </td> <td> @Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => item.Price) </td> } Any suggestions.

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• Change Rectangle Fill Based on ColumnWidth of a grid

  - by Coesy

  Essentially i want to do as the title says, if the columnwidth is .50 then the rectangle should be red, if it's .75 then it should be amber, and if it's 1 then it should be green. I thought I could achieve this with DataTriggers but for some reason I am getting "Object Reference Not Set To An Instance Of An Object" error, here is my code, am I missing something here? FYI the width property will be changed in the backend through a timer_tick event. <Grid x:Name="Grid1" Width="300" Height="30"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition x:Name="MyColumn1" Width=".50*"></ColumnDefinition> <ColumnDefinition x:Name="MyColumn2" Width=".50*"></ColumnDefinition> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ElementName=MyColumn1,Path=Width}" Value=".50*"> <Setter TargetName="rect" Property="Fill" Value="Red"></Setter> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ElementName=MyColumn1,Path=Width}" Value=".75*"> <Setter TargetName="rect" Property="Fill" Value="Yellow"></Setter> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ElementName=MyColumn1,Path=Width}" Value="1"> <Setter TargetName="rect" Property="Fill" Value="Green"></Setter> </DataTrigger> </Grid.Triggers> <Rectangle x:Name="rect" Grid.Column="0" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch"></Rectangle> <Rectangle Grid.Column="1" Fill="Blue"></Rectangle> </Grid>

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• How to vertically align text in a button with a background drawable?

  - by neutrino

  I had a simple button set up with a background image defined like android:background="?attr/button" where ?attr/button was a reference to a simple 9-patch png. Everything worked fine, text in the button was aligned correctly. Then I needed to have a different background for a pressed state of the button. So I changed that to android:background="@drawable/state_button" where @drawable/state_button is an xml with the following states <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <selector xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <item android:state_pressed="true" android:drawable="@drawable/button_pressed" /> <!-- pressed --> <item android:state_focused="true" android:drawable="@drawable/button_pressed" /> <!-- focused --> <item android:drawable="@drawable/button" /> <!-- default --> </selector> And after that I can't align the text properly. If I put android:gravity="center_vertical" the text is drawn about 1/4 of the button height from the top. I double-checked my 9-patch images, everything seems fine with them. And I also tried having regular pngs for the background, it also doesn't change anything.

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• erlide, which eclipse/which packages?

  - by KevinDTimm

  I have downloaded eclipse 3.4 (java version) for MacOSX (carbon). I have tried to 'update' to the erlide, but see many (duplicated) options (many erlide, options that say 'only for erl SDK updates', etc.) Sometimes I get 403 errors when attempting to access http://erlide.org/update and http://erlide.sourceforge.net/update. Finally, when I get some set of options installed, I either get errors like : Loading of /Users/kevindtimm/Documents/eclipse-java-ganymede-SR2-macosx-carbon/eclipse/plugins/org.erlide.kernel.common_0.8.1.201005250801/ebin/erlide_kernel_common.beam failed: badfile (hello_world@ktmac)1> =ERROR REPORT==== 24-Nov-2010::19:17:32 === beam/beam_load.c(1768): Error loading function erlide_kernel_common:monitor/0: op put_string u u x: please re-compile this module with an R14B compiler or, when I've done different installations of erlide, I get no response in the console to : hello:hello(). Does anybody have a good reference for how to load this plug-in and which items I should install? -module(hello). -export([hello/0]). hello() -> io:write("Hello World\n"). [edit] I have installed eclipse 3.6 (c++) as requested below, and the following code still can't find hello:hello(). %%file_comment -module(hello). %% %% Include files %% %% %% Exported Functions %% -export([hello/0]). %% %% API Functions %% %% %% Local Functions %% hello() -> io:write("Hello World\n"). [/edit]

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• NHibernate / Fluent - Mapping multiple objects to single lookup table

  - by Al

  Hi all I am struggling a little in getting my mapping right. What I have is a single self joined table of look up values of certain types. Each lookup can have a parent, which can be of a different type. For simplicities sake lets take the Country and State example. So the lookup table would look like this: Lookups Id Key Value LookupType ParentId - self joining to Id base class public class Lookup : BaseEntity { public Lookup() {} public Lookup(string key, string value) { Key = key; Value = value; } public virtual Lookup Parent { get; set; } [DomainSignature] [NotNullNotEmpty] public virtual LookupType LookupType { get; set; } [NotNullNotEmpty] public virtual string Key { get; set; } [NotNullNotEmpty] public virtual string Value { get; set; } } The lookup map public class LookupMap : IAutoMappingOverride<DBLookup> { public void Override(AutoMapping<Lookup> map) { map.Table("Lookups"); map.References(x => x.Parent, "ParentId").ForeignKey("Id"); map.DiscriminateSubClassesOnColumn<string>("LookupType").CustomType(typeof(LookupType)); } } BASE SubClass map for subclasses public class BaseLookupMap : SubclassMap where T : DBLookup { protected BaseLookupMap() { } protected BaseLookupMap(LookupType lookupType) { DiscriminatorValue(lookupType); Table("Lookups"); } } Example subclass map public class StateMap : BaseLookupMap<State> { protected StateMap() : base(LookupType.State) { } } Now I've almost got my mappings set, however the mapping is still expecting a table-per-class setup, so is expecting a 'State' table to exist with a reference to the states Id in the Lookup table. I hope this makes sense. This doesn't seem like an uncommon approach when wanting to keep lookup-type values configurable. Thanks in advance. Al

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• Generic cast type to primitive.

  - by Nix

  Is there a way to do the below? Imagine a generic result wrapper class. Where you have a type and an associated error list. When there is no result to return to the user we will use boolean to indicate success failure. I want to create a constructor that takes in an error list, and if the list is null or count 0, AND the type is a bool/Boolean i want to set it to true.... Seemingly simple, but amazingly not possible. public class Result<T>{ private T valueObject { get;set;} private List<Error> errors{ get;set;} public Result(T valueObj, List<Error> errorList){ this.valueObject = valueObj; this.errors = errorList; } public Result(List<Error> errors) { this.valueObject = default(ReturnType); if (valueObject is Boolean) { //Wont work compile //(valueObject as Boolean) = ((errors == null) || errors.Count == 0); //Compiles but detaches reference //bool temp = ((bool)(valueObject as object)) ; //temp = ((errors == null) || errors.Count == 0); } this.errors = errors; } } } Am I missing something simple? And in general I would prefer to do it without reflection.

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• Populate an unmapped property of domain object from result of join with Nhibernate

  - by Adam Pope

  I have a situation where I have 3 tables: StockItem, Office and StockItemPrice. The price for each StockItem can be different for each Office. StockItem( ID Name ) Office( ID Name ) StockItemPrice( ID StockItemID OfficeID Price ) I've set up a schema with 2 many-to-one relations to link StockItem and Office. So in my StockItem domain object I have a property: IList<StockItemPrice> Prices; which gets loaded with the price of the item for each office. That's working fine. Now I'm trying to get the price of an item for a single office. I have the following Criteria query: NHibernateSession.CreateCriteria(persistentType) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("ID", id)) .CreateAlias("Prices", "StockItemPrice") .Add(Restrictions.Eq("StockItemPrice.Office", office)) .UniqueResult<StockItem>(); This appears to work fine as the SQL it generates is what I qould expect. However, I dont know if it populates StockItem.Prices with a single object correctly as as soon as I reference that property NHibernate performs a lazy load of all the office's prices. Also, even if it does work, it feels really crufty having to access the price by using: mystockitem.Prices[0].Price What I would really like is to have a Price field on the StockItem object and have the price of the item put into that field by NHibernate. I've tried adding .CreateCriteria("Price", "StockItemPrice.Price") and the same with CreateAlias, but I get the error NHibernate.QueryException : could not resolve property: Price of: StockItem which makes sense I guess as Price isn't a mapped property. How would I adjust the query to make this possible?

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