Search Results

Search found 14548 results on 582 pages for 'const reference'.

Page 486/582 | < Previous Page | 482 483 484 485 486 487 488 489 490 491 492 493  | Next Page >

• Moving from NHibernate to FluentNHibernate: assembly error (related to versions)?

  - by goober

  Not sure where to start, but I had gotten the most recent version of NHibernate, successfully mapped the most simple of business objects, etc. When trying to move to FluentNHibernate and do the same thing, I got this error message on build: "System.IO.FileLoadException: Could not load file or assembly 'NHibernate, Version=2.1.0.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4' or one of its dependencies. The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assembly reference." Background: I'm new to Hibernate, NHibernate, and FluentNHibernate -- but not to .NET, C#, etc. Database I have a database table called Category: (PK) CategoryID (type: int), unique, auto-incrementing UserID (type: uniqueidentifier) -- given the value of the user Guid in ASP.NET database Title (type: varchar(50) -- the title of the category Components involved: I have a SessionProviderClass which creates the mapping to the database I have a Category class which has all the virtual methods for FluentNHibernate to override I have a CategoryMap : ClassMap class, which does the fluent mappings for the entity I have a CategoryRepository class that contains the method to add & save the category I have the TestCatAdd.aspx file which uses the CategoryRepository class. Would be happy to post code for any of those, but I'm not sure that it's necessary, as I think the issue is that somewhere there's a version conflict between what FluentNHibernate references and the NHibernate I have installed from before. Thanks in advance for any help you can give!

  Read the article

• JVM to ignore certificate name mismatch

  - by Heavy Bytes

  I know there were a lot of questions/answers about how to ignore SSL error in the code. On our dev region dev.domain.tld we have configured a app server over SSL. The certificate that is displayed is for somedev.domain.tld. There is no way to change the certificate, it will always be a domain mismatch. So when I deploy a web-service to https://dev.domain.tld and try to connect/call my webservice I get an exception: Caused by: java.security.cert.CertificateException: No name matching dev.domain.tld found And I have the somedev.domain.tld CERT in my trust store. Now, I saw a lot of samples how to change that in the code (using a Trust Manager that accepts all domains), but how do I specify to the JVM to ignore the domain mismatch when connecting to the server? Is there a -Djavax.net.ssl argument or something? Thank you! UPDATE: Or, since I am using Spring-WS, is there a way to set some property in Spring for that? (WebServiceTemplate) UPDATE I guess I'll have to do use something from Spring Security: http://static.springsource.org/spring-ws/sites/1.5/reference/html/security.html

  Read the article

• How can I accelerate the generation of the an MD5 Checksum within vb.net?

  - by Richard

  I'm working with some very large files residing on P2 (Panasonic) cards. Part of the process we employ is to first generate a checksum of the file we are going to copy, then copy the file, then run a checksum on the file to confirm that it copied OK. The problem is, is that files are large (70 GB+) and take a long time to complete. It's an issue since we will eventually be dealing with thousands of these files. I would like to find a faster way to generate the checksum other than using the System.Security.Cryptography.MD5CryptoServiceProvider I don't care if this means using a specialized hardware card, provided it works and is not to ungodly expensive. I would prefer to have a method of encoding that provided some feedback as to how far the process has gone along so I can display it like I do now. The application is written in vb.net. I would prefer to be able to use it as component, library, reference within my application, but I'm willing to call an outside application if there is enough improvement in the speed of generating the checksum. Needless to say, the checksum must be consistent and correct. :-) Thank you in advance for your time and efforts, Richard

  Read the article

• Hibernate not saving foreign key, but with junit it's ok

  - by Leonardo

  Hi All, I have this strange problem. In a J2ee webapp with spring, smartgwt and hibernate, it happens that I have a class A wich has a set of class B, both of them mapped to table A and table B. I wrote a simple test case for testing the service manager which is supposed to do insert, update, delete and everything work as expected especially during insert. In the end I have one record in A and records in B with foreign key to A. But when I try to call the service from the web app, the entity in B are saved without a foreign key reference. I am sure that the service is the same. One thing I noticed is that enabling hibernate logging, seems that when the service is called from the application, one more update is made: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) update A <--- ??? update B <--- ??? Instead, when junit test case is run, the update is as follows: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) I suppose the latest update is what is causing the erroe, maybe it is overwriting values. Considering that the app is using spring, with the well known mechanism of DAO + Manager, where can I investigate to solve this issue ? Someone told me that the session is not closed, so hibernate would do one more update before release the objects by itself. I am pretty sure that all the configuration hbm, xml, and the rest are fine...but I maybe wrong. thanks

  Read the article

• A typical mysql query( how to use subquery column into main query)

  - by I Like PHP

  I HAVE TWO TABLES shown below table_joining id join_id(PK) transfer_id(FK) unit_id transfer_date joining_date 1 j_1 t_1 u_1 2010-06-05 2010-03-05 2 j_2 t_2 u_3 2010-05-10 2010-03-10 3 j_3 t_3 u_6 2010-04-10 2010-01-01 4 j_5 NULL u_3 NULL 2010-06-05 5 j_6 NULL u_4 NULL 2010-05-05 table_transfer id transfer_id(PK) pastUnitId futureUnitId effective_transfer_date 1 t_1 u_3 u_1 2010-06-05 2 t_2 u_6 u_1 2010-05-10 3 t_3 u_5 u_3 2010-04-10 now i want to know total employee detalis( using join_id) which are currently working on unit u_3 . means i want only join_id j_1 (has transfered but effective_transfer_date is future date, right now in u_3) j_2 ( tansfered and right now in `u_3` bcoz effective_transfer_date has been passed) j_6 ( right now in `u_3` and never transfered) what i need to take care of below steps( as far as i know ) <1> first need to check from table_joining whether transfer_id is NULL or not <2> if transfer_id= is NULL then see unit_id=u_3 where joining_date <=CURDATE() ( means that person already joined u_3) <3> if transfer_id is NOT NULL then go to table_transfer using transfer_id (foreign key reference) <4> now see the effective_transfer_date regrading that transfer_id whether effective_transfer_date<=CURDATE() <5> if transfer date has been passed(means transfer has been done) then return futureUnitID otherwise return pastUnitID i used two separate query but don't know how to join those query?? for step <1 ans <2 SELECT unit_id FROM table_joining WHERE joining_date<=CURDATE() AND transfer_id IS NULL AND unit_id='u_3' for step<5 SELECT IF(effective_transfer_date <= CURDATE(),futureUnitId,pastUnitId) AS currentUnitID FROM table_transfer // here how do we select only those rows which have currentUnitID='u_3' ?? please guide me the process?? i m just confused with JOINS. i think using LEFT JOIN can return the data i need, or if we use subquery value to main query? but i m not getting how to implement ...please help me. Thanks for helping me alwayz

  Read the article

• Aligning decimal points in HTML

  - by ijw

  I have a table containing decimal numbers in one column. I'm looking to align them in a manner similar to a word processor's "decimal tab" feature, so that all the points sit on a vertical line. I have two possible solutions at the moment but I'm hoping for something better... Solution 1: Split the numbers within the HTML, e.g. <td><div>1234</div><div class='dp'>.5</div></td> with .dp { width: 3em; } (Yes, this solution doesn't quite work as-is. The concept is, however, valid.) Solution 2: I found mention of <COL ALIGN="CHAR" CHAR="."> This is part of HTML4 according to the reference page, but it doesn't work in FF3.5, Safari 4 or IE7, which are the browsers I have to hand. It also has the problem that you can't pull out the numeric formatting to CSS (although, since it's affecting a whole column, I suppose that's not too surprising). Thus, anyone have a better idea?

  Read the article

• What is a reasonable OSGi development workflow?

  - by levand

  I'm using OSGi for my latest project at work, and it's pretty beautiful as far as modularity and functionality. But I'm not happy with the development workflow. Eventually, I plan to have 30-50 separate bundles, arranged in a dependency graph - supposedly, this is what OSGi is designed for. But I can't figure out a clean way to manage dependencies at compile time. Example: You have bundles A and B. B depends on packages defined in A. Each bundle is developed as a separate Java project. In order to compile B, A has to be on the javac classpath. Do you: Reference the file system location of project A in B's build script? Build A and throw the jar into B's lib directory? Rely on Eclipse's "referenced projects" feature and always use Eclipse's classpath to build (ugh) Use a common "lib" directory for all projects and dump the bundle jars there after compilation? Set up a bundle repository, parse the manifest from the build script and pull down the required bundles from the repository? No. 5 sounds the cleanest, but also like a lot of overhead.

  Read the article

• TextArea component is null on applicationComplete event

  - by Alan G.

  I have a weird issue (weird because it is specific to one component) with applicationComplete in a fairly simple application. All the UI components are declared in MXML. I can access them all in applicationComplete, but not a spark.components.TextArea component, named taStatus here; it is null in the handler. MXML looks sort of like this (there are lots of other components, but nothing special) <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" minWidth="710" minHeight="640" applicationComplete="onApplicationComplete(event)" width="710" height="640"> <mx:TabNavigator left="15" right="15" top="15" bottom="340" paddingTop="0"> <s:NavigatorContent label="General" width="100%" height="100%"> <s:Label x="93" y="71" text="Label" id="lblTest"/> </s:NavigatorContent> <s:NavigatorContent label="Status" width="100%" height="100%"> <s:TextArea id="taStatus" width="100%" height="100%" text="Startup." editable="false"/> </s:NavigatorContent> </mx:TabNavigator> <fx:Script source="main.as" /> </s:Application> Here is the handler in main.as protected function onApplicationComplete(event: FlexEvent) : void { lblTest.text = 'abc789'; // OK taStatus.text = 'abc789'; // Fail } TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. So taStatus is null... What is so special about this TextArea?

  Read the article

• How do I override a python import?

  - by Evan Plaice

  So I'm working on pypreprocessor which is a preprocessor that takes c-style directives and I've been able to make it work like a traditional preprocessor (it's self-consuming and executes postprocessed code on-the-fly) except that it breaks library imports. The problem is. The preprocessor runs through the file, processes' it, outputs to a temp file, and exec() the temp file. Libraries that are imported need to be handled a little different because they aren't executed but rather loaded and made accessible to the caller module. What I need to be able to do is. Interrupt the import (since the preprocessor is being run in the middle of the import), load the postprocessed code as a tempModule, and replace the original import with the tempModule to trick the calling script with the import into believing that the tempModule is the original module. I have searched everywhere and so far, have no solution. This question is the closest I've seen so far to providing an answer: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1096216/override-namespace-in-python Here's what I have. # remove the bytecode file created by the first import os.remove(moduleName + '.pyc') # remove the first import del sys.modules[moduleName] # import the postprocessed module tmpModule = __import__(tmpModuleName) # set first module's reference to point to the preprocessed module sys.modules[moduleName] = tmpModule moduleName is the name of the original module, tmpModuleName is the name of the postprocessed code file. The strange part is, this solution still runs completely normal as if the first module completed loaded normally; unless you remove the last line, then you get a module not found error. Hopefully someone on SO know a lot more about imports than I do because this one has me stumped.

  Read the article

• Getting response status code 0 in SmartGWT webservice call using json

  - by Girish

  I have developed application using SmartGWT, now i need to call webservice using json to another application which is deployed in another server for submitting username and password. When i make a request with url and POST method, getting the response status code as 0 and response text as blank. Here is my code, public void sendRequest() throws Exception { // Get login json data to be sent to server. String strData = createLoginReqPacket(); String url = "some url"; RequestBuilder builder = new RequestBuilder(RequestBuilder.POST, url); builder.setHeader("Content-Type", "application/json"); builder.setHeader("Content-Length", strData.length() + ""); Request response = builder.sendRequest(strData, new RequestCallback() { @Override public void onResponseReceived(Request request, Response response) { int statusCode = response.getStatusCode(); System.out.println("Response code ----"+response.getStatusCode()+""); if (statusCode == Response.SC_OK) { String responseBody = response.getText(); System.out.println("Respose :" + responseBody); // do something with the response } else { GWT.log("Response error at server side ----",null); // do in case of server error } }// end of method. @Override public void onError(Request request, Throwable exception) { GWT.log("**** Error in service call ******",null); }// end of method. }); builder.send(); }// end of send request. Please anybody knows the solution?? Give some reference code or links for this. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Why does the JSF action tag handler in JSP invoke rendering immediately after creation?

  - by Pentius

  Dear fellows, I read the article "Improving JSF by Dumping JSP" from Hans Bergsten. There I read the following: The JSP container processes the page and invokes the JSF action tag handlers as they are encountered. A JSF tag handler looks for the JSF component it represents in the component tree. If it can't find the component, it creates it and adds it to the component tree. It then asks the component to render itself. and furthermore On the first request, the action creates its component and asks it to render itself. I understand that the immediate rendering after the creation of the component is the problem here (The reference to the input component can't be resolved in the example). That's one point, why JSF doesn't fit with JSP. But it reads as if the action tag handler itself would ask the component to render. Or is it JSP that triggers the rendering directly after the action tag handler created the component. If it is the action tag handler, I don't understand, why this is the fault of JSP. What is different here than from JSF intended? Thanks for your help, I need this for my thesis.

  Read the article

• MySQL " identify storage engine statement"

  - by sammysmall

  This IS NOT a Homework question! While building my current student database project I realized that I may want to identify comprehensive information about a database design in the future. More-so if I am fortunate enough to get a job in this field and were handed a database project how could I break down certain elements for identification... In all of my previous designs I have been using MySQL Community Server (GPL) 5.1.42, I thought (duh) that I was using the MyISAM based on most of my text-book instruction and MySQL 5.0 Reference Manual :: 13 Storage Engines :: 13.1 The MyISAM Storage Engine I determined that this was in fact incorrect for this version and the use of "SHOW ENGINES" at the console... No problem, figured out why they have "versions" the need to pay attention to what version is being used, and the need for a means to determine what I am about to mess up "if" I do not pay attention to detail... Q1. Specifically what statement will identify the version used by someone elses initial database creation? (since I created my own databases I know what version I used) Q2. Specifically what statement will identify the storage engine that the developer used when creating the database. (I specified a particular database in my collection then tried SHOW Engine, did not work, then tried to just get the metadata from one table in that database: mysql SELECT duck_cust, table_type, engine - FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.tables - WHERE table_schema = 'tp' - ORDER BY table_type ASC, table_name DESC; as this was not really what I wanted (and did not work) I am looking for some direction from the pros... Q3. (If you really have the inclination to continue helping) If I were to access a database from an earlier/later "version" are there backward/forward compatibility issues for maintaining/updating data between versions? Please and Thank you in advance for your time and efforts! sammysmall

  Read the article

• how to share a variable between two threads

  - by prmatta

  I just inherited some code, two threads within this code need to perform a system task. One thread should do the system task before the other thread. They should not be performing the system task together. The two threads do not have references to each other. Now, I know I can use some sort of a semaphore to achieve this. But my question is what is the right way to get both threads to access this semaphore. I could create a static variable/method a new class : public class SharedSemaphore { private static Semaphore s = new Semaphore (1, true); public static void performSystemTask () { s.acquire(); } public static void donePerformingSystemTask() { s.release(); } } This would work (right?) but this doesn't seem like the right thing to do. Because, the threads now have access to a semaphore, without ever having a reference to it. This sort of thing doesn't seem like a good programming practice. Am I wrong?

  Read the article

• Dangers when deploying Flash/Flex UI test automation hooks to production?

  - by Merlyn Morgan-Graham

  I am interested in doing automated testing against a Flex based UI. I have found out that my best options for UI automation (due to being C# controllable, good licensing conditions, etc) all seem to require that I compile test hooks into my application. Because of this, I am thinking of recommending that these hooks be compiled into our build. I have found a few places on the net that recommend not deploying bits with this instrumentation enabled, and I'd like to know why. Is it a performance drain, or a security risk? If it is a security risk, can you explain how the attack surface is increased? I am not a Flash or Flex developer, though I have some experience with threat modeling. For reference, here's the tools I'm specifically considering: QTP Selenium-Flex API I am having problems finding all the warnings/suggestions I found last night, but here's an example that I can find: http://www.riatest.com/products/getting-started.html Warning! Automation enabled applications expose all properties of all GUI components. This makes them vulnerable to malicious use. Never make automation enabled application publicly available. Always restrict access to such applications and to RIATest Loader to trusted users only. Related question (how to do conditional compilation to insert/remove those hooks): Conditionally including Flex libraries (SWCs) in mxmlc/compc ant tasks

  Read the article

• What is the procedure for debugging a production-only error?

  - by Lord Torgamus

  Let me say upfront that I'm so ignorant on this topic that I don't even know whether this question has objective answers or not. If it ends up being "not," I'll delete or vote to close the post. Here's the scenario: I just wrote a little web service. It works on my machine. It works on my team lead's machine. It works, as far as I can tell, on every machine except for the production server. The exception that the production server spits out upon failure originates from a third-party JAR file, and is skimpy on information. I search the web for hours, but don't come up with anything useful. So what's the procedure for tracking down an issue that occurs only on production machines? Is there a standard methodology, or perhaps category/family of tools, for this? The error that inspired this question has already been fixed, but that was due more to good fortune than a solid approach to debugging. I'm asking this question for future reference. Some related questions: Test accounts and products in a production system Running test on Production Code/Server

  Read the article

• C#; On casting to the SAME class that came from another assembly

  - by G. Stoynev

  For complete separation/decoupling, I've implemented a DAL in an assebly that is simply being copied over via post-build event to the website BIN folder. The website then on Application Start loads that assembly via System.Reflection.Assembly.LoadFile. Again, using reflection, I construct a couple of instances from classes in that assembly. I then store a reference to these instances in the session (HttpContext.Current.Items) Later, when I try to get the object stored in the session, I am not able to cast them to their own types (was trying interfaces initially, but for debugging tried to cast to THEIR OWN TYPES), getting this error: [A]DAL_QSYSCamper.NHibernateSessionBuilder cannot be cast to [B] DAL_QSYSCamper.NHibernateSessionBuilder. Type A originates from 'DAL_QSYSCamper, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' in the context 'Default' at location 'C:\Users\dull.anomal\AppData\Local\Temp\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\ad6e8bff\70fa2384\assembly\dl3\aaf7a5b0\84f01b09_b10acb01\DAL_QSYSCamper.DLL'. Type B originates from 'DAL_QSYSCamper, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' in the context 'LoadNeither' at location 'C:\Users\dull.anomal\Documents\Projects\QSYS\Deleteme\UI\MVCClient\bin\DAL_QSYSCa mper.DLL'. This is happening while debugging in VS - VS manages to stop into the source DAL project even though I've loaded from assembly and the project is not refferenced by the website project (they're both in the solution). I do understand the error, but I don't understand how and why the assembly is being used/loaded from two locations - I only load it once from the file and there's no referrence to the project. Should mention that I also use Windsor for DI. The object that tries to extract the object from the session is A) from a class from that DAL assembly; B) is injected into a website class by Windsor. I will work on adding some sample code to this question, but wanted to put it out in case it's obvious what I do wrong.

  Read the article

• Compilation problem in the standard x86_64 libraries

  - by user350282

  Hi everyone, I am having trouble compiling a program I have written. I have two different files with the same includes but only one generates the following error when compiled with g++ /usr/lib/gcc/x86_64-linux-gnu/4.4.1/../../../../lib/crt1.o: In function `_start': /build/buildd/eglibc-2.10.1/csu/../sysdeps/x86_64/elf/start.S:109: undefined reference to `main' collect2: ld returned 1 exit status The files I am including in my header are as follows: #include <google/sparse_hash_map> using google::sparse_hash_map; #include <ext/hash_map> #include <math.h> #include <iostream> #include <queue> #include <vector> #include <stack> using std::priority_queue; using std::stack; using std::vector; using __gnu_cxx::hash_map; using __gnu_cxx::hash; using namespace std; Searching the internet for those two lines hasn't resulted in anything to help me. I would be very grateful for any advice. Thank you

  Read the article

• Referencing not-yet-defined variables - Java

  - by user2537337

  Because I'm tired of solving math problems, I decided to try something more engaging with my very rusty (and even without the rust, very basic) Java skills. I landed on a super-simple people simulator, and thus far have been having a grand time working through the various steps of getting it to function. Currently, it generates an array of people-class objects and runs a for loop to cycle through a set of actions that alter the relationships between them, which I have stored in a 2d integer array. When it ends, I go look at how much they all hate each other. Fun stuff. Trouble has arisen, however, because I would like the program to clearly print what action is happening when it happens. I thought the best way to do this would be to add a string, description, to my "action" class (which stores variables for the actor, reactor, and the amount the relationship changes). This works to a degree, in that I can print a generic message ("A fight has occurred!") with no problem. However, ideally I would like it to be a little more specific ("Person A has thrown a rock at Person B's head!"). This latter goal is proving more difficult: attempting to construct an action with a description string that references actor and reactor gets me a big old error, "Cannot reference field before it is defined." Which makes perfect sense. I believe I'm not quite in programmer mode, because the only other way I can think to do this is an unwieldy switch statement that negates the need for each action to have its own nicely-packaged description. And there must be a neater way. I am not looking for examples of code, only a push in the direction of the right concept to handle this.

  Read the article

• Very very weird problem with UIImageView property - I can access it then I can't, and it's not nil.

  - by just_another_coder

  Very very weird problem with UIImageView property on iPad application @interface MyViewController : UIViewController { IBOutlet UIImageView* coverImage; } @property(nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIImageView* coverImage; … more code @implementation MyViewController @synthesize coverImage; … more code - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSString* imageName = @"my_image.png"; UIImage* tempImage = [UIImage imageNamed:imageName]; [self.coverImage setImage:tempImage]; } The above code WILL display the image. In another part of code: -(IBAction) stopButtonPressed:(id)sender { [self.coverImage setHidden:YES]; NSLog(@"coverImage desc: %@", [coverImage description]); } The image will NOT disappear. I know the reference to the image isn't nil, because it gives me this output: 2010-05-29 17:37:40.706 MyApp[95360:207] coverImage desc: UIImageView: 0x5128420; frame = (0 0; 1024 768); autoresize = RM+BM; userInteractionEnabled = NO; layer = CALayer: 0x512bed0 In addition, if I move the code in viewDidLoad to another part of the class, and try to execute it from there, it fails to show the image at all.

  Read the article

• Whose fault is a NullReferenceException?

  - by stefan.at.wpf

  I'm currently working on a class which exposes an internal List through a property. The List shall and can be modified. The problem is, entries in the internal list could be set to null from outside the class. My code actually looks like this: class ClassWithList { List<object> _list = new List<object>(); // get accessor, which however returns the reference to the list, // therefore the list can be modified (this is intended) public List<object> Data { get { return _list; } } private void doSomeWorkWithTheList() { foreach(object obj in _list) // do some work with the objects in the list without checking for null. } } So now in the doSomeWorkWithTheList() I could always check whether the current list entry is null or I could just asume that the person using this class doesn't have the great idea to set entries to null. So finally the questions end up in: Whose fault is a NullReferenceException in this case? Is it the fault of the class developer not checking everything for null (which would make code generally - not only in this class - more complex) or is it the fault of the user of this class, as setting a List entry to null doesn't really make sense? I'd tend to generally not check values for null except in some really special cases. Is this a bad style or de facto standard / standard in praxis? I know there's probably no ultimate answer for this, I'm just missing enough experience for such thing and therefore wondering what other developers think about such cases and want to hear what's done in reality about checking null (or not).

  Read the article

• Worklight console app, update

  - by jarkko

  We're using Worklight 6.1.0.0 / WebSphere 8.0.0.2 (ND/aix). This seemed pretty close to my question too, but for version 6.0. I've successfully done uninstall/install to our worklight console war package. However, there is some extra work on re-deploying adapters and such. I was looking for a way to just update the console. Among the ant tasks there is a target 'minimal-update', which sounds like what I'm looking for (is it?). However when all other pieces fell into place, I have an error for mapping the datasources: ADMA0007E: A validation error occurred in task Mapping resource references to resources. The Java Naming and Directory Interface (JNDI) name is not specified for resource reference jdbc/WorklightDS in module Worklight with EJB name . Contents of the 'minimal-update' task is pretty much the same as for 'install'. I tried that as update from websphere admin console (but i should use the ant task - right?), that gave me a wizard screen to map jdbc/WorklightDS from package to jdbc/WorklightDS on server. This left me wondering how could I tell this using the ant task.

  Read the article

• Export the datagrid data to text in asp.net+c#.net

  - by SRIRAM

  Problem:It will asks there is no assembly reference/namespace for Database Database db = DatabaseFactory.CreateDatabase(); DBCommandWrapper selectCommandWrapper = db.GetStoredProcCommandWrapper("sp_GetLatestArticles"); DataSet ds = db.ExecuteDataSet(selectCommandWrapper); StringBuilder str = new StringBuilder(); for(int i=0;i<=ds.Tables[0].Rows.Count - 1; i++) { for(int j=0;j<=ds.Tables[0].Columns.Count - 1; j++) { str.Append(ds.Tables[0].Rows[i][j].ToString()); } str.Append("<BR>"); } Response.Clear(); Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", "attachment;filename=FileName.txt"); Response.Charset = ""; Response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.NoCache); Response.ContentType = "application/vnd.text"; System.IO.StringWriter stringWrite = new System.IO.StringWriter(); System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter htmlWrite = new HtmlTextWriter(stringWrite); Response.Write(str.ToString()); Response.End();

  Read the article

• Seeding many to many tables with Entity Framework

  - by Doozer1979

  I have a meeting entity and a users entity which have a many to many relationship. I'm using Autopoco to create seed data for the Users and meetings How do i seed the UserMeetings linking table that is created by EntityFramework with seed data? The linking table has two fields in it; User_Id, and Meeting_ID. I'm looping through the list of users that autopoco creates and attaching a random number of meetings Here's what i've got so far. foreach (var user in userList) { var rand = new Random(); var amountOfMeetingsToAdd = rand.Next(1, 300); for (var i = 0; i <= amountOfMeetingsToAdd; i++) { var randomMeeting = rand.Next(1, MeetingRecords); //Error occurs on This line user.Meetings.Add(_meetings[randomMeeting]); } } I got an 'Object reference not set to an instance of an object.' even though the meeting record that i'm trying to attach does exist. For info all this is happening prior to me saving the context to the DB.

  Read the article

• Accessing global variables of custom controls in ASP.NET

  - by CL4NCY

  Hi, I have built lots of custom asp.net controls which work really well separately but I want to somehow allow global access to all their variables from anywhere on the page. I have a central control called the ContentManager which I can use to store these variables. The problem I have is that all the controls are bound at different times so I only want the variables available after they're bound. For example I have many custom repeaters on the page which when bound I want to add a reference in the content manager so all their variables are then available to use. <Custom:ContentManager ID="cm" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r1" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r2" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r3" runat="server"/> Then I want a tag which can access all variables from any of these controls. <%= cm.controls["r1"].Items[0]["name"] %> The problem with this is that the variable isn't available until the repeater is bound so I might need to use events to push out the value to tags on the page like so: <Custom:Var ID="v1" control="r1" value="Items[0]["name"]" runat="server"/> Is this possible or can you recommend a better approach?

  Read the article

• WPF or Silverlight Learning Resources for Business Applications

  - by Refracted Paladin

  I am the only developer at a non-profit organization(~200 employees) where we are a M$ shop and 90% of the things I develop are specific to our company and are internal only. I am given a lot of latitude on how I accomplish my goals so using new technologies is in my best interest. So far I have developed all winform & asp.net applications. I would now like to focus on XAML driven development(WPF & Silverlight) and would like your help. I am subscribed to numerous Silverlight blogs and I have went through a few good tutorials however, I would really appreciate a GOOD SOLID book in my hands going forward. I prefer learning books versus reference books and I REALLY would like one from a Business standpoint as well. Shameless, self-promoting is welcomed if you happen to be an author or reviewer for one that meets my criteria. I would, however, prefer that recomendations were based on first-hand experience(no, 'my friend as this awesome book he told me about', please). Though, I don't mind un-released books if say they are an updated version of an existing. disclaimer -- I know there are an insane amount of Book posts here(SO) but none I believe for my specific need. If there is and I missed it I apologize.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 482 483 484 485 486 487 488 489 490 491 492 493  | Next Page >