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  • WCF service reference namespace differs from original

    - by Thorarin
    I'm having a problem regarding namespaces used by my service references. I have a number of WCF services, say with the namespace MyCompany.Services.MyProduct (the actual namespaces are longer). As part of the product, I'm also providing a sample C# .NET website. This web application uses the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct. During initial development, the service was added as a project reference to the website and uses directly. I used a factory pattern that returns an object instance that implements MyCompany.Services.MyProduct.IMyService. So far, so good. Now I want to change this to use an actual service reference. After adding the reference and typing MyCompany.Services.MyProduct in the namespace textbox, it generates classes in the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct.MyCompany.Services.MyProduct. BAD! I don't want to have to change using directives in several places just because I'm using a proxy class. So I tried prepending the namespace with global::, but that is not accepted. Note that I hadn't even deleted the original assembly references yet, and "reuse types" is enabled, but no reusing was done, apparently. However, I don't want to keep the assembly references around in my sample website for it to work anyway. The only solution I've come up with so far is setting the default namespace for my web application to MyCompany (because it cannot be empty), and adding the service reference as Services.MyProduct. Suppose that a customer wants to use my sample website as a starting point, and they change the default namespace to OtherCompany.Whatever, this will obviously break my workaround. Is there a good solution to this problem? To summarize: I want to generate a service reference proxy in the original namespace, without referencing the assembly. Note: I have seen this question, but there was no solution provided that is acceptable for my use case. Edit: As John Saunders suggested, I've submitted some feedback to Microsoft about this: Feedback item @ Microsoft Connect

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  • codegen:nullValue vs msprop:nullValue

    - by Ken
    Ok, I have datasets that I created way back in 1.1 framework to which we used codegen:nullValue within the XSD to handle null values. However if I open one of these datasets with vs 2005 (i.e. 2.0 framework) and add a column, it removes the codegen setting from the entire xsd but adds in msprop:nullValue However, unlike previous years, I noticed this time the proper property code was NOT over riden from returning the null value specified in codegen as it was doing in the past. Meaning the msprop appears to be creating the proper code behind the scenes (See example). Anyone know of any other differnces? Should I be concerned with deploying a new xsd, WITHOUT the codegen code but instead with the msprop xml? Example: Original creates _ Public Property ParentID() As Integer Get If Me.IsParentIDNull Then Return -1 Else Return CType(Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn),Integer) End If End Get Set Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn) = value End Set End Property New creates _ Public Property ParentID() As Integer Get If Me.IsParentIDNull Then Return -1 Else Return CType(Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn),Integer) End If End Get Set Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn) = value End Set End Property BUT is there anything else that might be occuring that I am NOT seeing thus MAKING me re-enter all the codegen settings? THANKS!

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  • Why would ASP.NET MVC use session state?

    - by ray247
    Recommended by the ASP.NET team to use cache instead of session, we stopped using session from working with the WebForm model the last few years. So we normally have the session turned off in the web.config <sessionState mode="Off" /> But, now when I'm testing out a ASP.NET MVC application with this setting it throw an error in class SessionStateTempDataProvider inside the mvc framework, it asked me to turn on session state, I did and it worked. Looking at the source it uses session Dictionary<string, object> tempDataDictionary = httpContext.Session[TempDataSessionStateKey] as Dictionary<string, object>; // line 20 in SessionStateTempDataProvider.cs So, why would they use session here? What am I missing? Thanks, Ray. ======================================================== Edit Sorry didn't mean for this post to debate on session vs. cache, but rather in the context of the ASP.NET MVC, I was just wondering why session is used here. In this Scott Watermasysk blog post he mentioned on turning off session too as a good practice, so I'm just wondering do I have to turn it on to use MVC from here on?

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  • Pls help working with Dropdownlist in scroll window.

    - by Rahul
    Hi all, Data is stored in the database table with the field document type and document id. And displayed in the scrollwindow, scrollwindow is editable. Data displayed like this: In scrollwindow dropdown items are quote, order, invoice etc. And suppose for Quote type document id is QTE100, and for order is ORD100 etc. In this format data is displayed in the scrollwindow. Here my query is at run time when user change the document type say for Quote to Order warning message should display like “This range is not valid”. And since the scrollwindow editable when user select any new document type from dropdown list system should allow to add that new document type and should not display any message. Pls somebody help me how can I achieve this???pls………pls…......pls For this I have written this code in dropdown document change event. Document Type Site_Scroll Document Type_CHG: warning "The range entered isn't valid."; clear window 'Document Type Site_Scroll'; fill window 'Document Type Site_Scroll' table sop_site_line_temp; But whenever I am changing any document from existing one getting the warning message like “This range is not valid” this is expected, but after changing when the window is filled again by temp table focus is setting to document type dropdown list. One more thing whenever I am going to select any new document type from document type I am getting the same warning message which is not expected, system should allow user to select new document type without giving any warning message. Pls….somebody give me some idea or pls modify my code….

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  • Alpha blending colors in .NET Compact Framwork 2.0

    - by Adam Haile
    In the Full .NET framework you can use the Color.FromArgb() method to create a new color with alpha blending, like this: Color blended = Color.FromArgb(alpha, color); or Color blended = Color.FromArgb(alpha, red, green , blue); However in the Compact Framework (2.0 specifically), neither of those prototypes are valid, you only get: Color.FromArgb(int red, int green, int blue); and Color.FromArgb(int val); The first one, obviously, doesn't even let you enter an alpha value, but the documentation for the latter shows that "val" is a 32bit ARGB value (as 0xAARRGGBB as opposed to the standard 24bit 0xRRGGBB), so it would make sense that you could just build the ARGB value and pass it to the function. I tried this with the following: private Color FromARGB(byte alpha, byte red, byte green, byte blue) { int val = (alpha << 24) | (red << 16) | (green << 8) | blue; return Color.FromArgb(val); } But no matter what I do, the alpha blending never works, the resulting color always as full opacity, even when setting the alpha value to 0. Has anyone gotten this to work on Compact Framework?

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  • Impossible to remove directory

    - by Mark
    Evidently I've never had to delete a directory using win32 sdk before, because its apparently an impossible task. I've tried anything and everything - RemoveDirectory, SHFileOperation with FO_DELETE, etc. Currently I call CreateDirectory in one thread, start another thread, copy some files to this directory in the new thread, then delete all the files in the directory in the new thread, and then back in the original thread that created the directory, try to delete the now empty directory and it fails. The directory really and truly is empty when I try to delete it, but it makes no difference. The whole thread aspect is irrelevant I think because at one point everything was in one thread and it didn't work. I'm currently setting a SecurityAttributes structure on CreateDirectory to grant access to everyone, but it makes no difference. RemoveDirectory in the past has returned '32' on GetLastError, which I believe is Sharing violation. But even if I just try to delete the empty directory from the command line, it refuses saying, "The process cannot access the file because it is being used by another process." until I shut down the entire application that created the directory. (Note: the directory is created in GetTempPath.)

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  • How can I optimize retrieving lowest edit distance from a large table in SQL?

    - by Matt
    Hey, I'm having troubles optimizing this Levenshtein Distance calculation I'm doing. I need to do the following: Get the record with the minimum distance for the source string as well as a trimmed version of the source string Pick the record with the minimum distance If the min distances are equal (original vs trimmed), choose the trimmed one with the lowest distance If there are still multiple records that fall under the above two categories, pick the one with the highest frequency Here's my working version: DECLARE @Results TABLE ( ID int, [Name] nvarchar(200), Distance int, Frequency int, Trimmed bit ) INSERT INTO @Results SELECT ID, [Name], (dbo.Levenshtein(@Source, [Name])) As Distance, Frequency, 'False' As Trimmed FROM MyTable INSERT INTO @Results SELECT ID, [Name], (dbo.Levenshtein(@SourceTrimmed, [Name])) As Distance, Frequency, 'True' As Trimmed FROM MyTable SET @ResultID = (SELECT TOP 1 ID FROM @Results ORDER BY Distance, Trimmed, Frequency) SET @Result = (SELECT TOP 1 [Name] FROM @Results ORDER BY Distance, Trimmed, Frequency) SET @ResultDist = (SELECT TOP 1 Distance FROM @Results ORDER BY Distance, Trimmed, Frequency) SET @ResultTrimmed = (SELECT TOP 1 Trimmed FROM @Results ORDER BY Distance, Trimmed, Frequency) I believe what I need to do here is to.. Not dumb the results to a temporary table Do only 1 select from `MyTable` Setting the results right in the select from the initial select statement. (Since select will set variables and you can set multiple variables in one select statement) I know there has to be a good implementation to this but I can't figure it out... this is as far as I got: SELECT top 1 @ResultID = ID, @Result = [Name], (dbo.Levenshtein(@Source, [Name])) As distOrig, (dbo.Levenshtein(@SourceTrimmed, [Name])) As distTrimmed, Frequency FROM MyTable WHERE /* ... yeah I'm lost */ ORDER BY distOrig, distTrimmed, Frequency Any ideas?

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  • vb.net inline IF with OR... not evaluating

    - by rockinthesixstring
    I'm working on a small problem where I'm trying to show/hide a panel based on two criteria A specific data field must not be blank The specific data filed must also not equal "Not Relocatable" Unfortunately this doesn't seem to be working for me (note that setting either one or the other criteria works just fine.) <asp:Panel runat="server" Visible='<%#If(Not String.IsNullOrEmpty(DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "_236")) Or Not DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "_236") = "Not Relocatable", True, False)%>'> <tr> <td> </td> <td class="align-right lightgreen"> Buyer would consider relocating a business, if it is: </td> <td> </td> <td colspan="3"> <%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "_236")%> </td> <td> </td> </tr> </asp:Panel> Can anyone lend a hand to rectify this problem for me?

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  • retrieving multiple versions through API through hbase

    - by sammy
    hello , this is a continuation of my previous question where id used hbase shell.. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3024417/facing-problems-while-updating-rows-in-hbase i tried the same with API.. im not able to figure out how to retrieve all versions , iterate and print their values for a specific row... i've spending hours reading... please help me out... Scan s = new Scan(Bytes.toBytes("row1")); s.addColumn(Bytes.toBytes("column"),Bytes.toBytes("address")); SETTING RANGE FOR THE VERSIONS s.setTimeRange(0L,6L); ResultScanner scanner = table.getScanner(s); for (Result r : scanner) { for(KeyValue kv : r.sorted()) { System.out.println("To"+kv.getTimestamp()); System.out.println("from "+Bytes.toString(kv.getKey())); System.out.println("To "+Bytes.toString(kv.getValue())); } scanner.close(); } here im intending to print all versions of the column..... but it gives the most recent one... im stuck here...

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  • In CSS, how to not float a 300px wide Div to the next line?

    - by Jian Lin
    Say, there is a bar that is styled at the bottom of the viewport, using position: fixed; bottom: 0; left: 0; width: 100%; height 50px; overflow: hidden and then there are 4 Divs inside it, each one floated to the left. Each Div is about 300px wide or can be more (depending on the content) Now, when the window is 1200 pixel wide, and we see all 4 Divs, but when the window is resize to be 1180 pixel wide (just 20 pixels less), then the whole 300px wide Div will disappear, because it is "floated" to the next line. So how can this be made so that, the Div will stay there and showing 280px of itself, rather than totally disappear? By the way, white-space: nowrap won't work as that probably has to do with not wrapping inline content. I was thinking of putting another Div inside this Div, having a fixed width of 1200px or 2000px, so that all Divs will float on the same level in this inner Div, and the outer Div will cut it off with the overflow: hidden. But this seems more like a hack... since the wide of all those Divs can be dynamic, and setting a fixed width of 1200px or 2000px seems like too much of a hack.

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  • How do I use a variable within an extended class public variable

    - by Gerry Humphrey
    Have a class that I am using, I am overriding variables in the class to change them to what values I need, but I also not sure if or how to handle an issue. I need to add a key that is generated to each of this URLs before the class calls them. I cannot modify the class file itself. use Theme/Ride class ETicket extends Ride { public $key='US20120303'; // Not in original class public $accessURL1 = 'http://domain.com/keycheck.php?key='.$key; public $accessURL2 = 'http://domain.com/keycheck.php?key='.$key; } I understand that you cannot use a variable in the setting of the public class variables. Just not sure what would be the way to actually do something like this in the proper format. My OOP skills are weak. I admit it. So if someone has a suggestion on where I could read up on it and get a clue, it would be appreciated as well. I guess I need OOP for Dummies. =/

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  • Django Development Environment Setup Questions

    - by Ross Peoples
    Hello, I'm trying to set up a good development environment for a Django project that I will be working on from two different physical locations. I have two Mac machines, one at home and one at work that I do most of my development on. I currently host a Ubuntu virtual machine on one of the machines to host the Django environemnt, install DropBox on it, and edit source code from my Mac. When I save the code file, the changes get synced over DropBox to the Ubuntu VM and the Django development server automatically restarts because of the change. This method has worked well in the past, but I am starting to use DropBox for a lot of other things now and don't want all of that to be downloaded on every virtual machine I use. Plus, I want to start using Eclipse + PyDev to be able to debug code and have code completion. Currently, I use TextEdit which is great, but doesn't support debugging or completion. So what are my options? I thought about setting up a Parallels VM on a thumb drive that has my entire environment on it (Eclipse included), but that has its own problems. Any other thoughts?

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  • Passing variables to a Custom Zend Form Element

    - by user322003
    Hi, I'm trying to create a custom form element which extends Zend_Form_Element_Text with a validator (so I don't have to keep setting up the validator when I use certain elements). Anyway, I'm having trouble passing $maxChars variable to it when I instantiate it in my Main form. I've provided my shortened code below This is my custom element below class My_Form_Custom_Element extends Zend_Form_Element_Text { public $maxChars public function init() { $this->addValidator('StringLength', true, array(0, $this->maxChars)) } public function setProperties($maxChars) { $this->maxChars= $maxChars; } } This is where I instantiate my custom form element. class My_Form_Abc extends Zend_Form { public function __construct($options = null) { parent::__construct($options); $this->setName('abc'); $customElement = new My_Form_Custom_Element('myCustomElement'); $customElement->setProperties(100); //**<----This is where i set the $maxChars** $submit = new Zend_Form_Element_Submit('submit'); $submit -> setAttrib('id', 'submitbutton'); $this->addElements(array($customElement ,$submit)); } } When I try to pass '100' using $customElement-setProperties(100) in my Form, it doesnt get passed properly to my StringLength validator. I assume it's because the validator is getting called in Init? How can I fix this?

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  • Sending Email over VPN SmtpException net_io_connectionclosed

    - by Holy Christ
    I am sending an email from a WPF application. When sending as a domain user on the network, the emails sends as expected. However, when I attempt to send email over a VPN connection, I get the following exception: Exception: System.Net.Mail.SmtpException: Failure sending mail. --- System.IO.IOException: Unable to read data from the transport connection: net_io_connectionclosed. at System.Net.Mail.SmtpReplyReaderFactory.ProcessRead(Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 read, Boolean readLine) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpReplyReaderFactory.ReadLines(SmtpReplyReader caller, Boolean oneLine) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpReplyReaderFactory.ReadLine(SmtpReplyReader caller) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpConnection.GetConnection(String host, Int32 port) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpTransport.GetConnection(String host, Int32 port) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpClient.GetConnection() at System.Net.Mail.SmtpClient.Send(MailMessage message) I have tried using impersonation as well as setting the Credentials on the SmtpClient. Neither seem to work: using (new ImpersonateUser("myUser", "MYDOMAIN", "myPass")) { var client = new SmtpClient("myhost.com"); client.UseDefaultCredentials = true; client.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("myUser", "myPass", "MYDOMAIN"); client.Send(mailMessage); } I've also tried using Wireshark to view the message over the wire, but I don't know enough about SMTP to know what I'm looking for. One other variable is that the machine I'm using on the VPN is Vista Business and the machine on the network is Win7. I don't think it's related, but then I wouldn't be asking if I knew the issue! :) Any ideas?

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  • Multiple SessionFactories in Windows Service with NHibernate

    - by Rob Taylor
    Hi all, I have a Webapp which connects to 2 DBs (one core, the other is a logging DB). I must now create a Windows service which will use the same business logic/Data access DLLs. However when I try to reference 2 session factories in the Service App and call the factory.GetCurrentSession() method, I get the error message "No session bound to current context". Does anyone have a suggestion about how this can be done? public class StaticSessionManager { public static readonly ISessionFactory SessionFactory; public static readonly ISessionFactory LoggingSessionFactory; static StaticSessionManager() { string fileName = System.Configuration.ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings["DefaultNHihbernateConfigFile"]; string executingPath = System.IO.Path.GetDirectoryName(System.Reflection.Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetName().CodeBase); fileName = executingPath + "\\" + fileName; SessionFactory = cfg.Configure(fileName).BuildSessionFactory(); cfg = new Configuration(); fileName = System.Configuration.ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings["LoggingNHihbernateConfigFile"]; fileName = executingPath + "\\" + fileName; LoggingSessionFactory = cfg.Configure(fileName).BuildSessionFactory(); } } The configuration file has the setting: <property name="current_session_context_class">call</property> The service sets up the factories: private ISession _session = null; private ISession _loggingSession = null; private ISessionFactory _sessionFactory = StaticSessionManager.SessionFactory; private ISessionFactory _loggingSessionFactory = StaticSessionManager.LoggingSessionFactory; ... _sessionFactory = StaticSessionManager.SessionFactory; _loggingSessionFactory = StaticSessionManager.LoggingSessionFactory; _session = _sessionFactory.OpenSession(); NHibernate.Context.CurrentSessionContext.Bind(_session); _loggingSession = _loggingSessionFactory.OpenSession(); NHibernate.Context.CurrentSessionContext.Bind(_loggingSession); So finally, I try to call the correct factory by: ISession session = StaticSessionManager.SessionFactory.GetCurrentSession(); Can anyone suggest a better way to handle this? Thanks in advance! Rob

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  • Group / User based security. Table / SQL question

    - by Brett
    Hi, I'm setting up a group / user based security system. I have 4 tables as follows: user groups group_user_mappings acl where acl is the mapping between an item_id and either a group or a user. The way I've done the acl table, I have 3 columns of note (actually 4th one as an auto-id, but that is irrelevant) col 1 item_id (item to access) col 3 user_id (user that is allowed to access) col 3 group_id (group that is allowed to access) So for example item1, peter, , item2, , group1 item3, jane, , so either the acl will give access to a user or a group. Any one line in the ACL table with either have an item - user mapping, or an item group. If I want to have a query that returns all objects a user has access to, I think I need to have a SQL query with a UNION, because I need 2 separate queries that join like.. item - acl - group - user AND item - acl - user This I guess will work OK. Is this how its normally done? Am I doing this the right way? Seems a little messy. I was thinking I could get around it by creating a single user group for each person, so I only ever deal with groups in my SQL, but this seems a little messy as well..

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  • What VC++ compiler/linker does when building a C++ project with Managed Extension

    - by ???
    The initial problem is that I tried to rebuild a C++ project with debug symbols and copied it to test machine, The output of the project is external COM server(.exe file). When calling the COM interface function, there's a RPC call failre: COMException(0x800706BE): The remote procedure call failed. According to the COM HRESULT design, if the FACILITY code is 7, it's actually a WIN32 error, and the win32 error code is 0x6BE, which is the above mentioned "remote procedure call failed". All I do is replace the COM server .exe file, the origin file works well. When I checked into the project, I found it's a C++ project with Managed Extension. When I checking the DLL with reflector, it shows there's 2 additional .NET assembly reference. Then I checked the project setting and found nothing about the extra 2 assembly reference. I turned on the show includes option of compiler and verbose library of linker, and try to analyze whether the assembly is indirectly referenced via .h file. I've collect all the .h file and grep all the files with '#using' '#import' and the assembly file itself. There really is a '#using ' in one of the .h file but not-relevant to the referenced assembly. And about the linked .lib library files, only one of the .lib file is a side-product of another managed-extension-enabled C++ project, all others are produced by a pure, traditional C++ project. For the managed-extension-enabled C++ project, I checked the output DLL assembly, it did NOT reference to the 2 assembly. I even try to capture the access of the additional assembly file via sysinternal's filemon and procmon, but the rebuild process does NOT access these file. I'm very confused about the compile and linking process model of a VC++/CLI project, where the additional assembly reference slipped into the final assembly? Thanks in advance for any of your help.

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  • Use queried json data in a function

    - by SztupY
    I have a code similar to this: $.ajax({ success: function(data) { text = ''; for (var i = 0; i< data.length; i++) { text = text + '<a href="#" id="Data_'+ i +'">' + data[i].Name + "</a><br />"; } $("#SomeId").html(text); for (var i = 0; i< data.length; i++) { $("#Data_"+i).click(function() { alert(data[i]); RunFunction(data[i]); return false; }); } } }); This gets an array of some data in json format, then iterates through this array generating a link for each entry. Now I want to add a function for each link that will run a function that does something with this data. The problem is that the data seems to be unavailable after the ajax success function is called (although I thought that they behave like closures). What is the best way to use the queried json data later on? (I think setting it as a global variable would do the job, but I want to avoid that, mainly because this ajax request might be called multiple times) Thanks.

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  • Emailing an excel sheet with SSL in Python

    - by jakecar
    Hi...this is my first post so let me know if there are any common courtesies I should know about. I just started programming 8 months ago, so I am fairly new. I have been doing some projects to get better. A project I'm working on now creates an Excel sheet from inputted data. It's in Python, which I just started learning a couple of weeks ago. I'm attempting to embed part of this Excel sheet into an email, sent from my school address. I have spent hours looking this up, and to no avail. There are two problems I am asking for help with: 1) I have figured out how to send an email from my GMail account, but not from my school address. My school email uses SSL port 465, which I have tried to use, but to no avail. Unfortunately, I have been having a problem setting up outgoing email for this account on my iPhone as well. It may be related? Does anyone know of common issues relating to outgoing email with SSL and Python? 2) Excel has an option of saving a sheet as a HTML. When doing so, I copy and pasted the HTML source and emailed it as an attachment. Unfortunately, the colored text did not transfer over. Does anyone know of a better way of using Python to send an excel sheet embedded in an email? Thanks for your help!

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  • run time error wats the wrong?

    - by javacode
    I am getting run time error import javax.mail.*; import javax.mail.internet.*; import java.util.*; public class SendMail { public static void main(String [] args)throws MessagingException { SendMail sm=new SendMail(); sm.postMail(new String[]{"[email protected]"},"hi","hello","[email protected]"); } public void postMail( String recipients[ ], String subject, String message , String from) throws MessagingException { boolean debug = false; //Set the host smtp address Properties props = new Properties(); props.put("mail.smtp.host", "webmail.emailmyname.com"); // create some properties and get the default Session Session session = Session.getDefaultInstance(props, null); session.setDebug(debug); // create a message Message msg = new MimeMessage(session); // set the from and to address InternetAddress addressFrom = new InternetAddress(from); msg.setFrom(addressFrom); InternetAddress[] addressTo = new InternetAddress[recipients.length]; for (int i = 0; i < recipients.length; i++) { addressTo[i] = new InternetAddress(recipients[i]); } msg.setRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO, addressTo); // Optional : You can also set your custom headers in the Email if you Want msg.addHeader("MyHeaderName", "myHeaderValue"); // Setting the Subject and Content Type msg.setSubject(subject); msg.setContent(message, "text/plain"); Transport.send(msg); } } Error Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: SendMail Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: SendMail at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) Could not find the main class: SendMail. Program will exit.

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  • FreeTDS runs out of memory from DBD::Sybase

    - by skiphoppy
    When I add client charset = UTF-8 to my freetds.conf file, my DBD::Sybase program emits: Out of memory! and terminates. This happens when I call execute() on an SQL query statement that returns any ntext fields. I can return numeric data, datetimes, and nvarchars just fine, but whenever one of the output fields is ntext, I get this error. All these queries work perfectly fine without the UTF-8 setting, but I do need to handle some characters that throw warnings under the default character set. (See related question.) The error message is not formatted the same way other DBD::Sybase error messages seem to be formatted. I do get a message that a rollback() is being issued, though. (My false AutoCommit flag is being honored.) I think I read somewhere that FreeTDS uses the iconv program to convert between character sets; is it possible that this message is being emitted from iconv? If I execute the same query with the same freetds.conf settings in tsql (FreeTDS's command-line SQL shell), I don't get the error. I'm connecting to SQL Server. What do I need to do to get these queries to return successfully?

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  • JTable Insert row and refresh

    - by user269723
    Hi All, I am trying to create simple application where JTable gets updated and refreshed after data is changed.Structure is as follows. 1)Class Main which contains JFrame,JTable details. 2)SampleTableModel class which extends AbstractTableModel.I am overriding most of the methods.`import javax.swing.table.; import javax.swing.event.; import java.util.*; public class SampleTableModel extends AbstractTableModel { public SampleTableModel(){ // this.addTableModelListener( } String[] columnNames = {"A","B","C","D","E"}; int[][] data = {{1,2,3,4,5},{5,6,7,8,9},{12,13,14,15,16}}; Vector dataVector = new Vector(); public Object getValueAt(int rowIndex,int columnIndex) { return data[rowIndex][columnIndex]; } public int getColumnCount(){ return 5; } public int getRowCount(){ return 3; } public String getColumnName(int columnIndex){ return columnNames[columnIndex]; } public void setValueAt(Object value,int row,int column){ data[row][column] =99; } public void notifyTable(AEMessage message){ /* * This method will be called from another class to update JTable. * */ data[0][1]=999; data[0][2]=8838; data[1][1]=8883; fireTableRowsUpdated(0,3); } } ` As you can see, notifyTable will be called from another class(which is actually a thread-which calls this method frequently) Problem is I don't see data being changed in JTable.I see only the initialized data. In the Main class- I am setting like this- RVJDataTable.setModel(new SampleTableModel());

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  • Selectively disabling WebControl elements

    - by NeilD
    I have an ASP.Net MasterPage with a PlaceHolder element. The contents of the PlaceHolder can be viewed in two modes: read-write, and read-only. To implement read only, I wanted to disable all inputs inside the PlaceHolder. I decided to do this by recursively looping through the controls collection of the PlaceHolder, finding all the ones which inherit from WebControl, and setting control.Enabled = false;. Here's what I originally wrote: private void DisableControls(Control c) { if (c.GetType().IsSubclassOf(typeof(WebControl))) { WebControl wc = c as WebControl; wc.Enabled = false; } //Also disable all child controls. foreach (Control child in c.Controls) { DisableControls(child); } } This worked fine, and all controls are disabled... But then the requirement changed ;) NOW, we want to disable all controls except ones which have a certain CssClass. So, my first attempt at the new version: private void DisableControls(Control c) { if (c.GetType().IsSubclassOf(typeof(WebControl))) { WebControl wc = c as WebControl; if (!wc.CssClass.ToLower().Contains("someclass")) wc.Enabled = false; } //Also disable all child controls. foreach (Control child in c.Controls) { DisableControls(child); } } Now I've hit a problem. If I have (for example) an <ASP:Panel> which contains an <ASP:DropDownList>, and I want to keep the DropDownList enabled, then this isn't working. I call DisableControls on the Panel, and it gets disabled. It then loops through the children, and calls DisableControls on the DropDownList, and leaves it enabled (as intended). However, because the Panel is disabled, when the page renders, everything inside the <div> tag is disabled! Can you think of a way round this? I've thought about changing c.GetType().IsSubclassOf(typeof(WebControl)) to c.GetType().IsSubclassOf(typeof(SomeParentClassThatAllInputElementsInheritFrom)), but I can't find anything appropriate!

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  • javaScript .splice() not working on correctly

    - by adardesign
    I am setting a cookie for each navigation container that is clicked on. It sets an array that is joined and set the cookie value. if its clicked again then its removed from the array. It somehow buggy. It only splices after clicking on other elements. and then it behaves weird. Thanks much. var navLinkToOpen; var setNavCookie = function(value){ var isSet = false; var checkCookies = checkNavCookie() setCookieHelper = checkCookies? checkCookies.split(","): []; console.log("value passed", value) for(i in setCookieHelper){ if(value == setCookieHelper[i]){ setCookieHelper.splice(value,1); isSet = true; } } if(!isSet){ setCookieHelper.push(value) } setCookieHelper.join(",") document.cookie = "navLinkToOpen"+"="+setCookieHelper; } var checkNavCookie = function(){ var allCookies = document.cookie.split( ';' ); for (i = 0; i < allCookies.length; i++ ){ temp = allCookies[i].split("=") if(temp[0].match("navLinkToOpen")){ var getValue = temp[1] } } return getValue || false } $(document).ready(function() { $("#LeftNav li").has("b").addClass("navHeader").not(":first").siblings("li").hide() $(".navHeader").click(function(){ $(this).toggleClass("collapsed").nextUntil("li:has('b')").slideToggle(300); setNavCookie($('.navHeader').index($(this))) return false }) console.log("init",document.cookie) var testCookies = checkNavCookie(); if(testCookies){ finalArrayValue = testCookies.split(",") for(i in finalArrayValue){ $(".navHeader").eq(finalArrayValue[i]).toggleClass("collapsed").nextUntil(".navHeader").slideToggle (0); } } });

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  • Why ntp settle time toe long?

    - by fercis
    I simply try to set-up NTP to my system. Both server and clients will run on my computer which are linked together with local link. One of them will have the reference clock. Both the server and Client are linux Ubuntu. I install ntp daemon to both sides. In clients, I enter the ip address of the server to /etc/ntp.conf. Everything works fine. However, the setting of the time to correct time in client side takes too long time (around 17 minutes). Is it possible to gather correct time just at startup. I write some code that regularly calls "ntpdate " by system call and the problem is solved but there has to be something that allows me to decrease the poll time of the client to 1-2 minutes. There are some settings as maxpoll - minpoll in ntp.conf, but I couldn't manage to understand their function, because with the best configuration (minpoll 4? 16 seconds?) I also cannot see that client side corrects its time before 10 minutes. In addition, in some cases my client is an embedded system (ARM - IGEP board) and it always opens with an irrelevant date (2-3 years ago). So the time that takes to correct the time should not depend on the time difference also.

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