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• Installing Ruby via rbenv fails

  - by Maximus S

  Problem: I installed ruby, but it is not recognized correctly. I'm following the deploying to VPS: https://github.com/railscasts/335-deploying-to-a-vps I am setting my server on ubuntu 12.04 LTS to deploy my rails app. I'm following the railscast on deploying to a VPS, and trying to install ruby through rbenv. It seemed everything was installed correctly, but when I tried to check the ruby version, it gave me errors. The following are the commands that I ran. deployer@max:~$ rbenv install 1.9.3-p125 Downloading yaml-0.1.4.tar.gz... -> http://cloud.github.com/downloads/sstephenson/ruby-build-download-mirror/36c852831d02cf90508c29852361d01b Installing yaml-0.1.4... Installed yaml-0.1.4 to /home/deployer/.rbenv/versions/1.9.3-p125 Downloading ruby-1.9.3-p125.tar.gz... -> http://cloud.github.com/downloads/sstephenson/ruby-build-download-mirror/e3ea86b9d3fc2d3ec867f66969ae3b92 Installing ruby-1.9.3-p125... Installed ruby-1.9.3-p125 to /home/deployer/.rbenv/versions/1.9.3-p125 Downloading rubygems-1.8.23.tar.gz... -> http://cloud.github.com/downloads/sstephenson/ruby-build-download-mirror/178b0ebae78dbb46963c51ad29bb6bd9 Installing rubygems-1.8.23... Installed rubygems-1.8.23 to /home/deployer/.rbenv/versions/1.9.3-p125 deployer@max:~$ rbenv global 1.9.3-p125 deployer@max:~$ ruby -v 'ruby' program can be found in the following packages: * ruby1.8 * ruby1.9.1 How do I solve this?

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• Message driven bean not responding until client method is complete

  - by poijoi

  Hi, I have a MDB deployed on Jboss 4.2.2 and a client on the same server that produces messages and expects a reply from the MDB via a temporary queue created before the message is sent. When I run the client, I see that it creates the message, puts it in the queue and waits for the reply (no problem so far) ... but when I check in the logs I see that the timeout is reached and no response is received. When the timeout occurs and the client's method is complete the MDB starts processing the message that should have been processed the moment the client put it in the queue. As a consequence of this timing issue, when the MDB tries to reply to the temp queue, it fails since the client is already gone. If I run the same client from a remote server, I have no problem... The MDB picks up the message from the queue right away and the client receives its response right after the processing is complete. I'm using container managed transactions. I suspect it has something to do with that... I think the client's "send message/receive reply" might be all be considered a transaction before it commits to put the message in the queue... but I'm not sure if this is correct. If this is the case, why did I not see the same behavior from the remote client? is client managed transaction the default setting and that's what my remote server was using? Any idea how to fix this? Thanks in advance! PJ

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• JMF microphone volume controller

  - by TacB0sS

  How to obtain the Microphone volume controller in JMF? this is what I have: I tried this implementation concept of yours, but I keep getting a null from the first volume processor when I try to get the stream, here is how I do it: // the device is the media device specifically audio Processor processorForVolume = Manager.createProcessor(device.getLocator()); // wait until configured ProcessorStates newState = new ProcessorStateListener(Processor.Configured).waitForProcessorState(processorForVolume); System.out.println("volumeProcessorState: "+newState); // setting the content descriptor to null - read in another thread this allows to get the gain control processorForVolume.setContentDescriptor(null); // set the track control format to one supported by the device and the track control. // I didn't match it to an RTP allowed format, but I don't think this has anything to do with it... TrackControl[] trackControls = processorForVolume.getTrackControls(); if (trackControls.length == 0) throw new MC_Exception("No track controls where found for this device:", new Object[]{device}); for (TrackControl control : trackControls) trackManipulator.manipulateTrackControls(control); // wait until the processor is realized newState = new ProcessorStateListener(Controller.Realized).waitForProcessorState(processorForVolume); System.out.println("volumeProcessorState: "+newState); // receives the gain control micVolumeController = processorForVolume.getGainControl(); // cannot get the output stream to process further... any suggestions? processor = Manager.createProcessor(processorForVolume.getDataOutput()); new ProcessorStateListener(Processor.Configured).waitForProcessorState(processor); processor.setContentDescriptor(DeviceCapturingManager.RAW_RTP); new ProcessorStateListener(Controller.Realized).waitForProcessorState(processor); this is the output It generates: volumeProcessorState: Configured format set to track control - com.sun.media.ProcessEngine$ProcTControl@1627c16: LINEAR, 48000.0 Hz, 16-bit, Stereo, LittleEndian, Signed volumeProcessorState: Realized and the data output from the processor is Null. I should make clear that when the content descriptor != null I do get an output stream but not the volume controller, and the when it is null I get the controller, but no stream. I try to connect to an audio microphone device Adam.

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• With a browser, how do I know which decimal separator does the client use?

  - by Quassnoi

  I'm developing a web application. I need to display some decimal data correctly so that it can be copied and pasted into a certain GUI application that is not under my control. The GUI application is locale sensitive and it accepts only the correct decimal separator which is set in the system. I can guess the decimal separator from Accept-Language and the guess will be correct in 95% cases, but sometimes it fails. Is there any way to do it on server side (preferably, so that I can collect statistics), or on client side? Update: The whole point of the task is doing it automatically. In fact, this webapp is a kind of online interface to a legacy GUI which helps to fill the forms correctly. The kind of users that use it mostly have no idea on what a decimal separator is. The Accept-Language solution is implemented and works, but I'd like to improve it. Update2: I need to retrive a very specific setting: decimal separator set in Control Panel / Regional and Language Options / Regional Options / Customize. I deal with four kinds of operating systems: Russian Windows with a comma as a DS (80%). English Windows with a period as a DS (15%). Russian Windows with a period as a DS to make poorly written English applications work (4%). English Windows with a comma as a DS to make poorly written Russian applications work (1%). All 100% of clients are in Russia and the legacy application deals with Russian goverment-issued forms, so asking for a country will yield 100% of Russian Federation, and GeoIP will yield 80% of Russian Federation and 20% of other, incorrect answers.

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• Modify MySQL INSERT statement to omit the insertion of certain rows

  - by dave

  I'm trying to expand a little on a statement that I received help with last week. As you can see, I'm setting up a temporary table and inserting rows of student data from a recently administered test for a few dozen schools. When the rows are inserted, they are sorted by the score (totpct_stu, high to low) and the row_number is added, with 1 representing the highest score, etc. I've learned that there were some problems at school #9999 in SMITH's class (every student made a perfect score and they were the only students in the district to do so). So, I do not want to import SMITH's class. As you can see, I DELETED SMITH's class, but this messed up the row numbering for the remainder of student at the school (e.g., high score row_number is now 20, not 1). How can I modify the INSERT statement so as to not insert this class? Thanks! DROP TEMPORARY TABLE IF EXISTS avgpct ; CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE avgpct_1 ( sch_code VARCHAR(3), schabbrev VARCHAR(75), teachername VARCHAR(75), totpct_stu DECIMAL(5,1), row_number SMALLINT, dummy VARCHAR(75) ); -- ---------------------------------------- INSERT INTO avgpct SELECT sch_code , schabbrev , teachername , totpct_stu , @num := IF( @GROUP = schabbrev, @num + 1, 1 ) AS row_number , @GROUP := schabbrev AS dummy FROM sci_rpt WHERE grade = '05' AND totpct_stu >= 1 -- has a valid score ORDER BY sch_code, totpct_stu DESC ; -- --------------------------------------- -- select * from avgpct ; -- --------------------------------------- DELETE FROM avgpct_1 WHERE sch_code = '9999' AND teachername = 'SMITH' ;

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• Django and json request

  - by Hulk

  In a template i have the following code <script> var url="/mypjt/my_timer" $.post(url, paramarr, function callbackHandler(dict) { alert('got response back'); if (dict.flag == 2) { alert('1'); $.jGrowl("Data could not be saved"); } else if(dict.ret_status == 1) { alert('2'); $.jGrowl("Data saved successfully"); window.location = "/mypjt/display/" + dict.rid; } }, "json" ); </script> In views i have the following code, def my_timer(request): dict={} try: a= timer.objects.get(pk=1) dict({'flag':1}) return HttpResponse(simplejson.dumps(dict), mimetype='application/javascript') except: dict({'flag':1}) return HttpResponse(simplejson.dumps(dict), mimetype='application/javascript') My question is since we are making a json request and in the try block ,after setting the flag ,cant we return a page directly as return render_to_response('mypjt/display.html',context_instance=RequestContext(request,{'dict': dict})) instead of sending the response, because on success again in the html page we redirect the code Also if there is a exception then only can we return the json request. My only concern is that the interaction between client and server should be minimal. Thanks..

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• speed string search in PHP

  - by Marc

  Hi! I have a 1.2GB file that contains a one line string. What I need is to search the entire file to find the position of an another string (currently I have a list of strings to search). The way what I'm doing it now is opening the big file and move a pointer throught 4Kb blocks, then moving the pointer X positions back in the file and get 4Kb more. My problem is that a bigger string to search, a bigger time he take to got it. Can you give me some ideas to optimize the script to get better search times? this is my implementation: function busca($inici){ $limit = 4096; $big_one = fopen('big_one.txt','r'); $options = fopen('options.txt','r'); while(!feof($options)){ $search = trim(fgets($options)); $retro = strlen($search);//maybe setting this position absolute? (like 12 or 15) $punter = 0; while(!feof($big_one)){ $ara = fgets($big_one,$limit); $pos = strpos($ara,$search); $ok_pos = $pos + $punter; if($pos !== false){ echo "$pos - $punter - $search : $ok_pos <br>"; break; } $punter += $limit - $retro; fseek($big_one,$punter); } fseek($big_one,0); } } Thanks in advance!

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• UIDatePicker date method is picking wrong date: iPhone Dev

  - by prd

  Hi, I am getting very strange behaviour on UIDatePicker. I have a view with date picker declared in .h file as IBOutlet UIDatePicker *datePicker; with property nonatomic and retain. datePicker is properly linked in IB file. In the code I am setting the minimum, maximum, initial date and action to call for UICOntrolEventValueChanged using following code If (!currentDate) { initialDate = [NSDate date]; } else { initialDate = currentdate; } [datePicker setMinimumDate:[NSDate date]]; [datePicker setMaximumDate:[[NSDate date] addTimeInterval:5 * 365.25 * 24 * 60 * 60]]; // to get upto 5 years [datePicker setDate:initialDate animated:YES]; [datePicker addTarget:self action:@selector(getDatePickerValue:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; In getDatePickerValue, I get the new date using datePicker.date. When the view is closed (using a done button), I get the current value of the date using datePicker.date. Now if the view is called with no 'currentDate', the picker returns 'todays date'. This is what happens the 'first' time my pickerView is called. Each subsequent call to the view, with no 'current date' gives me a different and later date from today. So, first time I get today's date say 9 Jun 2010 second time datePicker.date returns 10 Jun 2010 third time 11 Jun 2010 and so on. Though its not always incremental, but mostly it is. I have put NSLogs, and verified the initial date is set correctly. The problem is only on the device (on OS 3.0), the issue is not replicated on simulator. I can't find what I have done wrong. I hope somebody else has come across similar problem and can help me resolve this.

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• Building a custom CMS, how to handle page settings?

  - by davidosomething

  Not a coldfusion specific question so answer however you can. I've inherited a ColdFusion project where at the top of every page various page-setting specific variables are set, such as: <cfset request.page.title = "Example Page"> <cfset request.page.machineTitle = "example_page"> <cfset request.page.isJQueryEnabled = 1> <cfset request.page.showNavigation = 1> <cfset request.page.SWFObjectVersion = 2.2> I'm thinking about creating a database table with just integer page_id varchar key varchar value I'd reduce the variables at the top of every page to just the page id, and then call the DB for the correct settings. Is this a good idea? I hate reinventing the wheel, but this is a really big project that would require many months for a full content migration to a CMS. What are the current practices for storing page settings? (e.g., what does WordPress do? Drupal? etc.)

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• Change classes instantiated with loadNibNamed

  - by Nick H247

  I am trying to change the class of objects created with a nib with the iPhone SDK. The reason for this is; i dont know until runtime what the class is that i want the nib object to be (though they will have the same UIView based super class), and i dont want to create a different nib for every eventuality - as the .nib will be the same for each, apart from the class of one object. I have been successful, with a couple of methods, but either have some knock on effects or am unsure of how safe the methods I have used are: Method 1: Override alloc, on the super class and set a c variable to the class I require: + (id) alloc { if (theClassIWant) { id object = [theClassIWant allocWithZone:NSDefaultMallocZone()]; theClassIWant = nil; return object; } return [BaseClass allocWithZone:NSDefaultMallocZone()]; } this works well, and i assume is 'reasonably' safe, though if I alloc a subclass myself (without setting 'theClassIWant') - an object of the base class is created. I also dont really like the idea of overriding alloc... Method 2: use object_setClass(self,theClassIWant) in initWithCoder (before calling initWithCoder on the super class): - (id) initWithCoder:(NSCoder *)aDecoder { if (theClassIWant) { // the framework doesn't like this: //[self release]; //self = [theClassIWant alloc]; // whoa now! object_setClass(self,theClassIWant); theClassIWant = nil; return [self initWithCoder:aDecoder]; } if (self = [super initWithCoder:aDecoder]) { ... this also works well, but not all the subclasses are necessarily going to be the same size as the super class, so this could be very unsafe! To combat this i tried releasing and re-allocing to the correct type within initWithCoder, but i got the following error from the framework: "This coder requires that replaced objects be returned from initWithCoder:" dont quite get what this means! i am replacing an object in initWithCoder... Any comments on the validity of these methods, or suggestions of improvements or alternatives welcome!

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• Set Custom ASP.NET UserControl variables when its in a Repeater

  - by tnriverfish

  <%@ Register Src="~/Controls/PressFileDownload.ascx" TagName="pfd" TagPrefix="uc1" %> <asp:Repeater id="Repeater1" runat="Server" OnItemDataBound="RPTLayer_OnItemDataBound"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="LBLHeader" Runat="server" Visible="false"></asp:Label> <asp:Image ID="IMGThumb" Runat="server" Visible="false"></asp:Image> <asp:Label ID="LBLBody" Runat="server" class="layerBody"></asp:Label> <uc1:pfd ID="pfd1" runat="server" ShowContainerName="false" ParentContentTypeId="55" /> <asp:Literal ID="litLayerLinks" runat="server"></asp:Literal> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> System.Web.UI.WebControls.Label lbl; System.Web.UI.WebControls.Literal lit; System.Web.UI.WebControls.Image img; System.Web.UI.WebControls.HyperLink hl; System.Web.UI.UserControl uc; I need to set the ParentItemID variable for the uc1:pdf listed inside the repeater. I thought I should be able to find uc by looking in the e.Item and then setting it somehow. I think this is the part where I'm missing something. uc = (UserControl)e.Item.FindControl("pfd1"); if (uc != null) { uc.Attributes["ParentItemID"] = i.ItemID.ToString(); } Any thoughts would be appreciated. Also tried this with similar results... when I debug inside my usercontrol (pfd1) the parameters I am trying to set have not been set. uc = (UserControl)e.Item.FindControl("pfd1"); if (uc != null) { uc.Attributes.Add("ContainerID", _cid.ToString()); uc.Attributes.Add("ParentItemId", i.ItemID.ToString()); }

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• Requested operation requires an OLE DB Session object... - Connecting Excel to SQL server via ADO

  - by Frank V

  I'm attempting to take Excel 2003 and connect it to SQL Server 2000 to run a few dynamicly generated SQL Queries which ultimately filling certain cells. I'm attempting to do this via VBA via ADO (I've tried 2.8 to 2.0) but I'm getting an error while setting the ActiveConnection variable which is inside the ADODB.Connection object. I need to resolve this pretty quick... Requested operation requires an OLE DB Session object, which is not supported by the current provider. I'm honestly not sure what this error means and right now I don't care. How can get this connection to succeed so that I can run my queries? Here is my VB code: Dim SQL As String, RetValue As String SQL = " select top 1 DateTimeValue from SrcTable where x='value' " 'Not the real SQL RetValue = "" Dim RS As ADODB.Recordset Dim Con As New ADODB.Connection Dim Cmd As New ADODB.Command Con.ConnectionString = "Provider=sqloledb;DRIVER=SQL Server;Data Source=Server\Instance;Initial Catalog=MyDB_DC;User Id=<UserName>;Password=<Password>;" Con.CommandTimeout = (60 * 30) Set Cmd.ActiveConnection = Con ''Error occurs here. ' I'm not sure if the rest is right. I've just coded it. Can't get past the line above. Cmd.CommandText = SQL Cmd.CommandType = adCmdText Con.Open Set RS = Cmd.Execute() If Not RS.EOF Then RetValue = RS(0).Value Debug.Print "RetValue is: " & RetValue End If Con.Close I imagine something is wrong with the connection string but I've tried over a dozen variations. Now I'm just shooting in the dark.... Note/Update: To make matters more confusing, if I Google for the error quote above, I get a lot of hits back but nothing seems relevant or I'm not sure what information is relevant.... I've got the VBA code in "Sheet1" under "Microsoft Excel Objects." I've done this before but usually put things in a module. Could this make a difference?

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• how can we apply client side validation on fileupload control in ASP.NET to check filename contain s

  - by subodh

  I am working on ASP.NET3.5 platform. I have used a file upload control and a asp button to upload a file. Whenever i try to upload a file which contain special characterlike (file#&%.txt) it show crash and give the messeage Server Error in 'myapplication' Application. A potentially dangerous Request.Files value was detected from the client (filename="...\New Text &#.txt"). Description: Request Validation has detected a potentially dangerous client input value, and processing of the request has been aborted. This value may indicate an attempt to compromise the security of your application, such as a cross-site scripting attack. You can disable request validation by setting validateRequest=false in the Page directive or in the configuration section. However, it is strongly recommended that your application explicitly check all inputs in this case. Exception Details: System.Web.HttpRequestValidationException: A potentially dangerous Request.Files value was detected from the client (filename="...\New Text &#.txt"). Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. how can i prevent this crash using javascript at client side?

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• Ajax UpdatePanels SetFocus issue

  - by George

  I set the AutoPostback property of a textbox to True so I can process the TextChanged event on the server and, based on what they typed in the textbox, appropriately display a message in an update panel. The problem is, when the partial screen refresh is performed, no control on the screen has focus. 99% of the time, when the text in the textbox is changed, it is because the user has tabbed forward, and so, to limit the disruption in the lost of focus, I perform a "Focus" call on teh next control in the tab sequence. For the most part, this works OK, but of course, is disputive if the user is tabbing in the reverse order or has used the mouse to set the focus to another control. In these situations, the focus would be set to the next control even though the user was trying to set focus elsewhere. OK, that sucks. Now what I consider the bigger problem with calling the focus method on the server: In IE, it works OK, but in Mozilla Firefox and Chrome, setting the focus causes a repositioning of the scroll bar, even though none is necessary because the control is already in view. I realize that I could switch to doing AJAX web service calls, but these darn Updae Panels are so convenient if used in moderation. is there anyway to use updatepanels and not have these focus/scroll issues?

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• Giving another object a NSManagedObject

  - by Wayfarer

  Alright, so I'm running into an issue with my code. What I have done is subclassed UIButton so I can give it some more infomormation that pertain to my code. I have been able to create the buttons and they work great. Capiche. However, one of the things I want my subclass to hold is a reference to a NSMangedObject. I have this code in my header file: @interface ButtonSubclass : UIButton { NSManagedObjectContext *context; NSManagedObject *player; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObject *player; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObjectContext *context; - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame andTitle:(NSString*)title; //- (void)setPlayer:(NSManagedObject *)aPlayer; @end As you can see, it has a instance variable to the NSMangedobject I want it to hold (as well as the Context). But for the life of me, I can't get it to hold that NSManagedObject. I run both the @synthesize methods in the Implementation file. @synthesize context; @synthesize player; So I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. This is how I create my button: ButtonSubclass *playerButton = [[ButtonSubclass alloc] initWithFrame:frame andTitle:@"20"]; //works playerButton.context = self.context; //works playerButton.player = [players objectAtIndex:i]; //FAILS And I have initilaized the players array earlier, where I get the objects. Another weird thing is that when it gets to this spot in the code, the app crashes (woot) and the the console output stops. It doesn't give me any error, and notification at all that the app has crashed. It just... stops. So I don't even know what the error is that is crashing the code, besides it has to do with that line up there setting the "player" variable. Thoughts and ideas? I'd love your wisdom!

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• JQuery Hover does not work Mozilla

  - by josephj1989

  I have the following Snippet of code.The hover has a problem in Mozilla - It changes color on hover but some times it does not revert back when we go out.Mind you it only happens sometimes.Also in such cases if I examine the HTML using FireBug I can see that the Extra Class is assigned even after hover is out.It works OK on IE .This is a simplified version Also as you can see I am setting color on the TR.But this does not change the Color on TextBoxes inside TR. How can I make sure the background color of the Controls contained in the TR is also changed on hover. <style type="text/css"> .HighLight { background-color:Fuchsia; } .Select { border:soild 2px Blue; margin:3px; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.4.2.js"> </script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $(".Select").hover( function() { $(this).addClass("HighLight"); }, function() { $(this).removeClass("HighLight"); }); }); My Markup generated by ASP.NET Repeater Control is a table with TR assigned Class Select. <tr class="Select" > <td> <input type="checkbox" id="chkSelect" /> </td> <td> <input name="Repeater1$ctl11$tb" type="text" value="Sharp Bikes" id="Repeater1_ctl11_tb" /> </td> <td> <input name="Repeater1$ctl11$tb2" type="text" value="10/13/2004 11:15:07 AM" id="Repeater1_ctl11_tb2" /> </td> </tr>

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• Alpha blending colors in .NET Compact Framwork 2.0

  - by Adam Haile

  In the Full .NET framework you can use the Color.FromArgb() method to create a new color with alpha blending, like this: Color blended = Color.FromArgb(alpha, color); or Color blended = Color.FromArgb(alpha, red, green , blue); However in the Compact Framework (2.0 specifically), neither of those prototypes are valid, you only get: Color.FromArgb(int red, int green, int blue); and Color.FromArgb(int val); The first one, obviously, doesn't even let you enter an alpha value, but the documentation for the latter shows that "val" is a 32bit ARGB value (as 0xAARRGGBB as opposed to the standard 24bit 0xRRGGBB), so it would make sense that you could just build the ARGB value and pass it to the function. I tried this with the following: private Color FromARGB(byte alpha, byte red, byte green, byte blue) { int val = (alpha << 24) | (red << 16) | (green << 8) | blue; return Color.FromArgb(val); } But no matter what I do, the alpha blending never works, the resulting color always as full opacity, even when setting the alpha value to 0. Has anyone gotten this to work on Compact Framework?

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• Prevent Text Input expanding in IE

  - by Caroline

  Hi, I am having a problem with an input field in IE. The code is for a portlet and widths need to be dynamic as the user can place the portlet on any of the three columns in the page which all have different widths. As always it works fine in FF but not in IE. In order to make the width dyanaic I have set width="100%". Data to populate the text input comes from a DB. When the page is rendered if there is a long URL the text input expands to fill the contents in IE but in FF it just stays the same width (ie 100% of the TD that it lives in). How can I stop IE from changing the width in order to fit the contents. Setting the width to a fixed width of 100px fixes the issue but I need to have the width as a percentage in order to accommodate the layout of the portlet wherever it is put in on the page. I have tried overflow:hidden and word-wrap:break-word but I cant get either to work. Here is my input code and style sheets <td class="right" > <input type="text" class="validate[custom[url]]" value="" id="linkText" name="communicationLink" maxlength="500" maxsize="100" /> </td> .ofCommunicationsAdmin input { font-family: "Trebuchet MS"; font-size: 11px; font-weight:normal; color:#333333; overflow:hidden; } .ofCommunicationsAdmin #linkText { overflow:hidden; width:100%; border:1px #cccccc solid; background:#F4F7ED top repeat-x; } .ofCommunicationsAdmin td.right { vertical-align: top; text-align: left; }

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• WCF webHttpBinding with jQuery AJAX - removing/working around same origin policy

  - by csauve

  So I'm trying to create a C# WCF REST service that is called by jQuery. I've discovered that jQuery requires that AJAX calls are made under the same origin policy. I have a few questions for how I might proceed. I am already aware of; 1. The hacky solution of JSONP with a server callback 2. The way too much server overhead of having a cross-domain proxy. 3. Using Flash in the browser to make the call and setting up crossdomain.xml at my WCF server root. I'd rather not use these because; 1. I don't want to use JSON, or at least I don't want to be restricted to using it 2. I would like to separate the server that serves static pages from the one that serves application state. 3. Flash in this day in age is out of the question. What I'm thinking: is there anything like Flash's crossdomain.xml file that works for jQuery? Is this "same-origin" policy a part of jQuery or is it a restriction in specific browsers? If it's just a part of jQuery, maybe I'll try digging in the code to work around it.

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• Blackberry application works in simulator but not device

  - by Kai

  I read some of the similar posts on this site that deal with what seems to be the same issue and the responses didn't really seem to clarify things for me. My application works fine in the simulator. I believe I'm on Bold 9000 with OS 4.6. The app is signed. My app makes an HTTP call via 3G to fetch an XML result. type is application/xhtml+xml. In the device, it gives no error. it makes no visual sign of error. I tell the try catch to print the results to the screen and I get nothing. HttpConnection was taken right out of the demos and works fine in sim. Since it gives no error, I begin to reflect back on things I recall reading back when the project began. deviceside=true? Something like that? My request is simply HttpConnection connection = (HttpConnection)Connector.open(url); where url is just a standard url, no get vars. Based on the amount of time I see the connection arrows in the corner of the screen, I assume the app is launching the initial communication to my server, then either getting a bad result, or it gets results and the persistent store is not functioning as expected. I have no idea where to begin with this. Posting code would be ridiculous since it would be basically my whole app. I guess my question is if anyone knows of any major differences with device versus simulator that could cause something like http connection or persistent store to fail? A build setting? An OS restriction? Any standard procedure I may have just not known about that everyone should do before beginning device testing? Thanks

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• How do I run a universal app on the iPhone 3.1.3 simulator?

  - by bpapa

  I'm working on a new app that I want to be universal for the iPhone and iPad. I started out with the "Create a Window-based app" wizard, and it created separate app delegates in "iPhone" and "iPad" groups. Since I already was quite familiar with iPhone dev, I did that part of my project, and now I'm ready to do some iPad stuff. So... I started out by adding a UISplitViewController to my iPad delegate, switch the Active SDK to 3.2, and it works! But when I switch back to 3.1.3, and try to run it in the simulator, Build and Go fails. For starters, I see: ...path.../iPad/AppDelegate_Pad.h:13: error: expected specifier-qualifier-list before 'UISplitViewController' I've got my Base SDK set to 3.2 and my Deployment Target set to 3.1.3. I thought that was enough. But I also have found in the documentation this method to conditionally compile: #if __IPHONE_OS_VERSION_MAX_ALLOWED >= 30200 MyIPadViewController* vc; // Create the iPad view controller #else MyIPhoneViewController* vc; // Create the iPhone view controller #endif So do I need to do this everywhere? It seems like an awful lot of code to add (that I'll be getting rid of in a short time for 4.0 anyway) so I feel like I must be doing something wrong. And, I don't even have any idea how this works for things like @property or @synthesize declarations. tl;dr version of the question - did I miss a setting somewhere?

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• How do I make the manifest available during a Maven/Surefire unittest run "mvn test" ?

  - by Ernst de Haan

  How do I make the manifest available during a Maven/Surefire unittest run "mvn test" ? I have an open-source project that I am converting from Ant to Maven, including its unit tests. Here's the project source repository with the Maven project: http://github.com/znerd/logdoc My question pertains to the primary module, called "base". This module has a unit test that tests the behaviour of the static method getVersion() in the class org.znerd.logdoc.Library. This method returns: Library.class.getPackage().getImplementationVersion() The getImplementationVersion() method returns a value of a setting in the manifest file. So far, so good. I have tested this in the past and it works well, as long as the manifest is indeed available on the classpath at the path META-INF/MANIFEST.MF (either on the file system or inside a JAR file). Now my challenge is that the manifest file is not available when I run the unit tests: mvn test Surefire runs the unit tests, but my unit test fails with a mesage indicating that Library.getVersion() returned null. When I want to check the JAR, I find that it has not even been generated. Maven/Surefire runs the unit tests against the classes, before the resources are added to the classpath. So can I either run the unit tests against the JAR (implicitly requiring the JAR to be generated first) or can I make sure the resources (including the manifest file) are generated/copied under target/classes before the unit tests are run? Note that I use Maven 2.2.0, Java 1.6.0_17 on Mac OS X 10.6.2, with JUnit 4.8.1.

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• Flex 4 / Flash 4 Add to Current State

  - by user163757

  I am having a little difficulty working with states in Flex (or Flash) 4. Lets say that my application has three states; the default (base) state, state 1, and state 2. State 1 should always be based on the base state, that's easy enough to accomplish. However, I would like state 2 to be based on the current state (either base or state 1). I can't for the life of me figure it out. I tried setting the basedOn property of state 1 to "this.currentState", but that just crashes my browser. <s:states> <s:State name="default"/> <s:State name="state1"/> <s:State name="state2" basedOn="{this.currentState}"/> </s:states> <s:TitleWindow id="configWindow" includeIn="state1" width="250" height="100%" close="configWindow_closeHandler(event)"/> <s:Panel id="settings" includeIn="state2" width="200" height="200"/>

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• WCF ServiceContract and svcutil issue

  - by Valko

  Hi, I have a public interface auto-generated bu svcutil: [System.ServiceModel.ServiceContractAttribute(Namespace="...", ConfigurationName="...")] public interface MyInterface Then I have asmx web service inheriting it and working fine. I am trying ot convert it to WCF but when I instrument the service (in asmx.cs code behind) with ServiceContract: [ServiceContract(Namespace = "...")] public class MyService : MyInterface Also I have cerated .svc file and added the system.serviceModel setting in the config file. The goal is to migrate the asmx service to WCF service. I've got this error: The service class of type MyService both defines a ServiceContract and inherits a ServiceContract from type MyInterface. Contract inheritance can only be used among interface types. If a class is marked with ServiceContractAttribute, it must be the only type in the hierarchy with ServiceContractAttribute. The asmx service is still working fine. Only the .svc is giving me issues. My question is how to fix that. MyInterface is an interface so I do not see what the problem is and why I've got the error anyway. Note I do not want to change MyInterface, because it is autogenerated from svcutil from my wsdl schema and I do not want this interface to be edited manually. The whole idea is to have the service types automatically genereted from WSDL and to save my team development efforts with manual editing. Any help is appreciated.

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• DD_belatedPNG.js - how to access the vml object? this is for a PNG image-swap.

  - by akc

  I am trying to use Drew Dillard's awesome DD_belatedPNG fix + jQuery to achieve a run-of-the-mill image-swap on hover -- but with PNGs, and to work on IE6. Example: <a id="thelink" href="blah.html"><img src="f-u-ie6.png" /></a> Since DD's script sets the visibility of the original image to "hidden", you can't effectively hover over it. A lot of people, I have noticed, are thwarted by this limitation. Enough so that Drew mentioned he would try to get a work-around into the next version of his PNG fix. Well, in the meantime, I thought I could get around this by handling the hover event on the image's parent instead. So onmouseover, I would hide the VML object created by DD_belatedPNG while setting a background image on "thelink", and onmouseout, show the VML object again and set the background image to nothing. The following code was just to see if I could access the VML object, but it does not work on the VML. It hides all manner of other children, but not the VML. Any ideas? $(document).ready(function(){ $("thelink").hover(function() { $(this).children().attr({ style: "visibility:hidden" }); }, function() { $(this).children().attr({ style: "visibility:visible" }); }); }); Alternatively, can anyone suggest a great PNG image-swap method? I know that you can swap a background image of a link. But you still need to have something inside the A tag. That's not my case. Also, you could put a transparent GIF in the A tag and have the background image swapped to achieve the effect, but I really don't want to do that. Thanks for your insights!

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