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• Can I have a workspace that is both a git workspace and a svn workspace?

  - by Troy

  I have checked out now a local working copy of a codebase that lives in an svn repo. It's a big Java project that I use Eclipse to develop in. Eclipse of course builds everything on the fly, in it's own way with all the binaries ending up in [project root]/bin. That's perfectly fine with me, for development, but when the build runs on the build server, it looks quite a lot different (maven build, binaries end up in a different directory structure, etc). Sometimes I need to recreate the build server environment on my local development system to debug the build or what have you, so I usually end up downloading an entirely new working copy into a new workspace and running the build from there (prevents cluttering my development workspace with all the build artifacts and dirtying up the working copy). Of course sometimes I'm interested in running the full build on code that I don't want to check in yet, so I will manually copy over the "development" workspace onto the "build" workspace. Besides taking a lot of extra time copying a lot of files that I don't actually need (just overlaying the new over the old), this also screws up my svn metadata, meaning that I can't check in changes from that "build workspace" working copy, and I often end up having to re-download the code to get it back into a known state. So I'm thinking I make my svn working copy a local git repo, then "check out" the in-development code from the svn working copy/git master, into the local build workspace. Then I can build, revert my changes, have all the advantages of a version controlled working copy in the build workspace. Then if I need to make changes to the build, push those back into the git master (which is also a svn working copy), then check them into the main svn repo. |-------------| |main svn repo| <------- |---------------------| |-------------| |svn working copy | <------- |--------------------| | (svn dev workspace/ | | non-svn-versioned | | git master) | | build workspace | |---------------------| | (git working copy) | |--------------------| Just switching everything to git would obviously be better, but, big company, too many people using svn, too costly to change everything, etc. We're stuck with svn as the main repo for now. BTW, I know there is a maven plugin for Eclipse and everything, I'm mainly interested to know if there is a way to maintain a workspace that is both a git working copy and an svn working copy. Actually any distributed version control system would probably work (hg possibly?). Advice? How does everybody else handle this situation of having a to manage both a "development" build process and a "production" build process?

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• Using Selenium-IDE with a rich Javascript application?

  - by Darien

  Problem At my workplace, we're trying to find the best way to create automated-tests for an almost wholly javascript-driven intranet application. Right now we're stuck trying to find a good tradeoff between: Application code in reusable and nest-able GUI components. Tests which are easily created by the testing team Tests which can be recorded once and then automated Tests which do not break after small cosmetic changes to the site XPath expressions (or other possible expressions, like jQuery selectors) naively generated from Selenium-IDE are often non-repeatable and very fragile. Conversely, having the JS code generate special unique ID values for every important DOM-element on the page... well, that is its own headache, complicated by re-usable GUI components and IDs needing to be consistent when the test is re-run. What successes have other people had with this kind of thing? How do you do automated application-level testing of a rich JS interface? Limitations We are using JavascriptMVC 2.0, hopefully 3.0 soon so that we can upgrade to jQuery 1.4.x. The test-making folks are mostly trained to use Selenium IDE to directly record things. The test leads would prefer a page-unique HTML ID on each clickable element on the page... Training the testers to write or alter special expressions (such as telling them which HTML class-names are important branching points) is a no-go. We try to make re-usable javascript components, but this means very few GUI components can treat themselves (or what they contain) as unique. Some of our components already use HTML ID values in their operation. I'd like to avoid doing this anyway, but it complicates the idea of ID-based testing. It may be possible to add custom facilities (like a locator-builder or new locator method) to the Selenium-IDE installation testers use. Almost everything that goes on occurs within a single "page load" from a conventional browser perspective, even when items are saved Current thoughts I'm considering a system where a custom locator-builder (javascript code) for Selenium-IDE will talk with our application code as the tester is recording. In this way, our application becomes partially responsible for generating a mostly-flexible expression (XPath or jQuery) for any given DOM element. While this can avoid requiring more training for testers, I worry it may be over-thinking things.

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• Update Statement Updates 0 Rows via the C# Winform Application?

  - by peace

  First of all, please help me out! I can not take this anymore. I could not find where the error is located. Here is my problem: I'm trying to update a row via c# winform application. The update query generated from the application is formatted correctly. I tested it in the sql server environment, it worked well. When i run it from the application i get 0 rows updated. Here is the snippet that generates the update statement using reflection - don't try to figure it out. Carry on reading after the code portion: public void Update(int cusID) { SqlCommand objSqlCommand = new SqlCommand(); Customer cust = new Customer(); string SQL = null; try { if ((cusID != 0)) { foreach (PropertyInfo PropertyItem in this.GetType().GetProperties()) { if (!(PropertyItem.Name.ToString() == cust.PKName)) { if (PropertyItem.Name.ToString() != "TableName") { if (SQL == null) { SQL = PropertyItem.Name.ToString() + " = @" + PropertyItem.Name.ToString(); } else { SQL = SQL + ", " + PropertyItem.Name.ToString() + " = @" + PropertyItem.Name.ToString(); } } else { break; } } } objSqlCommand.CommandText = "UPDATE " + this.TableName + " SET " + SQL + " WHERE " + cust.PKName + " = @cusID AND PhoneNumber = " + "'" + "@phNum" + "'"; foreach (PropertyInfo PropertyItem in this.GetType().GetProperties()) { if (!(PropertyItem.Name.ToString() == cust.PKName)) { if (PropertyItem.Name.ToString() != "TableName") { objSqlCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@" + PropertyItem.Name.ToString(), PropertyItem.GetValue(this, null)); } else { break; } } } objSqlCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@cusID", cusID); objSqlCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@phNum", this.PhoneNumber); DAL.ExecuteSQL(objSqlCommand); } else { //AppEventLog.AddWarning("Primary Key is not provided for Update.") } } catch (Exception ex) { //AppEventLog.AddError(ex.Message.ToString) } } This part below: objSqlCommand.CommandText = "UPDATE " + this.TableName + " SET " + SQL + " WHERE " + cust.PKName + " = @cusID AND PhoneNumber = " + "'" + "@phNum" + "'"; generates dml: UPDATE CustomerPhone SET PhoneTypeID = @PhoneTypeID, PhoneNumber = @PhoneNumber WHERE CustomerID = @cusID AND PhoneNumber = '@phNum' @PhoneTypeID and @PhoneNumber are gotten from two properties. We assigned the value to these properties in the presentation layer from the user input text box. The portion below where fetches the values: objSqlCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@" + PropertyItem.Name.ToString(), PropertyItem.GetValue(this, null)); The code below fills the values of WHERE: objSqlCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@cusID", cusID); objSqlCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@phNum", this.PhoneNumber); The final code should look as: UPDATE CustomerPhone SET PhoneTypeID = 7, PhoneNumber = 999444 WHERE CustomerID = 500 AND PhoneNumber = '911'; Phone type id is 7 - user value that is taken from text box Phone number is 999444 - user value that is taken from text box The above final update statement works on the sql environment, but when running via the application, the execute non query runs ok and gets 0 rows updated! I wonder why?

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• How to close all, or only some, tabs in Safari using AppleScript?

  - by Form

  I have made a very simple AppleScript to close all tabs in Safari. The problem is, it works, but not completely. The problem is that only a couple of tabs are closed. Here's the code: tell application "Safari" repeat with aWindow in windows repeat with aTab in tabs of aWindow if [some condition is encountered] then aTab close end if end repeat end repeat end tell I've also tried this script: tell application "Safari" repeat with i from 0 to the number of items in windows set aWindow to item i of windows repeat with j from 0 to the number of tabs in aWindow set aTab to item j of tabs of aWindow if [some condition is encountered] then aTab close end if end repeat end repeat end tell ... but it does not work either (same behavior). I tried that on my system (MacBook Pro jan 2008), as well as on a Mac Pro G5 under Tiger and the script fails on both, albeit with a much less descriptive error on Tiger. Running the script a few times closes a few tab each time until none is left, but always fails with the same error after closing a few tabs. Under Leopard I get an out of bounds error. Since I am using fast enumeration (not using "repeat from 0 to number of items in windows") I don't see how I can get an out of bounds error with this... My goal is to use the Cocoa Scripting Bridge to close tabs in Safari from my Objective-C Cocoa application but the Scripting Bridge fails in the same manner. The non-deletable tabs show as NULL in the Xcode debugger, while the other tabs are valid objects from which I can get values back (such as their title). In fact I tried with the Scripting Bridge first then told myself why not try this directly in AppleScript and I was surprised to see the same results. I must have a glaring omission or something in there... (seems like a bug in Safari AppleScript support to me... :S) I've used repeat loops and Obj-C 2.0 fast enumeration to iterate through collections before with zero problems, so I really don't see what's wrong here. Anyone can help? Thanks in advance!

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• Twisted + SQLAlchemy and the best way to do it.

  - by Khorkrak

  So I'm writing yet another Twisted based daemon. It'll have an xmlrpc interface as usual so I can easily communicate with it and have other processes interchange data with it as needed. This daemon needs to access a database. We've been using SQL Alchemy in place of hard coding SQL strings for our latest projects - those mostly done for web apps in Pylons. We'd like to do the same for this app and re-use library code that makes use of SQL Alchemy. So what to do? Well of course since that library was written for use in a Pylons app it's all the straight-forward blocking style code that everyone is accustomed to and all of the non-blocking is magically handled by Pylons via threading, thread locals, scoped sessions and so on. So now for Twisted I guess I'm a bit stuck. I could: Just write the sql I need directly if it's minimal and use the dbapi pool in twisted to do runInteractions etc when I need to hit the db. Use the objects and inherently blocking methods in our library and block now and then in my Twisted daemon. Bah. Use sAsync which was last updated in 2008 and kind of reuse the models we have defined already but not really and it does address code that needs to work in Pylons either. Does that even work with the latest version SQL Alchemy? Who knows. That project looked great though - why was it apparently abandoned? Spawn a separate subprocess and have it deal with the library code and all it's blocking, the results being returned back to my daemon when ready as objects marshalled via YAML over xmlrpc. Use deferToThread and then expunge the objects returned having made sure to do eager loads so that I have all my stuff that I might need. Seems kind of ugha to me. I'm also stuck using Python 2.5.4 atm so no 2.6 yet and I don't think I can just do an import from future to get access to the cool new multiprocessing module stuff in there. That's OK though I guess as we've got dealing with interprocess communication down pretty well. So I'm leaning towards option 4 mostly as that would avoid the mortal sin of logic duplication with option 1 while also staying the heck away from threads. Any better ideas?

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• Use multiple inheritance to discriminate useage roles?

  - by Arne

  Hi fellows, it's my flight simulation application again. I am leaving the mere prototyping phase now and start fleshing out the software design now. At least I try.. Each of the aircraft in the simulation have got a flight plan associated to them, the exact nature of which is of no interest for this question. Sufficient to say that the operator way edit the flight plan while the simulation is running. The aircraft model most of the time only needs to read-acess the flight plan object which at first thought calls for simply passing a const reference. But ocassionally the aircraft will need to call AdvanceActiveWayPoint() to indicate a way point has been reached. This will affect the Iterator returned by function ActiveWayPoint(). This implies that the aircraft model indeed needs a non-const reference which in turn would also expose functions like AppendWayPoint() to the aircraft model. I would like to avoid this because I would like to enforce the useage rule described above at compile time. Note that class WayPointIter is equivalent to a STL const iterator, that is the way point can not be mutated by the iterator. class FlightPlan { public: void AppendWayPoint(const WayPointIter& at, WayPoint new_wp); void ReplaceWayPoint(const WayPointIter& ar, WayPoint new_wp); void RemoveWayPoint(WayPointIter at); (...) WayPointIter First() const; WayPointIter Last() const; WayPointIter Active() const; void AdvanceActiveWayPoint() const; (...) }; My idea to overcome the issue is this: define an abstract interface class for each usage role and inherit FlightPlan from both. Each user then only gets passed a reference of the appropriate useage role. class IFlightPlanActiveWayPoint { public: WayPointIter Active() const =0; void AdvanceActiveWayPoint() const =0; }; class IFlightPlanEditable { public: void AppendWayPoint(const WayPointIter& at, WayPoint new_wp); void ReplaceWayPoint(const WayPointIter& ar, WayPoint new_wp); void RemoveWayPoint(WayPointIter at); (...) }; Thus the declaration of FlightPlan would only need to be changed to: class FlightPlan : public IFlightPlanActiveWayPoint, IFlightPlanEditable { (...) }; What do you think? Are there any cavecats I might be missing? Is this design clear or should I come up with somethink different for the sake of clarity? Alternatively I could also define a special ActiveWayPoint class which would contain the function AdvanceActiveWayPoint() but feel that this might be unnecessary. Thanks in advance!

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• Is this a problem typically solved with IOC?

  - by Dirk

  My current application allows users to define custom web forms through a set of admin screens. it's essentially an EAV type application. As such, I can't hard code HTML or ASP.NET markup to render a given page. Instead, the UI requests an instance of a Form object from the service layer, which in turn constructs one using a several RDMBS tables. Form contains the kind of classes you would expect to see in such a context: Form= IEnumerable<FormSections>=IEnumerable<FormFields> Here's what the service layer looks like: public class MyFormService: IFormService{ public Form OpenForm(int formId){ //construct and return a concrete implementation of Form } } Everything works splendidly (for a while). The UI is none the wiser about what sections/fields exist in a given form: It happily renders the Form object it receives into a functional ASP.NET page. A few weeks later, I get a new requirement from the business: When viewing a non-editable (i.e. read-only) versions of a form, certain field values should be merged together and other contrived/calculated fields should are added. No problem I say. Simply amend my service class so that its methods are more explicit: public class MyFormService: IFormService{ public Form OpenFormForEditing(int formId){ //construct and return a concrete implementation of Form } public Form OpenFormForViewing(int formId){ //construct and a concrete implementation of Form //apply additional transformations to the form } } Again everything works great and balance has been restored to the force. The UI continues to be agnostic as to what is in the Form, and our separation of concerns is achieved. Only a few short weeks later, however, the business puts out a new requirement: in certain scenarios, we should apply only some of the form transformations I referenced above. At this point, it feels like the "explicit method" approach has reached a dead end, unless I want to end up with an explosion of methods (OpenFormViewingScenario1, OpenFormViewingScenario2, etc). Instead, I introduce another level of indirection: public interface IFormViewCreator{ void CreateView(Form form); } public class MyFormService: IFormService{ public Form OpenFormForEditing(int formId){ //construct and return a concrete implementation of Form } public Form OpenFormForViewing(int formId, IFormViewCreator formViewCreator){ //construct a concrete implementation of Form //apply transformations to the dynamic field list return formViewCreator.CreateView(form); } } On the surface, this seems like acceptable approach and yet there is a certain smell. Namely, the UI, which had been living in ignorant bliss about the implementation details of OpenFormForViewing, must possess knowledge of and create an instance of IFormViewCreator. My questions are twofold: Is there a better way to achieve the composability I'm after? (perhaps by using an IoC container or a home rolled factory to create the concrete IFormViewCreator)? Did I fundamentally screw up the abstraction here?

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• Cocoa WebView won't render all images on OSX 10.8

  - by user2906962

  I'm currently developing an application for OS X, backwards compatible with OS X 10.6. At some point I create a WebView in which I load html content that I create dynamically. The html content is formed only of image links <img src= and text, there is no javascript or anything of that kind. All the images (there are only 5 png images) are stored locally and their size is 4 KB. The problem I have is that some images (those that are not on the visible side of the "scroll"), the very first time I run the application,the images are not shown unless I drag the window to another screen or load again the view controller that contains the WebView. In those cases the images appear on the "scroll" even if they are offsite. I've tried creating the WebView both with IB and programatically, I've used WebPreferences like Autosaves, AllowsAnimatedImages … I've tried using NSURLCache to load each image so that the WebView will get access to them easier ... same result. Taking into account that my code is quite extensive I'm gonna post only the bits that I think are relevant: NSString *finalHtml ... //contains the complete html CGRect screenRect = [self.fixedView bounds]; CGRect webFrame = CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, screenRect.size.width, screenRect.size.height); self.miwebView=[[WebView alloc] initWithFrame:webFrame]; [self.miwebView setEditable:NO]; [self.miwebView setUIDelegate:self]; ... NSURLCache *URLCache = [[NSURLCache alloc] initWithMemoryCapacity:4 * 1024 * 1024 diskCapacity:20 * 1024 * 1024 diskPath:nil]; [NSURLCache setSharedURLCache:URLCache]; NSString *imagePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"line" ofType:@"png"]; NSURL *resourceUrl = [NSURL URLWithString:imagePath]; NSURLRequest *request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:resourceUrl cachePolicy:NSURLRequestUseProtocolCachePolicy timeoutInterval:10.0f]; [URLCache cachedResponseForRequest:request]; ... [self.miwebView setResourceLoadDelegate:self]; WebPreferences *webPref = [[WebPreferences alloc]init]; [webPref setAutosaves:YES]; [webPref setAllowsAnimatedImages:YES]; [webPref setAllowsAnimatedImageLooping:YES]; [self.miwebView setPreferences:webPref]; NSString *pathResult = [[NSBundle mainBundle] bundlePath]; NSURL *baseURLRes = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:pathResult]; [[self.miwebView mainFrame] loadHTMLString:finalHtml baseURL:baseURLRes]; [self.fixedView addSubview:self.miwebView]; I should also mention that if an image is caught somewhere in between the visible and non visible side of the "scroll" only the visible bit of the image is going to be rendered even if the page gets scrolled up ... so I think all this is some rendering issue ... I appreciate your help, thank you!

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• Binding on a port with netpipes/netcat

  - by mindas

  I am trying to write a simple bash script that is listening on a port and responding with a trivial HTTP response. My specific issue is that I am not sure if the port is available and in case of bind failure I fall back to next port until bind succeeds. So far to me the easiest way to achieve this was something like: for (( i=$PORT_BASE; i < $(($PORT_BASE+$PORT_RANGE)); i++ )) do if [ $DEBUG -eq 1 ] ; then echo trying to bind on $i fi /usr/bin/faucet $i --out --daemon echo test 2>/dev/null if [ $? -eq 0 ] ; then #success? port=$i if [ $DEBUG -eq 1 ] ; then echo "bound on port $port" fi break fi done Here I am using faucet from netpipes Ubuntu package. The problem with this is that if I simply print "test" to the output, curl complains about non-standard HTTP response (error code 18). That's fair enough as I don't print HTTP-compatible response. If I replace echo test with echo -ne "HTTP/1.0 200 OK\r\n\r\ntest", curl still complains: user@server:$ faucet 10020 --out --daemon echo -ne "HTTP/1.0 200 OK\r\n\r\ntest" ... user@client:$ curl ip.of.the.server:10020 curl: (56) Failure when receiving data from the peer I think the problem lies in how faucet is printing the response and handling the connection. For example if I do the server side in netcat, curl works fine: user@server:$ echo -ne "HTTP/1.0 200 OK\r\n\r\ntest\r\n" | nc -l 10020 ... user@client:$ curl ip.of.the.server:10020 test user@client:$ I would be more than happy to replace faucet with netcat in my main script, but the problem is that I want to spawn independent server process to be able to run client from the same base shell. faucet has a very handy --daemon parameter as it forks to background and I can use $? (exit status code) to check if bind succeeded. If I was to use netcat for a similar purpose, I would have to fork it using & and $? would not work. Does anybody know why faucet isn't responding correctly in this particular case and/or can suggest a solution to this problem. I am not married neither to faucet nor netcat but would like the solution to be implemented using bash or it's utilities (as opposed to write something in yet another scripting language, such as Perl or Python).

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• Why does OpenGL's glDrawArrays() fail with GL_INVALID_OPERATION under Core Profile 3.2, but not 3.3 or 4.2?

  - by metaleap

  I have OpenGL rendering code calling glDrawArrays that works flawlessly when the OpenGL context is (automatically / implicitly obtained) 4.2 but fails consistently (GL_INVALID_OPERATION) with an explicitly requested OpenGL core context 3.2. (Shaders are always set to #version 150 in both cases but that's beside the point here I suspect.) According to specs, there are only two instances when glDrawArrays() fails with GL_INVALID_OPERATION: "if a non-zero buffer object name is bound to an enabled array and the buffer object's data store is currently mapped" -- I'm not doing any buffer mapping at this point "if a geometry shader is active and mode? is incompatible with [...]" -- nope, no geometry shaders as of now. Furthermore: I have verified & double-checked that it's only the glDrawArrays() calls failing. Also double-checked that all arguments passed to glDrawArrays() are identical under both GL versions, buffer bindings too. This happens across 3 different nvidia GPUs and 2 different OSes (Win7 and OSX, both 64-bit -- of course, in OSX we have only the 3.2 context, no 4.2 anyway). It does not happen with an integrated "Intel HD" GPU but for that one, I only get an automatic implicit 3.3 context (trying to explicitly force a 3.2 core profile with this GPU via GLFW here fails the window creation but that's an entirely different issue...) For what it's worth, here's the relevant routine excerpted from the render loop, in Golang: func (me *TMesh) render () { curMesh = me curTechnique.OnRenderMesh() gl.BindBuffer(gl.ARRAY_BUFFER, me.glVertBuf) if me.glElemBuf > 0 { gl.BindBuffer(gl.ELEMENT_ARRAY_BUFFER, me.glElemBuf) gl.VertexAttribPointer(curProg.AttrLocs["aPos"], 3, gl.FLOAT, gl.FALSE, 0, gl.Pointer(nil)) gl.DrawElements(me.glMode, me.glNumIndices, gl.UNSIGNED_INT, gl.Pointer(nil)) gl.BindBuffer(gl.ELEMENT_ARRAY_BUFFER, 0) } else { gl.VertexAttribPointer(curProg.AttrLocs["aPos"], 3, gl.FLOAT, gl.FALSE, 0, gl.Pointer(nil)) /* BOOM! */ gl.DrawArrays(me.glMode, 0, me.glNumVerts) } gl.BindBuffer(gl.ARRAY_BUFFER, 0) } So of course this is part of a bigger render-loop, though the whole "*TMesh" construction for now is just two instances, one a simple cube and the other a simple pyramid. What matters is that the entire drawing loop works flawlessly with no errors reported when GL is queried for errors under both 3.3 and 4.2, yet on 3 nvidia GPUs with an explicit 3.2 core profile fails with an error code that according to spec is only invoked in two specific situations, none of which as far as I can tell apply here. What could be wrong here? Have you ever run into this? Any ideas what I have been missing?

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• Perfect Forwarding to async lambda

  - by Alexander Kondratskiy

  I have a function template, where I want to do perfect forwarding into a lambda that I run on another thread. Here is a minimal test case which you can directly compile: #include <thread> #include <future> #include <utility> #include <iostream> #include <vector> /** * Function template that does perfect forwarding to a lambda inside an * async call (or at least tries to). I want both instantiations of the * function to work (one for lvalue references T&, and rvalue reference T&&). * However, I cannot get the code to compile when calling it with an lvalue. * See main() below. */ template <typename T> std::string accessValueAsync(T&& obj) { std::future<std::string> fut = std::async(std::launch::async, [](T&& vec) mutable { return vec[0]; }, std::forward<T>(obj)); return fut.get(); } int main(int argc, char const *argv[]) { std::vector<std::string> lvalue{"Testing"}; // calling with what I assume is an lvalue reference does NOT compile std::cout << accessValueAsync(lvalue) << std::endl; // calling with rvalue reference compiles std::cout << accessValueAsync(std::move(lvalue)) << std::endl; // I want both to compile. return 0; } For the non-compiling case, here is the last line of the error message which is intelligible: main.cpp|13 col 29| note: no known conversion for argument 1 from ‘std::vector<std::basic_string<char> >’ to ‘std::vector<std::basic_string<char> >&’ I have a feeling it may have something to do with how T&& is deduced, but I can't pinpoint the exact point of failure and fix it. Any suggestions? Thank you! EDIT: I am using gcc 4.7.0 just in case this could be a compiler issue (probably not)

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• IE sends multiple cookies with same name?

  - by akach

  I have a strange bug that occurs in IE7/XP and IE8/Vista on my website. IE sends two cookies named PHPSESSID. How to reproduce: Clear cookies in IE (not necessary if you never visited unisender.com). Visit unisender.com (exactly without www to reproduce!) and it will redirect to www.unisender.com Login with any valid username and password (I've registered username testmsdn with password testmsdn - feel free to use for testing) Run your favourite capture-the-traffic program (I prefer wireshark) Now click any menu link (e.g. "messages") Look at captured traffic - you will see that IE sends double PHPSESSID cookie (and you are logged out after click because of this). It seems like first PHPSESSID is from unisender.com and second from www.unisender.com. Captured sample: GET /en/letter_list HTTP/1.1 Accept: image/gif, image/jpeg, image/pjpeg, application/x-ms-application, application/vnd.ms-xpsdocument, application/xaml+xml, application/x-ms-xbap, application/x-shockwave-flash, / Referer: http://www.unisender.com/en/intro Accept-Language: ru User-Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.0; Trident/4.0; Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 6.0; Windows NT 5.1; SV1) ; SLCC1; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.21022; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; FDM; .NET CLR 3.0.30729) Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate Host: www.unisender.com Connection: Keep-Alive Cookie: authchallenge=3a9cfcfc9fe33822e3e21d75c8a3d3e4; PHPSESSID=14ea1cb133632951592397c86eaf037e; us_reg_ref=unknown; us_reg_url=http%3A%2F%2Funisender.com%2F; __utma=1.778517853.1271204400.1271204400.1271204400.1; __utmb=1.3.10.1271204400; __utmc=1; __utmz=1.1271204400.1.1.utmcsr=(direct)|utmccn=(direct)|utmcmd=(none); PHPSESSID=65e110aeb995a66b9dc8da5656c7a3da; last_login_name=testmsdn I've tried to use session and non-session cookies, tried to use .unisender.com instead of unisender.com for cookie - nothing helps. I suppose there should not be cookies with same name. Am I right? Is it a bug in IE? If it's a bug then is there a workaround? Or am I wrong and it's an expected behavior?

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• how to invoke an activity of a library project from an android apps

  - by Austin

  I have an open source android code that I need to use in my android apps. It has all the source code as well as resource files, manifest files and class path. It can be compiled as a separate android apps. I have constraints for using the open source. 1. I can't change a single line of code. 2. I can't use it as a separate apps. These constraints are non negotiable. What I have done is I have compiled the open source as class library(in Eclipse: Project Properties-Android- Tick check box Is Library). This has resulted in generation of .class files(in bin) for the java files and resource files. This open source has an android activity that i want to open from my application. So I have linked the directory of these sets of class files in the source section of my java build path( in .classpath). I have declared the activity in my manifest file with proper action intent filters. Now when I am trying to call activity from my code, its not working. Cleaning and rebuilding doesn't help. However, if I build the open source project and my apps in the same workspace of eclipse and link the open source in my apps in exact same manner it works fine. I am not able to identify the difference. All settings seems to be same(all files are identical in both the cases). But only in the second case it works. I have tried it as jar file also. I have build the open source as project library and exported it into a jar file(excluding manifest file). But in that case I am getting the following error UNEXPECTED TOP-LEVEL EXCEPTION: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: already added: .... Conversion to Dalvik format failed with error 1 This I guess is coming because the android library(2.2) has been included twice in my apps( one for building my apps & another for building the open source). I dont know how to avoid this. Cleaning the project doesn't help. What i require is to use the open source and invoking it's activities in my apps without violating the constraints. If i can use the open source as bunch of .class files then great, or else any other way will do fine. Please look into it and let me know. Thanks

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• Java Flow Control Problem

  - by Kyle_Solo

  I am programming a simple 2d game engine. I've decided how I'd like the engine to function: it will be composed of objects containing "events" that my main game loop will trigger when appropriate. A little more about the structure: Every GameObject has an updateEvent method. objectList is a list of all the objects that will receive update events. Only objects on this list have their updateEvent method called by the game loop. I’m trying to implement this method in the GameObject class (This specification is what I’d like the method to achieve): /** * This method removes a GameObject from objectList. The GameObject * should immediately stop executing code, that is, absolutely no more * code inside update events will be executed for the removed game object. * If necessary, control should transfer to the game loop. * @param go The GameObject to be removed */ public void remove(GameObject go) So if an object tries to remove itself inside of an update event, control should transfer back to the game engine: public void updateEvent() { //object's update event remove(this); System.out.println("Should never reach here!"); } Here’s what I have so far. It works, but the more I read about using exceptions for flow control the less I like it, so I want to see if there are alternatives. Remove Method public void remove(GameObject go) { //add to removedList //flag as removed //throw an exception if removing self from inside an updateEvent } Game Loop for(GameObject go : objectList) { try { if (!go.removed) { go.updateEvent(); } else { //object is scheduled to be removed, do nothing } } catch(ObjectRemovedException e) { //control has been transferred back to the game loop //no need to do anything here } } // now remove the objects that are in removedList from objectList 2 questions: Am I correct in assuming that the only way to implement the stop-right-away part of the remove method as described above is by throwing a custom exception and catching it in the game loop? (I know, using exceptions for flow control is like goto, which is bad. I just can’t think of another way to do what I want!) For the removal from the list itself, it is possible for one object to remove one that is farther down on the list. Currently I’m checking a removed flag before executing any code, and at the end of each pass removing the objects to avoid concurrent modification. Is there a better, preferably instant/non-polling way to do this?

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• Can I use WCF to replace my current Web Service and Window Service combination?

  - by gun_shy

  I need a little bit of advise regarding the situation I am faced with. The current arrangement I have been tasked with improving just doesn't sit well with me and I feel like there is a better way to do it. The more I read about WCF, the more I get the feeling that it might be what I am looking for. Right now, I have an asp.net client, a .net web service, a windows service, a ms sql database, and a third party application that is used for processing a group of 'project' files into a finalized file. Since the third party application can only handle processing one 'project' at a time, the combination of the web service, window service, and database have been arranged to create a job queue manager for the third party application. The client sends a zip 'project' file containing multiple sub files to the web service. The web service adds a new 'project' line to the database, generating a unique job id. The zip file is expanded to a folder location on the server using the job id as the folder name. The web service then returns the job id to the client. The client will use this id to poll the web service for the status of the job submitted. When the job is complete, the client will request the processed file. The windows service polls the database every x minutes. If a new job exists, the service will pull the oldest job and send it to the third party app for processing. If the processing succeeds, the window service updates the project line in the database, marking the job complete. The window service will continue to process any non complete jobs in the database until there are no more. When it stops finding any jobs, it will sleep x minutes and then poll the database again. I do not like the fact that the window service has to poll the database. If there is only one job submitted, the client will have to wait for the window service to poll and then wait while the 'project' is being processed. It seems like WCF could be used to combine the web and window services using a combination of the InstanceContextMode.Single and ConcurrencyMode.Multiple. So far, I have been unable to find any articles or examples that would point me in the right direction. Can WCF be utilized to accomplish the job queue logic of the current arrangement in a better way? As always, any help is more than appreciated.

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• Adding a clustered index to a SQL table: what dangers exist for a live production system?

  - by MoSlo

  Right, keep in mind i need to describe this by abstracting all possible confidential info: I've been put in charge of a 10-year old transactional system of which the majority business logic is implemented at database level (triggers, stored procedures etc). Win2000 server, MSSQL 2000 Enterprise. No immediate plans for replacing/updating the system are being considered :( The core process is a program that executes transactions - specifically, it executes a stored procedure with various parameters, lets call it sp_ProcessTrans. The program executes the stored procedure at asynchronous intervals. By itself, things work fine. But there are 30 instances of this program on remotely located workstations, all of them asynchronously executing sp_ProcessTrans and then retrieving data from the SQL server (execution is pretty regular - ranging 0 to 60 times a minute, depending on what items the program instance is responsible for) . Performance of the system has dropped considerably with 10 yrs of data growth: the reason is the deadlocks and specifically deadlock wait times. The deadlock is on the Employee table. I have discovered: In sp_ProcessTrans' execution, it selects from an Employee table 7 times (dont ask) The select is done on a field that is NOT the primary key No index exists on this field. Thus a table scan is performed. 7 times. per transaction So the reason for deadlocks is clear. I created a non-unique ordered clustered index on the field (field looks good, almost unique, NUM(7), very rarely changes). Immediate improvement in the test environment. The problem is that i cannot simulate the deadlocks in a test environment (I'd need 30 workstations; i'd need to simulate 'realistic' activity on those stations, so visualization is out). I need to know if i must schedule downtime. Creating an index shouldn't be a risky operation for MSSQL, but is there any danger (data corruption in transactions/select statements/extra wait time etc) to create this field index on the production database while the transactions are still taking place? (although i can select a time when transactions are fairly quiet through the 30 stations) Are there any hidden dangers i'm not seeing (not looking forward to needing to restore the DB if something goes wrong, restoring would take a lot of time with 10yrs of data).

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• Large transactions causing "System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired" error?

  - by Michael

  My application requires a user to log in and allows them to edit a list of things. However, it seems that if the same user always logs in and out and edits the list, this user will run into a "System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired." error. I've read comments about increasing the timeout period but I've also read a comment about it possibly caused by uncommitted transactions. And I do have one going in the application. I'll provide the code I'm working with and there is an IF statement in there that I was a little iffy about but it seemed like a reasonable thing to do. I'll just go over what's going on here, there is a list of objects to update or add into the database. New objects created in the application are given an ID of 0 while existing objects have their own ID's generated from the DB. If the user chooses to delete some objects, their IDs are stored in a separate list of Integers. Once the user is ready to save their changes, the two lists are passed into this method. By use of the IF statement, objects with ID of 0 are added (using the Add stored procedure) and those objects with non-zero IDs are updated (using the Update stored procedure). After all this, a FOR loop goes through all the integers in the "removal" list and uses the Delete stored procedure to remove them. A transaction is used for all this. Public Shared Sub UpdateSomethings(ByVal SomethingList As List(Of Something), ByVal RemovalList As List(Of Integer)) Using DBConnection As New SqlConnection(conn) DBConnection.Open() Dim MyTransaction As SqlTransaction MyTransaction = DBConnection.BeginTransaction() Try For Each SomethingItem As Something In SomethingList Using MyCommand As New SqlCommand() MyCommand.Connection = DBConnection If SomethingItem.ID > 0 Then MyCommand.CommandText = "UpdateSomething" Else MyCommand.CommandText = "AddSomething" End If MyCommand.Transaction = MyTransaction MyCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure With MyCommand.Parameters If MyCommand.CommandText = "UpdateSomething" Then .Add("@id", SqlDbType.Int).Value = SomethingItem.ID End If .Add("@stuff", SqlDbType.Varchar).Value = SomethingItem.Stuff End With MyCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() End Using Next For Each ID As Integer In RemovalList Using MyCommand As New SqlCommand("DeleteSomething", DBConnection) MyCommand.Transaction = MyTransaction MyCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure With MyCommand.Parameters .Add("@id", SqlDbType.Int).Value = ID End With MyCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() End Using Next MyTransaction.Commit() Catch ex As Exception MyTransaction.Rollback() 'Exception handling goes here End Try End Using End Sub There are three stored procedures used here as well as some looping so I can see how something can be holding everything up if the list is large enough. Other users can log in to the system at the same time just fine though. I'm using Visual Studio 2008 to debug and am using SQL Server 2000 for the DB.

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• What's causing this background-image to display "incorrectly" in Opera and Firefox?

  - by Sukasa

  I know this is something I'm probably doing wrong, so please don't incinerate me for the thread title. I'm trying to put together a small personal website using HTML 5/CSS3. I've checked with the w3c validator and the site and CSS file fully conform according to the validator (However the validator has a warning attached that it might not be perfect). I'm not sure how to explain it without a picture, so here's a comparison of Chrome/Opera/Firefox: So, you can sorta see how in Chrome the background image is in one non-repeating piece, whereas in Opera/Firefox the image has, oddly, been broken up and placed slightly differently. I'm confident this is due to an error on my part, but I've had no luck at all figuring out why the image is being mangled in Opera and Firefox. Here's the CSS that's relevant to this issue: /* Content Pane */ .content { position: absolute; left: 220px; width: 800px; top: 80px; min-height: 550px; background-color: rgba(8,12,42,0.85); } /* Headers */ .content hgroup { background: url("Header_Flat.png") no-repeat left top; min-height: 38px; padding-left: 28px; text-shadow: 0 0 8px #FFA9FF; color: Black; text-decoration: none; } .content hgroup h1 { display: block; } .content hgroup h3 { display: inline; position: relative; top: -12px; left: 20px; text-shadow: 0 0 6px #AFF9FF; } .content hgroup h4 { display: inline; position: relative; top: -12px; left: 20px; font-size: xx-small; text-shadow: 0 0 6px #AFF9FF; } And the HTML: <hgroup> <h1>New Site!</h1> <h3>Now with Bloom!</h3> <h4> - Posted Tuesday, May 11th 2010</h4> </hgroup> Can anyone see what I'm doing wrong?

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• Not sure what happens to my apps objects when using NSURLSession in background - what state is my app in?

  - by Avner Barr

  More of a general question - I don't understand the workings of NSURLSession when using it in "background session mode". I will supply some simple contrived example code. I have a database which holds objects - such that portions of this data can be uploaded to a remote server. It is important to know which data/objects were uploaded in order to accurately display information to the user. It is also important to be able to upload to the server in a background task because the app can be killed at any point. for instance a simple profile picture object: @interface ProfilePicture : NSObject @property int userId; @property UIImage *profilePicture; @property BOOL successfullyUploaded; // we want to know if the image was uploaded to out server - this could also be a property that is queryable but lets assume this is attached to this object @end Now Lets say I want to upload the profile picture to a remote server - I could do something like: @implementation ProfilePictureUploader -(void)uploadProfilePicture:(ProfilePicture *)profilePicture completion:(void(^)(BOOL successInUploading))completion { NSUrlSession *uploadImageSession = ..... // code to setup uploading the image - and calling the completion handler; [uploadImageSession resume]; } @end Now somewhere else in my code I want to upload the profile picture - and if it was successful update the UI and the database that this action happened: ProfilePicture *aNewProfilePicture = ...; aNewProfilePicture.profilePicture = aImage; aNewProfilePicture.userId = 123; aNewProfilePicture.successfullyUploaded = NO; // write the change to disk [MyDatabase write:aNewProfilePicture]; // upload the image to the server ProfilePictureUploader *uploader = [ProfilePictureUploader ....]; [uploader uploadProfilePicture:aNewProfilePicture completion:^(BOOL successInUploading) { if (successInUploading) { // persist the change to my db. aNewProfilePicture.successfullyUploaded = YES; [Mydase update:aNewProfilePicture]; // persist the change } }]; Now obviously if my app is running then this "ProfilePicture" object is successfully uploaded and all is well - the database object has its own internal workings with data structures/caches and what not. All callbacks that may exist are maintained and the app state is straightforward. But I'm not clear what happens if the app "dies" at some point during the upload. It seems that any callbacks/notifications are dead. According to the API documentation- the uploading is handled by a separate process. Therefor the upload will continue and my app will be awakened at some point in the future to handle completion. But the object "aNewProfilePicture" is non existant at that point and all callbacks/objects are gone. I don't understand what context exists at this point. How am I supposed to ensure consistency in my DB and UI (For instance update the "successfullyUploaded" property for that user)? Do I need to re-work everything touching the DB or UI to correspond with the new API and work in a context free environment?

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• Can first descendent be selected directly?

  - by Ben Huh

  I am currently using find() and first() method to select the first descendent element from each of the <div> elements that contains the parent class. But I find this quite cumbersome since find() method would produce a set of matched elements before the first element is being picked. The following is the skeleton of my code: HTML <div class=parent> <ul> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> </ul> </div> <div class=parent> <ul> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> </ul> </div> <div class=non-parent> <ul> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> </ul> </div> <div class=parent> <ul> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> <li>random characters</li> </ul> </div> // .....the list continues Javascript $('.parent').each(function() { $(this).find('ul li').first().css('color', 'red'); // do other stuff within each loop }); I have seen people using $(".parent li:first") selector. But, because I am doing it in a loop, I am not sure how or whether if this could be done and would like some advice. Thanks.

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• get return value from 2 threads in C

  - by polslinux

  #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <pthread.h> #include <stdint.h> #include <inttypes.h> typedef struct tmp_num{ int tmp_1; int tmp_2; }t_num; t_num t_nums; void *num_mezzo_1(void *num_orig); void *num_mezzo_2(void *num_orig); int main(int argc, char *argv[]){ pthread_t thread1, thread2; int tmp=0,rc1,rc2,num; num=atoi(argv[1]); if(num <= 3){ printf("Questo è un numero primo: %d\n", num); exit(0); } if( (rc1=pthread_create( &thread1, NULL, &num_mezzo_1, (void *)&num)) ){ printf("Creazione del thread fallita: %d\n", rc1); exit(1); } if( (rc2=pthread_create( &thread2, NULL, &num_mezzo_2, (void *)&num)) ){ printf("Creazione del thread fallita: %d\n", rc2); exit(1); } t_nums.tmp_1 = 0; t_nums.tmp_2 = 0; pthread_join(thread1, (void **)(&t_nums.tmp_1)); pthread_join(thread2, (void **)(&t_nums.tmp_2)); tmp=t_nums.tmp_1+t_nums.tmp_2; printf("%d %d %d\n", tmp, t_nums.tmp_1, t_nums.tmp_2); if(tmp>2){ printf("Questo NON è un numero primo: %d\n", num); } else{ printf("Questo è un numero primo: %d\n", num); } exit(0); } void *num_mezzo_1(void *num_orig){ int cont_1; int *n_orig=(int *)num_orig; t_nums.tmp_1 = 0; for(cont_1=1; cont_1<=(*n_orig/2); cont_1++){ if((*n_orig % cont_1) == 0){ (t_nums.tmp_1)++; } } pthread_exit((void *)(&t_nums.tmp_1)); return NULL; } void *num_mezzo_2(void *num_orig){ int cont_2; int *n_orig=(int *)num_orig; t_nums.tmp_2 = 0; for(cont_2=((*n_orig/2)+1); cont_2<=*n_orig; cont_2++){ if((*n_orig % cont_2) == 0){ (t_nums.tmp_2)++; } } pthread_exit((void *)(&t_nums.tmp_2)); return NULL; } How this program works: i have to input a number and this program will calculate if it is a prime number or not (i know that it is a bad algorithm but i only need to learn pthread). The problem is that the returned values are too much big.For example if i write "12" the value of tmp tmp_1 tmp_2 into the main are 12590412 6295204 6295208.Why i got those numbers??

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• Learning C, would appreciate input on why this solution works.

  - by Keifer

  This is literally the first thing I've ever written in C, so please feel free to point out all it's flaws. :) My issue, however is this: if I write the program the way I feel is cleanest, I get a broken program: #include <sys/queue.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> /* Removed prototypes and non related code for brevity */ int main() { char *cmd = NULL; unsigned int acct = 0; int amount = 0; int done = 0; while (done==0) { scanf ("%s %u %i", cmd, &acct, &amount); if (strcmp (cmd, "exit") == 0) done = 1; else if ((strcmp (cmd, "dep") == 0) || (strcmp (cmd, "deb") == 0)) debit (acct, amount); else if ((strcmp (cmd, "wd") == 0) || (strcmp (cmd, "cred") == 0)) credit (acct, amount); else if (strcmp (cmd, "fee") == 0) service_fee(acct, amount); else printf("Invalid input!\n"); } return(0); } void credit(unsigned int acct, int amount) { } void debit(unsigned int acct, int amount) { } void service_fee(unsigned int acct, int amount) { } As it stands, the above generates no errors at compile, but gives me a segfault when ran. I can fix this by changing the program to pass cmd by reference when calling scanf and strcmp. The segfault goes away and is replaced by warnings for each use of strcmp at compile time. Despite the warnings, the affected code works. warning: passing arg 1 of 'strcmp' from incompatible pointer type As an added bonus, modifying the scanf and strcmp calls allows the program to progress far enough to execute return(0), at which point the thing crashes with an Abort trap. If I swap out return(0) for exit(0) then everything works as expected. This leaves me with two questions: why was the original program wrong? How can I fix it better than I have? The bit about needing to use exit instead of return has me especially baffled.

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• elisp: posn-at-point returns nil after goto-char. How to update the display before posn-at-point?

  - by Cheeso

  In emacs lisp, posn-at-point is documented as: posn-at-point is a built-in function in C source code. (posn-at-point &optional POS WINDOW) . Return position information for buffer POS in WINDOW. POS defaults to point in WINDOW; WINDOW defaults to the selected window. . Return nil if position is not visible in window. Otherwise, the return value is similar to that returned by event-start for a mouse click at the upper left corner of the glyph corresponding to the given buffer position: (WINDOW AREA-OR-POS (X . Y) TIMESTAMP OBJECT POS (COL . ROW) IMAGE (DX . DY) (WIDTH . HEIGHT)) The posn- functions access elements of such lists. ok, now I've got a function that looks something like this: (defun my-move-and-popup-menu () "move the point, then pop up a menu." (goto-char xxxx) (setq p (posn-at-point)) (my-popup-menu p ...) ) Basically, move the point, then retrieve the screen position at that point, and then popup a menu at that screen position. But I am finding that posn-at-point returns non-nil, only if the xxxx character position (the after position) is visible in the window, before the call to goto-char. It seems that the position is not actually updated until exit from the function. If goto-char goes a long way, more than one screenful, then the retrieved position is always nil, and my code doesn't know where to popup the menu. The reason I suggest that the position is not actually updated until exit from the function - when the menu successfully pops up, the cursor is clearly visible in its previous location while the popup menu is being displayed. When I dismiss the menu, the cursor moves to where I expected it to move, after the goto-char call. How can I get the position to be really updated, between goto-char and posn-at-point, so that posn-at-point will not return nil? In a Windows Forms application I would call Form.Update() or something similar to update the display in the middle of an event handler. What's the emacs version of that?

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• So, I have this jquery bit that adds a row to a table the way I need it to, but it's UGLY

  - by dhoss

  I have a table that looks like this: <table name="exercises" id="workout-table"> <tr> <th>Name</th> <th>Reps/Intervals</th> <th>Sets</th> <th>Weight/Distance/Time</th> </tr> [%- i=0 %] [% WHILE i<=10 %] <tr class="workout-rows"> <td><input type="text" name="workout[exercise][[% i %]][name]" /></td> <td><input type="text" name="workout[exercise][[% i %]][repetitions]" size="3"/></td> <td><input type="text" name="workout[exercise][[% i %]][sets]" size="3"/></td> <td><input type="text" name="workout[exercise][[% i %]][weight]" size="4"/></td> </tr> [% i = i + 1 %] [% END %] </table> That template code is Template::Toolkit code that basically just generates an index so I can keep track of elements in what will become an HoAoH from Catalyst::Plugin::Params::Nested. This is the javascript that actually adds the row to the table on button click: $("#add-row").click(function(){ var size = $(".workout-rows").length; //size += 1; var row ='<tr class="workout-rows">' + '<td><input type="text" name="workout[exercise][' + size + '][name]" /></td>' + '<td><input type="text" name="workout[exercise][' + size + '][repetitions]" size="3"/></td>' + '<td><input type="text" name="workout[exercise][' + size + '][sets]" size="3"/></td>' + '<td><input type="text" name="workout[exercise][' + size + '][weight]" size="4"/></td>' + '</tr>'; $("#workout-table >tbody tr:last").after(row) }); I really really don't like the idea of copy-pasting the table row markup into the script itself, as it's repetitive and non-intuitive. I've tried .clone stuff, which works great for copying the row verbatim, but it doesn't keep track of the number of rows dynamically like I need it to. So basically I've pared it down to needing to find out how to mess with the name of each input so that it can reflect the loop index appropriately, so Catalyst::Plugin::Params::Nested will build the correct structure. Thoughts?

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• Is throwing an exception a healthy way to exit?

  - by ramaseshan

  I have a setup that looks like this. class Checker { // member data Results m_results; // see below public: bool Check(); private: bool Check1(); bool Check2(); // .. so on }; Checker is a class that performs lengthy check computations for engineering analysis. Each type of check has a resultant double that the checker stores. (see below) bool Checker::Check() { // initilisations etc. Check1(); Check2(); // ... so on } A typical Check function would look like this: bool Checker::Check1() { double result; // lots of code m_results.SetCheck1Result(result); } And the results class looks something like this: class Results { double m_check1Result; double m_check2Result; // ... public: void SetCheck1Result(double d); double GetOverallResult() { return max(m_check1Result, m_check2Result, ...); } }; Note: all code is oversimplified. The Checker and Result classes were initially written to perform all checks and return an overall double result. There is now a new requirement where I only need to know if any of the results exceeds 1. If it does, subsequent checks need not be carried out(it's an optimisation). To achieve this, I could either: Modify every CheckN function to keep check for result and return. The parent Check function would keep checking m_results. OR In the Results::SetCheckNResults(), throw an exception if the value exceeds 1 and catch it at the end of Checker::Check(). The first is tedious, error prone and sub-optimal because every CheckN function further branches out into sub-checks etc. The second is non-intrusive and quick. One disadvantage is I can think of is that the Checker code may not necessarily be exception-safe(although there is no other exception being thrown anywhere else). Is there anything else that's obvious that I'm overlooking? What about the cost of throwing exceptions and stack unwinding? Is there a better 3rd option?

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