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  • Grouping Collection seperating numeric 5 from String "5"

    - by invertedSpear
    BackGround: I have an advanced data grid. The data provider for this ADG is an ArrayCollection. There is a grouping collection on an ID field of this AC. Example of a couple items within this AC the AC var name is "arcTemplates": (mx.collections::ArrayCollection)#0 filterFunction = (null) length = 69 list = (mx.collections::ArrayList)#1 length = 69 source = (Array)#2 [0] (Object)#3 abbreviation = "sore-throat" insertDate = "11/16/2009" name = "sore throat" templateID = 234 templateType = "New Problem" templateTypeID = 1 [32] (Object)#35 abbreviation = 123 insertDate = "03/08/2010" name = 123 templateID = 297 templateType = "New Problem" templateTypeID = 1 [55] (Object)#58 abbreviation = 1234 insertDate = "11/16/2009" name = 1234 templateID = 227 templateType = "Exam" templateTypeID = 5 [56] (Object)#59 abbreviation = "breast only" insertDate = "03/15/2005" name = "breast exam" templateID = 195 templateType = "Exam" templateTypeID = 5 Example of Flex code leading to the Grouping: <mx:AdvancedDataGrid displayItemsExpanded="true" id="gridTemplates"> <mx:dataProvider> <mx:GroupingCollection id="gc" source="{arcTemplates}"> <mx:Grouping > <mx:GroupingField name="templateTypeID" compareFunction="gcSort"> GC sort function: public function gcSort(a:Object, b:Object):int{ return ObjectUtil.stringCompare(String(a.templateTypeID + a.name).toLowerCase(), String(b.templateTypeID + b.name).toLowerCase()); } Problem: In my AC example there are a few items, items 0, 32 and 56 properly sort and group to their templateTypeID, but item 55 does something weird. It seems to sort/group on the numeric 5 instead of the string "5". Gets stranger. If I change the name property to contain text (so 1234x) it then correctly sorts/groups to the string "5" Question: What is going on here and how do I fix it?

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  • Does overloading Grails static 'mapping' property to bolt on database objects violate DRY?

    - by mikesalera
    Does Grails static 'mapping' property in Domain classes violate DRY? Let's take a look at the canonical domain class: class Book {      Long id      String title      String isbn      Date published      Author author      static mapping = {             id generator:'hilo', params:[table:'hi_value',column:'next_value',max_lo:100]      } } or: class Book { ...         static mapping = {             id( generator:'sequence', params:[sequence_name: "book_seq"] )     } } And let us say, continuing this thought, that I have my Grails application working with HSQLDB or MySQL, but the IT department says I must use a commercial software package (written by a large corp in Redwood Shores, Calif.). Does this change make my web application nobbled in development and test environments? MySQL supports autoincrement on a primary key column but does support sequence objects, for example. Is there a cleaner way to implement this sort of 'only when in production mode' without loading up the domain class?

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  • submit remote form with prototype

    - by badnaam
    I have a remote form like this and a checkbox in it. When I select or deselect the checkbox I would like to 1 - set the value of a hidden field 2 - ajax submit this form to its designated url. I tried $('search_form').onsubmit(), but I get an error saying onsubmit is not a function. Using prototype. Whats the best way to do this? <form onsubmit="new Ajax.Request('/searches/search_set?stype=1', {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, parameters:Form.serialize(this)}); return false;" method="post" id="new_search" class="new_search" action="/searches/search_set?stype=1"><div style="margin: 0pt; padding: 0pt; display: inline;"><input type="hidden" value="3TWSyMsZXI0nltz7zHAxuj1KX=" name="authenticity_token"></div> <a onclick="setSubmit(this);" href="#" class="submit-link-button fg-button ui-state-default fg-button-icon-left ui-corner-all" id="search_submit"><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-search"></span>'Search'</a> </div> <input type="checkbox" value="Energy" onclick="refreshResults(this);" name="search[conditions][article_tag][0]" id="search_conditions_article_tag_0">

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  • jQuery ajax success not work in codeigniter

    - by softboxkid
    I had a problem with ajax. The trick is, when user click on the top hyperlink, it will send the link id through onclick=getChildMenuLink(str). Then from getChildMenuLink(str) function, it will send the str to the controller (to set the session) thru ajax. here is the code. html code <a href="http://localhost/ejournal/index.php/sysconfig" onclick="getChildMenuLink(1)">Administrator</a> <a href="http://localhost/ejournal/index.php/welcome" onclick="getChildMenuLink(22)">Home</a> jquery ajax function getChildMenuLink(str) { 'use strict'; $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: "http://localhost/ejournal/index.php/sysconfig/getLink/" + str, success: function () {} // End of success function of ajax form }); // End of ajax call //alert(document.URL); } codeigniter controller function getLink($id='') { $this->session->unset_userdata('parentLink'); $this->session->set_userdata('parentLink',$id); } if i uncomment the alert() function on that script, it work. the PHP session is properly set. please help me

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  • Prevent Navigation to CreateUserWizardStep in the Postback event of nextbutton

    - by Aparna
    I am working with CreateUserWizard tool for creating a registration page. This is the first time and I am encountering problem with the following: I defined two steps in WizardSteps in the page: <WizardSteps> <asp:WizardStep ID="CreateUserWizardStep0" runat="server" Title="Sign Up for your new Account !!"> <asp:TextBox ID="Email" runat="server"> In the first wizard step, the user provides email, and we need to check if this email meets certain criteria (if he exists in our internal database, country is US etc) and if he/she is eligible navigate to CreateUserWizardStep1. I have a StartNextButton in the Start Navigation template for the WizardStep0. <StartNavigationTemplate> <br /> <asp:Button ID="StartNextButton" runat="server" CommandName="MoveNext" OnClick="StartNextButton_Click" Text="Check My Eligibility" /> </StartNavigationTemplate> I do all the logic of checking eligibility in the post-back event OnClick="StartNextButton_Click . If he is not eligible, I should display the error message in the step0 textbox and prevent navigation to CreateUserWizardStep1. I tried the following: if(noteligible) { lblError1.Visible = true; lblError1.Text = this.hfUserAlreadyRegistered.Value.ToString(); this.CreateUserWizard1.ActiveStepIndex = this.CreateUserWizard1.WizardSteps.IndexOf(this.CreateUserWizardStep0); this.CreateUserWizard1.Controls.Remove(CreateUserWizardStep1); this.CreateUserWizard1.ActiveStepIndex = 0; break; } But this is not working. I am taken out of step0 and step1 is coming irrespective of this. How can I just remain in Step0 and display the error message when the user is not eligible and navigate to Step1 only when he is eligible to register ? Thank you very much.

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  • Mapping self-table one-to-many using non-PK clolumns

    - by Harel Moshe
    Hey, i have a legacy DB to which a Person object is mapped, having a collection of family-members, like this: class Person { ... string Id; /* 9-digits string */ IList<Person> Family; ... } The PERSON table seems like: Id: CHAR(9), PK FamilyId: INT, NOT NULL and several other non-relevant columns. I'm trying to map the Family collection to the PERSON table using the FamilyId column, which is not the PK as mentioned above. So, i actually have a one-to-many which is self-table-referential. I'm getting an error saying 'Cast is not valid' when my mapping looks like this: ... <set name="Family" table="Person" lazy="false"> <key column="FamilyId" /> <one-to-many class="Person" /> </set> ... because obviously, the join NHibernate is trying to make is between the PK column, Id, and the 'secondary' column, FamilyId, instead of joining the FamilyId column to itself. Any ideas please?

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  • Programmatically Creating fieldset, ol/ul and li tags in ASP.Net, C#

    - by Matt
    Hi, I need to write an ASP.Net form which will produce the following HTML: <fieldset> <legend>Contact Details</legend> <ol> <li> <label for="name">Name:</label> <input id="name" name="name" class="text" type="text" /> </li> <li> <label for="email">Email address:</label> <input id="email" name="email" class="text" type="text" /> </li> <li> <label for="phone">Telephone:</label> <input id="phone" name="phone" class="text" type="text" /> </li> </ol> </fieldset> However, the fields which are to be added to the form will be determined at runtime, so I need to create the fieldset at runtime and add an ordered list and listitems to it, with labels, textboxes, checkboxes etc as appropriate. I can’t find standard ASP.Net objects which will create these tags. For instance, I’d like to do something like the following in C#: FieldSet myFieldSet = new FieldSet(); myFieldSet.Legend = “Contact Details”; OrderedList myOrderedList = new OrderedList(); ListItem listItem1 = new ListItem(); ListItem listItem2 = new ListItem(); ListItem listItem3 = new ListItem(); // code here which would add labels and textboxes to the ListItems myOrderedList.Controls.Add(listItem1); myOrderedList.Controls.Add(listItem2); myOrderedList.Controls.Add(listItem3); myFieldSet.Controls.Add(myOrderedList); Form1.Controls.Add(myFieldSet); Are there any standard ASP.Net objects which can produce this, or is there some other way of achieving the same result? Matt

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  • ASP.NET MVC: How to validate an Ajax form with a specified UpdateTargetID?

    - by Bryan Roth
    I'm trying to figure out how to show validation errors after a user submits an Ajax form that has its UpdateTargetID property set. I'm stumped on how to update the Ajax form with the validation errors without returning the Create PartialView into the results div. If the form is valid, then it should return the Records PartialView. Create.ascx <% Using Ajax.BeginForm("Create", "Record", New Record With {.UserID = Model.UserID}, New AjaxOptions With { .UpdateTargetId = "results", .LoadingElementId = "loader" })%> Date Located <%= Html.TextBoxFor(Function(model) model.DateLocated)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(Function(model) model.DateLocated) %> Description <%= Html.TextBoxFor(Function(model) model.Description)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(Function(model) model.Description) %> <input id="btnSave" type="submit" value="Create" /> <span id="loader" class="loader">Saving...</span> <%End Using%> Records.ascx <div id="results"> ... </div> RecordController.vb Function Create(ByVal newRecord As Record) As ActionResult ValidateRecord(newRecord) If Not ModelState.IsValid Then Return PartialView("Create", newRecord) End If _repository.Add(newRecord) _repository.Save() Dim user = _repository.GetUser(newRecord.UserID) Return PartialView("Records", user) End Function

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  • Django: Named URLs / Same Template, Different Named URL

    - by TheLizardKing
    I have a webapp that lists all of my artists, albums and songs when the appropriate link is clicked. I make extensive use of generic views (object_list/detail) and named urls but I am coming across an annoyance. I have three templates that pretty much output the exact same html that look just like this: {% extends "base.html" %} {% block content %} <div id="content"> <ul id="starts-with"> {% for starts_with in starts_with_list %} <li><a href="{% url song_list_x starts_with %}">{{ starts_with|upper }}</a></li> {% endfor %} </ul> <ul> {% for song in songs_list %} <li>{{ song.title }}</li> {% endfor %} </ul> </div> {% endblock content %} My artist and album template look pretty much the same and I'd like to combine the three template's into one. The fact that my variables start with song can easily be changed to the default obj. It's my <ul id="starts-with"> named url I don't know how to correct. Obviously I want it to link to a specific album/artist/song using the named urls in my urls.py but I don't know how to make it context aware. Any suggestions? urlpatterns = patterns('tlkmusic.apps.tlkmusic_base.views', # (r'^$', index), url(r'^artists/$', artist_list, name='artist_list'), url(r'^artists/(?P<starts_with>\w)/$', artist_list, name='artist_list_x'), url(r'^artist/(?P<artist_id>\d+)/$', artist_detail, name='artist_detail'), url(r'^albums/$', album_list, name='album_list'), url(r'^albums/(?P<starts_with>\w)/$', album_list, name='album_list_x'), url(r'^songs/$', song_list, name='song_list'), url(r'^songs/(?P<starts_with>\w)/$', song_list, name='song_list_x'), )

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  • Python Socket Getting Connection Reset

    - by Ian
    I created a threaded socket listener that stores newly accepted connections in a queue. The socket threads then read from the queue and respond. For some reason, when doing benchmarking with 'ab' (apache benchmark) using a concurrency of 2 or more, I always get a connection reset before it's able to complete the benchmark (this is taking place locally, so there's no external connection issue). class server: _ip = '' _port = 8888 def __init__(self, ip=None, port=None): if ip is not None: self._ip = ip if port is not None: self._port = port self.server_listener(self._ip, self._port) def now(self): return time.ctime(time.time()) def http_responder(self, conn, addr): httpobj = http_builder() httpobj.header('HTTP/1.1 200 OK') httpobj.header('Content-Type: text/html; charset=UTF-8') httpobj.header('Connection: close') httpobj.body("Everything looks good") data = httpobj.generate() sent = conn.sendall(data) def http_thread(self, id): self.log("THREAD %d: Starting Up..." % id) while True: conn, addr = self.q.get() ip, port = addr self.log("THREAD %d: responding to request: %s:%s - %s" % (id, ip, port, self.now())) self.http_responder(conn, addr) self.q.task_done() conn.close() def server_listener(self, host, port): self.q = Queue.Queue(0) sock = socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM) sock.bind( (host, port) ) sock.listen(5) for i in xrange(4): #thread count thread.start_new(self.http_thread, (i+1, )) while True: self.q.put(sock.accept()) sock.close() server('', 9999) When running the benchmark, I get totally random numbers of good requests before it errors out, usually between 4 and 500. Edit: Took me a while to figure it out, but the problem was in sock.listen(5). Because I was using apache benchmark with a higher concurrency (5 and up) it was causing the backlog of connections to pile up, at which point the connections started getting dropped by the socket.

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  • Loop with a while

    - by ookla
    Very basic question.. but I'm missing the point.. I have this data on my table: ID SITEID SECTION 1 1 posts 2 2 posts 3 1 aboutme 4 1 contact 5 2 questions The output is an array. I can't change it. I want to make this output on php with a single for loop with that array: <h1> sections for site 1 </h1> posts aboutme contact <h1>sections for site 2 </h1> posts questions I'm trying to do something like this, where $sectionsArray is my output. And I want to check if siteid is the same, then make a loop.. for ($j=0;$j<sizeof($sectionsArray);$j++) { while (siteid==1){ echo "<h1>'.$sectionsArray['siteid'].'</h1>'; } echo "<A href='section.php?id='.$sectionsArray['id'].' '">'.$sectionsArray['section'].'</a>; } But I don't get the logic of "grouping" the results with a while.. INSIDE a loop. Any light will be welcome. Thanks

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  • [JS] getSelection on DIV contentEditable

    - by cactoos
    Hi all ! I am trying to achieve project and i must do a WYSIWYG editor in JavaScript. I can't use an existing editor because I need use my plugins (for example a colorPicker or imagePicker).. For this time I have this HTML : <div class="K_editor" id="idExample"> <div class="K_links"> <div class="K_editor_link K_editor_linkBold">B</div> <div class="K_editor_link K_editor_linkItalic">I</div> <div class="K_editor_link K_editor_linkUnderline">U</div> </div> <iframe width="696" height="212" frameborder="0" src="js/myEditor_iFrame.php"> <html> <head/> <body> <div id="contentIframe" contenteditable="true"> This is a test code, with <strong>bold</strong> text and <em>italic</em> text. </div> </body> </html> </iframe> <input type="submit"/> </div> On event click on ".K_editor_link", a function is open with arguments : - tagStart (exemple '', or '') - tagEnd (exemple '', or '') - id (here 'idExample') I know get a Selection on Textarea but "setSelectionRange()", ".selectionStart" and ".selectionEnd" are only for textbox (XUL), input (XHTML) or textarea (XHTML). Why can I do for do that ?? I'm realy block.. Thank all ! CactO_o's

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  • Does NHibernate LINQ support ToLower() in Where() clauses?

    - by Daniel T.
    I have an entity and its mapping: public class Test { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual string Description { get; set; } } public class TestMap : EntityMap<Test> { public TestMap() { Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.Name); Map(x => x.Description); } } I'm trying to run a query on it (to grab it out of the database): var keyword = "test" // this is coming in from the user keyword = keyword.ToLower(); // convert it to all lower-case var results = session.Linq<Test> .Where(x => x.Name.ToLower().Contains(keyword)); results.Count(); // execute the query However, whenever I run this query, I get the following exception: Index was out of range. Must be non-negative and less than the size of the collection. Parameter name: index Am I right when I say that, currently, Linq to NHibernate does not support ToLower()? And if so, is there an alternative that allows me to search for a string in the middle of another string that Linq to NHibernate is compatible with? For example, if the user searches for kap, I need it to match Kapiolani, Makapuu, and Lapkap.

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  • JQuery Post-Request question - FF doesn't get the result of the referenced php page

    - by OlliD
    Dear community, I just want to have my question posted here but just from the beginning: For a personal web project I use PHP + JQuery. Now I got stuck when I try to use the ajax posting method to send data to another php-page. I planned to have some navigational elements like next + previous on the bottom of the page by saving the user input / user given data. The code looks as follows: <div id="bottom_nav"> <div id="prev" class="flt_l"><a href="?&step=<?= $pages[$step-1] ?>">next</a></div> <div id="next" class="flt_r"><a href="?&step=<?= $pages[$step+1] ?>">previous</a></div> </div> The functionality of the page works fine. Lateron, I use the following code to sent data over via POST: $("#bottom_nav a").click( function() { alert("POST-Link: Parameter=" + $("#Parameter").val()); $.ajax( { type:"post", url:"saveParameter.php", data:"Parameter=" + $("#Parameter").val(), success: function(result) { alert(result); //$("#test").text(result); } }); }); The request itself work perfectly on IE, but on FF I'm not able to get back any result. within the PHP page, there just written: <? echo $_POST['Parameter']; ?> As IE returns the correct value, FF just provide an empty message box. I assumed that the behaviour on the -Link is different. While IE seems to handle the click event after the JS-Code execution, FF will interpret it before. My question was whether you has a solution on this regarding restructuring the code itself or using another method to reach the intened behaviour. Thanks for your assistance and recommendations, Olli

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  • nhibernate not taking mappings from assembly

    - by cvista
    Hi I'm using fnh and castle nhib facility. I followed the advice from mike hadlow here: http://mikehadlow.blogspot.com/2009/01/integrating-fluent-nhibernate-and.html here is my FluentNHibernateConfigurationBuilder: public Configuration GetConfiguration(IConfiguration facilityConfiguration) { var defaultConfigurationBuilder = new DefaultConfigurationBuilder(); var configuration = defaultConfigurationBuilder.GetConfiguration(facilityConfiguration); configuration.AddMappingsFromAssembly(typeof(User).Assembly); return configuration; } i know the facility is picking it up as i can break inside that method and it steps through. however, when it's done, non of the mappings are created and i get the following error when i try to save an entity: No persister for: IsItGd.Model.Entities.User here is my user class: //simple model of web user public class User { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string FullName { get; set; } } and here is the mapping: public class UserMap : ClassMap<User> { public UserMap() { Id(x=>x.Id); Map(x=>x.FullName); } } i really can't see what the problem is. the strange thing is - is that if i use automapping it picks everything up - but i don't want to use automapping as i can't do certain things in that scenario. any clues? w://

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  • jQuery Tools alert works once (but only once)

    - by Jim Miller
    I'm trying to build a simple alert mechanism with jQuery Tools -- in response to a bit of Javascript code, pop up an overlay with a message and an OK button that, when clicked, makes the overlay go away. Trivial, or it should be. I've been slavishly following http://flowplayer.org/tools/demos/overlay/trigger.html, and have something that works fine the first time it's invoked, but only that time. If I repeat the JS action that should expose the overlay, it doesn't. My content/DIV: <div class='modal' id='the_alert'> <div id='modal_content' class='modal_content'> <h2>hi there</h2> this is the body <p> <button class='close'>OK</button> </p> </div> <div id='modal_background' class='modal_background'><img src='/images/overlay/f9f9f9-180.png' class='stretch' alt='' /></div> </div> and the Javascript: function showOverlayDialog() { $('#the_alert').overlay({ mask: {color: '#cccccc', loadSpeed: 200, opacity: 0.9}, closeOnClick: false, load: true }); } As I said: When showOverlayDialog() is invoked the first time, the overlay appears just like it should, and goes away when the "OK" button is clicked. But if I cause showOverlayDialog() to run again, without reloading the page, nothing happens. If I reload the page, then the pattern repeats -- the first invocation brings up the overlay, but the second one doesn't. I'm obviously missing something -- any advice out there? Thanks!

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  • jquery control execution of the callback functions

    - by user253530
    Function socialbookmarksTableData(data) is called by another function to generate the content of a table -- data is a JSON object. Inside the function i call 2 other functions that use getJSON and POST (with json as a return object) to get some data. The problem is: though the functions execute correctly i get undefined value for the 2 variables (bookmarkingSites, bookmarkCategories). Help with a solution please. function socialbookmarksGetBookmarkCategories(bookmarkID) { var toReturn = ''; $.post("php/socialbookmark-get-bookmark-categories.php",{ bookmarkID: bookmarkID },function(data){ $.each(data,function(i,categID){ toReturn += '<option value ="' + data[i].categID + '">' + data[i].categName + '</option>'; }) return toReturn; },"JSON"); } function socialbookmarksGetBookmarkSites() { var bookmarkingSites = ''; $.getJSON("php/socialbookmark-get-bookmarking-sites.php",function(bookmarks){ for(var i = 0; i < bookmarks.length; i++){ //alert( bookmarks[i].id); bookmarkingSites += '<option value = "' + bookmarks[i].id + '">' + bookmarks[i].title + '</option>'; } return bookmarkingSites; }); } function socialbookmarksTableData(data) { var toAppend = ''; var bookmarkingSites = socialbookmarksGetBookmarkSites(); $.each(data.results, function(i, id){ var bookmarkCategories = socialbookmarksGetBookmarkCategories(data.results[i].bookmarkID); //rest of the code is not important }); $("#searchTable tbody").append(toAppend); }

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  • Retactoring advanced has_many example

    - by atmorell
    Hello, My user model has three relations for the same message model, and is using raw SQL :/ Is there a better more rails way to achieve the same result? Could the foreign key be changed dynamically? e.g User.messages.sent (foreign key = author_id) and User.messages.received (foreign key = recipient ) I have been trying to move some of the logic into scopes in the message model, but the user.id is not available from the message model... Any thoughts? Table layout: create_table "messages", :force => true do |t| t.string "subject" t.text "body" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" t.integer "author_id" t.integer "recipient_id" t.boolean "author_deleted", :default => false t.boolean "recipient_deleted", :default => false end This is my relations for my user model: has_many :messages_received, :foreign_key => "recipient_id", :class_name => "Message", :conditions => ['recipient_deleted = ?', false] has_many :messages_sent, :foreign_key => "author_id", :class_name => "Message", :conditions => ['author_deleted = ?', false] has_many :messages_deleted, :class_name => "Message", :finder_sql => 'SELECT * FROM Messages WHERE author_id = #{self.id} AND author_deleted = true OR recipient_id = #{self.id} AND recipient_deleted = true' Best regards. Asbjørn Morell

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  • target-action uicontrolevents

    - by Fabrizio Farinelli
    I must be missing something obvious here but ... UIControl has a method - (void)addTarget:(id)target action:(SEL)action forControlEvents: (UIControlEvents)controlEvents which lets you add an action to be called when any of the given controlEvents occur. ControlEvents are a bitmask of events which tell you if a touch went down, or up inside, or was dragged etc., there's about 16 of them, you or them together and get called when any of them occur. The selector can have one of the following signatures - (void)action - (void)action:(id)sender - (void)action:(id)sender forEvent:(UIEvent *) none of those tell you what the control event bitmask was. The UIEvent is something slightly different, it's related to the actual touch event and doesn't (I think) contain the UIControlEvent. The sender (UIControl) doesn't have a way to find the control events either. I'd like to have one method which deals with a number of control events as I have some common code regardless of which event or events happened but I still need to know what the UIControlEvents were for some specific processing. Am I missing a way to find out what UIControlEvents were used when the action was called or do I really have to separate my code into -(void)actionWithUIControlEventX; -(void)actionWithUIControlEventY;

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  • cakephp Activation Email Sending slow

    - by Michael
    Hi all, I have a simple email sender for user account activation. Depending on which email address I use, I get significantly different response times: University email - 1 minute, Gmail - 3-4 hours, Yahoo - 1 or 2 days -- which seems bizarre. Has anyone else seen this phenomenon? EDIT: There weren't many responses (even for a bounty), but I'll try to explain my problem more clearly. This probably isn't greylsting -- If I so a simple: php mail ($to, $subject, $body) // this delivers instantly. My cakephp code: function __sendActivationEmail($id) { $User = $this->User->read ( null, $id ); $this->set ( 'suffix_url', $User ['User'] ['id'] . '/' . $this->User->getActivationHash () ); $this->set ( 'username', $User ['User'] ['username'] ); $this->Email->to = $User ['User'] ['email']; $this->Email->subject = 'Test.com - ' . __ ( 'please confirm your email address', true ); $this->Email->from = '[email protected]'; $this->Email->template = 'user_confirm'; $this->Email->sendAs = 'text'; $this->Email->delivery = 'mail'; $this->Email->send (); } Causes delays from 13 minutes (ok; we'll deal with it) to 5-6 hours (less okay, since this is an activation email). For some of my users, it works instantly, but for other users (of the same service provider, i.e., gmail, it sees these delays). Any clues?

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  • Best approach, Dynamic OpenXML in T-SQL

    - by Martin Ongtangco
    hello, i'm storing XML values to an entry in my database. Originally, i extract the xml datatype to my business logic then fill the XML data into a DataSet. I want to improve this process by loading the XML right into the T-SQL. Instead of getting the xml as string then converting it on the BL. My issue is this: each xml entry is dynamic, meaning it can be any column created by the user. I tried using this approach, but it's giving me an error: CREATE PROCEDURE spXMLtoDataSet @id uniqueidentifier, @columns varchar(max) AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @name varchar(300); DECLARE @i int; DECLARE @xmlData xml; (SELECT @xmlData = data, @name = name FROM XmlTABLES WHERE (tableID = ISNULL(@id, tableID))); EXEC sp_xml_preparedocument @i OUTPUT, @xmlData DECLARE @tag varchar(1000); SET @tag = '/NewDataSet/' + @name; DECLARE @statement varchar(max) SET @statement = 'SELECT * FROM OpenXML(@i, @tag, 2) WITH (' + @columns + ')'; EXEC (@statement); EXEC sp_xml_removedocument @i END where i pass a dynamically written @columns. For example: spXMLtoDataSet 'bda32dd7-0439-4f97-bc96-50cdacbb1518', 'ID int, TypeOfAccident int, Major bit, Number_of_Persons int, Notes varchar(max)' but it kept on throwing me this exception: Msg 137, Level 15, State 2, Line 1 Must declare the scalar variable "@i". Msg 319, Level 15, State 1, Line 1 Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'with'. If this statement is a common table expression or an xmlnamespaces clause, the previous statement must be terminated with a semicolon.

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  • problem with RenderOuterTable property for .net 4.0 controls

    - by Mario
    According to the new 4.0 framework overview, one should be able to add the attrib RenderOuterTable="false" to a control that supports the attribute and see css friendly code be spit out - in other words no html tables. To test this, I threw a login control into a basic fresh webpage with the following code: <asp:Login ID="Login1" runat="server" RenderOuterTable="false"></asp:Login> The result? Crappy html table output, which supposedly doesn't happen with this attrib set to false. Here is the output: &lt;table cellpadding=&quot;0&quot;&gt; <tr> <td align="center" colspan="2">Log In</td> </tr><tr> <td align="right"><label for="MainContent_Login1_UserName">User Name:</label></td><td><input name="ctl00$MainContent$Login1$UserName" type="text" id="MainContent_Login1_UserName" /><span id="MainContent_Login1_UserNameRequired" title="User Name is required." style="visibility:hidden;">*</span></td>... Hopefully you get the point. Anyone know how to stop these controls from outputting tables? This is super annoying.

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  • Architecture with NHibernate and Repositories

    - by Matthew
    I've been reading up on MVC 2 and the recommended patterns, so far I've come to the conclusion (amongst much hair pulling and total confusion) that: Model - Is just a basic data container Repository - Provides data access Service - Provides business logic and acts as an API to the Controller The Controller talks to the Service, the Service talks to the Repository and Model. So for example, if I wanted to display a blog post page with its comments, I might do: post = PostService.Get(id); comments = PostService.GetComments(post); Or, would I do: post = PostService.Get(id); comments = post.Comments; If so, where is this being set, from the repository? the problem there being its not lazy loaded.. that's not a huge problem but then say I wanted to list 10 posts with the first 2 comments for each, id have to load the posts then loop and load the comments which becomes messy. All of the example's use "InMemory" repository's for testing and say that including db stuff would be out of scope. But this leaves me with many blanks, so for a start can anyone comment on the above?

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  • Jquery get each div's sub child divs and grab info into an array

    - by McNabbToSkins
    I have a some html that looks like this <div id="main"> <div id="sub_main_1" class="sub_main"> <input type="text" class="sub_name_first" /><br /> <input type="text" class="sub_name_second" /><br /> </div> <div id="sub_main_2" class="sub_main"> <input type="text" class="sub_name_first" /><br /> <input type="text" class="sub_name_second" /><br /> </div> </div> I would like to pull out each sub_main divs information into an array in javascript. So far I have this as my jquery code $('#main').find('.sub_main').each( function() { alert('hi'); }); The alert is just a test that it should show "hi" twice. But this is not working. I am also not clear on how I can store the two inputs in a javascript array. Any help would be great! Thanks,

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  • T-SQL Table Joins - Unique Situation

    - by Dimitri
    Hello Everyone. This is my first time encountering the case like this and don't quite know how to handle. Situation: I have one table tblSettingsDefinition, with fields: ID, GroupID, Name, typeID, DefaultValue. Then I have tblSettingtypes with fields TypeID, Name. And I have final table, tblUserSettings with fields SettingID, SettingDefinitionID, UserID, Value. The whole point of this is to have customizable settings. Setting can be defined for a Group or as global setting (if GroupID is NULL). It will have a default value, but if user modifies the setting, an entry is added to tblUserSettings that stores new value. I want to have a query that grabs user settings by first looking at the tblUserSettings, and if it has records for the given user, grabs them, if not retrieves default settings. But the trick is that no matter if user has settings or not, I need to have fields from other two table retrieved to know the setting's Type, Name etc... (which are stored in those other tables). I'm writing query something like this: SELECT * FROM tblSettingDefinition SD LEFT JOIN tblUserSettings US ON SD.SettingID = US.SettingDefinitionID JOIN tblSettingTypes ST ON SD.TypeID=ST.ID WHERE US.UserID=@UserID OR ((SD.GroupID IS NULL) OR (SD.GroupID=(SELECT GroupID FROM tblUser WHERE ID=@UserID))) but it retrieves settings for all users from tblUserSettings instead of just ones that match current @UserID. And if @UserID has no records in tblUserSettings, still, all user settings are retrieved instead of the defaults from tblSettingDefinition. Hope I made myself clear. Any help would be highly appreciated. Thank you.

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