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  • How do i close the alert dialog that displays custom view

    - by Asdfg
    I have an activity named MainActivity which has a button. On click of that button i am displaying an AlertDialog which contains a custom view named ChildWindow.xml. That custom view has multiple textboxes and a OK button. On click of the OK button, i am calling a method of MainActivity. I am able to access the ChildWindow here as view.getRootView().findViewById(R.id.txtFirstName); Once the user clicks on the OK button, i have to close the alert dialog which i am able to do as view.getRootView().setVisibility(View.GONE); My problem is even though i have closed the the ChildWindow in the above statement, i am able to get reference to the textbox in the next line which means AlertDialog is closed but child window is still there. This is how the OK button click looks like: This works as expected: EditText tb = (EditText) view.getRootView().findViewById(R.id.txtFirstName); Toast toast = Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), tb.getText(), Toast.LENGTH_LONG); toast.show(); view.getRootView().setVisibility(View.GONE); This should not work as i am closing the alert dialog and then getting the reference of the textbox but this works too. view.getRootView().setVisibility(View.GONE); EditText tb = (EditText) view.getRootView().findViewById(R.id.txtFirstName); Toast toast = Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), tb.getText(), Toast.LENGTH_LONG); toast.show(); I think i am closing the alert dialog but i am not destroying it from the memory. Can someone point me out what am i missing here?

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  • Javascript hide/show classes with checkbox

    - by Christina
    I am just learning javascript, so please bear with me! I want to be able to use checkboxes to choose to hide/show div classes (to basically filter the amount of info being shown). It is done in this... but I'm try to figure out something much simpler (since I don't need to dynamically generate the checkbox options.) I came across this example: The Javascript: function showMe (it, box) { var vis = (box.checked) ? "block" : "none"; document.getElementById(it).style.display = vis; } The HTML <form> <input type="checkbox" checked="checked" value="value1" onclick="showMe('div1', this)" />value1 <input type="checkbox" checked="checked" value="value2" onclick="showMe('div2', this)" />value2 <input type="checkbox" checked="checked" value="value3" onclick="showMe('div3', this)" />value3 </form> <div id="div1" style="display:block">Show Div 1</div> <div id="div2" style="display:block">Show Div 2</div> <div id="div3" style="display:block">Show Div 3</div> </body> </html> But it only works for div ids, not classes. Any idea on how I can work this? Thanks in advance if you can help me out!

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  • jquery-sortable using behavior of a linkedlist

    - by BabaBooey
    I suspect I'm not looking at this issue in the right way so here goes. I have essentially a LinkedList of data on a web page (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Linked_list) that I'd like to manipulate using traditional Linked List behavior (i.e. just updating the reference/id of the "next" object) for performance reasons. Where this gets a bit tricky is I'd ideally like to use Jquery's sortable to do this. Like the user would drag something up/down and I could just do an Ajax call to the server with the id of the object that moved and the new parent id of that object (and then behind the scenes I could figure out how to reconnect things..maybe need more data than that...). But every example I've seen where sortable is used they were sending the whole re-indexed list to the database to update which seems unnecessary to me. With a linked list to change an element's "index" I only need to make 3 updates which depending on the size of the list could be a big performance savings. Anyone have an example of what I'm trying to do...am I too far in left field?

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  • ASP MVC.Net 3 RC2 bug ?

    - by Jarek Waliszko
    Hello, so far I've been using ASP.Net 3 BETA. Everything was working fine till the update to RC2 version. Of course I've read ScottGu's article about RC2. My problem is following. Basically I have 2 controllers: public class DynamicPageController : Controller { public ActionResult Redirect(string resource, int? pageNumber, int? id) { } } public class SystemController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { } } In the Globals.asax I have routes like this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.MapRoute( "SystemRoute", "System/{action}", new { controller = "System", action = "Index" } ); routes.MapRoute( "PageRoute", "{resource}/{id}/{pageNumber}", new { controller = "DynamicPage", action = "Redirect", resource = UrlParameter.Optional, pageNumber = UrlParameter.Optional, id = UrlParameter.Optional } ); } In the code, I have simple link creation: System.Web.Mvc.UrlHelper u = new System.Web.Mvc.UrlHelper(context); string url = u.Action("Index", "System"); and the url is "/my_app/System" in both versions (BETA and RC2) But the code below (the syntax is the same as above, only controller and action names are different): string url = u.Action("Redirect", "DynamicPage", new RouteValueDictionary(new { resource = "Home" })); gives url which is null in RC2. It should be (and in fact in BETA was) "/my_app/Home" Why ? Is it a bug ? How can I create url for my "DynamicPage" controller ? Regards BTW: From where can I now download ASP.Mvc BETA version along with ASP.Net Web Pages 1.0 installers ? Since RC2 announcement I have problems finding mentioned 2 installers. Normally I would upgrade my code but this issue described above makes me stay with BETA for a while, since I have no time for migration and testing everything now.

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  • Generic object to object mapping with parametrized constructor

    - by Rody van Sambeek
    I have a data access layer which returns an IDataRecord. I have a WCF service that serves DataContracts (dto's). These DataContracts are initiated by a parametrized constructor containing the IDataRecord as follows: [DataContract] public class DataContractItem { [DataMember] public int ID; [DataMember] public string Title; public DataContractItem(IDataRecord record) { this.ID = Convert.ToInt32(record["ID"]); this.Title = record["title"].ToString(); } } Unfortanately I can't change the DAL, so I'm obliged to work with the IDataRecord as input. But in generat this works very well. The mappings are pretty simple most of the time, sometimes they are a bit more complex, but no rocket science. However, now I'd like to be able to use generics to instantiate the different DataContracts to simplify the WCF service methods. I want to be able to do something like: public T DoSomething<T>(IDataRecord record) { ... return new T(record); } So I'd tried to following solutions: Use a generic typed interface with a constructor. doesn't work: ofcourse we can't define a constructor in an interface Use a static method to instantiate the DataContract and create a typed interface containing this static method. doesn't work: ofcourse we can't define a static method in an interface Use a generic typed interface containing the new() constraint doesn't work: new() constraint cannot contain a parameter (the IDataRecord) Using a factory object to perform the mapping based on the DataContract Type. does work, but: not very clean, because I now have a switch statement with all mappings in one file. I can't find a real clean solution for this. Can somebody shed a light on this for me? The project is too small for any complex mapping techniques and too large for a "switch-based" factory implementation.

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  • How can I merge multiple Compass Resources into one, with one score?

    - by Brent Fisher
    I am trying to integrate compass into my platform using the JDBC ResultSetToResourceMapping. What I want to do is set it up so that I could have multiple result set mappings, tied to one Resource, that produces one result, with one score, and a merged score. I have tried to trick Compass into doing this by mapping the same id across them, even though the property fields are different, but it just ends up giving me separate hits for each. E.g. I have the following Data Model, Cases and Comments. One case might have several comments. Say I search for a term that appears in multiple comments. Right now, I a hit for each one, each with a different score. Is there a way that I could merge or aggregate those hits into one hit? Say, instead of Score Entity ID Snippets 100.0% Case 3558 ... The fox jumped over the lazy dog ... 60.0% Case 3558 ... In Alabama today, three jumping turtles were ... 25.0% Case 3558 ... Three jumpers fled the scene... I get Score Entity ID Snippets 100.0% Case 3558 The fox jumped over the lazy dog ...In Alabama today, three jumping turtles were ... Three jumpers fled the scene... Where the latter score is an aggregated score.

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  • QUnit Unit Testing: Test Mouse Click

    - by Ngu Soon Hui
    I have the following HTML code: <div id="main"> <form Id="search-form" action="/ViewRecord/AllRecord" method="post"> <div> <fieldset> <legend>Search</legend> <p> <label for="username">Staff name</label> <input id="username" name="username" type="text" value="" /> <label for="softype"> software type</label> <input type="submit" value="Search" /> </p> </fieldset> </div> </form> </div> And the following Javascript code ( with JQuery as the library): $(function() { $("#username").click(function() { $.getJSON("ViewRecord/GetSoftwareChoice", {}, function(data) { // use data to manipulate other controls }); }); }); Now, how to test $("#username").click so that for a given input, it calls the correct url ( in this case, its ViewRecord/GetSoftwareChoice) And, the output is expected (in this case, function(data)) behaves correctly? Any idea how to do this with QUnit? Edit: I read the QUnit examples, but they seem to be dealing with a simple scenario with no AJAX interaction. And although there are ASP.NET MVC examples, but I think they are really testing the output of the server to an AJAX call, i.e., it's still testing the server response, not the AJAX response. What I want is how to test the client side response.

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  • embedded SWF isn't shown (SWFLoader)

    - by Trantec
    I embed a swf as ByteArray and load it at runtime with the SWFLoader. Here is the internal swf that I want to load: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute"> <mx:Label id="rLabel" text="From InternalSWF"/> </mx:Application> The embeding swf loads it with the following code: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" applicationComplete="main();"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.managers.SystemManager; import mx.events.FlexEvent; [Embed(source="../../InternalSWF/bin-release/InternalSWF.swf", mimeType="application/octet-stream")] mimeType="application/octet-stream")] private const internalSWF:Class; public function main(): void { var binary:ByteArray = new internalSWF() as ByteArray; // setup swfloader rSwfLoader.trustContent = true; rSwfLoader.addEventListener( Event.COMPLETE, onSWFLoaded ); rSwfLoader.load(binary); } public function onSWFLoaded( event:Event ): void { } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:Box> <mx:SWFLoader id="rSwfLoader" height="100%" width="100%" scaleContent="true"/> <mx:Text id="rText" text="from EmbedingSWF"/> </mx:Box> The label "from EmbedingSWF" is shown on both, local and on the webserver. But the label with "From InternalSWF" isn't shown on the webserver, just on the local machine. With some tests I found out that the internal swf is loaded correctly, because it's later added applicationComplete-Function is called. Is this a bug in Adobe-Flash-Player or am I missunderstanding something ? Update: Internet Explorer is fine. Firefox and Chrome not...

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  • Uncaught TypeError: Object [object Object] has no method 'onAdded'

    - by user3604227
    I am using ExtJS4 with Java servlets. I am following the MVC architecture for ExtJS. I am trying a simple example of displaying a border layout but it doesnt work and I get the following error in ext-all.js in the javascript console: Uncaught TypeError: Object [object Object] has no method 'onAdded' Here is my code: app.js Ext.Loader.setConfig({ enabled : true }); Ext.application({ name : 'IN', appFolder : 'app', controllers : [ 'Items' ], launch : function() { console.log('in LAUNCH-appjs'); Ext.create('Ext.container.Viewport', { items : [ { xtype : 'borderlyt' } ] }); } }); Items.js (controller) Ext.define('IN.controller.Items', { extend : 'Ext.app.Controller', views : [ 'item.Border' ], init : function() { this.control({ 'viewport > panel' : { render : this.onPanelRendered } }); }, onPanelRendered : function() { console.log('The panel was rendered'); } }); Border.js (view) Ext.define('IN.view.item.Border',{extend : 'Ext.layout.container.Border', alias : 'widget.borderlyt', title : 'Border layout' , autoShow : true, renderTo : Ext.getBody(), defaults : { split : true, layout : 'border', autoScroll : true, height : 800, width : 500 }, items : [ { region : 'north', html : "Header here..", id : 'mainHeader' }, { region : 'west', width : 140, html : "Its West..", }, { region : 'south', html : "This is my temp footer content", height : 30, margins : '0 5 5 5', bodyPadding : 2, id : 'mainFooter' }, { id : 'mainContent', collapsible : false, region : 'center', margins : '5', border : true, } ] }); The folder structure for the Webcontent is as follows: WebContent app controller Items.js model store view item Border.js ext_js resources src ext_all.js index.html app.js Can someone help me resolve this error? Thanks in advance

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  • How to build a JSON response by combining @foo.to_json(options) and @bars.to_json(options) in Rails

    - by smotchkkiss
    First, the desired result I have User and Item models. I'd like to build a JSON response that looks like this: { "user": {"username":"Bob!","foo":"whatever","bar":"hello!"}, "items": [ {"id":1, "name":"one", "zim":"planet", "gir":"earth"}, {"id":2, "name":"two", "zim":"planet", "gir":"mars"} ] } However, my User and Item model have more attributes than just those. I found a way to get this to work, but beware, it's not pretty... Please help... My hacks home_controller.rb class HomeController < ApplicationController def observe respond_to do |format| format.js { render :json => Observation.new(current_user, @items).to_json } end end end observation.rb # NOTE: this is not a subclass of ActiveRecord::Base # this class just serves as a container to aggregate all "observable" objects class Observation attr_accessor :user, :items def initialize(user, items) self.user = user self.items = items end # The JSON needs to be decoded before it's sent to the `to_json` method in the home_controller otherwise the JSON will be escaped... # What a mess! def to_json { :user => ActiveSupport::JSON.decode(user.to_json(:only => :username, :methods => [:foo, :bar])), :items => ActiveSupport::JSON.decode(auctions.to_json(:only => [:id, :name], :methods => [:zim, :gir])) } end end

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  • Validation for Alert dialog

    - by Hossam
    Hi Everyone, Im working in a game and when the player finished the level , Im asking the Player to enter his name on EditText in Alert Dialog : AlertDialog.Builder builder = new Builder(this); LayoutInflater inflater = getLayoutInflater(); // Inflate and set the layout for the dialog // Pass null as the parent view because its going in the dialog layout builder.setView(inflater.inflate(R.layout.dialog_name, null)) // Add action buttons .setPositiveButton(R.string.alertName, new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int id) { playerText = (EditText) ((AlertDialog)dialog).findViewById(R.id.username); if(playerText.getText() != null && playerText.getText().length() != 0) Helper.currentPlayer.setName(playerText.getText().toString()); //calculate the score // save in data base PlayerDataSource playerDS = new PlayerDataSource(getApplicationContext()); playerDS.open(); Helper.currentPlayer = playerDS.createPlayer(Helper.currentPlayer.getName(), Helper.currentPlayer.getScore(), Helper.currentPlayer.levels, Helper.currentPlayer.times, LanguageHelper.div); playerDS.close(); saveStmc(); mainScene.setChildScene(choicesMenu, false, true, true); } }) .setTitle("Please Enter Your name") .setNegativeButton(R.string.cancel, new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int id) { } }); alert = builder.create(); When the Player enters his name and press OK (Positive button) I will check in database if the name exists or not, if the name is exist : show Toast and not dismiss the alert to write another name. How to do that?

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  • Checking parameter classes in PHP

    - by Professor Elm
    At the moment, I have the following: <?php if ($custom != ""): ?> <div class="head-row5" id="custom"> <?php print $custom?> </div><?php //head-row5 ?> <?php endif; ?> What is returned is something like.... <div class="block block-block" id="block-block-15"> <div class="title"> <h3></h3> </div> <div class="content"><p style="text-align: center;"><a href="website linkage" id="T2roll"><span class="alt">Name of the linked page</span></a></p> </div> What I'm trying to do is find a way to print this out ONLY if the is true. How would I go about doing this? I believe that I'm going to have to check the elements by class of this $custom parameter. However, I have no idea how to go about doing this.

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  • Replacing text inside textarea without focus

    - by asker
    I want to replace selected text(or insert new text after cursor position if nothing is selected). The new text is entered from another textbox. I want to be able to insert new text without clicking first (focusing) in the textarea. meaning: first select text to replace inside textarea, then enter new text into the textbox and click the button. <textarea id='text' cols="40" rows="20"> </textarea> <div id="opt"> <input id="input" type="text" size="35"> <input type="button" onclick='pasteIntoInput(document.getElementById("input").value)' value="button"/> </div> function pasteIntoInput(text) { el=document.getElementById("text"); el.focus(); if (typeof el.selectionStart == "number"&& typeof el.selectionEnd == "number") { var val = el.value; var selStart = el.selectionStart; el.value = val.slice(0, selStart) + text + val.slice(el.selectionEnd); el.selectionEnd = el.selectionStart = selStart + text.length; } else if (typeof document.selection != "undefined") { var textRange = document.selection.createRange(); textRange.text = text; textRange.collapse(false); textRange.select(); } } Online example: link text

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  • AJAX Submit to PHP still loading page after preventDefault()

    - by dannyburrows
    I have a webpage that I am using .ajax to send variables to a php script. The php page is loading into the browser as if I was navigating to it. The script is loading the data correctly, so my issue is stopping the navigation and keeping the user on the original page. The code for my form is here: echo "<form method='post' action='addTask.php' id='myform'>\n"; echo "<input name='addtask' id='addtask' maxlength='64'/><br/>\n"; echo "<input type='submit' name='submit' id='submit' value='Add Task'/>\n"; echo "</form>\n"; The code for my jquery is here: $(function(){ $('#myform').submit(function(e){ e.stopPropagation(); $.ajax({ url: 'addTask.php', type: 'POST', data: {}, success: alert("Success") }); }); }); I have tried: e.preventDefault(), e.stopPropagation() and return false. Any help is appreciated. $("#submit").click(function(e){ e.preventDefault(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "addtask.php", data: { } }) .done(function() { alert( "success" ); }) .fail(function() { alert( "error" ); }); and $(function(){ $('#myform').submit(function(e){ e.preventDefault(); $.ajax({ url: 'addTask.php', type: 'POST', data: {}, success: function(){alert("Success")} }); }); });

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  • ASP: Updating an image's IMAGEURL within a REPEATER

    - by Django Reinhardt
    Hi, I hope someone can help me. It's a pretty newbie question, I'm afraid. I have an image inside a repeater, and I would like to change its IMAGEURL based on parameter that's being passed to it. <asp:Repeater ID="Repeater" runat="server"> <HeaderTemplate> <asp:Image ID="imgType" runat="server" /> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <%# Eval("DisplayName")%> </ItemTemplate> <SeparatorTemplate> <hr /> </SeparatorTemplate> </asp:Repeater> There is a SWITCH statement in the code behind that is altering the IMAGEURL depending on what's being passed to it. Inevitably, however, the images ID ("imgType") is not visible to the SWITCH statement (presumably because it's inside a REPEATER). Any suggestions on the best way to implement this would be greatly appreciated. Sorry for such a newbie question. Thanks!

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  • gridview commandargument on buttonfield pagination used

    - by ClareBear
    Hello all, I am using c#.net I have a gridview which needs to contain a 'Use' button (appointmentId set as the commandargument). Source Code <asp:GridView ID="resultsReturned" runat="server" AllowPaging="True" AutoGenerateColumns="False" EnableSortingAndPagingCallbacks="True" OnPageIndexChanged="resultsReturned_PageIndexChanged" onrowcommand="resultsReturned_RowCommand"> <Columns> <asp:BoundField DataField="UserAppointmentId" HeaderText="App ID" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="UserBookingName" HeaderText="Booking Name" /> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="UseButton" Text="Use" CommandName="Use" CommandArgument="UserAppointmentId" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> Code-Behind protected void resultsReturned_RowCommand(object sender, GridViewCommandEventArgs e) { if (e.CommandName == "Use") { correctAppointmentID.Value = (e.CommandArgument.ToString()); } } This is used for the pagination: private void BindAppointments() { var results = appointmentRepos.GetBookingIdBySearchCriteria(catgoryid, resultsReturned.PageIndex * resultsReturned.PageSize, -1); resultsReturned.DataSource = results; resultsReturned.DataBind(); } I am binding the appointments to the gridview within the PageLoad/search_Click This is the error I am receiving: Callbacks are not supported on TemplateField because some controls cannot update properly in a callback. Turn callbacks off on 'resultsReturned'. Thanks in advance for any help Clare

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  • Violation of PRIMARY KEY constraint 'PK_

    - by abhi
    hi am trying to write a code in which i need to perform a update but on primary keys how do i achieve it i have written the following code: kindly look at it let me know where m wrong Protected Sub rgKMSLoc_UpdateCommand(ByVal source As Object, ByVal e As Telerik.Web.UI.GridCommandEventArgs) Handles rgKMSLoc.UpdateCommand Try KAYAReqConn.Open() If TypeOf e.Item Is GridEditableItem Then Dim strItemID As String = CType(e.Item.FindControl("hdnID"), HiddenField).Value Dim strrcmbLocation As String = CType(e.Item.FindControl("rcmbLocation"), RadComboBox).SelectedValue Dim strKubeLocation As String = CType(e.Item.FindControl("txtKubeLocation"), TextBox).Text Dim strCSVCode As String = CType(e.Item.FindControl("txtCSVCode"), TextBox).Text SQLCmd = New SqlCommand("SELECT * FROM MstKMSLocKubeLocMapping WHERE LocationID= '" & rcmbLocation.SelectedValue & "'", KAYAReqConn) Dim dr As SqlDataReader dr = SQLCmd.ExecuteReader If dr.HasRows Then lblMsgWarning.Text = "<font color=red>""User ID Already Exists" Exit Sub End If dr.Close() SQLCmd = New SqlCommand("UPDATE MstKMSLocKubeLocMapping SET LocationID=@Location,KubeLocation=@KubeLocation,CSVCode=@CSVCode WHERE LocationID = '" & strItemID & "'", KAYAReqConn) SQLCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Location", Replace(strrcmbLocation, "'", "''")) SQLCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@KubeLocation", Replace(strKubeLocation, "'", "''")) SQLCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@CSVCode", Replace(strCSVCode, "'", "''")) SQLCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Status", "A") SQLCmd.ExecuteNonQuery() lblMessageUpdate.Text = "<font color=blue>""Record Updated SuccessFully" SQLCmd.Dispose() rgKMSLoc.Rebind() End If Catch ex As Exception Response.Write(ex.ToString) Finally KAYAReqConn.Close() End Try End Sub this is my designer page' Location: ' / ' DataSourceID="dsrcmbLocation" DataTextField="Location" DataValueField="LocationID" Height="150px" Kube Location: ' Class="forTextBox" MaxLength="4" onkeypress="return filterInput(2,event);" CSV Code: ' Class="forTextBox" MaxLength="4" onkeypress="return filterInput(2,event);" <tr class="tableRow"> <td colspan="2" align="center" class="tableCell"> <asp:ImageButton ID="btnUpdate" runat="server" CommandName="Update" CausesValidation="true" ValidationGroup="Update" ImageUrl="~/Images/update.gif"></asp:ImageButton> <asp:ImageButton ID="btnCancel" runat="server" CausesValidation="false" CommandName="Cancel" ImageUrl="~/Images/No.gif"></asp:ImageButton> </td> </tr> </table> </FormTemplate> </EditFormSettings> Locationid is my primary key

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  • random data using php & mysql

    - by Prakash
    I have mysql database structure like below: CREATE TABLE test ( id int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, title text NULL, tags text NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) ); data on field tags is stored as a comma separated text like html,php,mysql,website,html etc... now I need create an array that contains around 50 randomly selected tags from random records. currently I am using rand() to select 15 random mysql data from database and then holding all the tags from 15 records in an array. Then I am using array_rand() for randomizing the array and selecting only 50 random records. $query=mysql_query("select * from test order by id asc, RAND() limit 15"); $tags=""; while ($eachData=mysql_fetch_array($query)) { $additionalTags=$eachData['tags']; if ($tags=="") { $tags.=$additionalTags; } else { $tags.=$tags.",".$additionalTags; } } $tags=explode(",", $tags); $newTags=array(); foreach ($tags as $tag) { $tag=trim($tag); if ($tag!="") { if (!in_array($tag, $newTags)) { $newTags[]=$tag; } } } $random_newTags=array_rand($newTags, 50); Now I have huge records on the database, and because of that; rand() is performing very slow and sometimes it doesn't work. So can anyone let me know how to handle this situation correctly so that my page will work normally.

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  • add row to a BindingSource gives different autoincrement value from whats saved into DB

    - by Ruben Trancoso
    I have a DataGridView that shows list of records and when I hit a insert button, a form should add a new record, edit its values and save it. I have a BindingSource bound to a DataGridView. I pass is as a parameter to a NEW RECORD form so // When the form opens it add a new row and de DataGridView display this new record at this time DataRowView currentRow; currentRow = (DataRowView) myBindindSource.AddNew(); when user confirm to save it I do a myBindindSource.EndEdit(); // inside the form and after the form is disposed the new row is saved and the bindingsorce position is updated to the new row DataRowView drv = myForm.CurrentRow; avaliadoTableAdapter.Update(drv.Row); avaliadoBindingSource.Position = avaliadoBindingSource.Find("ID", drv.Row.ItemArray[0]); The problem is that this table has a AUTOINCREMENT field and the value saved may not correspond the the value the bindingSource gives in EDIT TIME. So, when I close and open the DataGridView again the new rowd give its ID based on the available slot in the undelying DB at the momment is was saved and it just ignores the value the BindingSource generated ad EDIT TIME, Since the value given by the binding source should be used by another table as a foreingKey it make the reference insconsistent. There's a way to get the real ID was saved to the database?

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  • URL "fragment identifier" semantics for HTML documents

    - by Pointy
    I've been working with a new installation of the "MoinMoin" wiki software. As I was playing with it, typing in mostly random test pages, I created a link with a fragment blah blah see also [[SomeStuff#whatever|some other stuff about whatever]] Then I needed to figure out how to create the anchor for that "whatever" fragment identifier. I don't recall having to do that with MediaWiki, so I had to dig around, but finally I found that MoinMoin has an "Anchor" macro: == Whatever == <<Anchor(whatever)>> Looking at the generated HTML, I was surprised to see an empty <span> tag with an "id" value of "whatever". I expected that it'd be an <a> tag with a "name" attribute of "whatever". I dug around and found the source, and there's a comment that says they changed it from an <a> tag in order to avoid some IE problem with <pre> sections. This confused me — not because of the IE thing, but because it looked to me as if their "fix" had left the whole anchor mechanism completely broken. Much to my surprise, however, further testing indicated that it worked fine. I wrote a test page with 300 <span> tags all with "id" values, and I further shocked myself when Firefox behaved exactly as I would have expected it to had I used <a> tags. It also worked when I changed all the <span> tags to <em>. So by this time, you're either as surprised as I was, or else you're thinking "how can somebody that dumb have so many reputation points?" If you're in the second category, is it really the case that I've been typing in HTML for about 15 years now — a lot of HTML — and it's somehow escaped my notice that browsers use the HTML fragment to find any sort of element with a matching "id"? mind status: blown

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  • Ruby on Rails field_for Form Helper Problems

    - by schone
    Hi all, I'm using the field_for form helper with a loop: <% f.fields_for :permissions do |permission_form| %> <tr> <td><%= permission_form.object.security_module.name %><%= permission_form.hidden_field(:security_module_id) %></td> <td><%= permission_form.object.security_module.description %></td> <tr> <% end %> The resulting output of the above code is this: <input id="role_permissions_attributes_0_id" name="role[permissions_attributes][0][id]" type="hidden" value="76" /> <tr> <td>Diary<input id="role_permissions_attributes_0_security_module_id" name="role[permissions_attributes][0][security_module_id]" type="hidden" value="13" /></td> <td>Access to the Diary Module</td> </tr> <!-- next input field then <tr> tag --> The problem with this markup is that the input tag falls outside of the tr tag which there for causes validation issues with XHTML. Does anyone know how I can have the input tag fall inside the tr tag therefore giving me valid XHTML 1.0 STRICT markup? Thanks

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  • How to resize table via javascript in IE?

    - by MartyIX
    I've got this table: <table id="correctness" style="overflow: hidden;"> <tr><td style="overflow: hidden;"> <div id="correctness-message"></div> <span class="hide"> <button type="button" class="hide" onclick="new DisplayEffect('correctness').Hide(500);">Hide</button> </span> </td> </tr> </table> and a function for resizing the table: function resize(element, size) { element.style.height = size + "px";}; which is called for a certain amount of time (e.g. 1 second) with the ID of table (i.e. "correctness") in order to resize the table from zero height to its full height. This code works in Firefox and Chrome but it doesn't work in IE8. What it does is that it displays right away whole table even thought the height set in "resize" method is much lower. It seems that the cell sets the height of parent table and not the other way around. Is it possible to change the behaviour? I like changing the height of the table better because I can set visibility of the table easily. Thanks for any help!

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  • Please help debug this ASP.Net [VB] code. Trying to write to text file from SQL Server DB.

    - by NJTechGuy
    I am a PHP programmer. I have no .Net coding experience (last seen it 4 years ago). Not interested in code-behind model since this is a quick temporary hack. What I am trying to do is generate an output.txt file whenever the user submits new data. So an output.txt file if exists should be replaced with the new one. I want to write data in this format : 123|Java Programmer|2010-01-01|2010-02-03 124|VB Programmer|2010-01-01|2010-02-03 125|.Net Programmer|2010-01-01|2010-02-03 I don't know VB, so not sure about string manipulations. Hope a kind soul can help me with this. I will be grateful to you. Thank you :) <%@ Import Namespace="System.IO" %> <%@ Import Namespace="System.Data" %> <%@ Import Namespace="System.Data.SqlClient" %> <script language="vb" runat="server"> sub Page_Load(sender as Object, e as EventArgs) Dim sqlConn As New SqlConnection("Data Source=winsqlus04.1and1.com;Initial Catalog=db28765269;User Id=dbo2765469;Password=ByhgstfH;") Dim myCommand As SqlCommand Dim dr As SqlDataReader Dim FILENAME as String = Server.MapPath("Output4.txt") Dim objStreamWriter as StreamWriter ' If Len(Dir$(FILENAME)) > 0 Then Kill(FILENAME) objStreamWriter = File.AppendText(FILENAME) Try sqlConn.Open() 'opening the connection myCommand = New SqlCommand("SELECT id, title, CONVERT(varchar(10), expirydate, 120) AS [expirydate],CONVERT(varchar(10), creationdate, 120) AS [createdate] from tblContact where flag = 0 AND ACTIVE = 1", sqlConn) 'executing the command and assigning it to connection dr = myCommand.ExecuteReader() While dr.Read() objStreamWriter.WriteLine("JobID: " & dr(0).ToString()) objStreamWriter.WriteLine("JobID: " & dr(2).ToString()) objStreamWriter.WriteLine("JobID: " & dr(3).ToString()) End While dr.Close() sqlConn.Close() Catch x As Exception End Try objStreamWriter.Close() Dim objStreamReader as StreamReader objStreamReader = File.OpenText(FILENAME) Dim contents as String = objStreamReader.ReadToEnd() lblNicerOutput.Text = contents.Replace(vbCrLf, "<br>") objStreamReader.Close() end sub </script> <asp:label runat="server" id="lblNicerOutput" Font-Name="Verdana" />

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  • CSS DIV not expanding when more text is added

    - by decbrad
    Hi there... I have a quick CSS question, i'm hoping that somebody can help me out! I have a DIV called #ContentPanel and I want it to be able to expand so that it can cater for more text if needed. At the moment if the text is longer than 500px (as specified in the CSS) it flows out the bottom and over the content in the div below. How can I set it up to auto expand and push all divs after downwards. If anybody has any ideas, please let me know Here's the HTML <div id="MainContent"> <div id="MainImage"></div> <div id="ContentPanel">Text content goes here.</div> </div> ...and here's the CSS #MainContent { position:relative; height:500px; width:800px; margin:0 auto; background-color: #000; } #MainImage { position:absolute; top:0; left:0; width:350px; height:500px; background-color:#000; } #ContentPanel { position:absolute; height:500px; top:0; left:350px; width:450px; background-color:#000; } Thanks in advance! Kind regards, Decbrad

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  • How to copy x and y coordinate from one Flex component to another

    - by Tam
    Hi, I would like to base one component's x and y cooridnates according to another, I tried using the binding notation but it doesn't seem to work! <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:VGroup xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/halo" xmlns:vld ="com.lal.validators.*" xmlns:effect="com.lal.effects.*" xmlns:components="com.lal.components.*" width="400" height="100%" right="0" horizontalAlign="right" verticalCenter="0"> ...... <s:VGroup width="125" height="100%" horizontalAlign="right" gap="0" width.normal="153" x.normal="247" width.expanded="199" x.expanded="201"> ...... <s:Panel includeIn="expanded" id="buttonsGroup" mouseOut="changeStateToNormal();" mouseOver="stopChangeToNormal();" skinClass="com.lal.skins.TitlelessPanel" title="hi" right="0" width="125" height="700" > ..... <s:Label text="Jump To Date" paddingTop="20" /> <s:TextInput id="wholeDate" width="100" mouseOver="stopChangeToNormal();" click="date1.visible = true" focusOut="date1.visible = false"/> ... </s:Panel> </s:VGroup> <mx:DateChooser id="date1" change="useDate(event); this.visible = false; " visible="false" mouseOver="stopChangeToNormal();" y="{wholeDate.y}" x="{wholeDate.x}" /> </s:VGroup>

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