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• CSS Background-Images Loading after HTML Images (Involves Javascript)

  - by Kevin C.

  I threw together a quick little microsite that you can see at http://monterraauction.com. If you don't have a super-fast connection (and nothing's cached), the very last items to load are the background-images that are used for CSS image-text replacement (primarily, that h1#head at the top, with a 7kb background image). Nothing debilitating, but it looks slightly awkward. And I'm asking this question as a matter of curiosity more than anything else ;) Also, please note that this occurs in Firefox, but not Chrome. Now, underneath the h1#head I have a jquery.cycle.lite-powered slideshow in div#photo. In the HTML markup there are a total of 13, heavy image files that make up each of the slides. If I remove all but the first slide, then the problem goes away! So the CSS background-images are loading after...those HTML images are done? But here's what's confusing: I check it out in YSlow...the CSS background-images have a much lower response time than all of the slides in #photo. Right after all the JS files finish loading, in fact. So why aren't they showing up first? I tried $('#photo img:last-child').load(function() { alert('Locked and Loaded!')});, but the background-images pop up a while before the alert does, so I'm assuming it's not waiting until the last slide has loaded (admittedly I'm a bit of JS noob so maybe I'm just making a wrong assumption). I also tried commenting out all the jquery.cycle.lite stuff, so that I knew I didn't have any JS manipulating the DOM elements in #photo, but that wasn't the problem. I tried putting all the JS at the bottom of the document, right before </body>, but that didn't work. Lastly, I tried turning off javascript, and of course the css background-image loads way before the images in #photo, so it's definitely a JS thing (amirite?) I guess the obvious solution here is to mark the slides up as LINKS rather than IMGs, and have Javascript insert those 12 extra slideshow images after the DOM is ready--users without javascript shouldn't need to download the extra images anyways. But again, I'm curious: Why does removing the extra HTML images from within #photo solve the problem? And why are the CSS background-images showing up after the HTML images have loaded, even though YSlow says the css background-images loaded first? Seeing as how it happens in FF but not Chrome, is it simply a browser issue? I appreciate any insight you guys could give me!

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• How to crop or get a smaller size UIImage in iPhone without memory leaks?

  - by rkbang

  Hello all, I am using a navigation controller in which I push a tableview Controller as follows: TableView *Controller = [[TableView alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewStylePlain]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:Controller animated:NO]; [Controller release]; In this table view I am using following two methods to display images: - (UIImage*) getSmallImage:(UIImage*) img { CGSize size = img.size; CGFloat ratio = 0; if (size.width < size.height) { ratio = 36 / size.width; } else { ratio = 36 / size.height; } CGRect rect = CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, ratio * size.width, ratio * size.height); UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(rect.size); [img drawInRect:rect]; return UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); UIGraphicsEndImageContext(); } - (UIImage*)imageByCropping:(UIImage *)imageToCrop toRect:(CGRect)rect { //create a context to do our clipping in UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(rect.size); CGContextRef currentContext = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); //create a rect with the size we want to crop the image to //the X and Y here are zero so we start at the beginning of our //newly created context CGFloat X = (imageToCrop.size.width - rect.size.width)/2; CGFloat Y = (imageToCrop.size.height - rect.size.height)/2; CGRect clippedRect = CGRectMake(X, Y, rect.size.width, rect.size.height); //CGContextClipToRect( currentContext, clippedRect); //create a rect equivalent to the full size of the image //offset the rect by the X and Y we want to start the crop //from in order to cut off anything before them CGRect drawRect = CGRectMake(0, 0, imageToCrop.size.width, imageToCrop.size.height); CGContextTranslateCTM(currentContext, 0.0, drawRect.size.height); CGContextScaleCTM(currentContext, 1.0, -1.0); //draw the image to our clipped context using our offset rect //CGContextDrawImage(currentContext, drawRect, imageToCrop.CGImage); CGImageRef tmp = CGImageCreateWithImageInRect(imageToCrop.CGImage, clippedRect); //pull the image from our cropped context UIImage *cropped = [UIImage imageWithCGImage:tmp];//UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); CGImageRelease(tmp); //pop the context to get back to the default UIGraphicsEndImageContext(); //Note: this is autoreleased*/ return cropped; } But when I pop the Controller, the memory being used is not released. Is there any leaks in the above code used to create and crop images. Also are there any efficient method to deal with images in iPhone. I am having a lot of images and facing major challeges in resolving the memory issues. tnx in advance.

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• Implement looped movement animation with tap to cancel

  - by Nader

  Hi All; My app is based around a grid and an image that moves within a grid that is contained within a scrollview. I have an imageview that I am animating from one cell to another in time with a slow finger movement and recentering the scrollview. That is rather straight forward. I have also implement the ability to detect a swipe and therefore move the image all the way to the end of the grid and the uiscrollview recentering. I have even implemented the ability to detect a subsequent tap and freeze the swiped movement. The issue with the swipe movement is that the UIScrollView will scroll all the way to the end before the Image reaches the end and so I have to wait for the image to arrive. Also, when I freeze the movement of the image, I have to re-align the image to a cell (which I can do). I have come to the realization that I have to animate the image one cell at a time for swipes and recentering the uiscrollview before moving the image to the next cell. I have attempted to implement this but I cannot come up with a solution that works or works properly. Can anyone suggest how I go about implementing this? Even if you are able to put up code from a different example or sudo code, it would help a lot as I cannot workout how this should be done, should I be using selectors, a listener in delegates, I just simply lack the experience to solve this design pattern. Here is some code: Note that the sprite is an UIImageView - (void)animateViewToPosition:(SpriteView *)sprite Position:(CGPoint)pos Duration:(CFTimeInterval)duration{ CGMutablePathRef traversePath = CGPathCreateMutable(); CGPathMoveToPoint(traversePath, NULL, sprite.center.x, sprite.center.y); CGPathAddLineToPoint(traversePath, NULL, pos.x, pos.y); CAKeyframeAnimation *traverseAnimation = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:kAnimatePosition]; traverseAnimation.duration = duration; traverseAnimation.removedOnCompletion = YES; traverseAnimation.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionLinear]; traverseAnimation.delegate = sprite; traverseAnimation.path = traversePath; CGPathRelease(traversePath); [sprite.layer addAnimation:traverseAnimation forKey:kAnimatePosition]; sprite.center = pos;

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• Implement looped movement animation with tap to cancel

  - by Nader

  Hi All; My app is based around a grid and an image that moves within a grid that is contained within a scrollview. I have an imageview that I am animating from one cell to another in time with a slow finger movement and recentering the scrollview. That is rather straight forward. I have also implement the ability to detect a swipe and therefore move the image all the way to the end of the grid and the uiscrollview recentering. I have even implemented the ability to detect a subsequent tap and freeze the swiped movement. The issue with the swipe movement is that the UIScrollView will scroll all the way to the end before the Image reaches the end and so I have to wait for the image to arrive. Also, when I freeze the movement of the image, I have to re-align the image to a cell (which I can do). I have come to the realization that I have to animate the image one cell at a time for swipes and recentering the uiscrollview before moving the image to the next cell. I have attempted to implement this but I cannot come up with a solution that works or works properly. Can anyone suggest how I go about implementing this? Even if you are able to put up code from a different example or sudo code, it would help a lot as I cannot workout how this should be done, should I be using selectors, a listener in delegates, I just simply lack the experience to solve this design pattern. Here is some code: Note that the sprite is an UIImageView - (void)animateViewToPosition:(SpriteView *)sprite Position:(CGPoint)pos Duration:(CFTimeInterval)duration{ CGMutablePathRef traversePath = CGPathCreateMutable(); CGPathMoveToPoint(traversePath, NULL, sprite.center.x, sprite.center.y); CGPathAddLineToPoint(traversePath, NULL, pos.x, pos.y); CAKeyframeAnimation *traverseAnimation = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:kAnimatePosition]; traverseAnimation.duration = duration; traverseAnimation.removedOnCompletion = YES; traverseAnimation.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionLinear]; traverseAnimation.delegate = sprite; traverseAnimation.path = traversePath; CGPathRelease(traversePath); [sprite.layer addAnimation:traverseAnimation forKey:kAnimatePosition]; sprite.center = pos; }

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• int, short, byte performance in back-to-back for-loops

  - by runrunraygun

  (background: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1097467/why-should-i-use-int-instead-of-a-byte-or-short-in-c) To satisfy my own curiosity about the pros and cons of using the "appropriate size" integer vs the "optimized" integer i wrote the following code which reinforced what I previously held true about int performance in .Net (and which is explained in the link above) which is that it is optimized for int performance rather than short or byte. DateTime t; long a, b, c; t = DateTime.Now; for (int index = 0; index < 127; index++) { Console.WriteLine(index.ToString()); } a = DateTime.Now.Ticks - t.Ticks; t = DateTime.Now; for (short index = 0; index < 127; index++) { Console.WriteLine(index.ToString()); } b=DateTime.Now.Ticks - t.Ticks; t = DateTime.Now; for (byte index = 0; index < 127; index++) { Console.WriteLine(index.ToString()); } c=DateTime.Now.Ticks - t.Ticks; Console.WriteLine(a.ToString()); Console.WriteLine(b.ToString()); Console.WriteLine(c.ToString()); This gives roughly consistent results in the area of... ~950000 ~2000000 ~1700000 which is in line with what i would expect to see. However when I try repeating the loops for each data type like this... t = DateTime.Now; for (int index = 0; index < 127; index++) { Console.WriteLine(index.ToString()); } for (int index = 0; index < 127; index++) { Console.WriteLine(index.ToString()); } for (int index = 0; index < 127; index++) { Console.WriteLine(index.ToString()); } a = DateTime.Now.Ticks - t.Ticks; the numbers are more like... ~4500000 ~3100000 ~300000 Which I find puzzling. Can anyone offer an explanation? NOTE: In the interest of compairing like for like i've limited the loops to 127 because of the range of the byte value type. Also this is an act of curiosity not production code micro-optimization.

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• Filtering a collection based on filtering rules

  - by Mike

  I have an observable collection of Entities, with each entity having a status added, deleted, modified and cancelled. I have four buttons (toggle) when clicked should filter my collection as below: If I select the button Added, then my collection should contain entities with status added. If I select the button Deleted and Added, then my collection should contain entities with status Deleted AND entities with status Added, none of the rest. If I select the button Deleted,Added and Modified, then my collection should contain entities with status Deleted, Added AND Modified. . . so on. If I unselect one of the buttons, it should remove those entities from the collection with that status. For example if I unselect Deleted, but select Added and Modified, then my collection should contain items with Added and Modified status and NOT Deleted ones. For implementing this I have created a master collection and a filtered collection. The Filter collection gets filtered based on the selections and unselections. The following is my code: private bool _clickedAdded; public bool ClickedAdded { get { return _clickedAdded; } set { _clickedAdded = value; if(!_clickedAdded) FilterAny(typeof(Added)); } } private bool _clickedDeleted; public bool ClickedDeleted { get { return _clickedDeleted; } set { _clickedDeleted = value; if (!_clickedDeleted) FilterAny(typeof(Deleted)); } } private bool _clickedModified; public bool ClickedModified { get { return _clickedModified; } set { _clickedModified = value; if (!_clickedModified) FilterAny(typeof(Modified)); } } private void FilterAny(Type status) { Func<Entity, bool> predicate = entity => entity.Status.GetType() != status; var filteredItems = MasterEntites.Where(predicate); FilteredEntities = new ObservableCollection<Entity>(filteredItems); } This however breaks the above rules - for example if I have all selected, and then I remove Added followed by deleted then it still shows the list of Added, Modified and Cancelled. It should be just Modified and Cancelled in the filtered collection. Can you please help me in solving this issue? Also do I need 2 different list to solve this. Please note that I'm using .NET 3.5.

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• Does my fat-client application belong in the MVC pattern?

  - by boatingcow

  The web-based application I’m currently working on is growing arms and legs! It’s basically an administration system which helps users to keep track of bookings, user accounts, invoicing etc. It can also be accessed via a couple of different websites using a fairly crude API. The fat-client design loosely follows the MVC pattern (or perhaps MVP) with a php/MySQL backend, Front Controller, several dissimilar Page Controllers, a liberal smattering of object-oriented and procedural Models, a confusing bunch of Views and templates, some JavaScripts, CSS files and Flash objects. The programmer in me is a big fan of the principle of “Separation of Concerns” and on that note, I’m currently trying to figure out the best way to separate and combine the various concerns as the project grows and more people contribute to it. The problem we’re facing is that although JavaScript (or Flash with ActionScript) is normally written with the template, hence part of the View and decoupled from the Controller and Model, we find that it actually encompasses the entire MVC pattern... Swap an image with an onmouseover event - that’s Behaviour. Render a datagrid - we’re manipulating the View. Send the result of reordering a list via AJAX - now we’re in Control. Check a form field to see if an email address is in a valid format - we’re consulting the Model. Is it wise to let the database people write up the validation Model with jQuery? Can the php programmers write the necessary Control structures in JavaScript? Can the web designers really write a functional AJAX form for their View? Should there be a JavaScript overlord for every project? If the MVC pattern could be applied to the people instead of the code, we would end up with this: Model - the database boffins - “SELECT * FROM mind WHERE interested IS NULL” Control - pesky programmers - “class Something extends NothingAbstractClass{…}” View - traditionally the domain of the graphic/web designer - “” …and a new layer: Behaviour - interaction and feedback designer - “CSS3 is the new black…” So, we’re refactoring and I’d like to stick to best practice design, but I’m not sure how to proceed. I don’t want to reinvent the wheel, so would anyone have any hints or tips as to what pattern I should be looking at or any code samples from someone who’s already done the dirty work? As the programmer guy, how can I rewrite the app for backend and front end whilst keeping the two separate? And before you ask, yes I’ve looked at Zend, CodeIgnitor, Symfony, etc., and no, they don’t seem to cross the boundary between server logic and client logic!

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• List of objects sent over WCF, but null list received?

  - by GONeale

  Hey there, I have an object containing a list of custom objects which I am returning over a response in WCF, however on the receiving end, the list is null? But it contains 112 objects just prior to stepping out of the service on the server. This wasn't always the case, I have seen it return a list. I've just recently upgraded it to use NET TCP bindings, but I can't confirm when I started losing the data or if it was since the conversion from wsHttpBinding to netTcpBinding as it moved along with about four other services. I have looked on the WCF Service messages and trace file and also the WCF client's messages and trace file, no exceptions reported, and both message logs indicate they are sending the List<T> and for client, receiving the list - very frustrating! It's not a super light array, but not huge either, around 100KB. it has about 12 properties each and as stated 112 items are being sent. I have tried everything I can think of on client and server, note: Client: this.binding = new NetTcpBinding(SecurityMode.None) { MaxReceivedMessageSize = int.MaxValue, ReaderQuotas = { MaxStringContentLength = int.MaxValue, MaxArrayLength = int.MaxValue } }; ... Server app.config (sorry I have no idea if the quota settings have any bearing on net tcp? I only just added it similar to what I use for wsHttpBinding to test, but still list is null): <netTcpBinding> <binding name="SecurityByNetTcpTransportBinding" sendTimeout="00:03:00" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <readerQuotas maxStringContentLength="2147483647" maxArrayLength="2147483647" /> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </netTcpBinding> and something else I tried in my net tcp binding behavior: <dataContractSerializer maxItemsInObjectGraph="2147483647" /> <serviceTimeouts transactionTimeout="05:05:00" /> <serviceThrottling maxConcurrentSessions="400" maxConcurrentInstances="400" maxConcurrentCalls="400"/> I hope somebody can help, I hate 5 steps forward 3 steps backward which always seems to be the case with WCF :P In the interim until I [hopefully] get a response I will now try reducing this array just to see if it's a sizing issue.. Ok, It seems I have bigger problems. Because the list was the only thing I was sending, I thought it was an array issue. I am even setting an int to "25" and it's coming back as 0 - Anybody? I know I must have done something obviously stupid.

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• OpenJPA + Tomcat JDBC Connection Pooling = stale data

  - by Julie MacNaught

  I am using the Tomcat JDBC Connection Pool with OpenJPA in a web application. The application does not see updated data. Specifically, another java application adds or removes records from the database, but the web application never sees these updates. This is quite a serious issue. I must be missing something basic. If I remove the Connection Pool from the implementation, the web application sees the updates. It's as if the web application's commits are never called on the Connection. Version info: Tomcat JDBC Connection Pool: org.apache.tomcat tomcat-jdbc 7.0.21 OpenJPA: org.apache.openjpa openjpa 2.0.1 Here is the code fragment that creates the DataSource (DataSourceHelper.findOrCreateDataSource method): PoolConfiguration props = new PoolProperties(); props.setUrl(URL); props.setDefaultAutoCommit(false); props.setDriverClassName(dd.getClass().getName()); props.setUsername(username); props.setPassword(pw); props.setJdbcInterceptors("org.apache.tomcat.jdbc.pool.interceptor.ConnectionState;"+ "org.apache.tomcat.jdbc.pool.interceptor.StatementFinalizer;"+ "org.apache.tomcat.jdbc.pool.interceptor.SlowQueryReportJmx;"+ "org.apache.tomcat.jdbc.pool.interceptor.ResetAbandonedTimer"); props.setLogAbandoned(true); props.setSuspectTimeout(120); props.setJmxEnabled(true); props.setInitialSize(2); props.setMaxActive(100); props.setTestOnBorrow(true); if (URL.toUpperCase().contains(DB2)) { props.setValidationQuery("VALUES (1)"); } else if (URL.toUpperCase().contains(MYSQL)) { props.setValidationQuery("SELECT 1"); props.setConnectionProperties("relaxAutoCommit=true"); } else if (URL.toUpperCase().contains(ORACLE)) { props.setValidationQuery("select 1 from dual"); } props.setValidationInterval(3000); dataSource = new DataSource(); dataSource.setPoolProperties(props); Here is the code that creates the EntityManagerFactory using the DataSource: //props contains the connection url, user name, and password DataSource dataSource = DataSourceHelper.findOrCreateDataSource("DATAMGT", URL, username, password); props.put("openjpa.ConnectionFactory", dataSource); emFactory = (OpenJPAEntityManagerFactory) Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory("DATAMGT", props); If I comment out the DataSource like so, then it works. Note that OpenJPA has enough information in the props to configure the connection without using the DataSource. //props contains the connection url, user name, and password //DataSource dataSource = DataSourceHelper.findOrCreateDataSource("DATAMGT", URL, username, password); //props.put("openjpa.ConnectionFactory", dataSource); emFactory = (OpenJPAEntityManagerFactory) Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory("DATAMGT", props); So somehow, the combination of OpenJPA and the Connection Pool is not working correctly.

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• Drawing performance with CGImageCreateWithJPEGDataProvider?

  - by Rnegi

  I've actually curious about this for the iPhone. I am getting an MJPEG stream from a server and trying to render it natively on the iphone (without the use of safari class). Reasons for this is because the safari class while CAN render MJPEG natively, does not do so at the framerate I would like. So I tried drawing it natively, but I've come up with performance issues, namely a syncing issue between what I'm getting from the server and what I am able to draw onto the screen of the phone. (There should be a little lag, but the drift gets really bad, which is what I want to avoid). So I have a connection set up to my server and I do get the JPEGS. It's just data I insert into a NSMutableArray buffer CFMutableDataRef _t_data_ref = (CFMutableDataRef)[_buffer_array objectAtIndex:0]; //CGDataProviderRef imgDataProvider = CGDataProviderCreateWithCFData (_cf_buffer_data); CGDataProviderRef imgDataProvider = CGDataProviderCreateWithCFData(_t_data_ref); CGImageRef image = CGImageCreateWithJPEGDataProvider(imgDataProvider, NULL, true, kCGRenderingIntentDefault); CGImageRef imgRef = image; CGContextDrawImage(context, CGRectMake(0, 17, 380, 285), imgRef); CGImageRelease(image); CGDataProviderRelease(imgDataProvider); please note this is the gist of my code, but it should summarize what I am trying to accomplish with regards to drawing. Also in order to get the framerate in sync, I had to detach a separate thread that sleeps X seconds and calls [self setNeedsDisplay]. NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; // Top-level pool while(1) { //[NSThread sleepForTimeInterval:TIMER_REFRESH_VALUE]; //sleep(unsigned int ); usleep(MICRO_REFRESH_VALUE); if ([_buffer_array count] > 10) { //NSLog(@"stuff %d", [_buffer_array count]); //[self setNeedsDisplay]; [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(setNeedsDisplay) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; } } [pool release]; // Release the objects in the pool. My buffer of jpeg data actually fills up quite quick, but I can't seem to actually consume what i'm getting at the same rate, actually much slower. Are there any documents that can describe what kind of performance tuning I can do to make it go faster when rendering the JPEG to the screen? Or am I kind of stuck here? Thanks!

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• IKVM complex custom type error in remapping to properties!

  - by manishKungwani

  hi, I used the above and wrote this: <class name="umple.pts.domain.coreEntities.Stop"> <property name="StopName" sig="()Ljava.lang.String;"> <getter name="getName" sig="()Ljava.lang.String;" /> <setter name="setName" sig="(Ljava.lang.String;)Z" /> </property> <property name="StopId" sig="()I"> <getter name="getStopId" sig="()I" /> <setter name="setStopId" sig="(I)V" /> </property> </class> <class name="umple.pts.domain.coreEntities.Line"> <property name="LineName" sig="()Ljava.lang.String;"> <getter name="getName" sig="()Ljava.lang.String;" /> <setter name="setName" sig="(Ljava.lang.String;)V" /> </property> <property name="LineId" sig="()I"> <getter name="getLineId" sig="()I" /> <setter name="setLineId" sig="(I)V" /> </property> <property name="FirstEndStop" sig="()umple.pts.domain.coreEntities.Stop;"> <getter name="getFirstEndStop" sig="()umple.pts.domain.coreEntities.Stop;" /> <setter name="setFirstEndStop" sig="(umple.pts.domain.coreEntities.Stop;)Z" / / / I get an error while generating the dll file: D:\PTS\PTS_SVN\Libraries\ikvm-0.44.0.5\binikvmc -remap:map.xml -target:library PTSDomain.jar Note IKVMC0002: output file is "PTSDomain.dll" Error: Invalid property signature '()umple.pts.domain.coreEntities.Stop;' in rem ap file for property umple.pts.domain.coreEntities.Line.FirstEndStop Error: Invalid property getter signature '()umple.pts.domain.coreEntities.Stop;' in remap file for property umple.pts.domain.coreEntities.Line.FirstEndStop Error: Invalid property setter signature '(umple.pts.domain.coreEntities.Stop;)Z ' in remap file for property umple.pts.domain.coreEntities.Line.FirstEndStop Error: Invalid property signature '()umple.pts.domain.coreEntities.Stop;' in rem ap file for property umple.pts.domain.coreEntities.Line.SecondEndStop Error: Invalid property getter signature '()umple.pts.domain.coreEntities.Stop;' in remap file for property umple.pts.domain.coreEntities.Line.SecondEndStop Error: Invalid property setter signature '(umple.pts.domain.coreEntities.Stop;)Z ' in remap file for property umple.pts.domain.coreEntities.Line.SecondEndStop Error: Invalid property signature '()[umple.pts.domain.coreEntities.Stop;' in re map file for property umple.pts.domain.coreEntities.Line.Stops Error: Invalid property getter signature '()[umple.pts.domain.coreEntities.Stop; ' in remap file for property umple.pts.domain.coreEntities.Line.Stops Error: Invalid property setter signature '([umple.pts.domain.coreEntities.Stop;) Z' in remap file for property umple.pts.domain.coreEntities.Line.Stops D:\PTS\PTS_SVN\Libraries\ikvm-0.44.0.5\bin Can i use the custom properties or will i have to do that via some other way??

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• Piping input to a Java app with Perl

  - by user319479

  I need to write a Perl script that pipes input into a Java program. This is related to this, but that didn't help me. My issue is that the Java app doesn't get the print statements until I close the handle. What I found online was that $| needs to be set to something greater than 0, in which case newline characters will flush the buffer. This still doesn't work. This is the script: #! /usr/bin/perl -w use strict; use File::Basename; $|=1; open(TP, "| java -jar test.jar") or die "fail"; sleep(2); print TP "this is test 1\n"; print TP "this is test 2\n"; print "tests printed, waiting 5s\n"; sleep(5); print "wait over. closing handle...\n"; close TP; print "closed.\n"; print "sleeping for 5s...\n"; sleep(5); print "script finished!\n"; exit And here is a sample Java app: import java.util.Scanner; public class test{ public static void main( String[] args ){ Scanner sc = new Scanner( System.in ); int crashcount = 0; while( true ){ try{ String input = sc.nextLine(); System.out.println( ":: INPUT: " + input ); if( "bananas".equals(input) ){ break; } } catch( Exception e ){ System.out.println( ":: EXCEPTION: " + e.toString() ); crashcount++; if( crashcount == 5 ){ System.out.println( ":: Looks like stdin is broke" ); break; } } } System.out.println( ":: IT'S OVER!" ); return; } } The Java app should respond to receiving the test prints immediately, but it doesn't until the close statement in the Perl script. What am I doing wrong? Note: the fix can only be in the Perl script. The Java app can't be changed. Also, File::Basename is there because I'm using it in the real script.

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• jQuery tools modal overlay display problem in IE6-8

  - by Michael Stone

  I'm trying to enable the overlay to be modal. It works perfectly fine in FireFox, but the window object is behind the mask when it becomes modal. This prevents any interaction with it and the page is actually useless. I've tried debugging this for a while and can't figure it out. Here is a link to the example on their site: http://flowplayer.org/tools/demos/overlay/modal-dialog.html $.fn.cfwindow = function(btnEvent,modal,draggable){ //error checking if(btnEvent == ""){ alert('Error in window :\n Please provide an id that instantiates the window. '); } if(!modal && !draggable){ $('#'+btnEvent+'[rel]').overlay(); $('#content_overlay').css('cursor','default'); } if(!modal && draggable){ $('#'+btnEvent+'[rel]').overlay(); $('#content_overlay').css('cursor','move'); $('#custom').draggable(); } if(modal){ $('#'+btnEvent+'[rel]').overlay({ // some mask tweaks suitable for modal dialogs mask: { color: '#646464', loadSpeed: 200, opacity: 0.6 }, closeOnClick: false }); $('#content_overlay').css('cursor','default'); //$('#custom').addClass('modal'); } }; That's what I'm referencing when I call through: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $(document).pngFix(); var modal = <cfoutput>#attributes.modal#; var drag = #attributes.draggable#; var btn = '#attributes.selector#'; var src = '#attributes.source#'; var wid = '#attributes.width#'; $('##custom').width(parseInt(wid)); $('div##load_content').load(src); $('##custom').cfwindow(btn,modal,drag,wid); }); </script> CSS for the modal: <style type="text/css"> .modal { display:none; text-align:left; background-color:#FFFFFF; -moz-border-radius:6px; -webkit-border-radius:6px; } </style> Exclude the and the additional pound signs, IE. "##". Screen shot of the problem: http://twitpic.com/1tak06 Note: IE6 and IE8 have the same problem. Any help would be appreciated.

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• How can I take the first 100 characters of html content ( without stripping the TAGS! )

  - by Atomiton

  There are lots of questions on how to strip html tags, but not many on functions/methods to close them. Here's the situation. I have a 500 character Message summary ( which includes html tags ), but I only want the first 100 characters. Problem is if I truncate the message, it could be in the middle of an html tag... which messes up stuff. Assuming the html is something like this: <div class="bd">"Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit, sed do eiusmod tempor incididunt ut labore et dolore magna aliqua. <br/> <br/>Some Dates: April 30 - May 2, 2010 <br/> <p>Ut enim ad minim veniam, quis nostrud exercitation ullamco laboris nisi ut aliquip ex ea commodo consequat. <em>Duis aute irure dolor in reprehenderit</em> in voluptate velit esse cillum dolore eu fugiat nulla pariatur. Excepteur sint occaecat cupidatat non proident, sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollit anim id est laborum. <br/> </p> For more information about Lorem Ipsum doemdloe, visit: <br/> <a href="http://www.somesite.com" title="Some Conference">Some text link</a><br/> </div> How would I take the first ~100 characters or so? ( Although, ideally that would be the first approximately 100 characters of "CONTENT" ( in between the html tags ) I'm assuming the best way to do this would be a recursive algorithm that keeps track of the html tags and appends any tags that would be truncated, but that may not be the best approach. My first thoughts are using recursion to count nested tags, and when we reach 100 characters, look for the next "<" and then use recursion to write the closing html tags needed from there. The reason for doing this is to make a short summary of existing articles without requiring the user to go back and provide summaries for all the articles. I want to keep the html formatting, if possible. NOTE: Please ignore that the html isn't totally semantic. This is what I have to deal with from my WYSIWYG. EDIT: I added a potential solution ( that seems to work ) I figure others will run into this problem as well. I'm not sure it's the best... and it's probably not totally robust ( in fact, I know it isn't ), but I'd appreciate any feedback

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• rails paperclip unable to access image from another view

  - by curiousCoder

  my app has an habtm relation b/w listings and categories. now from the categories index page, a user filters select box to view listings in the show page. now i am not able to access images attached to listings in the category show page. listing.rb attr_accessible :placeholder, :categories_ids has_and_belongs_to_many :categories has_attached_file :placeholder, :styles => { :medium => "300x300>", :thumb => "100x100>" }, :default_url => "/images/:style/missing.png", :url => "/system/:hash.:extension", :hash_secret => "longSecretString" categories controller def index @categories = Category.all end def show @categories = Category.find_by_sql ["select distinct l.* from listings l , categories c, categories_listings cl where c.id = cl.category_id and l.id = cl.listing_id and c.id in (?,?)" , params[:c][:id1] , params[:c][:id2]] end the sql just filters and displays the listings in show page where i can show its attributes, but cant access the placeholder. note the plural @categories in show categories show page <ul> <% @categories.each_with_index do |c, index| %> <% if index == 0 %> <li class="first"><%= c.place %></li> <%= image_tag c.placeholder.url(:thumb) %> <li><%= c.price %></li> <% else %> <li><%= c.place %></li> <li><%= c.price %></li> <%= image_tag c.placeholder.url(:thumb) %> <% end %> <% end %> </ul> Access image from different view in a view with paperclip gem ruby on rails this said to make the object plural and call a loop, wch shall allow to access the image. it does not work in this case. undefined method `placeholder' for #<Category:0x5c78640> but the amazing thing is, placeholder will be displayed as an array of all images for all the listings if used as suggested in that stackoverflow, wch is, obviously, not the way i prefer. where's the issue? what am i missing?

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• android - using resources drawable in content provider

  - by Russ Wheeler

  I am trying to pass back an image through a content provider in a separate app. I have two apps, one with the activity in (app a), the other with content provider (app b) I have app a reading an image off my SD card via app b using the following code. App a: public void but_update(View view) { ContentResolver resolver = getContentResolver(); Uri uri = Uri.parse("content://com.jash.cp_source_two.provider/note/1"); InputStream inStream = null; try { inStream = resolver.openInputStream(uri); Bitmap bitmap = BitmapFactory.decodeStream(inStream); image = (ImageView) findViewById(R.id.imageView1); image.setImageBitmap(bitmap); } catch(FileNotFoundException e) { Toast.makeText(getBaseContext(), "error = "+e, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } finally { if (inStream != null) { try { inStream.close(); } catch (IOException e) { Log.e("test", "could not close stream", e); } } } }; App b: @Override public ParcelFileDescriptor openFile(Uri uri, String mode) throws FileNotFoundException { try { File path = new File(Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory().getAbsolutePath(),"pic2.png"); return ParcelFileDescriptor.open(path,ParcelFileDescriptor.MODE_READ_ONLY); } catch (FileNotFoundException e) { Log.i("r", "File not found"); throw new FileNotFoundException(); } } In app a I am able to display an image from app a's resources folder, using setImageURi and constructing a URI using the following code. int id = R.drawable.a2; Resources resources = getBaseContext().getResources(); Uri uri = Uri.parse(ContentResolver.SCHEME_ANDROID_RESOURCE + "://" + resources.getResourcePackageName(id) + '/' + resources.getResourceTypeName(id) + '/' + resources.getResourceEntryName(id) ); image = (ImageView) findViewById(R.id.imageView1); image.setImageURI(uri); However, if I try to do the same in app b (read from app b's resources folder rather than the image on the SD card) it doesn't work, saying it can't find the file, even though I am creating the path of the file from the resource, so it is definitely there. Any ideas? Does it restrict sending resources over the content provider somehow? P.S. I also got an error when I tried to create the file with File path = new File(uri); saying 'there is no applicable constructor to '(android.net.Uri)' though http://developer.android.com/reference/java/io/File.html#File(java.net.URI) Seems to think it's possible...unless java.net.URI is different to android.net.URI, in which case can I convert them? Thanks Russ

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• jquery - loading inline javascript via AJAX

  - by yaya3

  I have thrown together a quick prototype to try and establish a few very basic truths regarding what inline JavaScript can do when it is loaded with AJAX: index.html <html> <head> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1/jquery.min.js"></script> </head> <body> <script type="text/javascript"> $('p').css('color','white'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS FIRST but is "undefined" $(document).ready(function(){ $('#ajax-loaded-content-wrapper').load('loaded-by-ajax.html', function(){ $('p').css('color','grey'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS LAST (as expected) }); $('p').css('color','purple'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS SECOND }); </script> <p>Content not loaded by ajax</p> <div id="ajax-loaded-content-wrapper"> </div> </body> </html> loaded-by-ajax.html <p>Some content loaded by ajax</p> <script type="text/javascript"> $('p').css('color','yellow'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS THIRD $(document).ready(function(){ $('p').css('color','pink'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS FOURTH }); </script> <p>Some content loaded by ajax</p> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('p').css('color','blue'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS FIFTH }); $('p').css('color','green'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS SIX </script> <p>Some content loaded by ajax</p> Notes: a) All of the above (except the first) successfully change the colour of all the paragraphs (in firefox 3.6.3). b) I've used alert instead of console.log as console is undefined when called in the 'loaded' HTML. Truths(?): $(document).ready() does not treat the 'loaded' HTML as a new document, or reread the entire DOM tree including the loaded HTML, it is pointless inside AJAX loaded content JavaScript that is contained inside 'loaded' HTML can effect the style of existing DOM nodes One can successfully use the jQuery library inside 'loaded' HTML to effect the style of existing DOM nodes One can not use the firebug inside 'loaded' HTML can effect the existing DOM (proven by Note a) Am I correct in deriving these 'truths' from my tests (test validity)? If not, how would you test for these?

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• Backbone.Marionette - Collection within CompositeView, which itself is nested in a CollectionView

  - by nicefinly

  *UPDATE: The problem probably involves the tour-template as I've discovered that it thinks the 'name' attribute is undefined. This leads me to think that it's not an array being passed on to the ToursView, but for some reason a string. * After studying similar questions on StackOverflow: How to handle nested CompositeView using Backbone.Marionette? How do you properly display a Backbone marionette collection view based on a model javascript array property? Nested collections with Backbone.Marionette ... and Derick Bailey's excellent blog's on this subject: http://lostechies.com/derickbailey/2012/04/05/composite-views-tree-structures-tables-and-more/ ... including the JSFiddle's: http://jsfiddle.net/derickbailey/AdWjU/ I'm still having trouble with a displaying the last node of a nested CollectionView of CompositeViews. It is the final CollectionView within each CompositeView that is causing the problem. CollectionView { CompositeView{ CollectionView {} //**<-- This is the troublemaker!** } } NOTE: I have already made a point of creating a valid Backbone.Collection given that the collection passed on to the final, child CollectionView is just a simple array. Data returned from the api to ToursList: [ { "id": "1", "name": "Venice", "theTours": "[ {'name': u'test venice'}, {'name': u'test venice 2'} ]" }, { "id": "2", "name": "Rome", "theTours": "[ {'name': u'Test rome'} ]" }, { "id": "3", "name": "Dublin", "theTours": "[ {'name': u'test dublin'}, {'name': u'test dublin 2'} ]" } ] I'm trying to nest these in a dropdown where the nav header is the 'name' (i.e. Dublin), and the subsequent li 's are the individual tour names (i.e. 'test dublin', 'test dublin2', etc.) Tour Models and Collections ToursByLoc = TastypieModel.extend({}); ToursList = TastypieCollection.extend({ model: ToursByLoc, url:'/api/v1/location/', }); Tour Views ToursView = Backbone.Marionette.ItemView.extend({ template: '#tour-template', tagName: 'li', }); ToursByLocView = Backbone.Marionette.CompositeView.extend({ template: '#toursByLoc-template', itemView: ToursView, initialize: function(){ //As per Derick Bailey's comments regarding the need to pass on a //valid Backbone.Collection to the child CollectionView //REFERENCE: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/12163118/nested-collections-with-backbone-marionette var theTours = this.model.get('theTours'); this.collection = new Backbone.Collection(theTours); }, appendHtml: function(collectionView, itemView){ collectionView.$('div').append(itemView.el); } }); ToursListView = Backbone.Marionette.CollectionView.extend({ itemView: ToursByLocView, }); Templates <script id="tour-template" type="text/template"> <%= name %> </script> <script id="toursByLoc-template" type="text/template"> <li class="nav-header"><%= name %></li> <div class="indTours"></div> <li class="divider"></li> </script>

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• .NET XML Serialization without <?xml> root node

  - by Graphain

  Hi, I'm trying to generate XML like this: <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE APIRequest SYSTEM "https://url"> <APIRequest> <Head> <Key>123</Key> </Head> <ObjectClass> <Field>Value</Field </ObjectClass> </APIRequest> I have a class (ObjectClass) decorated with XMLSerialization attributes like this: [XmlRoot("ObjectClass")] public class ObjectClass { [XmlElement("Field")] public string Field { get; set; } } And my really hacky intuitive thought to just get this working is to do this when I serialize: ObjectClass inst = new ObjectClass(); XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(inst.GetType(), ""); StringWriter w = new StringWriter(); w.WriteLine(@"<?xml version=""1.0""?>"); w.WriteLine("<!DOCTYPE APIRequest SYSTEM"); w.WriteLine(@"""https://url"">"); w.WriteLine("<APIRequest>"); w.WriteLine("<Head>"); w.WriteLine(@"<Field>Value</Field>"); w.WriteLine(@"</Head>"); XmlSerializerNamespaces ns = new XmlSerializerNamespaces(); ns.Add("", ""); serializer.Serialize(w, inst, ns); w.WriteLine("</APIRequest>"); However, this generates XML like this: <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE APIRequest SYSTEM "https://url"> <APIRequest> <Head> <Key>123</Key> </Head> <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-16"?> <ObjectClass> <Field>Value</Field> </ObjectClass> </APIRequest> i.e. the serialize statement is automatically adding a <?xml root element. I know I'm attacking this wrong so can someone point me in the right direction? As a note, I don't think it will make practical sense to just make an APIRequest class with an ObjectClass in it (because there are say 20 different types of ObjectClass that each needs this boilerplate around them) but correct me if I'm wrong.

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• Git for Websites / post-receive / Separation of Test and Production Sites

  - by Walt W

  Hi all, I'm using Git to manage my website's source code and deployment, and currently have the test and live sites running on the same box. Following this resource http://toroid.org/ams/git-website-howto originally, I came up with the following post-receive hook script to differentiate between pushes to my live site and pushes to my test site: while read ref do #echo "Ref updated:" #echo $ref -- would print something like example at top of file result=`echo $ref | gawk -F' ' '{ print $3 }'` if [ $result != "" ]; then echo "Branch found: " echo $result case $result in refs/heads/master ) git --work-tree=c:/temp/BLAH checkout -f master echo "Updated master" ;; refs/heads/testbranch ) git --work-tree=c:/temp/BLAH2 checkout -f testbranch echo "Updated testbranch" ;; * ) echo "No update known for $result" ;; esac fi done echo "Post-receive updates complete" However, I have doubts that this is actually safe :) I'm by no means a Git expert, but I am guessing that Git probably keeps track of the current checked-out branch head, and this approach probably has the potential to confuse it to no end. So a few questions: IS this safe? Would a better approach be to have my base repository be the test site repository (with corresponding working directory), and then have that repository push changes to a new live site repository, which has a corresponding working directory to the live site base? This would also allow me to move the production to a different server and keep the deployment chain intact. Is there something I'm missing? Is there a different, clean way to differentiate between test and production deployments when using Git for managing websites? As an additional note in light of Vi's answer, is there a good way to do this that would handle deletions without mucking with the file system much? Thank you, -Walt PS - The script I came up with for the multiple repos (and am using unless I hear better) is as follows: sitename=`basename \`pwd\`` while read ref do #echo "Ref updated:" #echo $ref -- would print something like example at top of file result=`echo $ref | gawk -F' ' '{ print $3 }'` if [ $result != "" ]; then echo "Branch found: " echo $result case $result in refs/heads/master ) git checkout -q -f master if [ $? -eq 0 ]; then echo "Test Site checked out properly" else echo "Failed to checkout test site!" fi ;; refs/heads/live-site ) git push -q ../Live/$sitename live-site:master if [ $? -eq 0 ]; then echo "Live Site received updates properly" else echo "Failed to push updates to Live Site" fi ;; * ) echo "No update known for $result" ;; esac fi done echo "Post-receive updates complete" And then the repo in ../Live/$sitename (these are "bare" repos with working trees added after init) has the basic post-receive: git checkout -f if [ $? -eq 0 ]; then echo "Live site `basename \`pwd\`` checked out successfully" else echo "Live site failed to checkout" fi

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• Rails 3 and Bootstrap 2.1.0 - can't fix my footer

  - by ExiRe

  I have Rails application with bootstrap 2.1.0 (i use twitter-bootstrap-rails gem for that). But i can't get working footer. It is not visible unless i scroll down the page. I can't get how to fix that. Application.html.haml !!! %html %head %title MyApp = stylesheet_link_tag "application", :media => "all" = javascript_include_tag "application" = csrf_meta_tags %meta{ :name => "viewport", :content => "width=device-width, initial-scale=1.0" } %body %div{ :class => "wrapper" } = render 'layouts/navbar_template' %div{ :class => "container-fluid" } - flash.each do |key, value| = content_tag( :div, value, :class => "alert alert-#{key}" ) %div{ :class => "row-fluid" } %div{:class => "span10"} =yield %div{:class => "span2"} %h2 Test sidebar %footer{ :class => "footer" } = debug(params) if Rails.env.development? bootstrap_and_overrides.css.less @import "twitter/bootstrap/bootstrap"; body { padding-top: 60px; } @import "twitter/bootstrap/responsive"; // Set the correct sprite paths @iconSpritePath: asset-path('twitter/bootstrap/glyphicons-halflings.png'); @iconWhiteSpritePath: asset-path('twitter/bootstrap/glyphicons-halflings-white.png'); // Set the Font Awesome (Font Awesome is default. You can disable by commenting below lines) // Note: If you use asset_path() here, your compiled boostrap_and_overrides.css will not // have the proper paths. So for now we use the absolute path. @fontAwesomeEotPath: '/assets/fontawesome-webfont.eot'; @fontAwesomeWoffPath: '/assets/fontawesome-webfont.woff'; @fontAwesomeTtfPath: '/assets/fontawesome-webfont.ttf'; @fontAwesomeSvgPath: '/assets/fontawesome-webfont.svg'; // Font Awesome @import "fontawesome"; // Your custom LESS stylesheets goes here // // Since bootstrap was imported above you have access to its mixins which // you may use and inherit here // // If you'd like to override bootstrap's own variables, you can do so here as well // See http://twitter.github.com/bootstrap/less.html for their names and documentation // // Example: // @linkColor: #ff0000; //MY CSS IS HERE. html, body { height: 100%; } footer { color: #666; background: #F5F5F5; padding: 17px 0 18px 0; border-top: 1px solid #000; } footer a { color: #999; } footer a:hover { color: #efefef; } .wrapper { min-height: 100%; height: auto !important; height: 10px; margin-bottom: -10px; }

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• problem with two .NET threads and hardware access

  - by mack369

  I'm creating an application which communicates with the device via FT2232H USB/RS232 converter. For communication I'm using FTD2XX_NET.dll library from FTDI website. I'm using two threads: first thread continuously reads data from the device the second thread is the main thread of the Windows Form Application I've got a problem when I'm trying to write any data to the device while the receiver's thread is running. The main thread simply hangs up on ftdiDevice.Write function. I tried to synchronize both threads so that only one thread can use Read/Write function at the same time, but it didn't help. Below code responsible for the communication. Note that following functions are methods of FtdiPort class. Receiver's thread private void receiverLoop() { if (this.DataReceivedHandler == null) { throw new BackendException("dataReceived delegate is not set"); } FTDI.FT_STATUS ftStatus = FTDI.FT_STATUS.FT_OK; byte[] readBytes = new byte[this.ReadBufferSize]; while (true) { lock (FtdiPort.threadLocker) { UInt32 numBytesRead = 0; ftStatus = ftdiDevice.Read(readBytes, this.ReadBufferSize, ref numBytesRead); if (ftStatus == FTDI.FT_STATUS.FT_OK) { this.DataReceivedHandler(readBytes, numBytesRead); } else { Trace.WriteLine(String.Format("Couldn't read data from ftdi: status {0}", ftStatus)); Thread.Sleep(10); } } Thread.Sleep(this.RXThreadDelay); } } Write function called from main thread public void Write(byte[] data, int length) { if (this.IsOpened) { uint i = 0; lock (FtdiPort.threadLocker) { this.ftdiDevice.Write(data, length, ref i); } Thread.Sleep(1); if (i != (int)length) { throw new BackendException("Couldnt send all data"); } } else { throw new BackendException("Port is closed"); } } Object used to synchronize two threads static Object threadLocker = new Object(); Method that starts the receiver's thread private void startReceiver() { if (this.DataReceivedHandler == null) { return; } if (this.IsOpened == false) { throw new BackendException("Trying to start listening for raw data while disconnected"); } this.receiverThread = new Thread(this.receiverLoop); //this.receiverThread.Name = "protocolListener"; this.receiverThread.IsBackground = true; this.receiverThread.Start(); } The ftdiDevice.Write function doesn't hang up if I comment following line: ftStatus = ftdiDevice.Read(readBytes, this.ReadBufferSize, ref numBytesRead);

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• heroku time zone problem, logging local server time

  - by Ole Morten Amundsen

  UPDATE: Ok, I didn't formulate a good Q to be answered. I still struggle with heroku being on -07:00 UTC and I at +02:200 UTC. Q: How do I get the log written in the correct Time.zone ? The 9 hours difference, heroku (us west) - norway, is distracting to work with. I get this in my production.log (using heroku logs): Processing ProductionController#create to xml (for 81.26.51.35 at 2010-04-28 23:00:12) [POST] How do I get it to write 2010-04-29 08:00:12 +02:00 GMT ? Note that I'm running at heroku and cannot set the server time myself, as one could do at your amazon EC2 servers. Below is my previous question, I'll leave it be as it holds some interesting information about time and zones. Why does Time.now yield the server local time when I have set the another time zone in my environment.rb config.time_zone = 'Copenhagen' I've put this in a view <p> Time.zone <%= Time.zone %> </p> <p> Time.now <%= Time.now %> </p> <p> Time.now.utc <%= Time.now.utc %> </p> <p> Time.zone.now <%= Time.zone.now %> </p> <p> Time.zone.today <%= Time.zone.today %> </p> rendering this result on my app at heroku Time.zone (GMT+01:00) Copenhagen Time.now Mon Apr 26 08:28:21 -0700 2010 Time.now.utc Mon Apr 26 15:28:21 UTC 2010 Time.zone.now 2010-04-26 17:28:21 +0200 Time.zone.today 2010-04-26 Time.zone.now yields the correct result. Do I have to switch from Time.now to Time.zone.now, everywhere? Seems cumbersome. I truly don't care what the local time of the server is, it's giving me loads of trouble due to extensive use of Time.now. Am I misunderstanding anything fundamental here?

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• VSTS test deployment and invalid assembly culture

  - by Merlyn Morgan-Graham

  I have a DLL that I'm testing, which links to a DLL that has what I think is an invalid value for AssemblyCulture. The value is "Neutral" (notice the upper-case "N"), whereas the DLL I'm testing, and every other DLL in my project, has a value of "neutral" (because they specify AssemblyCulture("")). When I try to deploy the DLL that links to the problem DLL, I get this error in VSTS: Failed to queue test run '...': Culture is not supported. Parameter name: name Neutral is an invalid culture identifier. <Exception>System.Globalization.CultureNotFoundException: Culture is not supported. Parameter name: name Neutral is an invalid culture identifier. at System.Globalization.CultureInfo..ctor(String name, Boolean useUserOverride) at System.Globalization.CultureInfo..ctor(String name) at System.Reflection.RuntimeAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies(RuntimeAssembly assembly) at System.Reflection.RuntimeAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies() at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadWorker.ProcessChildren(Assembly assembly) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadWorker.GetDependentAssemblies(String path) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadWorker.GetDependentAssemblies(String path) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadStrategy.GetDependentAssemblies(String path) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyHelper.GetDependentAssemblies(String path, DependentAssemblyOptions options, String configFile) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.DeploymentManager.GetDependencies(String master, String configFile, TestRunConfiguration runConfig, DeploymentItemOrigin dependencyOrigin, List`1 dependencyDeploymentItems, Dictionary`2 missingDependentAssemblies) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.DeploymentManager.DoDeployment(TestRun run, FileCopyService fileCopyService) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.SetupTestRun(TestRun run, Boolean isNewTestRun, FileCopyService fileCopyService, DeploymentManager deploymentManager) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.SetupRunAndListener(TestRun run, FileCopyService fileCopyService, DeploymentManager deploymentManager) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.QueueTestRunWorker(Object state)</Exception> Even if I don't link to the DLL (in my VSTS wrapper test, or in the NUnit test), as soon as I add it in my GenericTest file (I'm wrapping NUnit tests), I get that exception. We don't have the source for the problem DLL, and it is also code signed, so I can't solve this by recompiling. Is there a way to skip deploying the dependencies of a DLL DeploymentItem, to fix or disable the culture check, or to work around this by convoluted means (maybe somehow embed the assembly)? Is there a way to override the value for the culture, short of hacking the DLL (and removing code signing so the hack works)? Maybe with an external manifest? Any correct solution must work without weird changes to production code. We can't deploy a hacked DLL, for example. It also must allow the DLL to be instrumented for code coverage. Additional note: I do get a linker warning when compiling the DLL under test that links to the problem DLL, but this hasn't broken anything but VSTS, and multiple versions have shipped.

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• Problems integrating nServiceBus with StructureMap

  - by SimonB

  I'm trying to use StructureMap with nServiceBus. The Project: Uses a GenericHost Endpoint to send command messages Configures nServiceBus using the StructMapBuilder. Uses a simple StructureMap registry config Uses a start up class TestServer supporting IWantToRunAtStartup The TestServer class has ctor dependency on a TestManager class The TestManager class has ctor dependency on IBus ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave() shows StructureMap knows how to construct the classes. When run I get buildup errors. nServiceBus seems to be overwriting the config? Note that when I add a IBus ctor depenendency to my event handlers without any other config all appears fine. Error: Exception when starting endpoint, error has been logged. Reason: Error creating object with name 'nSeviceBusStructureMapTest.TestServer' : Unsatisfied dependency expressed through constructor argument with index 0 of type [nSeviceBusStructureMapTest.ITestManager] : No unique object of type [nSeviceBusStructureMapTest.ITestManager] is defined : Unsatisfied dependency of type [nSeviceBusStructureMapTest.ITestManager]: expected at least 1 matching object to wire the [miningServiceManage] parameter on the constructor of object [nSeviceBusStructureMapTest.TestServer] Source: using System; using System.Diagnostics; using NServiceBus; using StructureMap; using StructureMap.Configuration.DSL; namespace nSeviceBusStructureMapTest { public class TestSmRegistry : Registry { public TestSmRegistry() { For<ITestManager>().Use<TestManager>(); For<TestServer>().Use<TestServer>(); } } public class TestEndPoint : AsA_Server, IConfigureThisEndpoint, IWantCustomLogging { public void Init() { Configure.With().StructureMapBuilder(ObjectFactory.Container); ObjectFactory.Configure(c => c.AddRegistry<TestSmRegistry>()); Debug.WriteLine(ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave()); } } public class TestServer : IWantToRunAtStartup { public TestServer(ITestManager miningServiceManage) { _miningServiceManage = miningServiceManage; } private readonly ITestManager _miningServiceManage; public void Run() { _miningServiceManage.Run(); } public void Stop() { } } public interface ITestManager { void Run(); } public class TestManager : ITestManager { public TestManager(IBus bus) { _bus = bus; } private readonly IBus _bus; public void Run() { if (_bus == null) Debug.WriteLine("Error no bus"); // Send messages on bus; } } } <MsmqTransportConfig InputQueue="test" ErrorQueue="error" NumberOfWorkerThreads="1" MaxRetries="5" /> <UnicastBusConfig> <MessageEndpointMappings> </MessageEndpointMappings> </UnicastBusConfig> Any ideas?

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