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  • How can I inject Javascript (including Prototype.js) in other sites without cluttering the global na

    - by Daniel Magliola
    I'm currently on a project that is a big site that uses the Prototype library, and there is already a humongous amount of Javascript code. We're now working on a piece of code that will get "injected" into other people's sites (picture people adding a <script> tag in their sites) which will then run our code and add a bunch of DOM elements and functionality to their site. This will have new pieces of code, and will also reuse a lot of the code that we use on our main site. The problem I have is that it's of course not cool to just add a <script> that will include Prototype in people's pages. If we do that in a page that's already using ANY framework, we're guaranteed to screw everything up. jQuery gives us the option to "rename" the $ object, so it could handle this situation decently, except obviously for the fact that we're not using jQuery, so we'd have to migrate everything. Right now i'm contemplating a number of ugly choices, and I'm not sure what's best... Rewrite everything to use jQuery, with a renamed $ object everywhere. Creating a "new" Prototype library with only the subset we'd be using in "injected" code, and renaming $ to something else. Then again I'd have to adapt the parts of my code that would be shared somehow. Not using a library at all in injected code, to keep it as clean as possible, and rewriting the shared code to use no library at all. This would obviously degenerate into us creating our own frankenstein of a library, which is probably the worst case scenario ever. I'm wondering what you guys think I could do, and also whether there's some magic option that would solve all my problems... For example, do you think I could use something like Caja / Cajita to sandbox my own code and isolate it from the rest of the site, and have Prototype inside of there? Or am I completely missing the point with that? I also read once about a technique for bookmarklets, were you add your code like this: (function() { /* your code */ })(); And then your code is all inside your anonymous function and you haven't touched the global namespace at all. Do you think I could make one file containing: (function() { /* Full Code of the Prototype file here */ /* All my code that will run in the "other" site */ InitializeStuff_CreateDOMElements_AttachEventHandlers(); })(); Would that work? Would it accomplish the objective of not cluttering the global namespace, and not killing the functionality on a site that uses jQuery, for example? Or is Prototype too complex somehow to isolate it like that? (NOTE: I think I know that that would create closures everywhere and that's slower, but I don't care too much about performance, my code is not doing anything that complex)

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  • Unable to execute stored Procedure using Java and JDBC on SQL server

    - by jwmajors81
    I have been trying to execute a MS SQL Server stored procedure via JDBC today and have been unsuccessful thus far. The stored procedure has 1 input and 1 output parameter. With every combination I use when setting up the stored procedure call in code I get an error stating that the stored procedure couldn't be found. I have provided the stored procedure I'm executing below (NOTE: this is vendor code, so I cannot change it). set ANSI_NULLS ON set QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROC [dbo].[spWCoTaskIdGen] @OutIdentifier int OUTPUT AS BEGIN DECLARE @HoldPolicyId int DECLARE @PolicyId char(14) IF NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM UniqueIdentifierGen (UPDLOCK) ) INSERT INTO UniqueIdentifierGen VALUES (0) UPDATE UniqueIdentifierGen SET CurIdentifier = CurIdentifier + 1 SELECT @OutIdentifier = (SELECT CurIdentifier FROM UniqueIdentifierGen) END The code looks like: CallableStatement statement = connection .prepareCall("{call dbo.spWCoTaskIdGen(?)}"); statement.setInt(1, 0); ResultSet result = statement.executeQuery(); I get the following error: SEVERE: Could not find stored procedure 'dbo.spWCoTaskIdGen'. I have also tried CallableStatement statement = connection .prepareCall("{? = call dbo.spWCoTaskIdGen(?)}"); statement.registerOutParameter(1, java.sql.Types.INTEGER); statement.registerOutParameter(2, java.sql.Types.INTEGER); statement.executeQuery(); The above results in: SEVERE: Could not find stored procedure 'dbo.spWCoTaskIdGen'. I have also tried: CallableStatement statement = connection .prepareCall("{? = call spWCoTaskIdGen(?)}"); statement.registerOutParameter(1, java.sql.Types.INTEGER); statement.registerOutParameter(2, java.sql.Types.INTEGER); statement.executeQuery(); The code above resulted in the following error: Could not find stored procedure 'spWCoTaskIdGen'. Finally, I should also point out the following: I have used the MS SQL Server Management Studio tool and have been able to successfully run the stored procedure. The sql generated to execute the stored procedure is provided below: GO DECLARE @return_value int, @OutIdentifier int EXEC @return_value = [dbo].[spWCoTaskIdGen] @OutIdentifier = @OutIdentifier OUTPUT SELECT @OutIdentifier as N'@OutIdentifier ' SELECT 'Return Value' = @return_value GO The code being executed runs with the same user id that was used in point #1 above. In the code that creates the Connection object I log which database I'm connecting to and the code is connecting to the correct database. Any ideas? Thank you very much in advance.

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  • .NET Impersonate not working!

    - by Jagd
    I have a webpage that allows a user to upload a file to a network share. When I run the webpage locally (within VS 2008) and try to upload the file, it works! However, when I deploy the website to the webserver and try to upload the file through the webpage, it doesn't work! The error being returned to me on the webserver says "Access to the path '\05prd1\emp\test.txt' is denied. So, obviously, this is a permissions issue. The network share is configured to allow full access both to me (NT authentication) and to the NETWORK SERVICE (which is .NET's default account and what we have set in our IIS application pool as the default user for this website). I have tried this with and without authentication, and neither one works on the webserver, yet both ways works on my local machine. The code that does the file upload is below. Please note that the code below includes impersonation, but like I said above, I've tried it with and without impersonation and it's made no difference. if (fuCourses.PostedFile != null && fuCourses.PostedFile.ContentLength > 0) { System.Security.Principal.WindowsImpersonationContext impCtx; impCtx = ((System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity)User.Identity).Impersonate(); try { lblMsg.Visible = true; // The courses file to be uploaded HttpPostedFile file = fuCourses.PostedFile; string fName = file.FileName; string uploadPath = "\\\\05prd1\\emp\\"; // Get the file name if (fName.Contains("\\")) { fName = fName.Substring( fName.LastIndexOf("\\") + 1); } // Delete the courses file if it is already on \\05prd1\emp FileInfo fi = new FileInfo(uploadPath + fName); if (fi != null && fi.Exists) { fi.Delete(); } // Open new file stream on \\05prd1\emp and read bytes into it from file upload FileStream fs = File.Create(uploadPath + fName, file.ContentLength); using (Stream stream = file.InputStream) { byte[] b = new byte[4096]; int read; while ((read = stream.Read(b, 0, b.Length)) > 0) { fs.Write(b, 0, read); } } fs.Close(); lblMsg.Text = "File Successfully Uploaded"; lblMsg.ForeColor = System.Drawing.Color.Green; } catch (Exception ex) { lblMsg.Text = ex.Message; lblMsg.ForeColor = System.Drawing.Color.Red; } finally { impCtx.Undo(); } } Any help on this would be very appreciated!

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  • Core-Data + AFNetworking + UI Updating (Responsiveness)

    - by Mustafa
    Here's the scenario: I'm writing a DownloadManager, that allows the user to download, pause, cancel, download all, and pause all. The DownloadManager is a singleton, and uses AFNetworking to download files. It has it's own private managed object context, so that user can freely use other parts of the application (by adding, editing, deleting) core-data objects. I have a core-data entity DownloadInfo that stores the download information i.e. fileURL, fileSize, bytesRead, etc. The DownloadManager updates the download progress in DownloadInfo (one for each file). I have a DownloadManagerViewController which uses NSFetchedResultsController to show the download status to the user. This download view controller is using the main managed object context. Now let's say that I have 20 files in the download queue. And let's say that only 3 concurrent downloads are allowed. The download manager should download the file, and show the download progress. Problem: The DownloadInfo objects are being updated by the DownloadManager at a very high rate. The DownloadManagerViewController (responsible for showing the download progress) is updating the list using NSFetchedResultsControllerDelegate methods. The result is that a lot is happening in the main queue and application has very poor responsiveness. How can I fix this? How can I make the application responsive, while showing the download progress? I don't know how else to communicate that the download status between DownloadManager and DownloadManagerViewController. Is there another/ a better way to do this? I don't want to use main managed object context in my DownloadManager, for reasons mentioned above. Note, that the DownloadManager is using AFNetworking which is handling the requests asynchronously, but eventually the DownloadInfo objects are updated in the main thread (as a result of the callback methods). Maybe there's a way to handle the downloads and status update operations in a background thread? but how? How will I communicate between the main thread and the background thread i.e. how will I tell the background thread to queue another file for download? Thanks.

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  • XML Return from an Oracle Stored Procedure

    - by Tequila Jinx
    Unfortunately most of my DB experience has been with MSSQL which tends to hold your hand a lot more than Oracle. What I'm trying to do is fairly trivial in tSQL, however, pl/sql is giving me a headache. I have the following procedure: CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE USPX_GetUserbyID (USERID USERS.USERID%TYPE, USERRECORD OUT XMLTYPE) AS BEGIN SELECT XMLELEMENT("user" , XMLATTRIBUTES(u.USERID AS "userid", u.companyid as "companyid", u.usertype as "usertype", u.status as "status", u.personid as "personid") , XMLFOREST( p.FIRSTNAME AS "firstname" , p.LASTNAME AS "lastname" , p.EMAIL AS "email" , p.PHONE AS "phone" , p.PHONEEXTENSION AS "extension") , XMLELEMENT("roles", (SELECT XMLAGG(XMLELEMENT("role", r.ROLETYPE)) FROM USER_ROLES r WHERE r.USERID = USERID AND r.ISACTIVE = 1 ) ) , XMLELEMENT("watches", (SELECT XMLAGG( XMLELEMENT("watch", XMLATTRIBUTES(w.WATCHID AS "id", w.TICKETID AS "ticket") ) ) FROM USER_WATCHES w WHERE w.USERID = USERID AND w.ISACTIVE = 1 ) ) ) AS "RESULT" INTO USERRECORD FROM USERS u LEFT JOIN PEOPLE p ON p.PERSONID = u.PERSONID WHERE u.USERID = USERID; END USPX_GetUserbyID; When executed, it should return an XML document with the following structure: <user userid="" companyid="" usertype="" status="" personid=""> <firstname /> <lastname /> <email /> <phone /> <extension /> <roles> <role /> </roles> <watches> <watch id="" ticket="" /> </watches> </user> When I execute the query itself, replacing the USERID parameter with a string and removing the "into" clause, the query runs fine and returns the expected structure. However, when the procedure attempts to execute the query, passing the results of the XMLELEMENT function into the USERRECORD output parameter, I get the following exception: Error report: ORA-01422: exact fetch returns more than requested number of rows ORA-06512: at "USPX_GETUSERBYID", line 4 ORA-06512: at line 3 01422. 00000 - "exact fetch returns more than requested number of rows" *Cause: The number specified in exact fetch is less than the rows returned. *Action: Rewrite the query or change number of rows requested I'm baffled trying to nail this down, and unfortunately my google-fu hasn't helped. I've found plenty of Oracle SQL|XML examples, but none that deal with XML returns from a procedure. Note: I know that an alternate method of retrieving XML using DBMS methods exists, however, it's my understanding that that functionality is deprecated in favor of SQL|XML.

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  • file.createNewFile() creates files with last-modified time before actual creation time

    - by Kaleb Pederson
    I'm using JPoller to detect changes to files in a specific directory, but it's missing files because they end up with a timestamp earlier than their actual creation time. Here's how I test: public static void main(String [] files) { for (String file : files) { File f = new File(file); if (f.exists()) { System.err.println(file + " exists"); continue; } try { // find out the current time, I would hope to assume that the last-modified // time on the file will definitely be later than this System.out.println("-----------------------------------------"); long time = System.currentTimeMillis(); // create the file System.out.println("Creating " + file + " at " + time); f.createNewFile(); // let's see what the timestamp actually is (I've only seen it <time) System.out.println(file + " was last modified at: " + f.lastModified()); // well, ok, what if I explicitly set it to time? f.setLastModified(time); System.out.println("Updated modified time on " + file + " to " + time + " with actual " + f.lastModified()); } catch (IOException e) { System.err.println("Unable to create file"); } } } And here's what I get for output: ----------------------------------------- Creating test.7 at 1272324597956 test.7 was last modified at: 1272324597000 Updated modified time on test.7 to 1272324597956 with actual 1272324597000 ----------------------------------------- Creating test.8 at 1272324597957 test.8 was last modified at: 1272324597000 Updated modified time on test.8 to 1272324597957 with actual 1272324597000 ----------------------------------------- Creating test.9 at 1272324597957 test.9 was last modified at: 1272324597000 Updated modified time on test.9 to 1272324597957 with actual 1272324597000 The result is a race condition: JPoller records time of last check as xyz...123 File created at xyz...456 File last-modified timestamp actually reads xyz...000 JPoller looks for new/updated files with timestamp greater than xyz...123 JPoller ignores newly added file because xyz...000 is less than xyz...123 I pull my hair out for a while I tried digging into the code but both lastModified() and createNewFile() eventually resolve to native calls so I'm left with little information. For test.9, I lose 957 milliseconds. What kind of accuracy can I expect? Are my results going to vary by operating system or file system? Suggested workarounds? NOTE: I'm currently running Linux with an XFS filesystem. I wrote a quick program in C and the stat system call shows st_mtime as truncate(xyz...000/1000).

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  • One entityManger finds entity , the other does not.

    - by Pitelk
    Hi all, I have a very strange behavior in my program. I have 2 classes (class LogIn and CreateGame) where i have injected an EntityManager in each using the annotation @PersistenceContext(unitName="myUnitPU") EntityManager entitymanger; In some point i remove an object called "user" from the database using entitymanger.remove(user) from a method in LogIn class. The business logic is that a user can host and join games ( in the same time) so removing the user all the entries in database about the games the user has created are removed and all the entries showing in which games the user has joined are removed also. After that, i call another function which checks if the user exists using a method in the LogIn class entitymanager.find(user) which surprisingly enough, finds the user. After that I call a method in CreateGame class which tries to find the user by using again entitymanger.find(user) the entitymanger in that class fails to find the user (which is the expected result as the user is removed and it's not in the database) So the question is : Why the entitymanager in one class finds the user (which is wrong) where the other doesn't find it? Does anyone has ever the same problem? PS : This "bug" occurs when the user has hosted a game which is joined by another user (lets call him Buser) and the Buser has made a game which is joined by the current user. GAME | HOST | CLIENTS game1 | user | userB game2 | userB | user where in this case by removing the user, the game1 is deleted and the user is removed from game2 so the result is GAME | HOST | CLIENTS game2 | userB | PS2 : The Beans are EJB3.0. The methods are called from a delegate class. The beans in the delegate class are instantiated using the InitialContext.lookup() method. Note that for logging in ,creating , joining games the appropriate delegate class calls the correspondent EJB which does the transactions. In the case of logOut, the delegate calls an EJB to logout the user but becuase other stuff must be done (as said above) this EJB calls other EJB (again using lookup() ) which has methods like removegame(), removeUserFromGame() etc. After those methods are executed the user is then logged out. Maybe it has something to do with the fact the the first entity manager is called by a delegate but the second from inside an EJb and thats why the one entitymanger can see the non-existent user while the other cannot? Also all the methods have TRANSACTIONTYPE.REQUIRED Thank you in advance

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  • All embedded databases fail to open connections

    - by rsteckly
    Hi, I'm working on a winforms desktop application that needs to store data. I made the really bad decision to try and embed a database. I've tried: SQLite VistaDB SQL Server Compact In each case, I was able to generate a Entity Framework Model over the basic schema I've created. I have an event that adds data that I've been using to test these databases. Well, I kept adding a new record using EF and finding it didn't actually insert a record. In debugging, I checked the context object to see what was happening. It turns out that it is saying "the underlying provider failed to open," or something to that effect. It was not throwing an exception, just not inserting a record. The same thing has happened for all 3 embedded databases--prompting me to get it through my dense head that there has to be something wrong with my configuration. Well, I tried to write some basic sql using a sqlconnection and sqlcommand. This time it throws an exception. In the SQL Server Compact case, it now says: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) I thought perhaps a problem was the path in app.Config. So I changed the connection string to: Note that I simplified the path away from anything that might have spaces and avoided using the Data Directory nonsense that causes problem when the debugging directory does not match the preconfigured value for the data directory. I'm running Windows 7; I thought perhaps it might be an access issue--so I tried running VS 2010 in Administrator mode. No luck. I also installed Sql Server Compact SP2, thinking this might be a bug. No luck. Anyway, I'm ready to pull my hair out. I'm on a tight deadline for this thing and didn't expect to spend the day trying to figure out what is going on.

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  • UINavigationBar unresponsive after canceling a UITableView search in nav controller in tab bar in a popover

    - by Mark
    Ok, this is an odd one and I can reproduce it with a new project easily. Here is the setup: I have a UISplitViewController. In the left side I have a UITabBarController. In this tab bar controller I have two UINavigationControllers. In the navigation controllers I have UITableViewControllers. These table views have search bars on them. Ok, what happens with this setup is that if I'm in portrait mode and bring up this view in the popover and I start a search in one of the table views and cancel it, the navigation bar becomes unresponsive. That is, the "back" button as well as the right side button cannot be clicked. If I do the exact same thing in landscape mode so we are not in a popover, this doesn't happen. The navigation bar stays responsive. So, the problem only seems to happen inside a popover. I've also noticed that if I do the search but click on an item in the search results which ends up loading something into the "detail view" of the split view and dismissing the popover, and then come back to the popover and then click the Cancel button for the search, the navigation bar is responsive. My application is a universal app and uses the same tab bar controller in the iPhone interface and it works there without this issue. As I mentioned above, I can easily reproduce this with a new project. Here are the steps if you want to try it out yourself: start new project - split view create new UITableViewController class (i named TableViewController) uncomment out the viewDidLoad method as well as the rightBarButtonItem line in viewDidLoad (so we will have an Edit button in the navigation bar) enter any values you want to return from numberOfSectioinsInTableView and numberOfRowsInSection methods open MainWindow.xib and do the following: please note that you will need to be viewing the xib in the middle "view mode" so you can expand the contents of the items drag a Tab Bar Controller into the xib to replace the Navigation Controller item drag a Navigation Controller into the xib as another item under the Tab Bar Controller delete the other two view controllers that are under the Tab Bar Controller (so, now our tab bar has just the one navigation controller on it) inside the navigation controller, drag in a Table View Controller and use it to replace the View Controller (Root View Controller) change the class of the new Table View Controller to the class created above (TableViewController for me) double-click on the Table View under the new Table View Controller to open it up (will be displayed in the tab bar inside the split view controller) drag a "Search Bar and Search Display" onto the table view save the xib run the project in simulator while in portrait mode, click on the Root List button to bring up popover notice the Edit button is clickable click in the Search box - we go into search mode click the Cancel button to exit search mode notice the Edit button no longer works So, can anyone help me figure out why this is happening? Thanks, Mark

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  • showing errors from actions in table-based views

    - by enashnash
    I have a view where I want to perform different actions on the items in each row in a table, similar to this (in, say, ~/Views/Thing/Manage.aspx): <table> <% foreach (thing in Model) { %> <tr> <td><%: thing.x %></td> <td> <% using (Html.BeginForm("SetEnabled", "Thing")) { %> <%: Html.Hidden("x", thing.x) %> <%: Html.Hidden("enable", !thing.Enabled) %> <input type="submit" value="<%: thing.Enabled ? "Disable" : "Enable" %>" /> <% } %> </td> <!-- more tds with similar action forms here, a few per table row --> </tr> <% } %> In my ThingController, I have functions similar to the following: public ActionResult Manage() { return View(ThingService.GetThings()); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult SetEnabled(string x, bool enable) { try { ThingService.SetEnabled(x, enable); } catch (Exception ex) { ModelState.AddModelError("", ex.Message); // I know this is wrong... } return RedirectToAction("Manage"); } In the most part, this is working fine. The problem is that if ThingService.SetEnabled throws an error, I want to be able to display the error at the top of the table. I've tried a few things with Html.ValidationSummary() in the page but I can't get it to work. Note that I don't want to send the user to a separate page to do this, and I'm trying to do it without using any javascript. Am I going about displaying my table in the best way? How do I get the errors displayed in the way I want them to? I will end up with perhaps 40 small forms on the page. This approach comes largely from this article, but it doesn't handle the errors in the way I need to. Any takers?

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  • Routed Command Question

    - by Andrew
    I'd like to implement a custom command to capture a Backspace key gesture inside of a textbox, but I don't know how. I wrote a test program in order to understand what's going on, but the behaviour of the program is rather confusing. Basically, I just need to be able to handle the Backspace key gesture via wpf commands while keyboard focus is in the textbox, and without disrupting the normal behaviour of the Backspace key within the textbox. Here's the xaml for the main window and the corresponding code-behind, too (note that I created a second command for the Enter key, just to compare its behaviour to that of the Backspace key): <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Grid> <TextBox Margin="44,54,44,128" Name="textBox1" /> </Grid> </Window> And here's the corresponding code-behind: using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Input; namespace WpfApplication1 { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for EntryListView.xaml /// </summary> public partial class Window1 : Window { public static RoutedCommand EnterCommand = new RoutedCommand(); public static RoutedCommand BackspaceCommand = new RoutedCommand(); public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); CommandBinding cb1 = new CommandBinding(EnterCommand, EnterExecuted, EnterCanExecute); CommandBinding cb2 = new CommandBinding(BackspaceCommand, BackspaceExecuted, BackspaceCanExecute); this.CommandBindings.Add(cb1); this.CommandBindings.Add(cb2); KeyGesture kg1 = new KeyGesture(Key.Enter); KeyGesture kg2 = new KeyGesture(Key.Back); InputBinding ib1 = new InputBinding(EnterCommand, kg1); InputBinding ib2 = new InputBinding(BackspaceCommand, kg2); this.InputBindings.Add(ib1); this.InputBindings.Add(ib2); } #region Command Handlers private void EnterCanExecute(object sender, CanExecuteRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside EnterCanExecute Method."); e.CanExecute = true; } private void EnterExecuted(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside EnterExecuted Method."); e.Handled = true; } private void BackspaceCanExecute(object sender, CanExecuteRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside BackspaceCanExecute Method."); e.Handled = true; } private void BackspaceExecuted(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside BackspaceExecuted Method."); e.Handled = true; } #endregion Command Handlers } } Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks! Andrew

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  • Problem with std::map and std::pair

    - by Tom
    Hi everyone. I have a small program I want to execute to test something #include <map> #include <iostream> using namespace std; struct _pos{ float xi; float xf; bool operator<(_pos& other){ return this->xi < other.xi; } }; struct _val{ float f; }; int main() { map<_pos,_val> m; struct _pos k1 = {0,10}; struct _pos k2 = {10,15}; struct _val v1 = {5.5}; struct _val v2 = {12.3}; m.insert(std::pair<_pos,_val>(k1,v1)); m.insert(std::pair<_pos,_val>(k2,v2)); return 0; } The problem is that when I try to compile it, I get the following error $ g++ m2.cpp -o mtest In file included from /usr/include/c++/4.4/bits/stl_tree.h:64, from /usr/include/c++/4.4/map:60, from m2.cpp:1: /usr/include/c++/4.4/bits/stl_function.h: In member function ‘bool std::less<_Tp>::operator()(const _Tp&, const _Tp&) const [with _Tp = _pos]’: /usr/include/c++/4.4/bits/stl_tree.h:1170: instantiated from ‘std::pair<typename std::_Rb_tree<_Key, _Val, _KeyOfValue, _Compare, _Alloc>::iterator, bool> std::_Rb_tree<_Key, _Val, _KeyOfValue, _Compare, _Alloc>::_M_insert_unique(const _Val&) [with _Key = _pos, _Val = std::pair<const _pos, _val>, _KeyOfValue = std::_Select1st<std::pair<const _pos, _val> >, _Compare = std::less<_pos>, _Alloc = std::allocator<std::pair<const _pos, _val> >]’ /usr/include/c++/4.4/bits/stl_map.h:500: instantiated from ‘std::pair<typename std::_Rb_tree<_Key, std::pair<const _Key, _Tp>, std::_Select1st<std::pair<const _Key, _Tp> >, _Compare, typename _Alloc::rebind<std::pair<const _Key, _Tp> >::other>::iterator, bool> std::map<_Key, _Tp, _Compare, _Alloc>::insert(const std::pair<const _Key, _Tp>&) [with _Key = _pos, _Tp = _val, _Compare = std::less<_pos>, _Alloc = std::allocator<std::pair<const _pos, _val> >]’ m2.cpp:30: instantiated from here /usr/include/c++/4.4/bits/stl_function.h:230: error: no match for ‘operator<’ in ‘__x < __y’ m2.cpp:9: note: candidates are: bool _pos::operator<(_pos&) $ I thought that declaring the operator< on the key would solve the problem, but its still there. What could be wrong? Thanks in advance.

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  • How do you 'clone' WebControls in C# .NET ?

    - by Adz
    My basic question is, in .NET, how do I clone WebControls? I would like to build a custom tag, which can produce multiple copies of its children. Ultimately I intend to build a tag similar to in JSP/Struts. But the first hurdle I have is the ability to duplicate/clone the contents of a control. Consider this rather contrived example; <custom:duplicate count="2"> <div> <p>Some html</p> <asp:TextBox id="tb1" runat="server" /> </div> </custom:duplicate> The HTML markup which is output would be something like, <div> <p>Some html</p> <input type="text" id="tb1" /> </div> <div> <p>Some html</p> <input type="text" id="tb1" /> </div> Note: I know i have the id duplicated, I can come up with a solution to that later! So what we would have is my custom control with 3 children (I think) - a literal control, a TextBox control, and another literal control. In this example I have said 'count=2' so what the control should do is output/render its children twice. What I would hope to do is write some "OnInit" code which does something like: List<WebControl> clones; for(int i=1; i<count; i++) { foreach(WebControl c in Controls) { WebControl clone = c.Clone(); clones.Add(clone); } } Controls.AddRange(clones); However, as far as I can tell, WebControls do not implement ICloneable, so its not possible to clone them in this way. Any ideas how I can clone WebControls?

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  • How can I position some divs inside an unordered list so they line up with the root element of the l

    - by Ronedog
    I want to position all the divs to line up to the left on the same x coordinate so it looks nice. Notice the picture below, how based on the number of nested categories the div (and its contents) show up at slightly different x coordinates. I need to have the div's line up at exactly the same x coordinate no matter how deeply nested. Note, the bottom most category always has a div for the content, but that div has to be situated inside the last < li . I am using an unordered list to display the menu and thought the best solution would be to grab the root category (Cat 2, and mCat1) and obtain their left offset using jquery, then simply use that value to update the positioning of the div...but I couldn't seem to get it to work just right. I would appreciate any advice or help that you are willing to give. Heres the HTML <ul id="nav> <li>Cat 2 <ul> <li>sub cat2</li> </ul> </li> <li>mCat1 <ul> <li>Subcat A <ul> <li>Subcat A.1 <ul> <li>Annie</li> </ul> </li> </ul> </li> </ul> </li> </ul> Heres some jquery I tried (I have do insert the div inside this .each() loop in order to retrieve some values, but basically, this selector is grabbing the last < li in the menu tree and placing a div after it and that is the div that I want to position. the 245 value was something I was playing around with to see how I could get things to line up, and I know its out of wack, but the problem is still the same no matter what I do: $("#nav li:not(:has(li))").each(function () { var self = $(this); var position = self.offset(); var xLeft = Math.round(position.left)- 245; console.log("xLeft:", xLeft ); self.after( '<div id="' + self.attr('p_node') + '_p_cont_div" class="property_position" style="display:none; left:' + xLeft + 'px;" /> ' ); }); Heres the css: .property_position{ float:left; position: relative; top: 0px; padding-top:5px; padding-bottom:10px; }

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  • extra vertical space within <li> in IE7

    - by powerboy
    The test case is in below. Or you can view it in jsbin: http://jsbin.com/uxagi. <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <style type="text/css"> body {margin: 20px; } #main {border: 1px solid red;} img {float: left; height: 100px; padding: 0 10px 10px 0;} ul {margin: 0; padding: 0; list-style-type: none;} </style> </head> <body> <div id="main"> <ul> <li> <img src="http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/en/thumb/0/07/CranebyLinson1894.jpg/100px-CranebyLinson1894.jpg" /> <div class="content">"The Open Boat" is a short story by American author Stephen Crane. First published in 1897, it was based on Crane's experience of having survived a shipwreck off the coast of Florida earlier that year while traveling to Cuba to work as a newspaper correspondent. Crane was stranded at sea for thirty hours when his ship, the SS Commodore, sank after hitting a sandbar. He and three other men were forced to navigate their way to shore in a small boat; one of the men, an oiler named Billie Higgins, drowned. Crane subsequently adapted his report into narrative form, and the short story "The Open Boat" was published in Scribner's Magazine. The story is told from the point of view of an anonymous correspondent, Crane's fictional doppelgänger, and the action closely resembles the author's experiences after the shipwreck. A volume titled The Open Boat and Other Tales of Adventure was published in the United States in 1898. Praised for its innovation by contemporary critics, the story is considered an exemplary work of literary Naturalism. One of the most frequently discussed works in Crane's canon, it is notable for its use of imagery, irony, symbolism, and exploration of themes including survival, solidarity, and the conflict between man and nature. H. G. Wells considered "The Open Boat" to be "beyond all question, the crown of all [Crane's] work".</div> </li> </ul> </div> </body> </html> Note that in standards-compliant browsers and IE8, there is no vertical space between the red border and the text. But there is vertical space in IE7 (haven't tested in IE6).

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  • Any tool(s) for knowing the layout (segments) of running process in Windows?

    - by claws
    I've always been curious about How exactly the process looks in memory? What are the different segments(parts) in it? How exactly will be the program (on the disk) & process (in the memory) are related? My previous question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1966920/more-info-on-memory-layout-of-an-executable-program-process In my quest, I finally found a answer. I found this excellent article that cleared most of my queries: http://www.linuxforums.org/articles/understanding-elf-using-readelf-and-objdump_125.html In the above article, author shows how to get different segments of the process (LINUX) & he compares it with its corresponding ELF file. I'm quoting this section here: Courious to see the real layout of process segment? We can use /proc//maps file to reveal it. is the PID of the process we want to observe. Before we move on, we have a small problem here. Our test program runs so fast that it ends before we can even dump the related /proc entry. I use gdb to solve this. You can use another trick such as inserting sleep() before it calls return(). In a console (or a terminal emulator such as xterm) do: $ gdb test (gdb) b main Breakpoint 1 at 0x8048376 (gdb) r Breakpoint 1, 0x08048376 in main () Hold right here, open another console and find out the PID of program "test". If you want the quick way, type: $ cat /proc/`pgrep test`/maps You will see an output like below (you might get different output): [1] 0039d000-003b2000 r-xp 00000000 16:41 1080084 /lib/ld-2.3.3.so [2] 003b2000-003b3000 r--p 00014000 16:41 1080084 /lib/ld-2.3.3.so [3] 003b3000-003b4000 rw-p 00015000 16:41 1080084 /lib/ld-2.3.3.so [4] 003b6000-004cb000 r-xp 00000000 16:41 1080085 /lib/tls/libc-2.3.3.so [5] 004cb000-004cd000 r--p 00115000 16:41 1080085 /lib/tls/libc-2.3.3.so [6] 004cd000-004cf000 rw-p 00117000 16:41 1080085 /lib/tls/libc-2.3.3.so [7] 004cf000-004d1000 rw-p 004cf000 00:00 0 [8] 08048000-08049000 r-xp 00000000 16:06 66970 /tmp/test [9] 08049000-0804a000 rw-p 00000000 16:06 66970 /tmp/test [10] b7fec000-b7fed000 rw-p b7fec000 00:00 0 [11] bffeb000-c0000000 rw-p bffeb000 00:00 0 [12] ffffe000-fffff000 ---p 00000000 00:00 0 Note: I add number on each line as reference. Back to gdb, type: (gdb) q So, in total, we see 12 segment (also known as Virtual Memory Area--VMA). But I want to know about Windows Process & PE file format. Any tool(s) for getting the layout (segments) of running process in Windows? Any other good resources for learning more on this subject? EDIT: Are there any good articles which shows the mapping between PE file sections & VA segments?

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  • Find location using only distance and range?

    - by pinnacler
    Triangulation works by checking your angle to three KNOWN targets. "I know the that's the Lighthouse of Alexandria, it's located here (X,Y) on a map, and it's to my right at 90 degrees." Repeat 2 more times for different targets and angles. Trilateration works by checking your distance from three KNOWN targets. "I know the that's the Lighthouse of Alexandria, it's located here (X,Y) on a map, and I'm 100 meters away from that." Repeat 2 more times for different targets and ranges. But both of those methods rely on knowing WHAT you're looking at. Say you're in a forest and you can't differentiate between trees, but you know where key trees are. These trees have been hand picked as "landmarks." You have a robot moving through that forest slowly. Do you know of any ways to determine location based solely off of angle and range, exploiting geometry between landmarks? Note, you will see other trees as well, so you won't know which trees are key trees. Ignore the fact that a target may be occluded. Our pre-algorithm takes care of that. 1) If this exists, what's it called? I can't find anything. 2) What do you think the odds are of having two identical location 'hits?' I imagine it's fairly rare. 3) If there are two identical location 'hits,' how can I determine my exact location after I move the robot next. (I assume the chances of having 2 occurrences of EXACT angles in a row, after I reposition the robot, would be statistically impossible, barring a forest growing in rows like corn). Would I just calculate the position again and hope for the best? Or would I somehow incorporate my previous position estimate into my next guess? If this exists, I'd like to read about it, and if not, develop it as a side project. I just don't have time to reinvent the wheel right now, nor have the time to implement this from scratch. So if it doesn't exist, I'll have to figure out another way to localize the robot since that's not the aim of this research, if it does, lets hope it's semi-easy.

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  • Wordpress: how to call a plugin function with an ajax call?

    - by Bee
    I'm writing a Wordpress MU plugin, it includes a link with each post and I want to use ajax to call one of the plugin functions when the user clicks on this link, and then dynamically update the link-text with output from that function. I'm stuck with the ajax query. I've got this complicated, clearly hack-ish, way to do it, but it is not quite working. What is the 'correct' or 'wordpress' way to include ajax functionality in a plugin? (My current hack code is below. When I click the generate link I don't get the same output I get in the wp page as when I go directly to sample-ajax.php in my browser.) I've got my code[1] set up as follows: mu-plugins/sample.php: <?php /* Plugin Name: Sample Plugin */ if (!class_exists("SamplePlugin")) { class SamplePlugin { function SamplePlugin() {} function addHeaderCode() { echo '<link type="text/css" rel="stylesheet" href="'.get_bloginfo('wpurl'). '/wp-content/mu-plugins/sample/sample.css" />\n'; wp_enqueue_script('sample-ajax', get_bloginfo('wpurl') . '/wp-content/mu-plugins/sample/sample-ajax.js.php', array('jquery'), '1.0'); } // adds the link to post content. function addLink($content = '') { $content .= "<span class='foobar clicked'><a href='#'>click</a></span>"; return $content; } function doAjax() { // echo "<a href='#'>AJAX!</a>"; } } } if (class_exists("SamplePlugin")) { $sample_plugin = new SamplePlugin(); } if (isset($sample_plugin)) { add_action('wp_head',array(&$sample_plugin,'addHeaderCode'),1); add_filter('the_content', array(&$sample_plugin, 'addLink')); } mu-plugins/sample/sample-ajax.js.php: <?php if (!function_exists('add_action')) { require_once("../../../wp-config.php"); } ?> jQuery(document).ready(function(){ jQuery(".foobar").bind("click", function() { var aref = this; jQuery(this).toggleClass('clicked'); jQuery.ajax({ url: "http://mysite/wp-content/mu-plugins/sample/sample-ajax.php", success: function(value) { jQuery(aref).html(value); } }); }); }); mu-plugins/sample/sample-ajax.php: <?php if (!function_exists('add_action')) { require_once("../../../wp-config.php"); } if (isset($sample_plugin)) { $sample_plugin->doAjax(); } else { echo "unset"; } ?> [1] Note: The following tutorial got me this far, but I'm stumped at this point. http://www.devlounge.net/articles/using-ajax-with-your-wordpress-plugin

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  • Unit finalization order for application, compiled with run-time packages?

    - by Alexander
    I need to execute my code after finalization of SysUtils unit. I've placed my code in separate unit and included it first in uses clause of dpr-file, like this: project Project1; uses MyUnit, // <- my separate unit SysUtils, Classes, SomeOtherUnits; procedure Test; begin // end; begin SetProc(Test); end. MyUnit looks like this: unit MyUnit; interface procedure SetProc(AProc: TProcedure); implementation var Test: TProcedure; procedure SetProc(AProc: TProcedure); begin Test := AProc; end; initialization finalization Test; end. Note that MyUnit doesn't have any uses. This is usual Windows exe, no console, without forms and compiled with default run-time packages. MyUnit is not part of any package (but I've tried to use it from package too). I expect that finalization section of MyUnit will be executed after finalization section of SysUtils. This is what Delphi's help tells me. However, this is not always the case. I have 2 test apps, which differs a bit by code in Test routine/dpr-file and units, listed in uses. MyUnit, however, is listed first in all cases. One application is run as expected: Halt0 - FinalizeUnits - ...other units... - SysUtils's finalization - MyUnit's finalization - ...other units... But the second is not. MyUnit's finalization is invoked before SysUtils's finalization. The actual call chain looks like this: Halt0 - FinalizeUnits - ...other units... - SysUtils's finalization (skipped) - MyUnit's finalization - ...other units... - SysUtils's finalization (executed) Both projects have very similar settings. I tried a lot to remove/minimize their differences, but I still do not see a reason for this behaviour. I've tried to debug this and found out that: it seems that every unit have some kind of reference counting. And it seems that InitTable contains multiply references to the same unit. When SysUtils's finalization section is called first time - it change reference counter and do nothing. Then MyUnit's finalization is executed. And then SysUtils is called again, but this time ref-count reaches zero and finalization section is executed: Finalization: // SysUtils' finalization 5003B3F0 55 push ebp // here and below is some form of stub 5003B3F1 8BEC mov ebp,esp 5003B3F3 33C0 xor eax,eax 5003B3F5 55 push ebp 5003B3F6 688EB50350 push $5003b58e 5003B3FB 64FF30 push dword ptr fs:[eax] 5003B3FE 648920 mov fs:[eax],esp 5003B401 FF05DCAD1150 inc dword ptr [$5011addc] // here: some sort of reference counter 5003B407 0F8573010000 jnz $5003b580 // <- this jump skips execution of finalization for first call 5003B40D B8CC4D0350 mov eax,$50034dcc // here and below is actual SysUtils' finalization section ... Can anyone can shred light on this issue? Am I missing something?

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  • iPhone dev: load a file from resource folder

    - by thomax
    I'm writing an iPhone app with a UIWebView which should display various html files I have in the app resource folder. In xcode my project overview, these html files are displayed like this: dirA |---> index.html |---> a1.html |---> a2.html |---> my.css |---> dirB |---> b1.html |---> b2.html |---> dirC |---> c1.html |---> c2.html These resources where added to the project as such: - Checked "Copy items into destination groups folder (if needed)". - Reference type: Default. - Text encoding: Unicode (utf-8). - Recursively create groups for any added folders. The links in my html are relative, meaning they look like this: <a href="a1.html">a2</a> <a href="a2.html">a2</a> <a href="dirB/b2.html">b2</a> <a href="dirC/c1.html">b2</a> In order to display the index.html when the app starts up, I use the following code: NSString *path = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"index" ofType:@"html"]; NSURL *url = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:path]; NSURLRequest *request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [webView loadRequest:request]; This works fine. Following links from the index file also works fine, as long as the html files requested are directly under dirA. If the link followed points to a file in a sub-directory, then didFailLoadWithError will catch the situation and report that the requested file does not exist. Note that [webView loadHtmlString:myHtml]; cannot be part of the solution, as I need back and forward buttons to work in my web view. So the question is: How can I follow a relative link to an html file in a sub directory within my resources? I've been all over stackoverflow and the rest of the tubes for the past few days trying to figure this one out, but nowhere have I come across the solution to this exact problem. Any insight at all would be very, very much appreciated!

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  • Calling an Excel Add-In method from C# application or vice versa

    - by Jude
    I have an Excel VBA add-in with a public method in a bas file. This method currently creates a VB6 COM object, which exists in a running VB6 exe/vbp. The VB6 app loads in data and then the Excel add-in method can call methods on the VB6 COM object to load the data into an existing Excel xls. This is all currently working. We have since converted our VB6 app to C#. My question is: What is the best/easiest way to mimic this behavior with the C#/.NET app? I'm thinking I may not be able to pull the data from the .NET app into Excel from the add-in method since the .Net app needs to be running with data loaded (so no using a stand-alone C# class library). Maybe we can, instead, push the data from .NET to Excel by accessing the VBA add-in method from the C# code? The following is the existing VBA method accessing the VB6 app: Public Sub UpdateInDataFromApp() Dim wkbInData As Workbook Dim oFPW As Object Dim nMaxCols As Integer Dim nMaxRows As Integer Dim j As Integer Dim sName As String Dim nCol As Integer Dim nRow As Integer Dim sheetCnt As Integer Dim nDepth As Integer Dim sPath As String Dim vData As Variant Dim SheetRange As Range Set wkbInData = wkbOpen("InData.xls") sPath = g_sPathXLSfiles & "\" 'Note: the following will bring up fpw app if not already running Set oFPW = CreateObject("FPW.CProfilesData") If oFPW Is Nothing Then MsgBox "Unable to reference " & sApp Else . . . sheetCnt = wkbInData.Sheets.Count 'get number of sheets in indata workbook For j = 2 To sheetCnt 'set counter to loop over all sheets except the first one which is not input data fields With wkbInData.Worksheets(j) Set SheetRange = .UsedRange End With With SheetRange nMaxRows = .Rows.Count 'get range of sheet(j) nMaxCols = .Columns.Count 'get range of sheet(j) Range(.Cells(2, 2), .Cells(nMaxRows, nMaxCols)).ClearContents 'Clears data from data range (51 Columns) Range(.Cells(2, 2), .Cells(nMaxRows, nMaxCols)).ClearComments End With With oFPW 'vb6 object For nRow = 2 To nMaxRows ' loop through rows sName = SheetRange.Cells(nRow, 1) 'Field name vData = .vntGetSymbol(sName, 0) 'Check if vb6 app identifies the name nDepth = .GetInputTableDepth(sName) 'Get number of data items for this field name from vb6 app nMaxCols = nDepth + 2 'nDepth=0, is single data item For nCol = 2 To nMaxCols 'loop over deep screen fields nDepth = nCol - 2 'current depth vData = .vntGetSymbol(sName, nDepth) 'Get Data from vb6 app If LenB(vData) > 0 And IsNumeric(vData) Then 'Check if data returned SheetRange.Cells(nRow, nCol) = vData 'Poke the data in Else SheetRange.Cells(nRow, nCol) = vData 'Poke a zero in End If Next 'nCol Next 'nRow End With Set SheetRange = Nothing Next 'j End If Set wkbInData = Nothing Set oFPW = Nothing Exit Sub . . . End Sub Any help would be appreciated.

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  • ELMAH - Using custom error pages to collecting user feedback

    - by vdh_ant
    Hey guys I'm looking at using ELMAH for the first time but have a requirement that needs to be met that I'm not sure how to go about achieving... Basically, I am going to configure ELMAH to work under asp.net MVC and get it to log errors to the database when they occur. On top of this I be using customErrors to direct the user to a friendly message page when an error occurs. Fairly standard stuff... The requirement is that on this custom error page I have a form which enables to user to provide extra information if they wish. Now the problem arises due to the fact that at this point the error is already logged and I need to associate the loged error with the users feedback. Normally, if I was using my own custom implementation, after I log the error I would pass through the ID of the error to the custom error page so that an association can be made. But because of the way that ELMAH works, I don't think the same is quite possible. Hence I was wondering how people thought that one might go about doing this.... Cheers UPDATE: My solution to the problem is as follows: public class UserCurrentConextUsingWebContext : IUserCurrentConext { private const string _StoredExceptionName = "System.StoredException."; private const string _StoredExceptionIdName = "System.StoredExceptionId."; public virtual string UniqueAddress { get { return HttpContext.Current.Request.UserHostAddress; } } public Exception StoredException { get { return HttpContext.Current.Application[_StoredExceptionName + this.UniqueAddress] as Exception; } set { HttpContext.Current.Application[_StoredExceptionName + this.UniqueAddress] = value; } } public string StoredExceptionId { get { return HttpContext.Current.Application[_StoredExceptionIdName + this.UniqueAddress] as string; } set { HttpContext.Current.Application[_StoredExceptionIdName + this.UniqueAddress] = value; } } } Then when the error occurs, I have something like this in my Global.asax: public void ErrorLog_Logged(object sender, ErrorLoggedEventArgs args) { var item = new UserCurrentConextUsingWebContext(); item.StoredException = args.Entry.Error.Exception; item.StoredExceptionId = args.Entry.Id; } Then where ever you are later you can pull out the details by var item = new UserCurrentConextUsingWebContext(); var error = item.StoredException; var errorId = item.StoredExceptionId; item.StoredException = null; item.StoredExceptionId = null; Note this isn't 100% perfect as its possible for the same IP to have multiple requests to have errors at the same time. But the likely hood of that happening is remote. And this solution is independent of the session, which in our case is important, also some errors can cause sessions to be terminated, etc. Hence why this approach has worked nicely for us.

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  • jQuery Validation plugin: checkbox groups and error message issues

    - by boomturn
    I've put together a form using the jQuery Validation plugin, and all inputs are fine with working validation and error messages – except for checkboxes. I have two checkbox problems. The first is that the Validation plugin API doesn't seem to handle checkboxes in grouped contexts (I'm using fieldsets for grouping). Found several approaches to the issue here, including reference to a post by Rebecca Murphey for a more general case using a custom method and class. Adapting that to this situation: jQuery.validator.addMethod('required_group', function(val, el) { var fieldParent = $(el).closest('fieldset'); return fieldParent.find('.required_group:checked').length; }); jQuery.validator.addClassRules('required_group', { 'required_group': true }); jQuery.validator.messages.required_group = 'Please check at least one box.'; This sort of works, but produces error messages on every checkbox, and only removes them as each box is clicked. This is not an acceptable situation for the user, who can only get rid of them by clicking false positives. Ideally, I guess what's needed is something to prevent or eliminate extra messages before they are displayed and use errorPlacement to display a single error message in the parent fieldset, that would then be removed with a click on any checkbox. Less ideally, maybe they would all display but an event handler could turn off the full set of redundant messages with a click, which is what this approach offered by tvanfosson appears to do. (Another customized approach here, but I couldn't get it to work.) I guess I should also note this form requires the checkboxes to have different names. My second problem is that one of the fieldsets with checkboxes in the form also contains a nested fieldset of checkboxes under one of the outer checkboxes. So in addition to the first-level one-box-checked requirement, if the particular checkbox containing the second-level checkboxes is checked, then at least one of the second-level boxes must be checked. Not sure about the right approach; I'm guessing what needs to happen (following the above scheme) is that the trigger checkbox would use toggleClass to add/remove 'required_group' class to all the checkboxes in the subfield, which would then (hopefully) behave the same as the parent field: $("#triggerCheckbox").click(function () { $(this).find(":checkbox").toggleClass("required_group"); }); Any suggestions or ideas welcome. I'm well beyond my limited jQuery skills on this one and would be happy to hear that I missed simple, elegant and/or obvious ways to do this!

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  • Is ResourceBundle fallback resolution broken in Resin3x?

    - by LES2
    Given the following ResourceBundle properties files: messages.properties messages_en.properties messages_es.properties messages_{some locale}.properties Note: messages.properties contains all the messages for the default locale. messages_en.properties is really empty - it's just there for correctness. messages_en.properties will fall back to messages.properties! And given the following config params in web.xml: <context-param> <param-name>javax.servlet.jsp.jstl.fmt.localizationContext</param-name> <param-value>messages</param-value> </context-param> <context-param> <param-name>javax.servlet.jsp.jstl.fmt.fallbackLocale</param-name> <param-value>en</param-value> </context-param> I would expect that if the chosen locale is 'es', and a resource is not translated in 'es', then it would fall back to 'en', and finally to 'messages.properties' (since messages_en.properties is empty). This is how things work in Jetty. I've also tested this on WebSphere. Resin Is the Problem The problem is when I get to Resin (3.0.23). Fallback resolution does not work at all! In order to get an messages to display, I must do the following: Rename messages.properties to messages_en.properties (essentially, swap the contents of messages.properties and messages_en.properties) Make sure ever key in messages_en.properties is also defined in messages_{every other locale}.properties (even if the exact same). If I don't do this, I get "???some.key???" in the JSPs. Please help! This is perplexing. -- LES SOLUTION Add following to pom.xml (if you're using maven) ... <properties> <taglibs.version>1.1.2</taglibs.version> </properties> ... <!-- Resin ships with a crappy JSTL implementation that doesn't work with fallback locales for resource bundles correctly; we therefore include our own JSTL implementation in the WAR, and avoid this problem. This can be removed if the target container is not resin. --> <dependency> <groupId>taglibs</groupId> <artifactId>standard</artifactId> <version>${taglibs.version}</version> <scope>compile</scope> </dependency>

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  • Default Database Collations PenTesting Env

    - by dominicdinada
    I am using Ubuntu 9.10 with XAMPP ( Lampp "MYSQL 5.1.45 PHPMYADMIN 3.3.1 PHP 5.3.2 ) What my problem is, is that I set up my testing env to debug my scripts locally and when I did so there arose a problem. This problem is that I used firefox's addon SQLinject ME to test for weakness' and upon doing so it caused mysql to change the default local collations; character sets dir /opt/lampp/share/mysql/charsets/ collation connection latin1_general_ci (Global value) latin1_swedish_ci collation database latin1_swedish_ci collation server latin1_swedish_ci I have searched for quite sometime in regards to a solution to this problem and have come up with searching for the db.opt file which stores this information without success. Upon not finding a solution I removed lampp with the "sudo rm -fR /opt" command and reinstall and the problem still persists. I have tried to change the collations manually and still come up with the database displaying latin1_swedish_ci as the default language. Why is this a problem?? Why is it a problem with mysql? Because the application I am testing and debugging locally is built on the CodeIgnitor with Smarty framework and since this combination of framework is built to detect the LOCALES, Rather what the database defaults are I keep getting errors saying no language file for swedish...... Of course I could get the swedish language file to work around this problem but I do not feel the need to make this work around a perminant solution as with time when I move on to projects I will run into simular problems every time that A; When importing database files, backups etc it will default to import such databases as the locale swedish. B; As time passes on I might completly forget of this error and will be back to square one. I have found this code in searches for a fix,which seems to alter the tables to a desired Collaion; $value) { mysql_query("ALTER TABLE $value COLLATE latin1_general_ci"); }} echo "The collation of your database has been successfully changed!"; ? Which is handy to switch collations in One Schema at a time however this is not a fix when a framework doesnt care that the said database is in one langugae. It tests for the Default of the entire server. Someone with any knowledge of a purge or fix to this I would greatly appricate the help. One more final note is that when I was testing I only figured to back up the applications DataBase and not the entire Schema of the install. No matter if I uninstall or reinstall the database still seems to carry these problems.

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