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  • How to launch a Windows service network process to listen to a port on a localhost socket that is vi

    - by rwired
    Here's the code (in a standard TService in Delphi): const ProcessExe = 'MyNetApp.exe'; function RunService: Boolean; var StartInfo : TStartupInfo; ProcInfo : TProcessInformation; CreateOK : Boolean; begin CreateOK := false; FillChar(StartInfo,SizeOf(TStartupInfo),#0); FillChar(ProcInfo,SizeOf(TProcessInformation),#0); StartInfo.cb := SizeOf(TStartupInfo); CreateOK := CreateProcess(nil, PChar(ProcessEXE),nil,nil,False, CREATE_NEW_PROCESS_GROUP+NORMAL_PRIORITY_CLASS, nil, PChar(InstallDir), StartInfo, ProcInfo); CloseHandle(ProcInfo.hProcess); CloseHandle(ProcInfo.hThread); Result := CreateOK; end; procedure TServicel.ServiceExecute(Sender: TService); const IntervalsBetweenRuns = 4; //no of IntTimes between checks IntTime = 250; //ms var Count: SmallInt; begin Count := IntervalsBetweenRuns; //first time run immediately while not Terminated do begin Inc(Count); if Count >= IntervalsBetweenRuns then begin Count := 0; //We check to see if the process is running, //if not we run it. That's all there is to it. //if ProcessEXE crashes, this service host will just rerun it if processExists(ProcessEXE)=0 then RunService; end; Sleep(IntTime); ServiceThread.ProcessRequests(False); end; end; MyNetApp.exe is a SOCKS5 proxy listening on port 9870. Users configure their browser to this proxy which acts as a secure-tunnel/anonymizer. All works perfectly fine on 2000/XP/2003, but on Vista/Win7 with UAC the service runs in Session0 under LocalSystem and port 9870 doesn't show up in netstat for the logged-in user or Administrator. Seems UAC is getting in my way. Is there something I can do with the SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES or CreateProcess, or is there something I can do with CreateProcessAsUser or impersonation to ensure that a network socket on a service is available to logged-in users on the system (note, this app is for mass deployment, I don't have access to user credentials, and require the user elevate their privileges to install a service on Vista/Win7)

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  • C# problem with two threads and hardware access

    - by mack369
    I'm creating an application which communicates with the device via FT2232H USB/RS232 converter. For communication I'm using FTD2XX_NET.dll library from FTDI website. I'm using two threads: first thread continuously reads data from the device the second thread is the main thread of the Windows Form Application I've got a problem when I'm trying to write any data to the device while the receiver's thread is running. The main thread simply hangs up on ftdiDevice.Write function. I tried to synchronize both threads so that only one thread can use Read/Write function at the same time, but it didn't help. Below code responsible for the communication. Note that following functions are methods of FtdiPort class. Receiver's thread private void receiverLoop() { if (this.DataReceivedHandler == null) { throw new BackendException("dataReceived delegate is not set"); } FTDI.FT_STATUS ftStatus = FTDI.FT_STATUS.FT_OK; byte[] readBytes = new byte[this.ReadBufferSize]; while (true) { lock (FtdiPort.threadLocker) { UInt32 numBytesRead = 0; ftStatus = ftdiDevice.Read(readBytes, this.ReadBufferSize, ref numBytesRead); if (ftStatus == FTDI.FT_STATUS.FT_OK) { this.DataReceivedHandler(readBytes, numBytesRead); } else { Trace.WriteLine(String.Format("Couldn't read data from ftdi: status {0}", ftStatus)); Thread.Sleep(10); } } Thread.Sleep(this.RXThreadDelay); } } Write function called from main thread public void Write(byte[] data, int length) { if (this.IsOpened) { uint i = 0; lock (FtdiPort.threadLocker) { this.ftdiDevice.Write(data, length, ref i); } Thread.Sleep(1); if (i != (int)length) { throw new BackendException("Couldnt send all data"); } } else { throw new BackendException("Port is closed"); } } Object used to synchronize two threads static Object threadLocker = new Object(); Method that starts the receiver's thread private void startReceiver() { if (this.DataReceivedHandler == null) { return; } if (this.IsOpened == false) { throw new BackendException("Trying to start listening for raw data while disconnected"); } this.receiverThread = new Thread(this.receiverLoop); //this.receiverThread.Name = "protocolListener"; this.receiverThread.IsBackground = true; this.receiverThread.Start(); } The ftdiDevice.Write function doesn't hang up if I comment following line: ftStatus = ftdiDevice.Read(readBytes, this.ReadBufferSize, ref numBytesRead);

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  • How safe is my safe rethrow?

    - by gustafc
    (Late edit: This question will hopefully be obsolete when Java 7 comes, because of the "final rethrow" feature which seems like it will be added.) Quite often, I find myself in situations looking like this: do some initialization try { do some work } catch any exception { undo initialization rethrow exception } In C# you can do it like this: InitializeStuff(); try { DoSomeWork(); } catch { UndoInitialize(); throw; } For Java, there's no good substitution, and since the proposal for improved exception handling was cut from Java 7, it looks like it'll take at best several years until we get something like it. Thus, I decided to roll my own: (Edit: Half a year later, final rethrow is back, or so it seems.) public final class Rethrow { private Rethrow() { throw new AssertionError("uninstantiable"); } /** Rethrows t if it is an unchecked exception. */ public static void unchecked(Throwable t) { if (t instanceof Error) throw (Error) t; if (t instanceof RuntimeException) throw (RuntimeException) t; } /** Rethrows t if it is an unchecked exception or an instance of E. */ public static <E extends Exception> void instanceOrUnchecked( Class<E> exceptionClass, Throwable t) throws E, Error, RuntimeException { Rethrow.unchecked(t); if (exceptionClass.isInstance(t)) throw exceptionClass.cast(t); } } Typical usage: public void doStuff() throws SomeException { initializeStuff(); try { doSomeWork(); } catch (Throwable t) { undoInitialize(); Rethrow.instanceOrUnchecked(SomeException.class, t); // We shouldn't get past the above line as only unchecked or // SomeException exceptions are thrown in the try block, but // we don't want to risk swallowing an error, so: throw new SomeException("Unexpected exception", t); } private void doSomeWork() throws SomeException { ... } } It's a bit wordy, catching Throwable is usually frowned upon, I'm not really happy at using reflection just to rethrow an exception, and I always feel a bit uneasy writing "this will not happen" comments, but in practice it works well (or seems to, at least). What I wonder is: Do I have any flaws in my rethrow helper methods? Some corner cases I've missed? (I know that the Throwable may have been caused by something so severe that my undoInitialize will fail, but that's OK.) Has someone already invented this? I looked at Commons Lang's ExceptionUtils but that does other things. Edit: finally is not the droid I'm looking for. I'm only interested to do stuff when an exception is thrown. Yes, I know catching Throwable is a big no-no, but I think it's the lesser evil here compared to having three catch clauses (for Error, RuntimeException and SomeException, respectively) with identical code. Note that I'm not trying to suppress any errors - the idea is that any exceptions thrown in the try block will continue to bubble up through the call stack as soon as I've rewinded a few things.

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  • Want to show <embed> and <object> tags from YUI editor as a text rather then a video.

    - by user208678
    I am using YUI rich text editor on my website (php/mysql), so that a user may enter textual matter/articles through it. But if a user copies and paste some embed code in the textarea, from any video sites like youtube, it should get saved as a text block and not as a playing video when showing the text content on the browser. Now YUI automatically converts the characters into html entities which ever is needed. Please note that if I put a new line in the yui editor (by pressing "Enter" key), it will be converted into a "<br>" tag in the background and this will not get html entity encoded when passing the value to my backend PHP script. But If I copy and paste any embed tag or for that reason any valid html tags in the textarea, it will be html entity encoded by YUI. Now to support UTF-8 characters, I am using a function (DBVarConv) in my php script before saving it into my database. The code for the function is given below function DBVarConv($var,$isEncoded = false) { if($isEncoded) return addslashes(htmlentities($var, ENT_QUOTES, 'UTF-8', false)); else return htmlentities ($var, ENT_QUOTES, 'UTF-8', false); } $myeditorData = DBVarConv($myeditorData, true); // Save $myeditorData in database. While showing the data in the browser, I am using another function called "smart_html_entity_decode". The code is given below. function smart_html_entity_decode($text, $isAddslashesUsed = false) { if($isAddslashesUsed) $tmp = stripslashes(html_entity_decode($text, ENT_QUOTES, 'UTF-8')); else $tmp = html_entity_decode($text, ENT_QUOTES, 'UTF-8'); if ($tmp == $text) return $tmp; return smart_html_entity_decode($tmp, $isAddslashesUsed); } // Get $myData from database $myData=smart_html_entity_decode($myData, true); echo $myData; The problem is that in doing so, it is also decoding the embed and object tags from their html encoded entities and as a result my obejct tags are shown as a video and not as a simple text. Try using the text editor at tumblr.com. If you paste an embed code in the editor, it will be shown as a text block not as a video. I am trying to build the same functionality on my website with UTF-8 support. Any help will be highly appreciated.

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  • Do Websites need Local Databases Anymore?

    - by viatropos
    If there's a better place to ask this, please let me know. Every time I build a new website/blog/shopping-cart/etc., I keep trying to do the following: Extract out common functionality into reusable code (Rubygems and jQuery plugins mostly) If possible, convert that gem into a small service so I never have to deal with a database for the objects involved (by service, I mean something lean and mean, usually built with the Sinatra Web Framework with a few core models). My assumption is, if I can remove dependencies on local databases, that will make it easier and more scalable in the long run (scalable in terms of reusability and manageability, not necessarily database/performance). I'm not sure if that's a good or bad assumption yet. What do you think? I've made this assumption because of the following reason: Most serious database/model functionality has been built on the internet somewhere. Just to name a few: Social Network API: Facebook Messaging API: Twitter Mailing API: Google Event API: Eventbrite Shopping API: Shopify Comment API: Disqus Form API: Wufoo Image API: Picasa Video API: Youtube ... Each of those things are fairly complicated to build from scratch and to make as optimized, simple, and easy to use as those companies have made them. So if I build an app that shows pictures (picasa) on an Event page (eventbrite), and you can see who joined the event (facebook events), and send them emails (google apps api), and have them fill out monthly surveys (wufoo), and watch a video when they're done (youtube), all integrated into a custom, easy to use website, and I can do that without ever creating a local database, is that a good thing? I ask because there's two things missing from the puzzle that keep forcing me to create that local database: Post API RESTful/Pretty Url API While there's plenty of Blogging systems and APIs for them, there is no one place where you can just write content and have it part of some massive thing. For every app, I have to use code for creating pretty/restful urls, and that saves posts. But it seems like that should be a service! Question is, is that what the website is? ...That place to integrate the worlds services for my specific cause... and, sigh, to store posts that only my site has access to. Will everyone always need "their own blog"? Why not just have a profile and write lots of content on an established platform like StackOverflow or Facebook? ... That way I can write apps entirely without a database and know that I'm doing it right. Note: Of course at some point you'd need a database, if you were doing something unique or new. But for the case where you're just rewiring information or creating things like videos, events, and products, is it really necessary anymore??

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  • PHP max_execution_time not timing out

    - by Joey Ezekiel
    This is not one of the regular questions if sleep is counted for timeout or stuff like that. Ok, here's the problem: I've set the max_execution_time for PHP as 15 seconds and ideally this should time out when it crosses the set limit, but it doesn't. Apache has been restarted after the change to the php.ini file and an ini_get('max_execution_time') is all fine. Sometimes the script runs for upto 200 seconds which is crazy. I have no database communication whatsoever. All the script does is looking for files on the unix filesystem and in some cases re-directing to another JSP page. There is no sleep() on the script. I calculate the total execution time of the PHP script like this: At the start of the script I set : $_mtime = microtime(); $_mtime = explode(" ",$_mtime); $_mtime = $_mtime[1] + $_mtime[0]; $_gStartTime = $_mtime; and the end time($_gEndTime) is calculated similarly. The total time is calculated in a shutdown function that I've registered: register_shutdown_function('shutdown'); ............. function shutdown() { .............. .............. $_total_time = $_gEndTime - $_gStartTime; .............. switch (connection_status ()) { case CONNECTION_NORMAL: .... break; .... case CONNECTION_TIMEOUT: .... break; ...... } } Note: I cannot use $_SERVER['REQUEST_TIME'] because my PHP version is incompatible. That sucks - I know. 1) Well, my first question obviously is is why is my PHP script executing even after the set timeout limit? 2) Apache has the Timeout directive which is 300 seconds but the PHP binary does not read the Apache config and this should not be a problem. 3) Is there a possibility that something is sending PHP into a sleep mode? 4) Am I calculating the execution time in a wrong way? Is there a better way to do this? I'm stumped at this point. PHP Wizards - please help.

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  • Unintentional concatenation in Bison/Yacc grammar.

    - by troutwine
    I am experimenting with lex and yacc and have run into a strange issue, but I think it would be best to show you my code before detailing the issue. This is my lexer: %{ #include <stdlib.h> #include <string.h> #include "y.tab.h" void yyerror(char *); %} %% [a-zA-Z]+ { yylval.strV = yytext; return ID; } [0-9]+ { yylval.intV = atoi(yytext); return INTEGER; } [\n] { return *yytext; } [ \t] ; . yyerror("invalid character"); %% int yywrap(void) { return 1; } This is my parser: %{ #include <stdio.h> int yydebug=1; void prompt(); void yyerror(char *); int yylex(void); %} %union { int intV; char *strV; } %token INTEGER ID %% program: program statement EOF { prompt(); } | program EOF { prompt(); } | { prompt(); } ; args: /* empty */ | args ID { printf(":%s ", $<strV>2); } ; statement: ID args { printf("%s", $<strV>1); } | INTEGER { printf("%d", $<intV>1); } ; EOF: '\n' %% void yyerror(char *s) { fprintf(stderr, "%s\n", s); } void prompt() { printf("> "); } int main(void) { yyparse(); return 0; } A very simple language, consisting of no more than strings and integer and a basic REPL. Now, you'll note in the parser that args are output with a leading colon, the intention being that, when combined with the first pattern of the rule of the statement the interaction with the REPL would look something like this: > aaa aa a :aa :a aaa> However, the interaction is this: > aaa aa a :aa :a aaa aa aa > Why does the token ID in the following rule statement: ID args { printf("%s", $<strV>1); } | INTEGER { printf("%d", $<intV>1); } ; have the semantic value of the total input string, newline included? How can my grammar be reworked so that the interaction I intended?

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  • Passing a parameter in the header (XML RPC)

    - by fudgey
    I'm trying to set up a server status for the MMORPG Champions Online. I got some basic information from the web master and this is all he told me: XML-RPC call to server: http://www.champions-online.com/xmlrpc.php function name: wgsLauncher.getServerStatus Parameter (language): en-US Now, I found a nice example to start with here, and I ended up with this code: <?php ini_set('display_errors', 1); error_reporting(E_ALL); # Using the XML-RPC extension to format the XML package $request = xmlrpc_encode_request("wgsLauncher.getServerStatus", "<param><value><string>en-US</string></value></param>", null ); # Using the cURL extension to send it off, # first creating a custom header block $header[] = "Host: http://www.champions-online.com:80/"; $header[] = "Content-type: text/xml"; $header[] = "Content-length: ".strlen($request) . "\r\n"; $header[] = $request; $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt( $ch, CURLOPT_URL, "http://www.champions-online.com/xmlrpc.php"); # URL to post to curl_setopt( $ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1 ); # return into a variable curl_setopt( $ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $header ); # custom headers, see above curl_setopt( $ch, CURLOPT_CUSTOMREQUEST, 'POST' ); # This POST is special, and uses its specified Content-type $result = curl_exec( $ch ); # run! curl_close($ch); echo $result; ?> But I'm getting a "400 Bad Request" error. I'm new to XML RPC and I barely know php, so I'm at a loss. The examples from the php site show how to use an array as a parameter, but nothing else. I obtained the parameter string <param><value><string>en-US</string></value></param> from this XMLRPC Debugger (very nice btw). I entered the parameter I needed in the "payload" box and this was the output. So, I would appreciate any help on how to pass this parameter to the header. Note: My host supports xmlrpc but it seems the function "xmlrpc_client" doesn't exist. Update: The web master replied with this information, but it's still not working... it's getting to the point I may just scrape the status off the page. $request = xmlrpc_encode_request("wgsLauncher.getServerStatus", "en-US" );

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  • What is the best way get and hold property reference by name in c#

    - by Jeff Weber
    I want to know if there is a better way (than what I'm currently doing) to obtain and hold a reference to a property in another object using only the object and property string names. Particularly, is there a better way to do this with the new dynamic functionality of .Net 4.0? Here is what I have right now. I have a "PropertyReference<T>" object that takes an object name and property name in the constructor. An Initialize() method uses reflection to find the object and property and stores the property Getter as an Action<T> and the property Setter as an Func<T>. When I want to actually call the property I do something like this: int x = _propertyReference.Get(); or _propertyReference.Set(2); Here is my PropertyReference<T> code. Please dissect and make suggestions for improvement. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Reflection; using System.Xml; namespace WindowsFormsApplication2 { public class PropertyReference<T> : IPropertyReference { public string ComponentName { get; set; } public string PropertyName { get; set; } public bool IsInitialized { get { return (_action != null && _func != null); } } Action<T> _action; Func<T> _func; public PropertyReference() { } public PropertyReference(string componentName, string propertyName) { ComponentName = componentName; PropertyName = propertyName; } public void Initialize(IEntity e) { Object component = e.GetByName(ComponentName); if (component == null) return; Type t = e.GetByName(ComponentName).GetType(); PropertyInfo pi = t.GetProperty(PropertyName); _action = (T a) => pi.SetValue(component, a, null); _func = () => (T)pi.GetValue(component, null); } public void Reset() { _action = null; _func = null; } public void Set(T value) { _action.Invoke(value); } public T Get() { return _func(); } } } Note: I can't use the "Emit" functionality as I need this code to work on the new Windows Phone 7 and that does not support Emit.

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  • How can a 1Gb Java heap on a 64bit machine use 3Gb of VIRT space?

    - by Graeme Moss
    I run the same process on a 32bit machine as on a 64bit machine with the same memory VM settings (-Xms1024m -Xmx1024m) and similar VM version (1.6.0_05 vs 1.6.0_16). However the virtual space used by the 64bit machine (as shown in top under "VIRT") is almost three times as big as that in 32bit! I know 64bit VMs will use a little more memory for the larger references, but how can it be three times as big? Am I reading VIRT in top incorrectly? Full data shown below, showing top and then the result of jmap -heap, first for 64bit, then for 32bit. Note the VIRT for 64bit is 3319m for 32bit is 1220m. * 64bit * PID USER PR NI VIRT RES SHR S %CPU %MEM TIME+ COMMAND 22534 agent 20 0 3319m 163m 14m S 4.7 2.0 0:04.28 java $ jmap -heap 22534 Attaching to process ID 22534, please wait... Debugger attached successfully. Server compiler detected. JVM version is 10.0-b19 using thread-local object allocation. Parallel GC with 4 thread(s) Heap Configuration: MinHeapFreeRatio = 40 MaxHeapFreeRatio = 70 MaxHeapSize = 1073741824 (1024.0MB) NewSize = 2686976 (2.5625MB) MaxNewSize = -65536 (-0.0625MB) OldSize = 5439488 (5.1875MB) NewRatio = 2 SurvivorRatio = 8 PermSize = 21757952 (20.75MB) MaxPermSize = 88080384 (84.0MB) Heap Usage: PS Young Generation Eden Space: capacity = 268500992 (256.0625MB) used = 247066968 (235.62142181396484MB) free = 21434024 (20.441078186035156MB) 92.01715277089181% used From Space: capacity = 44695552 (42.625MB) used = 0 (0.0MB) free = 44695552 (42.625MB) 0.0% used To Space: capacity = 44695552 (42.625MB) used = 0 (0.0MB) free = 44695552 (42.625MB) 0.0% used PS Old Generation capacity = 715849728 (682.6875MB) used = 0 (0.0MB) free = 715849728 (682.6875MB) 0.0% used PS Perm Generation capacity = 21757952 (20.75MB) used = 16153928 (15.405586242675781MB) free = 5604024 (5.344413757324219MB) 74.24378912132907% used * 32bit * PID USER PR NI VIRT RES SHR S %CPU %MEM TIME+ COMMAND 30168 agent 20 0 1220m 175m 12m S 0.0 2.2 0:13.43 java $ jmap -heap 30168 Attaching to process ID 30168, please wait... Debugger attached successfully. Server compiler detected. JVM version is 14.2-b01 using thread-local object allocation. Parallel GC with 8 thread(s) Heap Configuration: MinHeapFreeRatio = 40 MaxHeapFreeRatio = 70 MaxHeapSize = 1073741824 (1024.0MB) NewSize = 1048576 (1.0MB) MaxNewSize = 4294901760 (4095.9375MB) OldSize = 4194304 (4.0MB) NewRatio = 8 SurvivorRatio = 8 PermSize = 16777216 (16.0MB) MaxPermSize = 67108864 (64.0MB) Heap Usage: PS Young Generation Eden Space: capacity = 89522176 (85.375MB) used = 80626352 (76.89128112792969MB) free = 8895824 (8.483718872070312MB) 90.0629940005033% used From Space: capacity = 14876672 (14.1875MB) used = 14876216 (14.187065124511719MB) free = 456 (4.3487548828125E-4MB) 99.99693479832048% used To Space: capacity = 14876672 (14.1875MB) used = 0 (0.0MB) free = 14876672 (14.1875MB) 0.0% used PS Old Generation capacity = 954466304 (910.25MB) used = 10598496 (10.107513427734375MB) free = 943867808 (900.1424865722656MB) 1.1104107034039412% used PS Perm Generation capacity = 16777216 (16.0MB) used = 11366448 (10.839889526367188MB) free = 5410768 (5.1601104736328125MB) 67.74930953979492% used

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  • How to play small sound file continuously in Silverlight?

    - by ash
    Hello, I have two questions regarding Silverlight's SoundPlay action and properties. My scenario is like: I have two story board: The first story board has an image and a sound file; when the silverlight application gets loaded, the sound starts to play automatically, but if someone clicks the image, the sound file will stop and the second storyboard will start with a new sound file. 1) My first question is how to stop the first sound file of first story board when the second story board starts with the second sound file. 2) My second question is how to play a sound file continuously; for example, in Silverlight we can play a story board continuously with RepeatBehavior="Forever"; but I cannot find a way to play my 10 second sound file forever or continuously. Note: I have attached a small XAML file to show what I am talking about; I am also stating that if instead of an image file, if there were a button, then I can stop the first music file after I click the button and start my second story board with a new sound file, but I would like to use image file instead of a button. Is it possible? If it is, how to do it? Therefore, please answer my following two questions or give big hint or website tutorial links on 1) How to stop the first sound file of first story board when the second story board starts with the second sound file ( When the clickable element is an image instead of a button) 2) How to play a 10 second sound file continuously? ............Code Snippet...................... XAML ............ <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" Background="Red"> <Button HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="212,0,0,111" VerticalAlignment="Bottom" Width="75" Content="Button" Click="onClick"/> <MediaElement x:Name="sound2_mp3" Height="0" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="105,230,0,0" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="0" Source="/sound2.mp3" Stretch="Fill"/> <MediaElement x:Name="sound1_mp1" Height="0" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="190,164,0,0" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="0" Source="/sound1.mp3" Stretch="Fill" AutoPlay="False"/> </Grid> ..................................................................................................................................................................................................................... using System; using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Windows.Documents; using System.Windows.Ink; using System.Windows.Input; using System.Windows.Media; using System.Windows.Media.Animation; using System.Windows.Shapes; namespace testPrj { public partial class MainPage : UserControl { public MainPage() { // Required to initialize variables InitializeComponent(); } private void onClick(object sender, System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs e) { Storyboard1.Stop(); sound2_mp3.Stop(); sound1_mp1.Play(); } } } ...................................................................................................

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  • Unexpected output from Bubblesort program with MSVC vs TCC

    - by Sujith S Pillai
    One of my friends sent this code to me, saying it doesn't work as expected: #include<stdio.h> void main() { int a [10] ={23, 100, 20, 30, 25, 45, 40, 55, 43, 42}; int sizeOfInput = sizeof(a)/sizeof(int); int b, outer, inner, c; printf("Size is : %d \n", sizeOfInput); printf("Values before bubble sort are : \n"); for ( b = 0; b &lt; sizeOfInput; b++) printf("%d\n", a[b]); printf("End of values before bubble sort... \n"); for ( outer = sizeOfInput; outer &gt; 0; outer-- ) { for ( inner = 0 ; inner &lt; outer ; inner++) { printf ( "Comparing positions: %d and %d\n",inner,inner+1); if ( a[inner] &gt; a[inner + 1] ) { int tmp = a[inner]; a[inner] = a [inner+1]; a[inner+1] = tmp; } } printf ( "Bubble sort total array size after inner loop is %d :\n",sizeOfInput); printf ( "Bubble sort sizeOfInput after inner loop is %d :\n",sizeOfInput); } printf ( "Bubble sort total array size at the end is %d :\n",sizeOfInput); for ( c = 0 ; c &lt; sizeOfInput; c++) printf("Element: %d\n", a[c]); } I am using Micosoft Visual Studio Command Line Tool for compiling this on a Windows XP machine. cl /EHsc bubblesort01.c My friend gets the correct output on a dinosaur machine (code is compiled using TCC there). My output is unexpected. The array mysteriously grows in size, in between. If you change the code so that the variable sizeOfInput is changed to sizeOfInputt, it gives the expected results! A search done at Microsoft Visual C++ Developer Center doesn't give any results for "sizeOfInput". I am not a C/C++ expert, and am curious to find out why this happens - any C/C++ experts who can "shed some light" on this? Unrelated note: I seriously thought of rewriting the whole code to use quicksort or merge sort before posting it here. But, after all, it is not Stooge sort... Edit: I know the code is not correct (it reads beyond the last element), but I am curious why the variable name makes a difference.

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  • CSS - changing the font color for a from select option in firefox

    - by Mick
    I'm building a website for my church, and I'm teaching myself all about web design along the way. http://www.wilmingtonchurchofgod.org/contact_us.html is the link where you can see my issue. If you look at that page in firefox, and you click the select part of the form (next to, "Who would you like to contact?") you will see that when you hover over a choice, the font is white. I have tried various things to fix this, but can't find a solution. This seems to be specific to Firefox. Here is the relevant CSS. input, textarea, select, option{ padding: 6px; border: solid 1px #E5E5E5; outline: 0; font: normal 13px/100% Verdana, Tahoma, sans-serif; width: 200px; background: #FFFFFF url(images/from-grad.jpg) left top repeat-x; background: -webkit-gradient(linear, left top, left 25, from(#FFFFFF), color-stop(4%, #EEEEEE), to(#FFFFFF)); background: -moz-linear-gradient(top, #FFFFFF, #EEEEEE 1px, #FFFFFF 25px); box-shadow: rgba(0,0,0, 0.15) 0px 0px 8px; -moz-box-shadow: rgba(0,0,0, 0.15) 0px 0px 8px; -webkit-box-shadow: rgba(0,0,0, 0.15) 0px 0px 8px; } option{ padding:0px; } textarea { width: 400px; max-width: 400px; height: 150px; line-height: 150%; } input:hover, textarea:hover, input:focus, textarea:focus{ border-color: #C9C9C9; -webkit-box-shadow: rgba(0, 0, 0, 0.15) 0px 0px 8px; -moz-box-shadow: rgba(0,0,0, 0.15) 0px 0px 8px; } option:hover, option:focus, select:hover, select:focus { color: black; border-color: #C9C9C9; -webkit-box-shadow: rgba(0, 0, 0, 0.15) 0px 0px 8px; -moz-box-shadow: rgba(0,0,0, 0.15) 0px 0px 8px; } Another side note is that I can't get any background gradient at all to show up on Google Chome (yet it does on Safari and they are supposed to use the same kit?) Any help with these two things would be greatly appreciated.

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  • JPanel components paint-time problem

    - by Tom Brito
    I'm having a problem that when my frame is shown (after a login dialog) the buttons are not on correct position, then in some miliseconds they go to the right position (the center of the panel with border layout). When I make a SSCCE, it works correct, but when I run my whole code I have this fast-miliseconds delay to the buttons to go to the correct place. Unfortunately, I can't post the whole code, but the method that shows the frame is: public void login(JComponent userView) { centerPanel.removeAll(); centerPanel.add(userView); centerPanel.revalidate(); centerPanel.repaint(); frame.setVisible(true); } What would cause this delay to the panel layout? (I'm running everything in the EDT) -- update In my machine, this SSCCE shows the layout problem in 2 of 10 times I run it: import java.awt.BorderLayout; import javax.swing.JButton; import javax.swing.JFrame; import javax.swing.JPanel; import javax.swing.SwingUtilities; public class TEST { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { System.out.println("Debug test..."); JPanel btnPnl = new JPanel(); btnPnl.add(new JButton("TEST")); JFrame f = new JFrame("TEST"); f.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); f.getContentPane().setLayout(new BorderLayout()); f.getContentPane().add(btnPnl); f.pack(); f.setSize(800, 600); f.setVisible(true); System.out.println("End debug test!"); } }); } } The button first appers in the up-left, and then it goes to the center. Please, note that I'm understand, not just correct. Is it a java bug? --update OK, so the SSCCE don't show the problem with you that tried till now. Maybe it's my computer performance problem. But this don't answer the question, I still think Java Swing is creating new threads for make the layout behind the scenes.

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  • Count total children divs inside a container

    - by kuswantin
    I want to count the total divs inside a container and toggle their visibilities with structure like this. Please also note that the div.content may also reside inside another nested or even nested-nested containers. That's why I handle it with jquery to add div.topmost for each topmost parent container: <div id="parent"> <div class="counter">There are 3 div.contents inside the container below</div> <div class="container"> <div class="content"> 1 </div> <div class="container"> <!--container inside container --> <div class="content"> 2 </div> <div class="content"> 3 </div> </div> </div> <div class="counter">There are 5 div.contents inside the container below</div> <div class="container"> <div class="content"> 1 </div> <div class="content"> 2 </div> <div class="content"> 3 </div> <div class="content"> 4 </div> <div class="content"> 5 </div> </div> </div> And the jquery: // only grab the top most container $('#parent > .container').addClass('topmost'); var topMost = $(".topmost"); var totContent = topMost.children('.content').size(); if (topMost.length > 0) { topMost.before('<div class="toggle">There are ' + totContent + ' div.contents inside the container below</div>'); } topMost.hide(); $('#parent > .counter').click(function() { $(this).next('.topmost').toggle(); //alert(totContent); return false; }); But I can't make it work to loop for each div.counter. The counter always shows all div.content. So placing the each function is suspected to be the problem. Any hep would be very much appreciated. Thanks

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  • Want to set 'src' of script to my IP-Won't load in Safari or Chrome. Relative link asp.netmvc

    - by Ozaki
    I have a script that links to the server I am hosting (IP can change) usually I would just use for links: var url ='http://' + window.location.hostname + 'end of url'; But in this case it isnt appearing to be so easy. I have tried: (1) $('#scriptid').attr('src', url); as well as: (2) var script = document.createElement( 'script' ); script.type = 'text/javascript'; script.src = url; $("#insert").append( script ); Now case (2) works loads the script runs the script. But when at the end of my script it hits the 'write data' it decides to replace the entire page with just the data. Any idea on how I can do this? Note: I am using plain html not ASP. With ASP backend that is just the way it has to be. Ok it now is <script src="myscript.js"></script> C# router.AddAsyncRoute("myscript.js"...... It workes in IE & FF. But I get blank pages in Chrome & Safari. I am using document.write to write a script onto my page. Any ideas why Chrome & Safari don't like this? I am so far assuming that in Crhome & Safari it takes longer to run the script therefore launching the document.write after the DOM has loaded therefore replacing the page with a blank one. edit the script im trying to run is a modification of: d = new dTree('d'); d.add(0,-1,'My example tree'); d.add(1,0,'Node 1','default.html'); d.add(2,0,'Node 2','default.html'); d.add(3,1,'Node 1.1','default.html'); d.add(4,0,'Node 3','default.html'); d.add(5,3,'Node 1.1.1','default.html') document.write(d); Any ideas how I can get around this? I am not to sure how to implement an appenChild in this case as the script is changing constantly with live data. So every refresh it will generally have changed some...

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  • iphone Odd Problem when using a custom cell

    - by Brodie4598
    Please note where I have the NSLOG. All it is displaying in the log is the first three items in the nameSection. After some testing, I discovered it is displaying how many keys there are because if I add a key to the plist, it will log a fourth item in log. nameSection should be an array of the strings that make up the key array in the plist file. the plist file has 3 dictionaries, each with several arrays of strings. The code picks the dictionary I am working with correctly, then should use the array names as sections in the table and the strings en each array as what to display in each cell. so if the dictionary i am working with has 3 arrays, NSLOG will display 3 strings from the first array: 2010-05-01 17:03:26.957 Checklists[63926:207] string0 2010-05-01 17:03:26.960 Checklists[63926:207] string1 2010-05-01 17:03:26.962 Checklists[63926:207] string2 then stop with: 2010-05-01 17:03:26.963 Checklists[63926:207] * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSRangeException', reason: '* -[NSCFArray objectAtIndex:]: index (3) beyond bounds (3)' if i added an array to the dictionary, it log 4 items instead of 3. I hope this explanation makes sense... -(NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView{ return [keys count]; } -(NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger) section { NSString *key = [keys objectAtIndex:section]; NSArray *nameSection = [names objectForKey:key]; return [nameSection count]; } -(UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSUInteger section = [indexPath section]; NSString *key = [keys objectAtIndex: section]; NSArray *nameSection = [names objectForKey:key]; static NSString *SectionsTableIdentifier = @"SectionsTableIdentifier"; static NSString *ChecklistCellIdentifier = @"ChecklistCellIdentifier "; ChecklistCell *cell = (ChecklistCell *)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier: SectionsTableIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { NSArray *nib = [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"ChecklistCell" owner:self options:nil]; for (id oneObject in nib) if ([oneObject isKindOfClass:[ChecklistCell class]]) cell = (ChecklistCell *)oneObject; } NSUInteger row = [indexPath row]; NSDictionary *rowData = [self.keys objectAtIndex:row]; NSString *tempString = [[NSString alloc]initWithFormat:@"%@",[nameSection objectAtIndex:row]]; NSLog(@"%@",tempString); cell.colorLabel.text = [tempArray objectAtIndex:0]; cell.nameLabel.text = [tempArray objectAtIndex:1]; return cell; return cell; } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath]; if (cell.accessoryType == UITableViewCellAccessoryNone) { cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryCheckmark; } else if (cell.accessoryType == UITableViewCellAccessoryCheckmark) { cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryNone; } [tableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:NO]; } -(NSString *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView titleForHeaderInSection:(NSInteger)section{ NSString *key = [keys objectAtIndex:section]; return key; }

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  • Parallel For Loop - Problems when adding to a List - Possible .Net Bugs

    - by Kevin Crowell
    I am having some issues involving Parallel for loops and adding to a List. The problem is, the same code may generate different output at different times. I have set up some test code below. In this code, I create a List of 10,000 int values. 1/10th of the values will be 0, 1/10th of the values will be 1, all the way up to 1/10th of the values being 9. After setting up this List, I setup a Parallel for loop that iterates through the list. If the current number is 0, I add a value to a new List. After the Parallel for loop completes, I output the size of the list. The size should always be 1,000. Most of the time, the correct answer is given. However, I have seen 3 possible incorrect outcomes occur: The size of the list is less than 1,000 An IndexOutOfRangeException occurs @ doubleList.Add(0.0); An ArgumentException occurs @ doubleList.Add(0.0); The message for the ArgumentException given was: Destination array was not long enough. Check destIndex and length, and the array's lower bounds. What could be causing the errors? Is this a .Net bug? Is there something I can do to prevent this from happening? Please try the code for yourself. If you do not get an error, try it a few times. Please also note that you probably will not see any errors using a single-core machine. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Threading.Tasks; namespace ParallelTest { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { List<int> intList = new List<int>(); List<double> doubleList = new List<double>(); for (int i = 0; i < 250; i++) { intList.Clear(); doubleList.Clear(); for (int j = 0; j < 10000; j++) { intList.Add(j % 10); } Parallel.For(0, intList.Count, j => { if (intList[j] == 0) { doubleList.Add(0.0); } }); if (doubleList.Count != 1000) { Console.WriteLine("On iteration " + i + ": List size = " + doubleList.Count); } } Console.WriteLine("\nPress any key to exit."); Console.ReadKey(); } } }

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  • I can't Open my excel file in c#

    - by Ruben Guico
    Hi, Below is my code, i tried to open my excel file in my c# application but the program give's me an error message "Cannot Access "my excel.xls". But when I specify the file path in my string path variable it works, the problem is I need to get the file path from an openFileDialog. using System; using System.IO; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Text; using System.Data; using System.Windows.Forms; using System.Data.OleDb; using System.Reflection; using MOIE = Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel; using OFFICE = Microsoft.Office.Core; namespace EmpUploader { public class ExcelCon { private OleDbDataReader reader = null; private OleDbCommand excelCommand = new OleDbCommand(); private OleDbDataAdapter adapter = new OleDbDataAdapter(); private DataTable excelData = new DataTable(); private MOIE.ApplicationClass objExcel = new MOIE.ApplicationClass(); private MOIE.Workbook wb = null; private string myConn = ""; private string strSQL = ""; private string err = ""; private string path2 = ""; private int sheetCount = 0; private OleDbConnection Con = new OleDbConnection(""); #region "excel interop prarameters" private static object xl_missing = Type.Missing; private static object xl_true = true; private static object xl_false = false; private object xl_update_links = xl_missing; private object xl_read_only = xl_missing; private object xl_format = xl_missing; private object xl_password = xl_missing; private object xl_write_res_password = xl_missing; private object xl_ignore_read_only = xl_missing; private object xl_origin = xl_missing; private object xl_delimiter = xl_missing; private object xl_editable = xl_missing; private object xl_notify = xl_missing; private object xl_converter = xl_missing; private object xl_add_to_mru = xl_missing; private object xl_local = xl_missing; private object xl_corrupt_load = xl_missing; #endregion } //MY CODE FOR OPENING THE EXCEL //note that my file path came from an openfiledialog public void InitializeConnection(string path) { //connection string for excel myConn = @"Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0; Data Source=" + path + "; Extended Properties =Excel 8.0"; Con.ConnectionString = myConn; Con.Open(); //this is the sample specified path that worked when i test my application //path = @"C:\shinetsu p5 emp list.xls"; objExcel.Visible = false; wb = objExcel.Workbooks.Open(path, xl_update_links, xl_read_only, xl_format, xl_password, xl_write_res_password, xl_ignore_read_only, xl_origin, xl_delimiter, xl_editable, xl_notify, xl_converter, xl_add_to_mru, xl_local, xl_corrupt_load); sheetCount = wb.Worksheets.Count; } }

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  • Selecting one row when working with typed datasets.

    - by Wodzu
    I have a typed dataset in my project. I would like to populate a datatable with only one row instead of all rows. The selected row must be based on the primary key column. I know I could modify the designer code to achive this functionality however if I change the code in the designer I risk that this code will be deleted when I update my datased via designer in the future. So I wanted to alter the SelectCommand not in the designer but just before firing up MyTypedTableAdapter.Fill method. The strange thing is that the designer does not create a SelectCommand! It creates all other commands but not this one. If it would create SelectCommand I could alter it in this way: this.operatorzyTableAdapter.Adapter.SelectCommand.CommandText += " WHERE MyColumn = 1"; It is far from perfection but atleast I would not have to modify the designer's work. unfortunately as I said earlier the SelectCommand is not created. Instead designer creates something like this: [global::System.Diagnostics.DebuggerNonUserCodeAttribute()] private void InitCommandCollection() { this._commandCollection = new global::System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand[1]; this._commandCollection[0] = new global::System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand(); this._commandCollection[0].Connection = this.Connection; this._commandCollection[0].CommandText = "SELECT Ope_OpeID, Ope_Kod, Ope_Haslo, Ope_Imie, Ope_Nazwisko FROM dbo.Operatorzy"; this._commandCollection[0].CommandType = global::System.Data.CommandType.Text; } It doesn't make sense in my opinion. Why to create UpdateCommand, InsertCommand and DeleteCommand but do not create SelectCommand? I could bear with this but this._commandCollection is private so I cannot acces it outside of the class code. I don't know how to get into this collection without changing the designer's code. The idea which I have is to expose the collection via partial class definition. However I want to introduce many typed datasets and I really don't want to create partial class definition for each of them. Please note that I am using .NET 3.5. I've found this article about accessing private properties but it concerns .NET 4.0 Thanks for your time.

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  • java timer on current instance

    - by hspim
    import java.util.Scanner; import java.util.Timer; import java.util.TimerTask; public class Boggle { Board board; Player player; Timer timer; boolean active; static Scanner in = new Scanner(System.in); public Boggle() { board = new Board(4); timer = new Timer(); } public void newGame() { System.out.println("Please enter your name: "); String line = in.nextLine(); player = new Player(line); active = true; board.shuffle(); System.out.println(board); timer.schedule(new timesUP(), 20000); while(active) { String temp = in.nextLine(); player.addGuess(temp); } } public void endGame() { active = false; int score = Scoring.calculate(player, board); System.out.println(score); } class timesUP extends TimerTask { public void run() { endGame(); } } public static void main(String[] args) { Boggle boggle = new Boggle(); boggle.newGame(); } } I have the above class which should perform a loop for a given length of time and afterwards invoke an instance method. Essentially I need the loop in newGame() to run for a minute or so before endGame() is invoked on the current instance. However, using the Timer class I'm not sure how I would invoke the method I need on the current instance since I can't pass any parameters to the timertasks run method? Is there an easy way to do this or am I going about this the wrong way? (note: this is a console project only, no GUI) ========== code edited I've changed the code to the above following the recommendations, and it works almost as I expect however the thread still doesnt seem to end properly. I was the while loop would die and control would eventually come back to the main method. Any ideas?

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  • Mocking a concrete class : templates and avoiding conditional compilation

    - by AshirusNW
    I'm trying to testing a concrete object with this sort of structure. class Database { public: Database(Server server) : server_(server) {} int Query(const char* expression) { server_.Connect(); return server_.ExecuteQuery(); } private: Server server_; }; i.e. it has no virtual functions, let alone a well-defined interface. I want to a fake database which calls mock services for testing. Even worse, I want the same code to be either built against the real version or the fake so that the same testing code can both: Test the real Database implementation - for integration tests Test the fake implementation, which calls mock services To solve this, I'm using a templated fake, like this: #ifndef INTEGRATION_TESTS class FakeDatabase { public: FakeDatabase() : realDb_(mockServer_) {} int Query(const char* expression) { MOCK_EXPECT_CALL(mockServer_, Query, 3); return realDb_.Query(); } private: // in non-INTEGRATION_TESTS builds, Server is a mock Server with // extra testing methods that allows mocking Server mockServer_; Database realDb_; }; #endif template <class T> class TestDatabaseContainer { public: int Query(const char* expression) { int result = database_.Query(expression); std::cout << "LOG: " << result << endl; return result; } private: T database_; }; Edit: Note the fake Database must call the real Database (but with a mock Server). Now to switch between them I'm planning the following test framework: class DatabaseTests { public: #ifdef INTEGRATION_TESTS typedef TestDatabaseContainer<Database> TestDatabase ; #else typedef TestDatabaseContainer<FakeDatabase> TestDatabase ; #endif TestDatabase& GetDb() { return _testDatabase; } private: TestDatabase _testDatabase; }; class QueryTestCase : public DatabaseTests { public: void TestStep1() { ASSERT(GetDb().Query(static_cast<const char *>("")) == 3); return; } }; I'm not a big fan of that compile-time switching between the real and the fake. So, my question is: Whether there's a better way of switching between Database and FakeDatabase? For instance, is it possible to do it at runtime in a clean fashion? I like to avoid #ifdefs. Also, if anyone has a better way of making a fake class that mimics a concrete class, I'd appreciate it. I don't want to have templated code all over the actual test code (QueryTestCase class). Feel free to critique the code style itself, too. You can see a compiled version of this code on codepad.

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  • Login function runs different between local and server

    - by quangnd
    Here is my check login function: protected bool checkLoginStatus(String email, String password) { bool loginStatus = false; bool status = false; try { Connector.openConn(); String str = "SELECT * FROM [User]"; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(str, Connector.conn); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); da.Fill(ds, "tblUser"); //check valid foreach (DataRow dr in ds.Tables[0].Rows) { if (email == dr["Email"].ToString() && password == Connector.base64Decode(dr["Password"].ToString())) { Session["login_status"] = true; Session["username"] = dr["Name"].ToString(); Session["userId"] = dr["UserId"].ToString(); status = true; break; } } } catch (Exception ex) { } finally { Connector.closeConn(); } return status; } And call it at my aspx page: String email = Login1.UserName.Trim(); String password = Login1.Password.Trim(); if (checkLoginStatus(email, password)) Response.Redirect(homeSite); else lblFailure.Text = "Invalid!"; I ran this page at localhost successful! When I published it to server, this function only can run if email and password correct! Other, error occured: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) I tried open SQL Server 2008 Configuration Manager and enable SQL Server Browser service (Logon as:NT Authority/Local Service) but it stills error. (note: here is connection string of openConn() at Localhost (run on SQLEXpress 2005) connectionString="Data Source=MYLAPTOP\SQLEXPRESS;Initial Catalog=Spider_Vcms;Integrated Security=True" /> ) At server (run on SQL Server Enterprise 2008) connectionString="Data Source=SVR;Initial Catalog=Spider_Vcms;User Id=abc;password=123456;" /> anyone have an answer for my problem :( thanks a lot!

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  • Performance tuning of a Hibernate+Spring+MySQL project operation that stores images uploaded by user

    - by Umar
    Hi I am working on a web project that is Spring+Hibernate+MySQL based. I am stuck at a point where I have to store images uploaded by a user into the database. Although I have written some code that works well for now, but I believe that things will mess up when the project would go live. Here's my domain class that carries the image bytes: @Entity public class Picture implements java.io.Serializable{ long id; byte[] data; ... // getters and setters } And here's my controller that saves the file on submit: public class PictureUploadFormController extends AbstractBaseFormController{ ... protected ModelAndView onSubmit(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response, Object command, BindException errors) throws Exception{ MutlipartFile file; // getting MultipartFile from the command object ... // beginning hibernate transaction ... Picture p=new Picture(); p.setData(file.getBytes()); pictureDAO.makePersistent(p); // this method simply calls getSession().saveOrUpdate(p) // committing hiernate transaction ... } ... } Obviously a bad piece of code. Is there anyway I could use InputStream or Blob to save the data, instead of first loading all the bytes from the user into the memory and then pushing them into the database? I did some research on hibernate's support for Blob, and found this in Hibernate In Action book: java.sql.Blob and java.sql.Clob are the most efficient way to handle large objects in Java. Unfortunately, an instance of Blob or Clob is only useable until the JDBC transaction completes. So if your persistent class defines a property of java.sql.Clob or java.sql.Blob (not a good idea anyway), you’ll be restricted in how instances of the class may be used. In particular, you won’t be able to use instances of that class as detached objects. Furthermore, many JDBC drivers don’t feature working support for java.sql.Blob and java.sql.Clob. Therefore, it makes more sense to map large objects using the binary or text mapping type, assuming retrieval of the entire large object into memory isn’t a performance killer. Note you can find up-to-date design patterns and tips for large object usage on the Hibernate website, with tricks for particular platforms. Now apparently the Blob cannot be used, as it is not a good idea anyway, what else could be used to improve the performance? I couldn't find any up-to-date design pattern or any useful information on Hibernate website. So any help/recommendations from stackoverflowers will be much appreciated. Thanks

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  • Correct way to make datasources/resources a deploy-time setting

    - by Draemon
    I have a web-app that requires two settings: A JDBC datasource A string token I desperately want to be able to deploy one .war to various different containers (jetty,tomcat,gf3 minimum) and configure these settings at application level within the container. My code does this: InitialContext ctx = new InitialContext(); Context envCtx = (javax.naming.Context) ctx.lookup("java:comp/env"); token = (String)envCtx.lookup("token"); ds = (DataSource)envCtx.lookup("jdbc/datasource") Let's assume I've used the glassfish management interface to create two jdbc resources: jdbc/test-datasource and jdbc/live-datasource which connect to different copies of the same schema, on different servers, different credentials etc. Say I want to deploy this to glassfish with and point it at the test datasource, I might have this in my sun-web.xml: ... <resource-ref> <res-ref-name>jdbc/datasource</res-ref-name> <jndi-name>jdbc/test-datasource</jndi-name> </resource-ref> ... but sun-web.xml goes inside my war, right? surely there must be a way to do this through the management interface Am I even trying to do the right thing? Do other containers make this any easier? I'd be particularly interested in how jetty 7 handles this since I use it for development. EDIT Tomcat has a reasonable way to do this: Create $TOMCAT_HOME/conf/Catalina/localhost/webapp.xml with: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <Context antiResourceLocking="false" privileged="true"> <!-- String resource --> <Environment name="token" value="value of token" type="java.lang.String" override="false" /> <!-- Linking to a global resource --> <ResourceLink name="jdbc/datasource1" global="jdbc/test" type="javax.sql.DataSource" /> <!-- Derby --> <Resource name="jdbc/datasource2" type="javax.sql.DataSource" auth="Container" driverClassName="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDataSource" url="jdbc:derby:test;create=true" /> <!-- H2 --> <Resource name="jdbc/datasource3" type="javax.sql.DataSource" auth="Container" driverClassName="org.h2.jdbcx.JdbcDataSource" url="jdbc:h2:~/test" username="sa" password="" /> </Context> Note that override="false" means the opposite. It means that this setting can't be overriden by web.xml. I like this approach because the file is part of the container configuration not the war, but it's not part of the global configuration; it's webapp specific. I guess I expect a bit more from glassfish since it is supposed to have a full web admin interface, but I would be happy enough with something equivalent to the above.

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