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  • Is there a recommended approach to handle saving data in response to within-site navigation without

    - by Carvell Fenton
    Hello all, Preamble to scope my question: I have a web app (or site, this is an internal LAN site) that uses jQuery and AJAX extensively to dynamically load the content section of the UI in the browser. A user navigates the app using a navigation menu. Clicking an item in the navigation menu makes an AJAX call to php, and php then returns the content that is used to populate the central content section. One of the pages served back by php has a table form, set up like a spreadsheet, that the user enters values into. This table is always kept in sync with data in the database. So, when the table is created, is it populated with the relevant database data. Then when the user makes a change in a "cell", that change immediately is written back to the database so the table and database are always in sync. This approach was take to reassure users that the data they entered has been saved (long story...), and to alleviate them from having to click a save button of some kind. So, this always in sync idea is great, except that a user can enter a value in a cell, not take focus out of the cell, and then take any number of actions that would cause that last value to be lost: e.g. navigate to another section of the site via the navigation menu, log out of the app, close the browser, etc. End of preamble, on to the issue: I initially thought that wasn't a problem, because I would just track what data was "dirty" or not saved, and then in the onunload event I would do a final write to the database. Herein lies the rub: because of my clever (or not so clever, not sure) use of AJAX and dynamically loading the content section, the user never actually leaves the original url, or page, when the above actions are taken, with the exception of closing the browser. Therefore, the onunload event does not fire, and I am back to losing the last data again. My question, is there a recommended way to handle figuring out if a person is navigating away from a "section" of your app when content is dynamically loaded this way? I can come up with a solution I think, that involves globals and tracking the currently viewed page, but I thought I would check if there might be a more elegant solution out there, or a change I could make in my design, that would make this work. Thanks in advance as always!

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  • How can I edit an entity in MVC4 with EF5 which has a unique constraint?

    - by Yoeri
    [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Car car) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { db.Entry(car).State = EntityState.Modified; db.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } return View(car); } This is a controller method scaffolded by MCV 4 My "car" entity has a unique field: LicensePlate. I have custom validation on my Entity: Validation: public partial class Car { partial void ValidateObject(ref List<ValidationResult> validationResults) { using (var db = new GarageIncEntities()) { if (db.Cars.Any(c => c.LicensePlate.Equals(this.LicensePlate))) { validationResults.Add( new ValidationResult("This licenseplate already exists.", new string[]{"LicensePlate"})); } } } } should it be usefull, my car entity: public partial class Car:IValidatableObject { public int Id { get; set; } public string Color { get; set; } public int Weight { get; set; } public decimal Price { get; set; } public string LicensePlate { get; set; } public System.DateTime DateOfSale { get; set; } public int Type_Id { get; set; } public int Fuel_Id { get; set; } public virtual CarType Type { get; set; } public virtual Fuel Fuel { get; set; } public IEnumerable<ValidationResult> Validate(ValidationContext validationContext) { var result = new List<ValidationResult>(); ValidateObject(ref result); return result; } partial void ValidateObject(ref List<ValidationResult> validationResults); } QUESTION: Everytime I edit a car, it raises an error: Validation failed for one or more entities. See 'EntityValidationErrors' property for more details. The error is the one raised by my validation, saying it can't edit because there is already a car with that license plate. If anyone could point me in the right direction to fix this, that would be great! I searched but couldn't find anything, so even related posts are welcome!

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  • Emulating Button Press Using Kinect/SimpleOpenNI + Processing Depth

    - by Alex Lu
    I am using Kinect with Simple OpenNI and Processing, and I was trying to use the Z position of a hand to emulate a button press. So far when I try it using one hand it works really well, however, when I try to get it to work with a second hand, only one of the hands work. (I know it can be more efficient by moving everything except the fill out of the if statements, but I kept those in there just in case I want to change the sizes or something.) irz and ilz are the initial Z positions of the hands when they are first recognized by onCreateHands and rz and lz are the current Z positions. As of now, the code works fine with one hand, but the other hand will either stay pressed or unpressed. If i comment one of the sections out, it works fine as well. if (rz - irz > 0) { pushStyle(); fill(60); ellipse(rx, ry, 10, 10); popStyle(); rpressed = true; } else { pushStyle(); noFill(); ellipse(rx, ry, 10, 10); popStyle(); rpressed = false; } if (lz - ilz > 0) { pushStyle(); fill(60); ellipse(lx, ly, 10, 10); popStyle(); lpressed = true; } else { pushStyle(); noFill(); ellipse(lx, ly, 10, 10); popStyle(); lpressed = false; } I tried outputting the values of rz - irz and lz - ilz and the numbers range from small negative values to small positive values (around -8 to 8) for lz - ilz. But rz - irz outputs numbers from around 8-30 depending on each time I run it and is never consistent. Also, when I comment out the code for the lz-ilz, the values for rz-irz look just fine and it operates as intended. Is there a reason tracking both Z positions throws off one hand? And is there a way to get it to work? Thanks!

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  • Is Abstract Factory Pattern implemented correctly for given scenario.... ???

    - by Amit
    First thing... I am novice to pattern world, so correct me if wrong anywhere Scenario: There are multiple companies providing multiple products of diff size so there are 3 entities i.e. Companies, Their Product and size of product I have implement Abstract Pattern on this i.e. so that I will create instance of IProductFactory interface to get desired product... Is below implementation of Abstract Factory Pattern correct ??? If not then please correct the approach + Also tell me if any other pattern can be used for such scenario Thanks in advance... public enum Companies { Samsung = 0, LG = 1, Philips = 2, Sony = 3 } public enum Product { PlasmaTv = 0, DVD = 1 } public enum ProductSize { FortyTwoInch, FiftyFiveInch } interface IProductFactory { IPhilips GetPhilipsProduct(); ISony GetSonyProduct(); } interface ISony { string CreateProducts(Product product, ProductSize size); } interface IPhilips { string CreateProducts(Product product, ProductSize size); } class ProductFactory : IProductFactory { public IPhilips GetPhilipsProduct() { return new Philips(); } public ISony GetSonyProduct() { return new Sony(); } } class Philips : IPhilips { #region IPhilips Members public string CreateProducts(Product product, ProductSize size) {// I have ingnore size for now.... string output = string.Empty; if (product == Product.PlasmaTv) { output = "Plasma TV Created !!!"; } else if (product == Product.DVD) { output = "DVD Created !!!"; } return output; } #endregion } class Sony : ISony {// I have ingnore size for now.... #region ISony Members public string CreateProducts(Product product, ProductSize size) { string output = string.Empty; if (product == Product.PlasmaTv) { output = "Plasma TV Created !!!"; } else if (product == Product.DVD) { output = "DVD Created !!!"; } return output; } #endregion } IProductFactory prodFactory = new ProductFactory(); IPhilips philipsObj = prodFactory.GetPhilipsProduct(); MessageBox.Show(philipsObj.CreateProducts(Product.DVD, ProductSize.FortyTwoInch)); or //ISony sonyObj = prodFactory.GetSonyProduct(); //MessageBox.Show(sonyObj.CreateProducts(Product.DVD, ProductSize.FortyTwoInch));

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  • How to cache queries in EJB and return result efficient (performance POV)

    - by Maxym
    I use JBoss EJB 3.0 implementation (JBoss 4.2.3 server) At the beginning I created native query all the time using construction like Query query = entityManager.createNativeQuery("select * from _table_"); Of couse it is not that efficient, I performed some tests and found out that it really takes a lot of time... Then I found a better way to deal with it, to use annotation to define native queries: @NamedNativeQuery( name = "fetchData", value = "select * from _table_", resultClass=Entity.class ) and then just use it Query query = entityManager.createNamedQuery("fetchData"); the performance of code line above is two times better than where I started from, but still not that good as I expected... then I found that I can switch to Hibernate annotation for NamedNativeQuery (anyway, JBoss's implementation of EJB is based on Hibernate), and add one more thing: @NamedNativeQuery( name = "fetchData2", value = "select * from _table_", resultClass=Entity.class, readOnly=true) readOnly - marks whether the results are fetched in read-only mode or not. It sounds good, because at least in this case of mine I don't need to update data, I wanna just fetch it for report. When I started server to measure performance I noticed that query without readOnly=true (by default it is false) returns result with each iteration better and better, and at the same time another one (fetchData2) works like "stable" and with time difference between them is shorter and shorter, and after 5 iterations speed of both was almost the same... The questions are: 1) is there any other way to speed query using up? Seems that named queries should be prepared once, but I can't say it... In fact if to create query once and then just use it it would be better from performance point of view, but it is problematic to cache this object, because after creating query I can set parameters (when I use ":variable" in query), and it changes query object (isn't it?). well, is here any way to cache them? Or named query is the best option I can use? 2) any other approaches how to make results retrieveng faster. I mean, for instance I don't need those Entities to be attached, I won't update them, all I need is just fetch collection of data. Maybe readOnly is the only available way, so I can't speed it up, but who knows :) P.S. I don't ask about DB performance, all I need now is how not to create query all the time, so use it efficient, and to "allow" EJB to do less job with the same result concerning data returning.

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  • Hierarchy inheritance

    - by reito
    I had faced the problem. In my C++ hierarchy tree I have two branches for entities of difference nature, but same behavior - same interface. I created such hierarchy trees (first in image below). And now I want to work with Item or Base classes independetly of their nature (first or second). Then I create one abstract branch for this use. My mind build (second in image below). But it not working. Working scheme seems (third in image below). It's bad logic, I think... Do anybody have some ideas about such hierarchy inheritance? How make it more logical? More simple for understanding? Image Sorry for my english - russian internet didn't help:) Update: You ask me to be more explicit, and I will be. In my project (plugins for Adobe Framemaker) I need to work with dialogs and GUI controls. In some places I working with WinAPI controls, and some other places with FDK (internal Framemaker) controls, but I want to work throw same interface. I can't use one base class and inherite others from it, because all needed controls - is a hierarchy tree (not one class). So I have one hierarchy tree for WinAPI controls, one for FDK and one abstract tree to use anyone control. For example, there is an Edit control (WinEdit and FdkEdit realization), a Button control (WinButton and FdkButton realization) and base entity - Control (WinControl and FdkControl realization). For now I can link my classes in realization trees (Win and Fdk) with inheritence between each of them (WinControl is base class for WinButton and WinEdit; FdkControl is base class for FdkButton and FdkEdit). And I can link to abstract classes (Control is base class for WinControl and FdkControl; Edit is base class for WinEdit and FdkEdit; Button is base class for WinButton and FdkButton). But I can't link my abstract tree - compiler swears. In fact I have two hierarchy trees, that I want to inherite from another one. Update: I have done this quest! :) I used the virtual inheritence and get such scheme (http://img12.imageshack.us/img12/7782/99614779.png). Abstract tree has only absolute abstract methods. All inheritence in abstract tree are virtual. Link from realization tree to abstract are virtual. On image shown only one realization tree for simplicity. Thanks for help!

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  • How to create an entity with a composite primary key containing a generated value.

    - by David
    Using Hibernate + annotations, I'm trying to do the following: Two entities, Entity1 and Entity2. Entity1 contains a simple generated value primary key. Entity2 primary key is composed by a simple generated value + the id of entity one (with a many to one relationship) Unfortunately, I can't make it work. Here is an excerpt of the code: @Entity public class Entity1 { @Id @GeneratedValue private Long id; private String name; ... } @Entity public class Entity2 { @EmbeddedId private Entity2PK pk = new Entity2PK(); private String miscData; ... } @Embeddable public class Entity2PK implements Serializable { @GeneratedValue private Long id; @ManyToOne private Entity1 entity; } void test() { Entity1 e1 = new Entity1(); e1.setName("nameE1"); Entity2 e2 = new Entity2(); e2.setEntity1(e1); e2.setMiscData("test"); Transaction transaction = session.getTransaction(); try { transaction.begin(); session.save(e1); session.save(e2); transaction.commit(); } catch (Exception e) { transaction.rollback(); } finally { session.close(); } } When I run the test method I get the following errors: Hibernate: insert into Entity1 (id, name) values (null, ?) Hibernate: call identity() Hibernate: insert into Entity2 (miscData, entity_id, id) values (?, ?, ?) 07-Jun-2010 10:51:11 org.hibernate.util.JDBCExceptionReporter logExceptions WARNING: SQL Error: 0, SQLState: null 07-Jun-2010 10:51:11 org.hibernate.util.JDBCExceptionReporter logExceptions SEVERE: failed batch 07-Jun-2010 10:51:11 org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractFlushingEventListener performExecutions SEVERE: Could not synchronize database state with session org.hibernate.exception.GenericJDBCException: Could not execute JDBC batch update at org.hibernate.exception.SQLStateConverter.handledNonSpecificException(SQLStateConverter.java:103) at org.hibernate.exception.SQLStateConverter.convert(SQLStateConverter.java:91) at org.hibernate.exception.JDBCExceptionHelper.convert(JDBCExceptionHelper.java:43) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.executeBatch(AbstractBatcher.java:254) at org.hibernate.engine.ActionQueue.executeActions(ActionQueue.java:266) at org.hibernate.engine.ActionQueue.executeActions(ActionQueue.java:167) at org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractFlushingEventListener.performExecutions(AbstractFlushingEventListener.java:298) at org.hibernate.event.def.DefaultFlushEventListener.onFlush(DefaultFlushEventListener.java:27) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.flush(SessionImpl.java:1001) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.managedFlush(SessionImpl.java:339) at org.hibernate.transaction.JDBCTransaction.commit(JDBCTransaction.java:106) at test.App.main(App.java:32) Caused by: java.sql.BatchUpdateException: failed batch at org.hsqldb.jdbc.jdbcStatement.executeBatch(Unknown Source) at org.hsqldb.jdbc.jdbcPreparedStatement.executeBatch(Unknown Source) at org.hibernate.jdbc.BatchingBatcher.doExecuteBatch(BatchingBatcher.java:48) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.executeBatch(AbstractBatcher.java:247) ... 8 more Note that I use HSQLDB. Any ideas about what is wrong ?

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  • Refactoring Singleton Overuse

    - by drharris
    Today I had an epiphany, and it was that I was doing everything wrong. Some history: I inherited a C# application, which was really just a collection of static methods, a completely procedural mess of C# code. I refactored this the best I knew at the time, bringing in lots of post-college OOP knowledge. To make a long story short, many of the entities in code have turned out to be Singletons. Today I realized I needed 3 new classes, which would each follow the same Singleton pattern to match the rest of the software. If I keep tumbling down this slippery slope, eventually every class in my application will be Singleton, which will really be no logically different from the original group of static methods. I need help on rethinking this. I know about Dependency Injection, and that would generally be the strategy to use in breaking the Singleton curse. However, I have a few specific questions related to this refactoring, and all about best practices for doing so. How acceptable is the use of static variables to encapsulate configuration information? I have a brain block on using static, and I think it is due to an early OO class in college where the professor said static was bad. But, should I have to reconfigure the class every time I access it? When accessing hardware, is it ok to leave a static pointer to the addresses and variables needed, or should I continually perform Open() and Close() operations? Right now I have a single method acting as the controller. Specifically, I continually poll several external instruments (via hardware drivers) for data. Should this type of controller be the way to go, or should I spawn separate threads for each instrument at the program's startup? If the latter, how do I make this object oriented? Should I create classes called InstrumentAListener and InstrumentBListener? Or is there some standard way to approach this? Is there a better way to do global configuration? Right now I simply have Configuration.Instance.Foo sprinkled liberally throughout the code. Almost every class uses it, so perhaps keeping it as a Singleton makes sense. Any thoughts? A lot of my classes are things like SerialPortWriter or DataFileWriter, which must sit around waiting for this data to stream in. Since they are active the entire time, how should I arrange these in order to listen for the events generated when data comes in? Any other resources, books, or comments about how to get away from Singletons and other pattern overuse would be helpful.

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  • SQL Server architecture guidance

    - by Liam
    Hi, We are designing a new version of our existing product on a new schema. Its an internal web application with possibly 100 concurrent users (max)This will run on a SQL Server 2008 database. On of the discussion items recently is whether we should have a single database of split the database for performance reasons across 2 separate databases. The database could grow anywhere from 50-100GB over 5 years. We are Developers and not DBAs so it would be nice to get some general guidance. [I know the answer is not simple as it depends on the schema, archiving policy, amount of data etc. ] Option 1 Single Main Database [This is my preferred option]. The plan would be to have all the tables in a single database and possibly to use file groups and partitioning to separate the data if required across multiple disks. [Use schema if appropriate]. This should deal with the performance concerns One of the comments wrt this was that the a single server instance would still be processing this data so there would still be a processing bottle neck. For reporting we could have a separate reporting DB but this is still being discussed. Option 2 Split the database into 2 separate databases DB1 - Customers, Accounts, Customer resources etc DB2 - This would contain the bulk of the data [i.e. Vehicle tracking data, financial transaction tables etc]. These tables would typically contain a lot of data. [It could reside on a separate server if required] This plan would involve keeping the main data in a smaller database [DB1] and retaining the [mainly] read only transaction type data in a separate DB [DB2]. The UI would mainly read from DB1 and thus be more responsive. [I'm aware that this option makes it harder for Referential Integrity to be enforced.] Points for consideration As we are at the design stage we can at least make proper use of indexes to deal performance issues so thats why option 1 to me is attractive and its more of a standard approach. For both options we are considering implementing an archiving database. Apologies for the long Question. In summary the question is 1 DB or 2? Thanks in advance, Liam

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  • Matlab code works with one version but not the other

    - by user1325655
    I have a code that works in Matlab version R2010a but shows errors in matlab R2008a. I am trying to implement a self organizing fuzzy neural network with extended kalman filter. I have the code running but it only works in matlab version R2010a. It doesn't work with other versions. Any help? Code attach function [ c, sigma , W_output ] = SOFNN( X, d, Kd ) %SOFNN Self-Organizing Fuzzy Neural Networks %Input Parameters % X(r,n) - rth traning data from nth observation % d(n) - the desired output of the network (must be a row vector) % Kd(r) - predefined distance threshold for the rth input %Output Parameters % c(IndexInputVariable,IndexNeuron) % sigma(IndexInputVariable,IndexNeuron) % W_output is a vector %Setting up Parameters for SOFNN SigmaZero=4; delta=0.12; threshold=0.1354; k_sigma=1.12; %For more accurate results uncomment the following %format long; %Implementation of a SOFNN model [size_R,size_N]=size(X); %size_R - the number of input variables c=[]; sigma=[]; W_output=[]; u=0; % the number of neurons in the structure Q=[]; O=[]; Psi=[]; for n=1:size_N x=X(:,n); if u==0 % No neuron in the structure? c=x; sigma=SigmaZero*ones(size_R,1); u=1; Psi=GetMePsi(X,c,sigma); [Q,O] = UpdateStructure(X,Psi,d); pT_n=GetMeGreatPsi(x,Psi(n,:))'; else [Q,O,pT_n] = UpdateStructureRecursively(X,Psi,Q,O,d,n); end; KeepSpinning=true; while KeepSpinning %Calculate the error and if-part criteria ae=abs(d(n)-pT_n*O); %approximation error [phi,~]=GetMePhi(x,c,sigma); [maxphi,maxindex]=max(phi); % maxindex refers to the neuron's index if ae>delta if maxphi<threshold %enlarge width [minsigma,minindex]=min(sigma(:,maxindex)); sigma(minindex,maxindex)=k_sigma*minsigma; Psi=GetMePsi(X,c,sigma); [Q,O] = UpdateStructure(X,Psi,d); pT_n=GetMeGreatPsi(x,Psi(n,:))'; else %Add a new neuron and update structure ctemp=[]; sigmatemp=[]; dist=0; for r=1:size_R dist=abs(x(r)-c(r,1)); distIndex=1; for j=2:u if abs(x(r)-c(r,j))<dist distIndex=j; dist=abs(x(r)-c(r,j)); end; end; if dist<=Kd(r) ctemp=[ctemp; c(r,distIndex)]; sigmatemp=[sigmatemp ; sigma(r,distIndex)]; else ctemp=[ctemp; x(r)]; sigmatemp=[sigmatemp ; dist]; end; end; c=[c ctemp]; sigma=[sigma sigmatemp]; Psi=GetMePsi(X,c,sigma); [Q,O] = UpdateStructure(X,Psi,d); KeepSpinning=false; u=u+1; end; else if maxphi<threshold %enlarge width [minsigma,minindex]=min(sigma(:,maxindex)); sigma(minindex,maxindex)=k_sigma*minsigma; Psi=GetMePsi(X,c,sigma); [Q,O] = UpdateStructure(X,Psi,d); pT_n=GetMeGreatPsi(x,Psi(n,:))'; else %Do nothing and exit the while KeepSpinning=false; end; end; end; end; W_output=O; end function [Q_next, O_next,pT_n] = UpdateStructureRecursively(X,Psi,Q,O,d,n) %O=O(t-1) O_next=O(t) p_n=GetMeGreatPsi(X(:,n),Psi(n,:)); pT_n=p_n'; ee=abs(d(n)-pT_n*O); %|e(t)| temp=1+pT_n*Q*p_n; ae=abs(ee/temp); if ee>=ae L=Q*p_n*(temp)^(-1); Q_next=(eye(length(Q))-L*pT_n)*Q; O_next=O + L*ee; else Q_next=eye(length(Q))*Q; O_next=O; end; end function [ Q , O ] = UpdateStructure(X,Psi,d) GreatPsiBig = GetMeGreatPsi(X,Psi); %M=u*(r+1) %n - the number of observations [M,~]=size(GreatPsiBig); %Others Ways of getting Q=[P^T(t)*P(t)]^-1 %************************************************************************** %opts.SYM = true; %Q = linsolve(GreatPsiBig*GreatPsiBig',eye(M),opts); % %Q = inv(GreatPsiBig*GreatPsiBig'); %Q = pinv(GreatPsiBig*GreatPsiBig'); %************************************************************************** Y=GreatPsiBig\eye(M); Q=GreatPsiBig'\Y; O=Q*GreatPsiBig*d'; end %This function works too with x % (X=X and Psi is a Matrix) - Gets you the whole GreatPsi % (X=x and Psi is the row related to x) - Gets you just the column related with the observation function [GreatPsi] = GetMeGreatPsi(X,Psi) %Psi - In a row you go through the neurons and in a column you go through number of %observations **** Psi(#obs,IndexNeuron) **** GreatPsi=[]; [N,U]=size(Psi); for n=1:N x=X(:,n); GreatPsiCol=[]; for u=1:U GreatPsiCol=[ GreatPsiCol ; Psi(n,u)*[1; x] ]; end; GreatPsi=[GreatPsi GreatPsiCol]; end; end function [phi, SumPhi]=GetMePhi(x,c,sigma) [r,u]=size(c); %u - the number of neurons in the structure %r - the number of input variables phi=[]; SumPhi=0; for j=1:u % moving through the neurons S=0; for i=1:r % moving through the input variables S = S + ((x(i) - c(i,j))^2) / (2*sigma(i,j)^2); end; phi = [phi exp(-S)]; SumPhi = SumPhi + phi(j); %phi(u)=exp(-S) end; end %This function works too with x, it will give you the row related to x function [Psi] = GetMePsi(X,c,sigma) [~,u]=size(c); [~,size_N]=size(X); %u - the number of neurons in the structure %size_N - the number of observations Psi=[]; for n=1:size_N [phi, SumPhi]=GetMePhi(X(:,n),c,sigma); PsiTemp=[]; for j=1:u %PsiTemp is a row vector ex: [1 2 3] PsiTemp(j)=phi(j)/SumPhi; end; Psi=[Psi; PsiTemp]; %Psi - In a row you go through the neurons and in a column you go through number of %observations **** Psi(#obs,IndexNeuron) **** end; end

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  • Getting field of type bytea in helper table when using GenerationType.IDENTITY

    - by dtrunk
    I'm creating my db scheme using Hibernate. There's a Table called "tbl_articles" and another one called "tbl_categories". To have a n-n relationship a helper table ("tbl_articles_categories") is needed. Here are all necessary Entities: @Entity @Table( name = "tbl_articles" ) public class Article implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Column( nullable = false ) @GeneratedValue( strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY ) private Integer id; // other fields... public Integer getId() { return id; } public void setId( Integer id ) { this.id = id; } // other fields... } @Entity @Table( name = "tbl_categories" ) public class Category implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Column( nullable = false ) @GeneratedValue( strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY ) private Integer id; // other fields public Integer getId() { return id; } public void setId( Integer id ) { this.id = id; } // other fields... } @Entity @Table( name = "tbl_articles_categories" ) @AssociationOverrides({ @AssociationOverride( name = "pk.article", joinColumns = @JoinColumn( name = "article_id" ) ), @AssociationOverride( name = "pk.category", joinColumns = @JoinColumn( name = "category_id" ) ) }) public class ArticleCategory { private ArticleCategoryPK pk = new ArticleCategoryPK(); public void setPk( ArticleCategoryPK pk ) { this.pk = pk; } @EmbeddedId public ArticleCategoryPK getPk() { return pk; } @Transient public Article getArticle() { return pk.getArticle(); } public void setArticle( Article article ) { pk.setArticle( article ); } @Transient public Category getCategory() { return pk.getCategory(); } public void setCategory( Category category ) { pk.setCategory( category ); } } @Embeddable public class ArticleCategoryPK implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @ManyToOne @ForeignKey( name = "tbl_articles_categories_fkey_article_id" ) private Article article; @ManyToOne @ForeignKey( name = "tbl_articles_categories_fkey_category_id" ) private Category category; public ArticleCategoryPK( Article article, Category category ) { setArticle( article ); setCategory( category ); } public ArticleCategoryPK() { } public Article getArticle() { return article; } public void setArticle( Article article ) { this.article = article; } public Category getCategory() { return category; } public void setCategory( Category category ) { this.category = category; } } Now, I'm getting a serial type what I wanted in my articles table as well as in my categories table. But looking into my helper table, there aren't the expected fields article_id and category_id each of type integer - instead there are article and category of type bytea. What's wrong here? EDIT: Sorry, forgot to mention that I'm using PostgreSQL.

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  • Passing ViewModel for backbone.js from MVC3 Server-Side

    - by Roman
    In ASP.NET MVC there is Model, View and Controller. MODEL represents entities which are stored in database and essentially is all the data used in a application (for example, generated by EntityFramework, "DB First" approach). Not all data from model you want to show in the view (for example, hashs of passwords). So you create VIEW MODEL, each for every strongly-typed-razor-view you have in application. Like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace MyProject.ViewModels.SomeController.SomeAction { public class ViewModel { public ViewModel() { Entities1 = new List<ViewEntity1>(); Entities2 = new List<ViewEntity2>(); } public List<ViewEntity1> Entities1 { get; set; } public List<ViewEntity2> Entities2 { get; set; } } public class ViewEntity1 { //some properties from original DB-entity you want to show } public class ViewEntity2 { } } When you create complex client-side interfaces (I do), you use some pattern for javascript on client, MVC or MVVM (I know only these). So, with MVC on client you have another model (Backbone.Model for example), which is third model in application. It is a bit much. Why don`t we use the same ViewModel model on a client (in backbone.js or another framework)? Is there a way to transfer CS-coded model to JS-coded? Like in MVVM pattern, with knockout.js, when you can do like this: in SomeAction.cshtml: <div style="display: none;" id="view_model">@Json.Encode(Model)</div> after that in Javascript-code var ViewModel = ko.mapping.fromJSON($("#view_model").get(0).innerHTML); now you can extend your ViewModel with some actions, event handlers, etc: ko.utils.extend(ViewModel, { some_function: function () { //some code } }); So, we are not building the same view model on the client again, we are transferring existing view model from server. At least, data. But knockout.js is not suitable for me, you can`t build complex UI with it, it is just data-binding. I need something more structural, like backbone.js. The only way to build ViewModel for backbone.js I can see now is re-writing same ViewModel in JS from server with hands. Is there any ways to transfer it from server? To reuse the same viewmodel on server view and client view?

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  • Bug in Safari: options.length = 0; not working as expected in Safari 4

    - by Stefan
    This is not a real question, but rather an answer to save some others the hassle of tracking this nasty bug down. I wasted hours finding this out. When using options.length = 0; to reset all options of a select element in safari, you can get mixed results depending on wether you have the Web Inspector open or not. If the web inspector is open you use myElement.options.length = 0; and after that query the options.length(), you might get back 1 instead of 0 (expected) but only if the Web Inspector is open (which is often the case when debugging problem like this). Workaround: Close the Web Inspector or call myElement.options.length = 0; twice like so: myElement.options.length = 0; myElement.options.length = 0; Testcase: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> <html> <head> <title>Testcase</title> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" charset="utf-8"> function test(el){ var el = document.getElementById("sel"); alert("Before calling options.length=" + el.options.length); el.options.length = 0; alert("After calling options.length=" + el.options.length); } </script> </head> <body onLoad="test();"> <p> Make note of the numbers displayed in the Alert Dialog, then open Web inspector, reload this page and compare the numbers. </p> <select id="sel" multiple> <option label="a----------" value="a"></option> <option label="b----------" value="b"></option> <option label="c----------" value="c"></option> </select> </body> </html>

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  • JPA Database strcture for internationalisation

    - by IrishDubGuy
    I am trying to get a JPA implementation of a simple approach to internationalisation. I want to have a table of translated strings that I can reference in multiple fields in multiple tables. So all text occurrences in all tables will be replaced by a reference to the translated strings table. In combination with a language id, this would give a unique row in the translated strings table for that particular field. For example, consider a schema that has entities Course and Module as follows :- Course int course_id, int name, int description Module int module_id, int name The course.name, course.description and module.name are all referencing the id field of the translated strings table :- TranslatedString int id, String lang, String content That all seems simple enough. I get one table for all strings that could be internationalised and that table is used across all the other tables. How might I do this in JPA, using eclipselink 2.4? I've looked at embedded ElementCollection, ala this... JPA 2.0: Mapping a Map - it isn't exactly what i'm after cos it looks like it is relating the translated strings table to the pk of the owning table. This means I can only have one translatable string field per entity (unless I add new join columns into the translatable strings table, which defeats the point, its the opposite of what I am trying to do). I'm also not clear on how this would work across entites, presumably the id of each entity would have to use a database wide sequence to ensure uniqueness of the translatable strings table. BTW, I tried the example as laid out in that link and it didn't work for me - as soon as the entity had a localizedString map added, persisting it caused the client side to bomb but no obvious error on the server side and nothing persisted in the DB :S I been around the houses on this about 9 hours so far, I've looked at this Internationalization with Hibernate which appears to be trying to do the same thing as the link above (without the table definitions it hard to see what he achieved). Any help would be gratefully achieved at this point... Edit 1 - re AMS anwser below, I'm not sure that really addresses the issue. In his example it leaves the storing of the description text to some other process. The idea of this type of approach is that the entity object takes the text and locale and this (somehow!) ends up in the translatable strings table. In the first link I gave, the guy is attempting to do this by using an embedded map, which I feel is the right approach. His way though has two issues - one it doesn't seem to work! and two if it did work, it is storing the FK in the embedded table instead of the other way round (I think, I can't get it to run so I can't see exactly how it persists). I suspect the correct approach ends up with a map reference in place of each text that needs translating (the map being locale-content), but I can't see how to do this in a way that allows for multiple maps in one entity (without having corresponding multiple columns in the translatable strings table)...

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  • NHibernate - Saving simple parent-child relationship generates unnecessary selects with assigned id

    - by Alice
    Entities: public class Parent { virtual public long Id { get; set; } virtual public string Description { get; set; } virtual public ICollection<Child> Children { get; set; } } public class Child { virtual public long Id { get; set; } virtual public string Description { get; set; } virtual public Parent Parent { get; set; } } Mappings: public class ParentMap : ClassMap<Parent> { public ParentMap() { Id(x => x.Id).GeneratedBy.Assigned(); Map(x => x.Description); HasMany(x => x.Children) .AsSet() .Inverse() .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan(); } } public class ChildMap : ClassMap<Child> { public ChildMap() { Id(x => x.Id).GeneratedBy.Assigned(); Map(x => x.Description); References(x => x.Parent) .Not.Nullable() .Cascade.All(); } } and using (var session = sessionFactory.OpenSession()) using (var transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { var parent = new Parent { Id = 1 }; parent.Children = new HashSet<Child>(); var child1 = new Child { Id = 2, Parent = parent }; var child2 = new Child { Id = 3, Parent = parent }; parent.Children.Add(child1); parent.Children.Add(child2); session.Save(parent); transaction.Commit(); } this codes generates following sql NHibernate: SELECT child_.Id, child_.Description as Descript2_0_, child_.Parent_id as Parent3_0_ FROM [Child] child_ WHERE child_.Id=@p0;@p0 = 2 [Type: Int64 (0)] NHibernate: SELECT child_.Id, child_.Description as Descript2_0_, child_.Parent_id as Parent3_0_ FROM [Child] child_ WHERE child_.Id=@p0;@p0 = 3 [Type: Int64 (0)] NHibernate: INSERT INTO [Parent] (Description, Id) VALUES (@p0, @p1);@p0 = NULL[Type: String (4000)], @p1 = 1 [Type: Int64 (0)] NHibernate: INSERT INTO [Child] (Description, Parent_id, Id) VALUES (@p0, @p1, @p2);@p0 = NULL [Type: String (4000)], @p1 = 1 [Type: Int64 (0)], @p2 = 2 [Type:Int64 (0)] NHibernate: INSERT INTO [Child] (Description, Parent_id, Id) VALUES (@p0, @p1, @p2);@p0 = NULL [Type: String (4000)], @p1 = 1 [Type: Int64 (0)], @p2 = 3 [Type:Int64 (0)] Why are these two selects generated and how can I remove it?

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  • DataGridView live display of datatable using virtual mode

    - by Chris
    I have a DataGridView that will display records (log entries) from a database. The amount of records that can exist at a time is very large. I would like to use the virtual mode feature of the DataGridView to display a page of data, and to minimize the amount of data that has to be transferred across a network at a given time. Polling for data is out of the question. There will be several clients running at a time, all of which are on the same network and viewing the records. If they all poll for data, the network will run very slowly. The data is read-only to the user; they won't be able to edit any of it, just view it. I need to know when updates occur in the database, and I need to update the screen with those updates accordingly using virtual mode. If a page of data a user is viewing contains data that has change, he/she will see those updates on that page. If updates were made to data in the database, but not in the data the user is viewing, then not much really changes on the user screen (Maybe just the scroll bar if records were added or removed). My current approach is using SQL server change tracking with the sync framework. Each client has a local SQL Server CE instance and database file that is kept in sync with the main database server. I use the information from the synchronization event to see if any changes were made to the main database and were sync'ed to the client. I need to use the DataGridView virtual mode here because I can't have thousands of records loaded into the DataGridView at once, otherwise memory usage goes through the roof. The main challenge right now is knowing how to use virtual mode to provide a seamless experience to the user by allowing them to scroll up and down through the records, and also have records update on the fly without interfering with the user inappropriately. Has anybody dealt with this issue before, and if so, where I can see how they did it? I've gone through some of the MSDN documentation and examples on virtual mode. So far, I haven't found documentation and/or examples on their site that explains how to do what I am trying to accomplish.

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  • jquery in ajax loaded content

    - by Kim Gysen
    My application is supposed to be a single page application and I have the following code that works fine: home.php: <div id="container"> </div> accordion.php: //Click functions: load content $('#parents').click(function(){ //Load parent in container $('#container').load('http://www.blabla.com/entities/parents/parents.php'); }); parents.php: <div class="entity_wrapper"> Some divs and selectors </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ //Some jQuery / javascript }); </script> So the content loads fine, while the scripts dynamically loaded execute fine as well. I apply this system repetitively and it continues to work smoothly. I've seen that there are a lot of frameworks available on SPA's (such as backbone.js) but I don't understand why I need them if this works fine. From the backbone.js website: When working on a web application that involves a lot of JavaScript, one of the first things you learn is to stop tying your data to the DOM. It's all too easy to create JavaScript applications that end up as tangled piles of jQuery selectors and callbacks, all trying frantically to keep data in sync between the HTML UI, your JavaScript logic, and the database on your server. For rich client-side applications, a more structured approach is often helpful. Well, I totally don't have the feeling that I'm going through the stuff they mention. Adding the javascript per page works really well for me. They are html containers with clear scope and the javascript is just related to that part. More over, the front end doesn't do that much, most of the logic is managed based on Ajax calls to external PHP scripts. Sometimes the js can be a bit more extended for some functionalities, but all just loads as smooth in less than a second. If you think that this is bad coding, please tell me why I cannot do this and more importantly, what is the alternative I should apply. At the moment, I really don't see a reason on why I would change this approach as it just works too well. I'm kinda stuck on this question because it just worries me sick as it seems to easy to be true. Why would people go through hard times if it would be as easy as this...

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  • Cocoa's newbie question: is it possible to bind a NSTableView's selection to another tableview's selection?

    - by cocoaOverloaded
    http://img651.imageshack.us/img651/6999/modelsf.jpg Let'say, I've 2 entities in the Core Data's Model file, one being all "transactions" ever done by X company. The "transactions" entity has among other properties, a "DATE" property and a to-one relationship "COMPANY"(specifying the company with which X company has done that particular transaction). The other entity:"companies" of course contains all the companies' info ,with which X company has done transaction. The "companies" entity has a to-many relationships "TRANSACTIONS" which is an inverse relationship to "transactions" entity's "COMPANY" relationship. So within IB, I created a NSTableView(with its own NSArrayController) showing all the transactions on a particular Date (with the help of NSPredicate). Then I create another table view showing the to-many relationship "TRANSACTIONS" of the company of the selected transaction in the first table view(which shows transactions on a particular date). The 2nd table view's NSArrayController binding is like this: ** bind to: "name of the first tableview's controller", Controller Key: selection, Model Key Path:COMPANY.TRANSACTIONS(the to-many relationship in the "companies" entity)** Everythings work fine up to this moment, the 2nd tableview shows all the transactions X company has done with the company of the selected transactions in the 1st table view. But I have a group of textfields showing details of a particular transactions. Binding the these textfields with the controller of the 1st table view(the one showing transactions on a particular date) is pretty straightforward. But what I want to do are: 1/ Look up the transactions on a particular date in the first table view, select any one of them 2/ Then, check all previous transactions of the company of that transaction( selected in the first table view) from the 2nd table view 3/ Select any previous transactions and check the details of the transaction from that group of textfields So naturally I should have bind the textfields' gp to the 2nd table view's controller. But I found the default selected row in the 2nd table view(the one show all previous transactions of a company) wasn't the transaction I've selected in the 1st tableView for a particular date. Of course, i can manually select that transaction in the 2nd table view again.... So I just want to know if it's possible to have the 2nd table view automatically select the transaction according to the transaction I've selected in the 1st table view thr binding?? After hours of googling, I solved the problem by implementing the tableview Delegate protocol: - (void)tableViewSelectionDidChange:(NSNotification *)aNotification { if (["nameOf1stTableView" selectedRow] > -1) { NSArray *objsArray = ["nameOf2ndTableView'sController" arrangedObjects]; for (id obj in objsArray) { if ([[obj valueForKey:@"DATE"] isEqualToDate: ["nameOf1stTableView'sController".selection valueForKey:@"DATE"]]) { ["nameOf2ndTableView" selectRowIndexes:[NSIndexSet indexSetWithIndex:[objsArray indexOfObject:obj]] byExtendingSelection:NO]; } } } } But,this just look too cumbersome... can it be done with binding alone? Thanks in Advance,

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  • Cast IEnumerable<Inherited> To IEnumerable<Base>

    - by david2342
    I'm trying to cast an IEnumerable of an inherited type to IEnumerable of base class. Have tried following: var test = resultFromDb.Cast<BookedResource>(); return test.ToList(); But getting error: You cannot convert these types. Linq to Entities only supports conversion primitive EDM-types. The classes involved look like this: public partial class HistoryBookedResource : BookedResource { } public partial class HistoryBookedResource { public int ResourceId { get; set; } public string DateFrom { get; set; } public string TimeFrom { get; set; } public string TimeTo { get; set; } } public partial class BookedResource { public int ResourceId { get; set; } public string DateFrom { get; set; } public string TimeFrom { get; set; } public string TimeTo { get; set; } } [MetadataType(typeof(BookedResourceMetaData))] public partial class BookedResource { } public class BookedResourceMetaData { [Required(ErrorMessage = "Resource id is Required")] [Range(0, int.MaxValue, ErrorMessage = "Resource id is must be an number")] public object ResourceId { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Date is Required")] public object DateFrom { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Time From is Required")] public object TimeFrom { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Time to is Required")] public object TimeTo { get; set; } } The problem I'm trying to solve is to get records from table HistoryBookedResource and have the result in an IEnumerable<BookedResource> using Entity Framework and LINQ. UPDATE: When using the following the cast seams to work but when trying to loop with a foreach the data is lost. resultFromDb.ToList() as IEnumerable<BookedResource>; UPDATE 2: Im using entity frameworks generated model, model (edmx) is created from database, edmx include classes that reprecent the database tables. In database i have a history table for old BookedResource and it can happen that the user want to look at these and to get the old data from the database entity framework uses classes with the same name as the tables to receive data from db. So i receive the data from table HistoryBookedResource in HistoryBookedResource class. Because entity framework generate the partial classes with the properties i dont know if i can make them virtual and override. Any suggestions will be greatly appreciated.

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  • Hibernate Persistence problems with Bean Mapping (Dozer)

    - by BuffaloBuffalo
    I am using Hibernate 3, and having a particular issue when persisting a new Entity which has an association with an existing detached entity. Easiest way to explain this is via code samples. I have two entities, FooEntity and BarEntity, of which a BarEntity can be associated with many FooEntity: @Entity public class FooEntity implements Foo{ @Id private Long id; @ManyToOne(targetEntity = BarEntity.class) @JoinColumn(name = "bar_id", referencedColumnName = "id") @Cascade(value={CascadeType.ALL}) private Bar bar; } @Entity public class BarEntity implements Bar{ @Id private Long id; @OneToMany(mappedBy = "bar", targetEntity = FooEntity.class) private Set<Foo> foos; } Foo and Bar are interfaces that loosely define getters for the various fields. There are corresponding FooImpl and BarImpl classes that are essentially just the entity objects without the annotations. What I am trying to do is construct a new instance of FooImpl, and persist it after setting a number of fields. The new Foo instance will have its 'bar' member set to an existing Bar (runtime being a BarEntity) from the database (retrieved via session.get(..)). After the FooImpl has all of its properties set, Apache Dozer is used to map between the 'domain' object FooImpl and the Entity FooEntity. What Dozer is doing in the background is instantiating a new FooEntity and setting all of the matching fields. BarEntity is cloned as well via instantiation and set the FooEntity's 'bar' member. After this occurs, passing the new FooEntity object to persist. This throws the exception: org.hibernate.PersistentObjectException: detached entity passed to persist: com.company.entity.BarEntity Below is in code the steps that are occurring FooImpl foo = new FooImpl(); //returns at runtime a persistent BarEntity through session.get() Bar bar = BarService.getBar(1L); foo.setBar(bar); ... //This constructs a new instance of FooEntity, with a member 'bar' which itself is a new instance that is detached) FooEntity entityToPersist = dozerMapper.map(foo, FooEntity.class); ... session.persist(entityToPersist); I have been able to resolve this issue by either removing or changing the @Cascade annotation, but that limits future use for say adding a new Foo with a new Bar attached to it already. Is there some solution here I am missing? I would be surprised if this issue hasn't been solved somewhere before, either by altering how Dozer Maps the children of Foo or how Hibernate reacts to a detached Child Entity.

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  • Node.js Cron Job Messing with Date Object

    - by PazoozaTest Pazman
    I'm trying to schedule several cron jobs to generate serial numbers for different entities within my web app. However I am running into this problem, when I'm looping each table, it says it has something to do with date.js. I'm not doing anything with a date object ? Not at this stage anyway. A couple of guesses is that the cron object is doing a date thing in its code and is referencing date.js. I'm using date.js to get access to things like ISO date. for (t in config.generatorTables) { console.log("t = " + config.generatorTables[t] + "\n\n"); var ts3 = azure.createTableService(); var jobSerialNumbers = new cronJob({ //cronTime: '*/' + rndNumber + ' * * * * *', cronTime: '*/1 * * * * *', onTick: function () { //console.log(new Date() + " calling topUpSerialNumbers \n\n"); manageSerialNumbers.topUpSerialNumbers(config.generatorTables[t], function () { }); }, start: false, timeZone: "America/Los_Angeles" }); ts3.createTableIfNotExists(config.generatorTables[t], function (error) { if (error === null) { var query = azure.TableQuery .select() .from(config.generatorTables[t]) .where('PartitionKey eq ?', '0') ts3.queryEntities(query, function (error, serialNumberEntities) { if (error === null && serialNumberEntities.length == 0) { manageSerialNumbers.generateNewNumbers(config.maxNumber, config.serialNumberSize, config.generatorTables[t], function () { jobSerialNumbers.start(); }); } else jobSerialNumbers.start(); }); } }); } And this is the error message I'm getting when I examine the server.js.logs\0.txt file: C:\node\w\WebRole1\public\javascripts\date.js:56 onsole.log('isDST'); return this.toString().match(/(E|C|M|P)(S|D)T/)[2] == "D" ^ TypeError: Cannot read property '2' of null at Date.isDST (C:\node\w\WebRole1\public\javascripts\date.js:56:110) at Date.getTimezone (C:\node\w\WebRole1\public\javascripts\date.js:56:228) at Object._getNextDateFrom (C:\node\w\WebRole1\node_modules\cron\lib\cron.js:88:30) at Object.sendAt (C:\node\w\WebRole1\node_modules\cron\lib\cron.js:51:17) at Object.getTimeout (C:\node\w\WebRole1\node_modules\cron\lib\cron.js:58:30) at Object.start (C:\node\w\WebRole1\node_modules\cron\lib\cron.js:279:33) at C:\node\w\WebRole1\server.js:169:46 at Object.generateNewNumbers (C:\node\w\WebRole1\utils\manageSerialNumbers.js:106:5) at C:\node\w\WebRole1\server.js:168:45 at C:\node\w\WebRole1\node_modules\azure\lib\services\table\tableservice.js:485:7 I am using this line in my database.js file: require('../public/javascripts/date'); is that correct that I only have to do this once, because date.js is global? I.e. it has a bunch of prototypes (extensions) for the inbuilt date object. Within manageSerialNumbers.js I am just doing a callback, their is no code executing as I've commented it all out, but still receiving this error. Any help or advice would be appreciated.

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  • Template class + virtual function = must implement?

    - by sold
    This code: template <typename T> struct A { T t; void DoSomething() { t.SomeFunction(); } }; struct B { }; A<B> a; is easily compiled without any complaints, as long as I never call a.DoSomething(). However, if I define DoSomething as a virtual function, I will get a compile error saying that B doesn't declare SomeFunction. I can somewhat see why it happens (DoSomething should now have an entry in the vtable), but I can't help feeling that it's not really obligated. Plus it sucks. Is there any way to overcome this? EDIT 2: Okay. I hope this time it makes sence: Let's say I am doing intrusive ref count, so all entities must inherit from base class Object. How can I suuport primitive types too? I can define: template <typename T> class Primitive : public Object { T value; public: Primitive(const T &value=T()); operator T() const; Primitive<T> &operator =(const T &value); Primitive<T> &operator +=(const T &value); Primitive<T> &operator %=(const T &value); // And so on... }; so I can use Primitive<int>, Primitive<char>... But how about Primitive<float>? It seems like a problem, because floats don't have a %= operator. But actually, it isn't, since I'll never call operator %= on Primitive<float>. That's one of the deliberate features of templates. If, for some reason, I would define operator %= as virtual. Or, if i'll pre-export Primitive<float> from a dll to avoid link errors, the compiler will complain even if I never call operator %= on a Primitive<float>. If it would just have fill in a dummy value for operator %= in Primitive<float>'s vtable (that raises an exception?), everything would have been fine.

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  • @Transactional in Spring+Hibernate

    - by Arun Kumar
    I an using Spring 3.1 + Hibernate 4.x in my web application. In my DAO, i am saving User type object as following sessionFactory.getCurrentSession().save(user); But getting following exception: org.hibernate.HibernateException: save is not valid without active transaction I googled and found similar question on SO, with following solution: Session session=getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession(); Transaction trans=session.beginTransaction(); session.save(entity); trans.commit(); That solves the problem. But in that solution, there is lot of mess of beginning and committing the transactions manually. Can't i use sessionFactory.getCurrentSession().save(user); directly without begin/commit of transactions manually? I try to use @Transactional on my service/dao methods too, but the problem persists. EDIT : Here is my Hibernate Config File: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:p="http://www.springframework.org/schema/p" xmlns:aop="http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop" xmlns:tx="http://www.springframework.org/schema/tx" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.1.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/tx http://www.springframework.org/schema/tx/spring-tx-3.1.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop/spring-aop-3.1.xsd"> <!-- enable the configuration of transactional behavior based on annotations --> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="txManager"/> <bean id="dataSource" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DriverManagerDataSource" p:driverClassName="${db.driverClassName}" p:url="${db.url}" p:username="${db.username}" p:password="${db.password}" /> <bean id="sessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.annotation.AnnotationSessionFactoryBean"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="packagesToScan" value="com.myapp.entities" /> <property name="hibernateProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLDialect</prop> <prop key="hibernate.show_sql">true</prop> </props> </property> </bean> <!--Transaction Manager Added --> <bean id="txManager" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateTransactionManager"> <property name="sessionFactory"> <ref bean="sessionFactory" /> </property> </bean> </beans> Please help.

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  • Populating data in multiple cascading dropdown boxes in Access 2007

    - by miCRoSCoPiC_eaRthLinG
    Hello all, I've been assigned the task to design a temporary customer tracking system in MS Access 2007 (sheeeesh!). The tables and relationships have all been setup successfully. But I'm running into a minor problem while trying to design the data entry form for one table... Here's a bit of explanation first. The screen contains 3 dropdown boxes (apart from other fields). 1st dropdown The first dropdown (cboMarket) represents the Market lets users select between 2 options: Domestic International Since the first dropdown contains only 2 items I didn't bother making a table for it. I added them as pre-defined list items. 2nd dropdown Once the user makes a selection in this one, the second dropdown (cboLeadCategory) loads up a list of Lead Categories, namely, Fairs & Exhibitions, Agents, Press Ads, Online Ads etc. Different sets of lead categories are utilized for the 2 markets. Hence this box is dependent on the 1st one. Structure of the bound table, named Lead_Cateogries for the 2nd combo is: ID Autonumber Lead_Type TEXT <- actually a list that takes up Domestic or International Lead_Category_Name TEXT 3rd dropdown And based on the choice of category in the 2nd one, the third one (cboLeadSource) is supposed to display a pre-defined set of lead sources belonging to the particular category. Table is named Lead_Sources and the structure is: ID Autonumber Lead_Category NUMBER <- related to ID of Lead Categories table Lead_Source TEXT When I make the selection in the 1st dropdown, the AfterUpdate event of the combo is called, which instructs the 2nd dropdown to load contents: Private Sub cboMarket_AfterUpdate() Me![cboLead_Category].Requery End Sub The Row Source of the 2nd combo contains a query: SELECT Lead_Categories.ID, Lead_Categories.Lead_Category_Name FROM Lead_Categories WHERE Lead_Categories.Lead_Type=[cboMarket] ORDER BY Lead_Categories.Lead_Category_Name; The AfterUpdate event of 2nd combo is: Private Sub cboLeadCategory_AfterUpdate() Me![cboLeadSource].Requery End Sub The Row Source of 3rd combo contains: SELECT Leads_Sources.ID, Leads_Sources.Lead_Source FROM Leads_Sources WHERE [Lead_Sources].[Lead_Category]=[Lead_Categories].[ID] ORDER BY Leads_Sources.Lead_Source; Problem When I select Market type from cboMarket, the 2nd combo cboLeadCategory loads up the appropriate Categories without a hitch. But when I select a particular Category from it, instead of the 3rd combo loading the lead source names, a modal dialog is displayed asking me to Enter a Parameter. When I enter anything into this prompt (valid or invalid data), I get yet another prompt: Why is this happening? Why isn't the 3rd box loading the source names as desired. Can any one please shed some light on where I am going wrong? Thanks, m^e

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  • Inventory count in CakePHP

    - by metrobalderas
    We are developing an inventory tracking system. Basically we've got an order table in which orders are placed. When an order is payed, the status changes from 0 to 1. This table has multiple children in another table order_items. This is the main structure. CREATE TABLE order( id INT UNSIGNED AUTO_INCREMENT PRIMARY KEY, user_id INT UNSIGNED, status INT(1), total INT UNSIGNED ); CREATE TABLE order_items( id INT UNSIGNED AUTO_INCREMENT PRIMARY KEY, order_id INT UNSIGNED, article_id INT UNSIGNED, size enum('s', 'm', 'l', 'xl'), quantity INT UNSIGNED ); Now, we've got a stocks table with similar architecture for the acquisitions. This is the structure. CREATE TABLE stock( id INT UNSIGNED AUTO_INCREMENT PRIMARY KEY, article_id INT UNSIGNED ); CREATE TABLE stock_items( id INT UNSIGNED AUTO_INCREMENT PRIMARY KEY, stock_id INT UNSIGNED, size enum('s', 'm', 'l', 'xl'), quantity INT(2) ); The main difference is that stocks has no status field. What we are looking for is a way to sum each article size from stock_items, then sum each article size from order_items where Order.status = 1 and substract both these items to find our current inventory. This is the table we want to get from a single query: Size | Stocks | Sales | Available s | 10 | 3 | 7 m | 15 | 13 | 2 l | 7 | 4 | 3 Initially we thought abouth using complex find conditions, but perhaps that's the wrong approach. Also, since it's not a direct join, it turns out to be quite hard. This is the code we have to retrieve the stock's total for each item. function stocks_total($id){ $find = $this->StockItem->find('all', array( 'conditions' => array( 'StockItem.stock_id' => $this->find('list', array('conditions' => array('Stock.article_id' => $id))) ), 'fields' => array_merge( array( 'SUM(StockItem.cantidad) as total' ), array_keys($this->StockItem->_schema) ), 'group' => 'StockItem.size', 'order' => 'FIELD(StockItem.size, \'s\', \'m\' ,\'l\' ,\'xl\') ASC' )); return $find; } Thanks.

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