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  • Java hangs when trying to close a ProcessBuilder OutputStream

    - by Jeff Bullard
    I have the following Java code to start a ProcessBuilder, open an OutputStream, have the process write a string to an OutputStream, and then close the OutputStream. The whole thing hangs indefinitely when I try to close the OutputStream. This only happens on Windows, never on Mac or Linux. Some of the related questions seem to be close to the same problem I'm having, but I haven't been able to figure out how to apply the answers to my problem, as I am a relative newbie with Java. Here is the code. You can see I have put in a lot of println statements to try to isolate the problem. System.out.println("GenMic trying to get the input file now"); System.out.flush(); OutputStream out = child.getOutputStream(); try { System.out.println("GenMic getting ready to write the input file to out"); System.out.flush(); out.write(intext.getBytes()); System.out.println("GenMic finished writing to out"); System.out.flush(); out.close(); System.out.println("GenMic closed OutputStream"); System.out.flush(); } catch (IOException iox) { System.out.println("GenMic caught IOException 2"); System.out.flush(); String detailedMessage = iox.getMessage(); System.out.println("Exception: " + detailedMessage); System.out.flush(); throw new RuntimeException(iox); } And here is the output when this chunk is executed: GenMic trying to get the input file now GenMic getting ready to write the input file to out GenMic finished writing to out

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  • Stopping and Play button for Audio (Android)

    - by James Rattray
    I have this problem, I have some audio I wish to play... And I have two buttons for it, 'Play' and 'Stop'... Problem is, after I press the stop button, and then press the Play button, nothing happens. -The stop button stops the song, but I want the Play button to play the song again (from the start) Here is my code: final MediaPlayer mp = MediaPlayer.create(this, R.raw.megadeth); And then the two public onclicks: (For playing...) button.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { // Perform action on click button.setText("Playing!"); try { mp.prepare(); } catch (IllegalStateException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } mp.start(); // } }); And for stopping the track... final Button button2 = (Button) findViewById(R.id.cancel); button2.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { mp.stop(); mp.reset(); } }); Can anyone see the problem with this? If so could you please fix it... (For suggest) Thanks alot... James

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  • Configuring mod_rewrite and mod_jk for Apache 2.2 and JBoss 4.2.3

    - by The Pretender
    Hello! My problem is as follows: I have JBoss 4.2.3 application server with AJP 1.3 connector running on one host under Windows (192.168.1.2 for my test environment) and Apache 2.2.14 running on another FreeBSD box (192.168.1.10). Apache acts as a "front gate" for all requests and sends them to JBoss via mod_jk. Everything was working fine until I had to do some SEO optimizations. These optimizations include SEF urls, so i decided to use mod_rewrite for Apache to alter requests before they are sent to JBoss. Basically, I nedd to implement 2 rules: Redirect old rules like "http://hostname/directory/" to "http://hostname/" with permanent redirect Forward urls like "http://hostname/wtf/123/" to "http://hostname/wtf/view.htm?id=123" so that end user doesn't see the "ugly" URL (the actual rewrite). Here is my Apache config for test virtual host: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerAdmin [email protected] DocumentRoot "/usr/local/www/dummy" ServerName 192.168.1.10 <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteRule /directory/(.*) /$1 [R=permanent,L] RewriteRule ^/([^/]+)/([0-9]+)/?$ /$1/view.htm?id=$2 </IfModule> JkMount /* jsp-hostname ErrorLog "/var/log/dummy-host.example.com-error_log" CustomLog "/var/log/dummy-host.example.com-access_log" common </VirtualHost> The problem is that second rewrite rule doesn't work. Requests slip through to JBoss unchanged, so I get Tomcat 404 error. But if I add redirect flag to the second rule like RewriteRule ^/([^/]+)/([0-9]+)/?$ /$1/view.htm?id=$2 [R,L] it works like a charm. But redirect is not what I need here :) . I suspect that the problem is that requests are forwarded to the another host (192.168.1.2), but I really don't have any idea on how to make it work. Any help would be appreciated :)

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  • Custom theme and sherlockActionBar

    - by Atomico
    I am doing a personal theme to use holo widget in 2.3 android. I did this: <resources xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <style name="AppThemes" parent="@style/Theme.Sherlock"> <item name="android:editTextStyle">@style/EditTextAppTheme</item> <item name="android:checkboxStyle">@style/CheckBoxAppTheme</item> <item name="android:radioButtonStyle">@style/RadioButtonAppTheme</item> <item name="android:buttonStyle">@style/ButtonAppTheme</item> <item name="android:imageButtonStyle">@style/ImageButtonAppTheme</item> <item name="android:spinnerStyle">@style/SpinnerAppTheme</item> <item name="android:dropDownSpinnerStyle">@style/SpinnerAppTheme.DropDown</item> <item name="android:spinnerDropDownItemStyle">@style/SpinnerDropDownItemAppTheme</item> </style> </resources> the problem is that widgets don't take the correct style but take the default style. I tried to force assign the @style/EditTextAppTheme at an edittext and it worked.. so the problem is that the theme don't apply. any idea? update: the theme apply and work good..the solo problem is some edittext inside a dialog that show with the standard theme

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  • In app purchase on iphone.: How to receive your available products *before* someone may be able to b

    - by Thorsten S.
    Currently I am loading my supported products from a plist and after that I send a SKProductsRequest to guarantee that my SKProducts are still valid. So I set up the request, start it and get the response in: (void)productsRequest:(SKProductsRequest *)request didReceiveResponse:(SKProductsResponse *)response Now, so far all functions correctly. Problem: From calling the request until receiving the response it may last several seconds. Until that my app is already loaded and the user may be able to choose and buy a product. But because no products have been received, the available products are not in sync with the validated products - unlikely, but possible error. So my idea is to wait until the data is loaded and only continue when the list is validated. (Just a few seconds waiting...). I have a singleton instance managing all products. + (MyClass *) sharedInstance { if (!sharedInstance) sharedInstance = [MyClass new]; // Now wait until we have our data [condition lock]; while (noEntriesYet) // is yes at begin [condition wait]; [condition unlock]; return sharedInstance; } - productsRequest: didReceiveResponse: { [condition lock]; // I have my data noEntriesYet = false; [condition signal]; [condition unlock]; } Problem: The app freezes. Everything works fine if didReceiveResponse is completed before the sharedInstance is queried. There are different threads, the lock is working if wait is reached during didReceiveResponse, everything fine. But if not, didReceiveResponse is never called even if the request was sent. The lock is released, everything looks ok. I have tried to send the product request in a separate NSThread, with NSOperationQueue...without avail. Why ? What is happening ? How to solve the problem ?

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  • IE7 is clipping my text. How do I adjust its attitude?

    - by Emiel
    Hi All, A few days ago I re-skinned my website, http://emle.nl. Development of this skin was primarily done using safari, and as expected, it all renders fine using firefox and opera. I've had to make a few small tweaks for IE7, but nothing much, except for one problem... The date indicators for a post are cut off in IE. This problem seems to occur only on nested span tags inside a left floating div. I think I need the floating div's in order to layout text on the left and the right side of the screen. Anyhow, I've summarized it into a small test case, located at http://emle.nl/test.html. In the different browsers, it looks like this. Of course safari and firefox get this right: Do any of you know how to stop IE7 from clipping my text? Edit: I have sort of given up on this problem. My scripts now check for IE7 and feed it somewhat simplified HTML that its limited engine can handle. It works in IE8, so, for now, just the special case for IE7 will have to do...

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  • Best practice PHP Form Action

    - by Rob
    Hi there i've built a new script (from scratch not a CMS) and i've done alot of work on reducing memory usage and the time it takes for the page to be displayed (caching HTML etc) There's one thing that i'm not sure about though. Take a simple example of an article with a comments section. If the comment form posts to another page that then redirects back to the article page I won't have the problem of people clicking refresh and resending the information. However if I do it that way, I have to load up my script twice use twice as much memory and it takes twice as long whilst i'm still only displaying the page once. Here's an example from my load log. The first load of the article is from the cache, the second rebuilds the page after the comment is posted. Example 1 0 queries using 650856 bytes of memory in 0.018667 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html 9 queries using 1325723 bytes of memory in 0.075825 - domain.com/article/1/my_article/newcomment.html 0 queries using 650856 bytes of memory in 0.029449 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html Example 2 0 queries using 650856 bytes of memory in 0.023526 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html 9 queries using 1659096 bytes of memory in 0.060032 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html Obviously the time fluctuates so you can't really compare that. But as you can see with the first method I use more memory and it takes longer to load. BUT the first method avoides the refresh problem. Does anyone have any suggestions for the best approach or for alternative ways to avoid the extra load (admittadely minimal but i'd still like to avoid it) whilst also avoiding the refresh problem?

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  • Host Primary Domain from a subfolder

    - by TandemAdam
    I am having a problem making a sub directory act as the public_html for my main domain, and getting a solution that works with that domains sub directories too. My hosting allows me to host multiple sites, which are all working great. I have set up a subfolder under my ~/public_html/ directory called /domains/, where I create a folder for each separate website. e.g. public_html domains websiteone websitetwo websitethree ... This keeps my sites nice and tidy. The only issue was getting my "main domain" to fit into this system. It seems my main domain, is somehow tied to my account (or to Apache, or something), so I can't change the "document root" of this domain. I can define the document roots for any other domains ("Addon Domains") that I add in cPanel no problem. But the main domain is different. I was told to edit the .htaccess file, to redirect the main domain to a subdirectory. This seemed to work great, and my site works fine on it's home/index page. The problem I'm having is that if I try to navigate my browser to say the images folder (just for example) of my main site, like this: www.yourmaindomain.com/images/ then it seems to ignore the redirect and shows the entire server directory in the url, like this: www.yourmaindomain.com/domains/yourmaindomain/images/ It still actually shows the correct "Index of /images" page, and show the list of all my images. Here is an example of my .htaccess file that I am using: RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www.)?yourmaindomain.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/domains/yourmaindomain/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /domains/yourmaindomain/$1 RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www.)?yourmaindomain.com$ RewriteRule ^(/)?$ domains/yourmaindomain/index.html [L] Does this htaccess file look correct? I just need to make it so my main domain behaves like an addon domain, and it's subdirectories adhere to the redirect rules.

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  • Classic ASP on IIS 7

    - by jagr
    Hi, I am having problems with my app running on IIS 7. The application is a mixture of classic ASP and ASP.NET MVC (don't ask how and why). Anyway, the application is up and running except for some problems that I am experiencing. For example, I have a button on my page and when I click it, javascript is opening a popup which needs to contain .asp page. But that doesn't happen. I get the blank popup with my cursor on busy as it still loads. This is happening almost always to me in IE. In Firefox it is much better but sometimes the app jams there too. If I close the opened, blank popup, and I want to move around the application, my buttons in menu (which are also .asp) doesn't load properly. For example, I have different buttons for different sections and when I move around they should change. When I restart the browser, only then everything works normal for some time, but the problem occurs again after a while. I am very sure that it is not the problem in application itself, because it works properly on the machines of my colleagues without those problems. They have the same OS (Vista Professional) and we compared the settings in IIS and they match. So I am very confused, and I really don't know how to solve the problem. I found a bunch of articles and blog posts about classic ASP and IIS7 but most of them are about enabling asp, which I already did. So I am suspecting that something wrong with IIS, but I don't know what, tried to reinstall it, hoping for some improvement, but I had no luck. If you need more details please ask. Does anyone have any idea what should I try or do?

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  • asyncronous call doesn't return json

    - by Rebecca
    I am running wamp on an xp box. I am fairly new to web programming, this is for a student project, and have run out of avenues to try to solve this problem. Problem We have client side JavaScript code that uses GDownloadUrl- from the Google api- to wrap xmlHttpRequest calls to a php server side program that is accessing our database. In my callback program, the result of this call is always " ". However, if I use an alert to display the http:// call, with the arguments, and cut and paste that into my browser, the json I expected is displayed. I zipped my dir containing all the files, and tried it out on another team member's computer, and they were able to get the json in the callback function. Note this is exactly the same code and structure I was using, he just unzipped and ran. So now I'm thinking this is something about Firefox or Wamp? Would this be a config problem? I'm running wamp server 2.0, and Firefox 3.5.8. I have no problems with syncronous php, or reading in files asyncronously. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Rebecca

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  • Get a "sqlceqp35.dll" error when debugging but not when running deployed code.

    - by nj
    In our current windows mobile project a problem while debugging recently arised. When trying to debug the code it throws an exception on the open command on a connection to the local database. The message is "A SQL Server Compact DLL could not be loaded. Reinstall SQL Server Compact Edition. [ DLL Name = sqlceqp35.dll ]". Sometime it's an unknow error instead, with reference to the same file. If you execute the binary, thats deployd during the debug, on the device it runs without any problem. I've tried: Reinstall both .net and sqlce on the device. Changed the "specific version" on the reference properties in the project. The hardware I'm using is a Motorola MC70 with Windows mobile 5.0. The target platform of the project is windows mobile 5.0. Any ideas on what might cause this problem? EDIT: When I tried it on a MC75 I can debug it. The MC70 got OS Version: 05.01.0478 and the MC75 05.01.0478. My best guess now is that it's someway related to the OS version or the actual device.

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  • windows beneath not being painted when using a layered window

    - by Nuno
    Hi, I will try to explain my problem the best i can, I'm creating a layered window in c++ (using windowsXP), all works fine until i drag my created window near the windows start button, and then when i press the star button of windows taskbar and close it again all the windows beneath of my layered window aren't being painted (only in the area of the start window that pops over my window). My create window is like this: CWnd::CreateEx( WS_EX_TOOLWINDOW | WS_EX_LAYERED, AfxRegisterWndClass(0), lpstr_name, WS_POPUP, 0,0,0,0, pc_parent-GetSafeHwnd(), 0); ... When i create the window with this styles the problem ocurrs, but if i create with the extended style WS_EX_TRANSPARENT and all the others the problem does not occur any more. And if instead of a WS_POPUP window is a WS_CHILD or WS_OVERLAPPED then this also doesn't occur... Can anyone please explain why when i create a WS_POPUP window with the WS_EX_LAYERED style all the beneath windows aren't updated, and if i add the style WS_EX_TRANSPARENT this works fine. Note: why i do not use the WS_EX_TRANSPARENT style if it works right? if i use it then my window can not be dragged and i need it to do it :) Thanks

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  • How can I diagnose "Cannot determine peer address" in my Perl TCP script?

    - by MadBoy
    I've this little script which does it's job pretty well but sometimes it tends to fail. It fails in 2 cases: with error send: Cannot determine peer address at ./tcp-new.pl line 52 with no output or anything, it just fails to deliver what it got to connected Tcp Client. Usually it happens after I disconnect from server, go home and connect it again. To fix this restart is required and it starts working. Sometimes this problem is followed by problem mentioned in point 1. Note: it's not problem when I disconnect and reconnect to it again within short amount of time (unless error nr 1 happens). So can anyone help me make this code be a bit more stable so I don't have to restart it every day? #!/usr/bin/perl use strict; use warnings; use IO::Socket; use IO::Select; my $tcp_port = "10008"; my $udp_port = "2099"; my $tcp_socket = IO::Socket::INET->new( Listen => SOMAXCONN, LocalPort => $tcp_port, Proto => 'tcp', ReuseAddr => 1, ); my $udp_socket = IO::Socket::INET->new( LocalPort => $udp_port, Proto => 'udp', ); my $read_select = IO::Select->new(); my $write_select = IO::Select->new(); $read_select->add($tcp_socket); $read_select->add($udp_socket); while (1) { my @read = $read_select->can_read(); foreach my $read (@read) { if ($read == $tcp_socket) { my $new_tcp = $read->accept(); $write_select->add($new_tcp); } elsif ($read == $udp_socket) { my $recv_buffer; $udp_socket->recv($recv_buffer, 1024, undef); my @write = $write_select->can_write(); foreach my $write (@write) { $write->send($recv_buffer); } } } }

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  • Webbrowser locks first Excel Instance

    - by figus
    VB.NET 2008 - WinForms Hi Everyone! I've been looking for an answer to my problem but I only find more questions related to my problem... The thing is that I'm using a AxWebBrowser control in VB.NET 2008 to open a excel file in a WindowsForm, it opens succesfully and everything... but the problem is this: If I had a Excel File Open before opening another Excel File in my WebBrowser Control, the window that contains the file that was already open gets locked... (I can't give focus to that Excel window... If I click on it, the focus returns to my application) I tried creating a new excel instance with CreateObject("Excel.Application") just before loading the file, but the WebBrowser locks the first Excel Instance... Is there a way to lock it to the last instance??? I use the WebBrowser1.Navigate(Url) method to load the file... where Url is a String like C:\myExcelFile.xlsm WebBrowser1.Document.Application.UserControl is also True, but it get's locked. Any Suggestion?? Thanks in Advance!!!

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  • Using OUTPUT/INTO within instead of insert trigger invalidates 'inserted' table

    - by Dan
    I have a problem using a table with an instead of insert trigger. The table I created contains an identity column. I need to use an instead of insert trigger on this table. I also need to see the value of the newly inserted identity from within my trigger which requires the use of OUTPUT/INTO within the trigger. The problem is then that clients that perform INSERTs cannot see the inserted values. For example, I create a simple table: CREATE TABLE [MyTable]( [MyID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [MyBit] [bit] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_MyTable_MyID] PRIMARY KEY NONCLUSTERED ( [MyID] ASC )) Next I create a simple instead of trigger: create trigger [trMyTableInsert] on [MyTable] instead of insert as BEGIN DECLARE @InsertedRows table( MyID int, MyBit bit); INSERT INTO [MyTable] ([MyBit]) OUTPUT inserted.MyID, inserted.MyBit INTO @InsertedRows SELECT inserted.MyBit FROM inserted; -- LOGIC NOT SHOWN HERE THAT USES @InsertedRows END; Lastly, I attempt to perform an insert and retrieve the inserted values: DECLARE @tbl TABLE (myID INT) insert into MyTable (MyBit) OUTPUT inserted.MyID INTO @tbl VALUES (1) SELECT * from @tbl The issue is all I ever get back is zero. I can see the row was correctly inserted into the table. I also know that if I remove the OUTPUT/INTO from within the trigger this problem goes away. Any thoughts as to what I'm doing wrong? Or is how I want to do things not feasible? Thanks.

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  • Best way to handle Many-to-Many relationships in PHP MySQL

    - by Jayrox
    I am looking for the best way to handle a database of many-to-many relationships in PHP and MySQL. Right now I have 2 tables: Users (id, user_name, first_name, last_name) Connections (id_1, id_2) In the User table id is auto incremented on add and user_name is unique, but can be changed. Unfortunately, I don't have control over the user_name and its ability to be changed, but I must account for it. The Connections table is obviously, user1 and user2's id. The connection table needs to account for these possible relations: user1 --> user2 (user 1 friends with user 2 but not user2 friends with user1) user2 --> user1 (user 2 friends with user 1 but not user1 friends with user2) user1 <--> user2 (user 1 and user 2 mutually friends) user1 <-!-> user2 (user 1 and user 2 not friends) That part is not the problem, The problem I am having with is keeping these relations unique when and if they change in batches. Possible solution 1: delete all of user 1's relations and readd them with the updated list. I think this might be too slow for my needs. Solution 2? Anyone else encounter this problem? How should I best handle this? update: distinguishing relationships: i handle relationships like this: user1, user2 user1, user3 user2, user1 in that example the following is true: user1 follows user2 and user3 user2 only follows user1 but doesn't follow user3 user3 doesn't follow either user1 or user2

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  • How do I protect the trunk from hapless newbies?

    - by Michael Haren
    A coworker relayed the following problem, let's say it's fictional to protect the guilty: A team of 5-10 works on a project which is issue-driven. That is, the typical flow goes like this: a chunk of work (bug, enhancement, etc.) is created as an issue in the issue tracker The issue is assigned to a developer The developer resolves the issue and commits their code changes to the trunk At release time, the frozen, and heavily tested trunk or release branch or whatever is built in release mode and released The problem he's having is that a couple newbies made several bad commits that weren't caught due to an unfortunate chain of events. This was followed by a bad release with a rollback or flurry of hot fixes. One idea we're toying with: Revoke commit access to the trunk for newbies and make them develop on a per-developer branch (we're using SVN): Good: newbies are isolated and can't hurt others Good: committers merge newbie branches with the trunk frequently Good: this enforces rigid code reviews Bad: this is burdensome on the committers (but there's probably no way around it since the code needs reviewed!) Bad: it might make traceability of trunk changes a little tougher since the reviewer would be doing the commit--not too sure on this. Update: Thank you, everyone, for your valuable input. I have concluded that this is far less a code/coder problem than I first presented. The root of the issue is that the release procedure failed to capture and test some poor quality changes to the trunk. Plugging that hole is most important. Relying on the false assumption that code in the trunk is "good" is not the solution. Once that hole--testing--is plugged, mistakes by everyone--newbie or senior--will be caught properly and dealt with accordingly. Next, a greater emphasis on code reviews and mentorship (probably driven by some systematic changes to encourage it) will go a long way toward improving code quality. With those two fixes in place, I don't think something as rigid or draconian as what I proposed above is necessary. Thanks!

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  • Increment non unique field during SQL insert

    - by phill
    I'm not sure how to word this cause I am a little confused at the moment, so bare with me while I attempt to explain, I have a table with the following fields: OrderLineID, OrderID, OrderLine, and a few other unimportant ones. OrderLineID is the primary key and is always unique(which isn't a problem), OrderID is a foreign key that isn't unique(also not a problem), and OrderLine is a value that is not unique in the table, but should be unique for any OrderIDs that are the same...so if that didn't make sense, perhaps a picture OrderLineID, OrderID, OrderLine 1 1 1 2 1 2 3 1 3 4 2 1 5 2 2 For all OrderIDs there is a unique OrderLine. I am trying to create an insert statement that gets the max OrderLine value for a specific OrderId so I can increment it, but it's not working so well and I could use a little help. What I have right now is below, I build the sql statement in a program and replace OrderID # with an actual value. I am pretty sure the problem is with the nested select statement, and incrementing the result, but I can't find any examples that do this since my google skills are weak apparently.... INSERT INTO tblOrderLine (OrderID, OrderLine) VALUES (<OrderID #>, (SELECT MAX(OrderLine) FROM tblOrderLine WHERE orderID = <same OrderID #>)+1) any help would be nice.

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  • How would you code a washing machine?

    - by Dan
    Imagine I have a class that represents a simple washing machine. It can perform following operations in the following order: turn on - wash - centrifuge - turn off. I see two basic alternatives: A) I can have a class WashingMachine with methods turnOn(), wash(int minutes), centrifuge(int revs), turnOff(). The problem with this is that the interface says nothing about the correct order of operations. I can at best throw InvalidOprationException if the client tries to centrifuge before machine was turned on. B) I can let the class itself take care of correct transitions and have the single method nextOperation(). The problem with this on the other hand, is that the semantics is poor. Client will not know what will happen when he calls the nextOperation(). Imagine you implement the centrifuge button’s click event so it calls nextOperation(). User presses the centrifuge button after machine was turned on and ups! machine starts to wash. I will probably need a few properties on my class to parameterize operations, or maybe a separate Program class with washLength and centrifugeRevs fields, but that is not really the problem. Which alternative is better? Or maybe there are some other, better alternatives that I missed to describe?

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  • PostgreSQL, Foreign Keys, Insert speed & Django

    - by Miles
    A few days ago, I ran into an unexpected performance problem with a pretty standard Django setup. For an upcoming feature, we have to regenerate a table hourly, containing about 100k rows of data, 9M on the disk, 10M indexes according to pgAdmin. The problem is that inserting them by whatever method literally takes ages, up to 3 minutes of 100% disk busy time. That's not something you want on a production site. It doesn't matter if the inserts were in a transaction, issued via plain insert, multi-row insert, COPY FROM or even INSERT INTO t1 SELECT * FROM t2. After noticing this isn't Django's fault, I followed a trial and error route, and hey, the problem disappeared after dropping all foreign keys! Instead of 3 minutes, the INSERT INTO SELECT FROM took less than a second to execute, which isn't too surprising for a table <= 20M on the disk. What is weird is that PostgreSQL manages to slow down inserts by 180x just by using 3 foreign keys. Oh, disk activity was pure writing, as everything is cached in RAM; only writes go to the disks. It looks like PostgreSQL is working very hard to touch every row in the referred tables, as 3MB/sec * 180s is way more data than the 20MB this new table takes on disk. No WAL for the 180s case, I was testing in psql directly, in Django, add ~50% overhead for WAL logging. Tried @commit_on_success, same slowness, I had even implemented multi row insert and COPY FROM with psycopg2. That's another weird thing, how can 10M worth of inserts generate 10x 16M log segments? Table layout: id serial primary, a bunch of int32, 3 foreign keys to small table, 198 rows, 16k on disk large table, 1.2M rows, 59 data + 89 index MB on disk large table, 2.2M rows, 198 + 210MB So, am I doomed to either drop the foreign keys manually or use the table in a very un-Django way by defining saving bla_id x3 and skip using models.ForeignKey? I'd love to hear about some magical antidote / pg setting to fix this.

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  • Trying to convert existing production database table columns from enum to VARCHAR (Rails)

    - by dchua
    Hi everyone, I have a problem that needs me to convert my existing live production (I've duplicated the schema on my local development box, don't worry :)) table column types from enums to a string. Background: Basically, a previous developer left my codebase in absolute shit, migration versions are extremely out of date, and apparently he never used it after a certain point of time in development and now that I'm tasked with migrating a rails 1.2.6 app to 2.3.5, I can't get the tests to run properly on 2.3.5 because my table columns have ENUM column types and they convert to :string, :limit = 0 on my schema.rb which creates the problem of an invalid default value when doing a rake db:test:prepare, like in the case of: Mysql::Error: Invalid default value for 'own_vehicle': CREATE TABLE `lifestyles` (`id` int(11) DEFAULT NULL auto_increment PRIMARY KEY, `member_id` int(11) DEFAULT 0 NOT NULL, `own_vehicle` varchar(0) DEFAULT 'Y' NOT NULL, `hobbies` text, `sports` text, `AStar_activities` text, `how_know_IRC` varchar(100), `IRC_referral` varchar(200), `IRC_others` varchar(100), `IRC_rdrive` varchar(30)) ENGINE=InnoDB I'm thinking of writing a migration task that looks through all the database tables for columns with enum and replace it with VARCHAR and I'm wondering if this is the right way to approach this problem. I'm also not very sure how to write it such that it would loop through my database tables and replace all ENUM colum_types with a VARCHAR. References [1] https://rails.lighthouseapp.com/projects/8994/tickets/997-dbschemadump-saves-enum-columns-as-varchar0-on-mysql [2] http://dev.rubyonrails.org/ticket/2832

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  • How to motivate as a project leader?

    - by Zenzen
    Ok so some of you might think this is not stackoverflow related, but since I got a similar question during an interview (for a J2EE dev position) I think you guys will help me in the end. The situation is simple: you're working on a project in a small group (4-5 people), you're the project leader and the guy who's the most competent (technology wise) is also slacking the most. What do you do to motivate him? The problem is, I'm having the same issue at the university - this semester we have a lot of projects going on (6 to be exact) so we decided to dived the work so everyone will do 1-2 projects in a technology he knows/wants to learn. It's been working well for the most part, the problem is the person whom we thought would finish his project way before us as he's the most experienced among us. How am I supposed to make him do his share properly? Till now he was just half assing his part by doing the bare minimum, with which the professor wasn't really pleased to say the least... Now it's only a university project, but in the future I might have the same problem in a real job and losing a really smart and experienced worker (as firing him is the only solution I can come up with now) would really be a waste. Aren't there any better ways? p.s. now that I think about it, are there any books that would help me in becoming a better project manager?

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  • Foreign/accented characters in sql query

    - by FromCanada
    I'm using Java and Spring's JdbcTemplate class to build an SQL query in Java that queries a Postgres database. However, I'm having trouble executing queries that contain foreign/accented characters. For example the (trimmed) code: JdbcTemplate select = new JdbcTemplate( postgresDatabase ); String query = "SELECT id FROM province WHERE name = 'Ontario';"; Integer id = select.queryForObject( query, Integer.class ); will retrieve the province id, but if instead I did name = 'Québec' then the query fails to return any results (this value is in the database so the problem isn't that it's missing). I believe the source of the problem is that the database I am required to use has the default client encoding set to SQL_ASCII, which according to this prevents automatic character set conversions. (The Java environments encoding is set to 'UTF-8' while I'm told the database uses 'LATIN1' / 'ISO-8859-1') I was able to manually indicate the encoding when the resultSets contained values with foreign characters as a solution to a previous problem with a similar nature. Ex: String provinceName = new String ( resultSet.getBytes( "name" ), "ISO-8859-1" ); But now that the foreign characters are part of the query itself this approach hasn't been successful. (I suppose since the query has to be saved in a String before being executed anyway, breaking it down into bytes and then changing the encoding only muddles the characters further.) Is there a way around this without having to change the properties of the database or reconstruct it? PostScript: I found this function on StackOverflow when making up a title, it didn't seem to work (I might not have used it correctly, but even if it did work it doesn't seem like it could be the best solution.):

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  • Java Random Slowdowns on Mac OS cont'd

    - by javajustice
    I asked this question a few weeks ago, but I'm still having the problem and I have some new hints. The original question is here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1651887/java-random-slowdowns-on-mac-os Basically, I have a java application that splits a job into independent pieces and runs them in separate threads. The threads have no synchronization or shared memory items. The only resources they do share are data files on the hard disk, with each thread having an open file channel. Most of the time it runs very fast, but occasionally it will run very slow for no apparent reason. If I attach a CPU profiler to it, then it will start running quickly again. If I take a CPU snapshot, it says its spending most of its time in "self time" in a function that doesn't do anything except check a few (unshared unsynchronized) booleans. I don't know how this could be accurate because 1, it makes no sense, and 2, attaching the profiler seems to knock the threads out of whatever mode they're in and fix the problem. Also, regardless of whether it runs fast or slow, it always finishes and gives the same output, and it never dips in total cpu usage (in this case ~1500%), implying that the threads aren't getting blocked. I have tried different garbage collectors, different sizings the parts of the memory space, writing data output to non-raid drives, and putting all data output in threads separate the main worker threads. Does anyone have any idea what kind of problem this could be? Could it be the operating system (OS X 10.6.2) ? I have not been able to duplicate it on a windows machine, but I don't have one with a similar hardware configuration.

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  • Powerpoint displays a "can't start the application" error when an Excel Chart object is embedded in

    - by A9S6
    This is a very common problem when Excel Worksheet or Chart is embedded into Word or Powerpoint. I am seeing this problem in both Word and Powerpoint and the reason it seems is the COM addin attached to Excel. The COM addin is written in C# (.NET). See the attached images for error dialogs. I debugged the addin and found a very strange behavior. The OnConnection(...), OnDisConnection(...) etc methods in the COM addin works fine until I add an event handler to the code. i.e. handle the Worksheet_SheetChange, SelectionChange or any similar event available in Excel. As soon as I add even a single event handler (though my code has several), Word and Powerpoint start complaining and do not Activate the embedded object. On some of the posts on the internet, people have been asked to remove the anti-virus addins for office (none in my case) so this makes me believe that the problem is somewhat related to COM addins which are loaded when the host app activates the object. Does anyone have any idea of whats happening here?

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