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• How big can I make an Android application's canvas in terms of pixels?

  - by user279112

  I've determined an estimate of the size of my Android emulator's screen in pixels, although I think its resolution can be changed to other numbers. Quite frankly though that doesn't eliminate the general problem of not knowing how many pixels on each axis I have to work with on my Android applications in general. The main problem I'm trying to solve is this: How do I make sure I don't use a faulty resolution on Android applications if I want to keep things' sizes constant (so that if the application screen shrinks, for instances, objects will still show up just as big - there just won't be as many of them being shown) if I wish to do this with a single universal resolution for each program? Failing that, how do I make sure everything's alright if I try to do everything the same way with maybe a few different pre-set resolutions? Mainly it seems like a relevant question that must be answered before I can come across a complete answer for the general problem is how big can I always make my application in pixels, NOT regarding if and when a user resizes the application's screen to something smaller than the maximum size permitted by the phone and its operating system. I really want to try to keep this simple. If I were doing this for a modern desktop, for instance, I know that if I design the application with a 800x600 canvas, the user can still shrink the application to the point they're not doing themselves any favors, but at least I can basically count on it working right and not being too big for the monitor or something. Is there such a magic resolution for Android, assuming that I'm designing for API levels 3+ (Android 1.5+)? Thanks

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• Why doesn't the Java Collections API include a Graph implementation?

  - by dvanaria

  I’m currently learning the Java Collections API and feel I have a good understanding of the basics, but I’ve never understood why this standard API doesn’t include a Graph implementation. The three base classes are easily understandable (List, Set, and Map) and all their implementations in the API are mostly straightforward and consistent. Considering how often graphs come up as a potential way to model a given problem, this just doesn’t make sense to me (it’s possible it does exist in the API and I’m not looking in the right place of course). Steve Yegge suggests in one of his blog posts that a programmer should consider graphs first when attacking a problem, and if the problem domain doesn’t fit naturally into this data structure, only then consider the alternative structures. My first guess is that there is no universal way to represent graphs, or that their interfaces may not be generic enough for an API implementation to be useful? But if you strip down a graph to its basic components (vertices and a set of edges that connect some or all of the vertices) and consider the ways that graphs are commonly constructed (methods like addVertex(v) and insertEdge(v1, v2)) it seems that a generic Graph implementation would be possible and useful. Thanks for helping me understand this better.

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• Visual Studio 2008 Unit test does not pick up code changes unless I build the entire solution

  - by Orion Edwards

  Here's the scenario: Change my code: Change my unit test for that code With the cursor inside the unit test class/method, invoke VS2008's "Run tests in current context" command The visual studio "Output" window indicates that the code dll and the test dll both successfully build (in that order) The problem is however, that the unit test does not use the latest version of the dll which it has just built. Instead, it uses the previously built dll (which doesn't have the updated code in it), so the test fails. When adding a new method, this results in a MethodNotImplementedException, and when adding a class, it results in a TypeLoadException, both because the unit test thinks the new code is there, and it isn't!. If I'm just updating an existing method, then the test just fails due to incorrect results. I can 'work around' the problem by doing this Change my code: Change my unit test for that code Invoke VS2008's 'Build Solution' command With the cursor inside the unit test class/method, invoke VS2008's "Run tests in current context" command The problem is that doing a full build solution (even though nothing has changed) takes upwards of 30 seconds, as I have approx 50 C# projects, and VS2008 is not smart enough to realize that only 2 of them need to be looked at. Having to wait 30 seconds just to change 1 line of code and re-run a unit test is abysmal. Is there anything I can do to fix this? None of my code is in the GAC or anything funny like that, it's just ordinary old dll's (buiding against .NET 3.5SP1 on a win7/64bit machine) Please help!

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• ModRewrite weird redirect behavior on removing WWW

  - by vitto

  Hi, I'm trying to use some rule on my project to remove www from the beginning of the URL but I've some problem. my server structure is: domain.com/beta_folder domain.com/beta_folder/page+type domain.com/beta_folder/page+type/content+name domain.com/beta_folder/page+type/content+name/edit domain.com/beta_folder/page+type/content+name/etc. domain.com/beta_folder/.htaccess //here is where my htaccess is beta_folder is the site folder, and content+name are content vars, created to retrieve pages from the database. the site works perfect with this rules RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^(page\+type/)([a-zA-Z0-9_+-]+)[/]?$ page_folder/page.php?varname=$2 My intention was to remove www, so I've added this rule but it isn't effective RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www.domain.com$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://domain.com$1 [R=301,L] RewriteRule ^(page\+type/)([a-zA-Z0-9_+-]+)[/]?$ page_folder/page.php?varname=$2 My problem starts if I digit www in front of my domain name: this works http://domain.com/beta_folder/page+type/content+name if i write http://www.domain.com/beta_folder/page+type/content+name the rewrite rule redirect me at http://www.domain.compage+type/content+name if i remove the www rules, the problem still active unfortunately, I can't make a public test for my domain basically, if I write http://www.domain.com/beta_folder the rules sends me to http://domain.com/ where I'm wrong?

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• Perl, strings, floats, unit testing and regexps!

  - by Chris R

  OK, as a preface this question potentially is 'stupider' than my normal level of question - however this problem has been annoying me for the last few days so I'll ask it anyway. I'll give a mock example of what my problem is so I can hope to generalize it to my current problem. #!/usr/bin/perl -w use strict; use Test::More 'no_plan'; my $fruit_string = 'Apples cost $1.50'; my ($fruit, $price) = $fruit_string =~ /(\w+)s cost \$(\d+\.\d+)/; # $price += 0; # Uncomment for Great Success is ($price, 1.50, 'Great Success'); Now when this is run I get the message # Failed test 'Great Success' # got: '1.50' # expected: '1.5' To make the test work - I either uncomment the commented line, or use is ($price, '1.50', 'Great Success'). Both options do not work for me - I'm testing a huge amount of nested data using Test::Deep and cmp_deeply. My question is, how can you extract a double from a regexp then use it immediately as a double - or if there is a better way altogether let me know - and feel free to tell me to take up gardening or something lol, learning Perl is hard.

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• asp.net MVC ActionMethod causing null exception on parameter

  - by David Liddle

  I am trying to add filter functionality that sends a GET request to the same page to filter records in my table. The problem I am having is that the textbox complains about null object reference when a parameter is not passed. For example, when the person first views the page the url is '/mycontroller/myaction/'. Then when they apply a filter and submit the form it should be something like 'mycontroller/myaction?name=...' Obviously the problem stems from when the name value has not been passed (null) it is still trying to be bound to the 'name' textbox. Any suggestions on what I should do regarding this problem? UPDATE I have tried setting the DefaultValue attribute but I am assuming this is only for route values and not query string values ActionResult MyAction([DefaultValue("")] string name) //Action - /mycontroler/myaction ActionResult MyAction(string name) { ...do stuff } //View <div id="filter"> <% Html.BeginForm("myaction", "mycontroller", FormMethod.Get); %> Name: <%= Html.TextBox("name") %> .... </div> <table>...my list of filtered data

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• How to create a generic list in this wierd case in c#

  - by Marc Bettex

  Hello, In my program, I have a class A which is extended by B, C and many more classes. I have a method GetInstance() which returns a instance of B or C (or of one of the other child), but I don't know which one, so the return type of the method is A. In the method CreateGenericList(), I have a variable v of type A, which is in fact either a B, a C or another child type and I want to create a generic list of the proper type, i.e. List<B> if v is a B or List<C> if v is a C, ... Currently I do it by using reflection, which works, but this is extremely slow. I wanted to know if there is another way to to it, which doesn't use reflection. Here is an example of the code of my problem: class A { } class B : A { } class C : A { } // More childs of A. class Program { static A GetInstance() { // returns an instance of B or C } static void CreateGenericList() { A v = Program.GetInstance(); IList genericList = // Here I want an instance of List<B> or List<C> or ... depending of the real type of v, not a List<A>. } } I tried the following hack. I call the following method, hoping the type inferencer will guess the type of model, but it doesn't work and return a List<A>. I believe that because c# is statically typed, T is resolved as A and not as the real type of model at runtime. static List<T> CreateGenericListFromModel<T>(T model) where T : A { return new List<T> (); } Does anybody have a solution to that problem that doesn't use reflection or that it is impossible to solve that problem without reflection? Thank you very much, Marc

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• Why should I use core.autocrlf in Git

  - by Rich

  I have a Git repository that is accessed from both Windows and OS X, and that I know already contains some files with CRLF line-endings. As far as I can tell, there are two ways to deal with this: Set core.autocrlf to false everywhere, Follow the instructions here (echoed on GitHub's help pages) to convert the repository to contain only LF line-endings, and thereafter set core.autocrlf to true on Windows and input on OS X. The problem with doing this is that if I have any binary files in the repository that: a). are not correctly marked as binary in gitattributes, and b). happen to contain both CRLFs and LFs, they will be corrupted. It is possible my repository contains such files. So why shouldn't I just turn off Git's line-ending conversion? There are a lot of vague warnings on the web about having core.autocrlf switched off causing problems, but very few specific ones; the only that I've found so far are that kdiff3 cannot handle CRLF endings (not a problem for me), and that some text editors have line-ending issues (also not a problem for me). The repository is internal to my company, and so I don't need to worry about sharing it with people with different autocrlf settings or line-ending requirements. Are there any other problems with just leaving line-endings as-is that I am unaware of?

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• Extremely CPU Intensive Alarm Clock

  - by SoulBeaver

  For some reason my program, a console alarm clock I made for laughs and practice, is extremely CPU intensive. It consumes about 2mB RAM, which is already quite a bit for such a small program, but it devastates my CPU with over 50% resources at times. Most of the time my program is doing nothing except counting down the seconds, so I guess this part of my program is the one that's causing so much strain on my CPU, though I don't know why. If it is so, could you please recommend a way of making it less, or perhaps a library to use instead if the problem can't be easily solved? /* The wait function waits exactly one second before returning to the * * called function. */ void wait( const int &seconds ) { clock_t endwait; // Type needed to compare with clock() endwait = clock() + ( seconds * CLOCKS_PER_SEC ); while( clock() < endwait ) {} // Nothing need be done here. } In case anybody browses CPlusPlus.com, this is a genuine copy/paste of the clock() function they have written as an example for clock(). Much why the comment //Nothing need be done here is so lackluster. I'm not entirely sure what exactly clock() does yet. The rest of the program calls two other functions that only activate every sixty seconds, otherwise returning to the caller and counting down another second, so I don't think that's too CPU intensive- though I wouldn't know, this is my first attempt at optimizing code. The first function is a console clear using system("cls") which, I know, is really, really slow and not a good idea. I will be changing that post-haste, but, since it only activates every 60 seconds and there is a noticeable lag-spike, I know this isn't the problem most of the time. The second function re-writes the content of the screen with the updated remaining time also only every sixty seconds. I will edit in the function that calls wait, clearScreen and display if it's clear that this function is not the problem. I already tried to reference most variables so they are not copied, as well as avoid endl as I heard that it's a little slow compared to \n.

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• Using entity framework to connect to multiple similar tables in .net MVC.

  - by Dite

  A relative newcomer to .net MVC2 and the entity framework, I am working on a project which requires a single web application, (C# .net 4), to connect to multiple different databases depending on the route of access, (ie subdomain). No problem with this in principle and all the logic is written to transform the subdomain into an entity connection and pass this through to the Entity Model. The problem comes with the fact that the different database whilst being largely similar in structure contain 3 or 4 unique tables bespoke to that instance. To my mind there are two ways to solve this issue, neither of which i am sure will be possible. 1/ Use a separate entity model for each database. -Attempts down this route have through up conflicts where table/sp names are the same across differnt db's, or implicit conversion errors when I try and put the different models in different namespaces. or 2/ Overwrite the classes which refer to the changeable database objects based on the value of a base controller property. -I have found nothing to suggest i can even do this. My question is if either of theser routes can ever work in principle or if i should just give up on the EF and connect to the dtabases directlky using ADO. Perhaps there is another way to solve this problem i haven't thought of? Thanks for any help...

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• How to use form_tag to update params

  - by Tryskele

  I have been struggling with a problem in Rails for a couple of days and still could not find the solution. Could you help me with that? Problem: I have a search box that puts a :search_string entry in the params structure. I use a form_tag for that and it works fine. <% form_tag :controller=> 'items', :action => 'find' do %> <%= text_field_tag :search_string, params[:search_string] %> <% end %> The problem is when I want to add and update other params key-value (in another view), for instance :start_date, to filter the search_string result. Here is the code snipped that I use in the view: <% form_tag :controller=> "items", :action => "find", :params => params do %> <%= hidden_field_tag :date_start, '2010-04-01' %> <%= submit_tag 'April' %> <% end %> <% form_tag :controller=> "items", :action => "find", :params => params do %> <%= hidden_field_tag :date_start, '2010-03-01' %> <%= submit_tag 'March' %> <% end %> When I first click on "April" submit button, then the params is correctly passed to the controller (i.e. there is a params[:start_date]='April'). However when I try to click "March" button afterwards, the params[:start_date] is not updated. I definitely think this is a stupid newbie mistake, but I cannot figure out how to properly use the form_tag. Could you tell me if I am doing something work? Otherwise, could you advise me which is the best way to update the params using form_tag's ? Thank you very much in advance. Miquel

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• How to find out where a thread lock happend?

  - by SchlaWiener

  One of our company's Windows Forms application had a strange problem for several month. The app worked very reliable for most of our customers but on some PC's (mostly with a wireless lan connection) the app sometimes just didn't respond anymore. (You click on the UI and windows ask you to wait or kill the app). I wasn't able to track down the problem for a long time but now I figured out what happend. The app had this line of code // don't blame me for this. Wasn't my code :D Control.CheckForIllegalCrossThreadCalls = false and used some background threads to modify the controls. No I found a way to reproduce the application stopping responding bug on my dev machine and tracked it down to a line where I actually used Invoke() to run a task in the main thread. Me.Invoke(MyDelegate, arg1, arg2) Obviously there was a thread lock somewhere. After removing the Control.CheckForIllegalCrossThreadCalls = false statement and refactoring the whole programm to use Invoke() if modifying a control from a background thread, the problem is (hopefully) gone. However, I am wondering if there is a way to find such bugs without debugging every line of code (Even if I break into debugger after the app stops responding I can't tell what happend last, because the IDE didn't jump to the Invoke() statement) In other words: If my apps hangs how can I figure out which line of code has been executed last? Maybe even on the customers PC. I know VS2010 offers some backwards debugging feature, maybe that would be a solution, but currently I am using VS2008.

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• Ensuring that all callbacks were completed before sending a new request through a DuplexChannel usin

  - by Etan

  I am experiencing some issues when using a Callback in a WCF project. First, the server invokes some function Foo on the client which then forwards the request to a Windows Forms GUI: GUI CLASS delegate void DoForward(); public void ForwardToGui() { if (this.cmdSomeButton.InvokeRequired) { DoForward d = new DoForward(ForwardToGui); this.Invoke(d); } else { Process(); // sets result variable in callback class as soon as done } } } CALLBACK CLASS object _m = new object(); private int _result; public int result { get { return _result; } set { _result = value; lock(_m) { Monitor.PulseAll(_m); } } } [OperationContract] public int Foo() { result = 0; Program.Gui.ForwardToGui(); lock(_m) { Monitor.Wait(_m, 30000); } return result; } The problem now is that the user should be able to cancel the process, which doesn't work properly: SERVER INTERFACE [OperationContract] void Cleanup(); GUI CLASS private void Gui_FormClosed(object sender, EventArgs e) { Program.callbackclass.nextAction = -1; // so that the monitor pulses and Foo() returns Program.server.Cleanup(); } The problem with this is that Cleanup() hangs. However, when I close the form when Process() is not running, it works properly. The source seems to be that the Cleanup() is called before the monitor pulses etc and therefore a new request is sent to the server before the last request from the server has not yet been responded. How can I solve this problem? How can I ensure before calling Cleanup() that no Foo() is currently being executed?

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• Disable ARC with Xcode 5

  - by user2187565

  First, sorry for my bad english, I'm french and had 15years old but StackOverFlow is for me the best forum for developers. So, in the previous versions of Xcode, we can disable ARC (Automatic Reference Counting) in the project settings when we create the project. Not now with Xcode 5 and ARC to pose me a problem: with an property list file, for the reading step, Xcode send me an error: "implicit conversion of 'int' to 'id' is disallowed with ARC". I had not the problem with the same code with Xcode 4. In my property list file, The keys are numbers and also in my viewController.m . NIKOS M.: No problem, but I don't see how I can add compiler flag with the 5th version of Xcode. The code (with french string...): NSString *error; NSString *rootPath = [NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES) objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *plistPath = [rootPath stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"Save.plist"]; NSArray *keys = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"valeurCompteur1", @"valeurCompteur2", @"valeurCompteur3", @"valeurCompteur4", @"valeurCompteur5", @"nomCompteur1", @"nomCompteur2", @"nomCompteur3", @"nomCompteur4", @"nomCompteur5", nil]; NSArray *objs = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: compteur1, compteur2, compteur3, compteur4, compteur5, nameC1, nameC2, nameC3, nameC4, nameC5, nil]; REVIEW: When I disallow ARC for the target, an warning persist. How I can resolve that please ? Thank you very much.

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• CreateThread() fails on 64 bit Windows, works on 32 bit Windows. Why?

  - by Stephen Kellett

  Operating System: Windows XP 64 bit, SP2. I have an unusual problem. I am porting some code from 32 bit to 64 bit. The 32 bit code works just fine. But when I call CreateThread() for the 64 bit version the call fails. I have three places where this fails. 2 call CreateThread(). 1 calls beginthreadex() which calls CreateThread(). All three calls fail with error code 0x3E6, "Invalid access to memory location". The problem is all the input parameters are correct. HANDLE h; DWORD threadID; h = CreateThread(0, // default security 0, // default stack size myThreadFunc, // valid function to call myParam, // my param 0, // no flags, start thread immediately &threadID); All three calls to CreateThread() are made from a DLL I've injected into the target program at the start of the program execution (this is before the program has got to the start of main()/WinMain()). If I call CreateThread() from the target program (same params) via say a menu, it works. Same parameters etc. Bizarre. If I pass NULL instead of &threadID, it still fails. If I pass NULL as myParam, it still fails. I'm not calling CreateThread from inside DllMain(), so that isn't the problem. I'm confused and searching on Google etc hasn't shown any relevant answers. If anyone has seen this before or has any ideas, please let me know. Thanks for reading.

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• How to detect .NET WPF memory leak or GC long run?

  - by Néstor Sánchez A.

  I have the next very strange situation and problem: .NET 4.0 application for diagram editing (WPF). Runs ok in my PC: 8GM RAM, 3.0GHz, i7 quad-core. While creating objects (mostly diagram nodes and connectors, plus all the undo/redo information) the TaskManager show, as expected, some memory usage "jumps" (up and down). These mem-usage "jumps" also remains executing AFTER user interaction ended. Maybe this is the GC cleaning/regorganizing memory? To see what is going on, I've used the Ants mem profiler, but somewhat it prevents those "jumps" to happen after user interaction. PROBLEM: It Freezes/Hangs after seconds or minutes of usage in some slow/weak laptos/netbooks of my beta testers (under 2GHz of speed and under 2GB of RAM). I was thinking of a memory leak, but... EDIT: Also, there is the case that the memory usage grows and grows until collapse (only in slow machines). In a Windows XP Mode machine (VM in Win 7) with only 512MB of RAM Assigned it works fine without mem-usage "jumps" after user interaction (no GC cleaning?!). So, I really have a big trouble because I cannot reproduce the error, only see these strange behaviour (mem jumps), and the tool supposed to show me what is happening is hiding the problem (like the "observer's paradox"). Any ideas on what's happening and how to solve it?

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• Unserializing an API return object (PHP/Ebay API)

  - by DavidYell

  I have been working with the Ebay api for a project and have found it great. I have however found a problem now, more PHP related. When I read my items from Ebay, I store a bunch of details in the database. Currently, just for the sake of it really, I serialize the whole return object and store it in the database in a related table. The idea being, that when I display my information, I have all the details to hand should I need them. The problem arises in that the pricing information is always in a sub object. [ConvertedAdjustmentAmount] => __PHP_Incomplete_Class Object ( [__PHP_Incomplete_Class_Name] => eBayAmountType [_] => 0 [currencyID] => USD ) As you can see when I unserialize my object, my cunning plan falls foul of the Incomplete class problem. I have checked the following question, without success. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/965611/forcing-access-to-php-incomplete-class-object-properties The main issue lies, as far as I can see, in that the price class is stored in the Ebay api, so how do I recreate it? I have been reading this page, http://uk3.php.net/manual/en/function.unserialize.php and trying to figure out, unserialize_callback_func which I can't figure out either, so any help would be appreciated!

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• Ruby on Rails user login form in main layout

  - by Jimmy

  Hey guys I have a simple ror application for some demo stuff. I am running into a problem with trying to move my login form from the users controller and just have it displayed in the main navigation so that a user can easily log in from anywhere. The problem is the form doesn't generate the correct action for the html form. Ruby code: <% form_for(url_for(:action => 'login'), :method => 'post') do |f| %> <li><%= f.text_field("username") %></li> <li><%= f.password_field("password") %></li> <li><%= submit_tag("Login")%></li> <% end %> The problem is depending on the controller I am currently in this generates HTML actions like <form action="/home" method="post">...</form> when it should be generating HTML like so <form action="/login" method="post">...</form> I know I could simply do an HTML form here but I want to keep things as easy to maintain as possible. Any help?

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• Safari and Chrome back button changes hidden and submit values in forms

  - by OverClocked

  The following problem happens on both Safari and Chrome, so probably a WebKit issue. Page A: a page that requires you to login to see, contains a form that has a type=submit button, with name=submit, and value=a Page B: some other page Page C: ask user to login page, contains a form with a type=submit button, with name=submit and value=c User visits page A, then page B. Then idles and the user's login session times out. User hits back button to go back to page A. Browser redirects user to page C. On Safari and Chrome, when C is rendered, the form on page C has the type=submit button, name=submit, but value shows up as "a". If you reload while on page C, "c" appears as the value of the name=submit button. The same problem appears with type=hidden input fields; when user hits back button, their values are also changed to some other value from some other form. Also, this problem also shows up w/o the redirect, with just submit then back. In this case the previous page renders with incorrect values for hidden and submit CGI variables. So far the only fix I can come up with is use Javascript to reset the type=hidden and type=submit variable values, after page C loads, to make sure the values are correct. But that's not clean and universally applicable. Short of WebKit fixing this error, has anyone ran into a better workaround? Thanks.

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• How do I send data between two computers over the internet

  - by Johan

  I have been struggling with this for the entire day now, I hope somebody can help me with this. My problem is fairly simple: I wish to transfer data (mostly simple commands) from one PC to another over the internet. I have been able to achieve this using sockets in Java when both computers are connected to my home router. I then connected both computers to the internet using two different mobile phones and attempted to transmit the data again. I used the mobile phones as this provides a direct route to the internet and if I use my router I have to set up port forwarding, at least, that is how I understand it. I think the problem lies in the method that I set up the client socket. I used: Socket kkSocket = new Socket(ipAddress, 3333); where ipAddress is the IP address of the computer running the server. I got the IP address by right-clicking on the connection, status, support. Is that the correct IP address to use or where can I obtain the address of the server? Also, is it possible to get a fixed name for my computer that I can use instead of entering the IP address, as this changes every time I connect to the internet using my mobile phone? Alternatively, are there better methods to solving my problem such as using http, and if so, where can I find more information about this? Thanks!

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• gluLookAt alternative doesn't work

  - by Brammie

  Hey guys. I'm trying to calculate a lookat matrix myself, instead of using gluLookAt(). My problem is that my matrix doesn't work. using the same parameters on gluLookAt does work however. my way of creating a lookat matrix: Vector3 Eye, At, Up; //these should be parameters =) Vector3 zaxis = At - Eye; zaxis.Normalize(); Vector3 xaxis = Vector3::Cross(Up, zaxis); xaxis.Normalize(); Vector3 yaxis = Vector3::Cross(zaxis, xaxis); yaxis.Normalize(); float r[16] = { xaxis.x, yaxis.x, zaxis.x, 0, xaxis.y, yaxis.y, zaxis.y, 0, xaxis.z, yaxis.z, zaxis.z, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, }; Matrix Rotation; memcpy(Rotation.values, r, sizeof(r)); float t[16] = { 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, 0, -Eye.x, -Eye.y, -Eye.z, 1, }; Matrix Translation; memcpy(Translation.values, t, sizeof(t)); View = Rotation * Translation; // i tried reversing this as well (translation*rotation) now, when i try to use this matrix be calling glMultMatrixf, nothing shows up in my engine, while using the same eye, lookat and up values on gluLookAt works perfect as i said before. glMatrixMode(GL_MODELVIEW); glLoadIdentity(); glMultMatrixf(View); the problem must be in somewhere in the code i posted here, i know the problem is not in my Vector3/Matrix classes, because they work fine when creating a projection matrix.

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• FluentNHibernate: Not.Nullable() doesn't affect output schema

  - by alex

  Hello I'm using fluent nhibernate v. 1.0.0.595. There is a class: public class Weight { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual double Value { get; set; } } I want to map it on the following table: create table [Weight] ( WeightId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL, Weight DOUBLE not null, primary key (WeightId) ) Here is the map: public class WeightMap : ClassMap<Weight> { public WeightMap() { Table("[Weight]"); Id(x => x.Id, "WeightId"); Map(x => x.Value, "Weight").Not.Nullable(); } } The problem is that this mapping produces table with nullable Weight column: Weight DOUBLE null Not-nullable column is generated only with default convention for column name (i.e. Map(x = x.Value).Not.Nullable() instead of Map(x = x.Value, "Weight").Not.Nullable()), but in this case there will be Value column instead of Weight: create table [Weight] ( WeightId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL, Value DOUBLE not null, primary key (WeightId) ) I found similiar problem here: http://code.google.com/p/fluent-nhibernate/issues/detail?id=121, but seems like mentioned workaround with SetAttributeOnColumnElement("not-null", "true") is outdated. Does anybody encountered with this problem? Is there a way to specify named column as not-nullable?

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• C# to unmanaged dll data structures interop

  - by Shane Powell

  I have a unmanaged DLL that exposes a function that takes a pointer to a data structure. I have C# code that creates the data structure and calls the dll function without any problem. At the point of the function call to the dll the pointer is correct. My problem is that the DLL keeps the pointer to the structure and uses the data structure pointer at a later point in time. When the DLL comes to use the pointer it has become invalid (I assume the .net runtime has moved the memory somewhere else). What are the possible solutions to this problem? The possible solutions I can think of are: Fix the memory location of the data structure somehow? I don't know how you would do this in C# or even if you can. Allocate memory manually so that I have control over it e.g. using Marshal.AllocHGlobal Change the DLL function contract to copy the structure data (this is what I'm currently doing as a short term change, but I don't want to change the dll at all if I can help it as it's not my code to begin with). Are there any other better solutions?

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• Is it possible to install into Program Files with limited privileges?

  - by Marek

  I have an application that will be deployed as MSI package (authored in WiX). I am deciding whether to specify elevated or limited privileges as required for the installer. The application does not include anything requiring elevated privileges besides the default install location, which is under Program Files. Now the problem: If I specify elevated privileges, then the user is prompted by UAC for administrator password during the installation. This is not required and prevents non-admin users from installing. If I specify limited privileges, then the user is presented with a dialog to select install location with Program Files being default. In case they do not change the install location (95 % of end users probably won't), then the installer will fail with a message that they should contact the Administrator or run the application as administrator. If they launch the installer as Administrator then they can install into Program Files without problem - but most of the users won't probably know how to launch an installer as administrator. I can potentially set the default install location to e.g. C:\Company name\Program\, but this seems nonstandard to me and majority of users will not probably like this (they are probably used to installing into Program Files). How do you solve this problem with installing applications under limited user accounts?

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• Heroku: Postgres type operator error after migrating DB from MySQL

  - by sevennineteen

  This is a follow-up to a question I'd asked earlier which phrased this as more of a programming problem than a database problem. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2935985/postgres-error-with-sinatra-haml-datamapper-on-heroku I believe the problem has been isolated to the storage of the ID column in Heroku's Postgres database after running db:push. In short, my app runs properly on my original MySQL database, but throws Postgres errors on Heroku when executing any query on the ID column, which seems to have been stored in Postgres as TEXT even though it is stored as INT in MySQL. My question is why the ID column is being created as INT in Postgres on the data transfer to Heroku, and whether there's any way for me to prevent this. Here's the output from a heroku console session which demonstrates the issue: Ruby console for myapp.heroku.com >> Post.first.title => "Welcome to First!" >> Post.first.title.class => String >> Post.first.id => 1 >> Post.first.id.class => Fixnum >> Post[1] PostgresError: ERROR: operator does not exist: text = integer LINE 1: ...", "title", "created_at" FROM "posts" WHERE ("id" = 1) ORDER... ^ HINT: No operator matches the given name and argument type(s). You might need to add explicit type casts. Query: SELECT "id", "name", "email", "url", "title", "created_at" FROM "posts" WHERE ("id" = 1) ORDER BY "id" LIMIT 1 Thanks!

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