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  • Scheduling Jobs On web server

    - by sirasad
    Hi Folks We Want to Create an online game like this.I think that ,this type of games have a scheduling software on web server. For Example : Player Click to create a resource And resource creation will be take a moment like 20 Minutes.(Every resource creation time will be different). This message will send to web server application but this message will not processed at same time for example must be processed after 20 Minutes. The web server application after getting the message must be put the order in the Queue. We have Some big problems : 1- The Jobs must be complete by the web server application Even the player Exit the Game. I think that we must create something like Windows service on Web Server. Can we do it? or Is there a better way? 2- The Second problem depended on problem 1 .Because we will have many Jobs (every player can create 20,30 Jobs in every Loggin and we will have thousands of users) , So Our Scheduling System Must be Work On time . it's possible that , there is 100 , 1000 jobs in a same second , if application Can't Done Jobs in him Second will be use the next second Time and the next second jobs will shift to next second and etc. How We can do for this problem ? Cheers Asad Safari Agile Coach , Scrum Master

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  • BPEL, initialize variable and repeating onAlarm eventHandler

    - by Michael
    I have a little problem I can't solve so far. In BPEL I want to create an onAlarm eventHandler which fires immediatly (i.e. the "for" element is set to 'PT0S') and repeats every 2 seconds. This eventHandler shall contain a counter which increments every time the alarm fires. The question is: How to initialize the counter? If the variable will be initialized within the onAlarm scope the value would not increment anymore. In the "normal" control flow the value also cannot be initialized, because it is not defined if the process or the onAlarm scope runs first. So I would get every now and then an uninitializedVariable exception. My solution would be to not initialize the variable neither in the process scope nor in the onAlarm scope, but create a faultHandler wherein the variable will be initialized and afterwards the onAlarm flow will be executed. Problem is every uninitializedVariable execution will be caught now by this faultHandler and there may be another too. So is there another possibility to deal with this problem or can I somehow find out which variable wasn't initialized properly so the faultHandler can get two control flows? The solution should work on every BPEL engine. Thanks, Michael

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  • Problems initializing a final variable in Java

    - by froadie
    I keep running into slight variations of a problem in Java and it's starting to get to me, and I can't really think of a proper way to get around it. I have an object property that is final, but dynamic. That is, I want the value to be constant once assigned, but the value can be different each runtime. So I declare the class level variable at the beginning of the class - say private final FILE_NAME;. Then, in the constructor, I assign it a value - say FILE_NAME = buildFileName(); The problem begins when I have code in the buildFileName() method that throws an exception. So I try something like this in the constructor: try{ FILE_NAME = buildFileName(); } catch(Exception e){ ... System.exit(1); } Now I have an error - "The blank final field FILE_NAME may not have been initialized." This is where I start to get slightly annoyed at Java's strict compiler. I know that this won't be a problem because if it gets to the catch the program will exit... But the compiler doesn't know that and so doesn't allow this code. If I try to add a dummy assignment to the catch, I get - "The final field FILE_NAME may already have been assigned." I clearly can't assign a default value before the try-catch because I can only assign to it once. Any ideas...?

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  • Using a string inside the DocumentBuilder parse method (need it for parsing XML using XPath)

    - by dierre
    Hi guys! I'm trying to create a RESTful webservice using a Java Servlet. The problem is I have to pass via POST method to a webserver a request. The content of this request is not a parameter but the body itself. So I basically send from ruby something like this: url = URI.parse(@host) req = Net::HTTP::Post.new('/WebService/WebServiceServlet') req['Content-Type'] = "text/xml" # req.basic_auth 'account', 'password' req.body = data response = Net::HTTP.start(url.host, url.port){ |http| puts http.request(req).body } Then I have to retrieve the body of this request in my servlet. I use the classic readline, so I have a string. The problem is when I have to parse it as XML: private void useXML( final String soft, final PrintWriter out) throws ParserConfigurationException, SAXException, IOException, XPathExpressionException, FileNotFoundException { DocumentBuilderFactory domFactory = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); domFactory.setNamespaceAware(true); // never forget this! DocumentBuilder builder = domFactory.newDocumentBuilder(); Document doc = builder.parse(soft); XPathFactory factory = XPathFactory.newInstance(); XPath xpath = factory.newXPath(); XPathExpression expr = xpath.compile("//software/text()"); Object result = expr.evaluate(doc, XPathConstants.NODESET); NodeList nodes = (NodeList) result; for (int i = 0; i < nodes.getLength(); i++) { out.println(nodes.item(i).getNodeValue()); } } The problem is that builder.parse() accepts: parse(File f), parse(InputSource is), parse(InputStream is). Is there any way I can transform my xml string in an InputSource or something like that? I know it could be a dummy question but Java is not my thing, I'm forced to use it and I'm not very skilled.

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  • New projects not built when target platform is set explicitly

    - by stiank81
    I create a new solution with one project, and then change the target platform from "Any CPU" to "x86". After this new projects added doesn't get built by default, and their target platform doesn't follow the global settings. Why?! Looking at the configuration manager new projects added are not checked to "Build", and they get target platform "Any CPU" instead of the globally set x86. Why is this happening? I expect new projects too to get the globally set and defined x86 target platform.. Some things I've tried: Toggle global platform back to Any CPU, and then to x86 again. No change.. Choosing platform explicitly for the new project. x86 is not available in the list, and when I say <New..> and try adding it I'm not allowed as ".. a solution platform with the same name already exists.". On the build properties for the new project I can't change the platform in the Configuration section, but I can set "Platform target" to x86 in the General section. It is however not clear whether this actually makes a difference, and it wouldn't respond if I change the target platform globally later. Initially I thought this was a problem from converting my solution from VS2008 to VS2010, but the problem applies both places. I.e. when I create a solution in VS2008 and just stay in VS2008 I still get the problem.

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  • Delphi - Help calling threaded dll function from another thread

    - by cloudstrif3
    I'm using Delphi 2006 and have a bit of a problem with an application I'm developing. I have a form that creates a thread which calls a function that performs a lengthy operation, lets call it LengthyProcess. Inside the LengthyProcess function we also call several Dll functions which also create threads of their own. The problem that I am having is that if I don't use the Synchronize function of my thread to call LengthyProcess the thread stops responding (the main thread is still responding fine). I don't want to use Synchronize because that means the main thread is waiting for LengthyProcess to finish and therefore defeats the purpose of creating a separate thread. I have tracked the problem down to a function inside the dll that creates a thread and then calls WaitFor, this is all done using TThread by the way. WaitFor checks to see if the CurrentThreadID is equal to the MainThreadID and if it is then it will call CheckSychronization, and all is fine. So if we use Synchronize then the CurrentThreadID will equal the MainThreadID however if we do not use Synchronize then of course CurrentThreadID < MainThreadID, and when this happens WaitFor tells the current thread (the thread I created) to wait for the thread created by the DLL and so CheckSynchronization never gets called and my thread ends up waiting forever for the thread created in the dll. I hope this makes sense, sorry I don't know any better way to explain it. Has anyone else had this issue and knows how to solve it please?

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  • Execute Stored Procedure from Classic ASP

    - by Jaco Pretorius
    For some fantastic reason I find myself debugging a problem in a Classic ASP page (at least 10 years of my life lost in the last 2 days). I'm trying to execute a stored procedure which contains some OUT parameters. The problem is that one of the OUT parameters is not being populated when the stored procedure returns. I can execute the stored proc from SQL management studio (this is 2008) and all the values are being set and returned exactly as expected. declare @inVar1 varchar(255) declare @inVar2 varchar(255) declare @outVar1 varchar(255) declare @outVar2 varchar(255) SET @inVar2 = 'someValue' exec theStoredProc @inVar1 , @inVar2 , @outVar1 OUT, @outVar2 OUT print '@outVar1=' + @outVar1 print '@outVar2=' + @outVar2 Works great. Fantastic. Perfect. The exact values that I'm expecting are being returned and printed out. Right, since I'm trying to debug a Classic ASP page I copied the code into a VBScript file to try and narrow down the problem. Here is what I came up with: Set Conn = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Conn.Open "xxx" Set objCommandSec = CreateObject("ADODB.Command") objCommandSec.ActiveConnection = Conn objCommandSec.CommandType = 4 objCommandSec.CommandText = "theStoredProc " objCommandSec.Parameters.Refresh objCommandSec.Parameters(2) = "someValue" objCommandSec.Execute MsgBox(objCommandSec.Parameters(3)) Doesn't work. Not even a little bit. (Another ten years of my life down the drain) The third parameter is simply NULL - which is what I'm experiencing in the Classic ASP page as well. Could someone shed some light on this? Am I completely daft for thinking that the classic ASP code would be the same as the VBScript code? I think it's using the same scripting engine and syntax so I should be ok, but I'm not 100% sure. The result I'm seeing from my VBScript is the same as I'm seeing in ASP.

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  • SQL Server: preventing dirty reads in a stored procedure

    - by pcampbell
    Consider a SQL Server database and its two stored procs: *1. A proc that performs 3 important things in a transaction: Create a customer, call a sproc to perform another insert, and conditionally insert a third record with the new identity. BEGIN TRAN INSERT INTO Customer(CustName) (@CustomerName) SELECT @NewID = SCOPE_IDENTITY() EXEC CreateNewCustomerAccount @NewID, @CustomerPhoneNumber IF @InvoiceTotal > 100000 INSERT INTO PreferredCust(InvoiceTotal, CustID) VALUES (@InvoiceTotal, @NewID) COMMIT TRAN *2. A stored proc which polls the Customer table for new entries that don't have a related PreferredCust entry. The client app performs the polling by calling this stored proc every 500ms. A problem has arisen where the polling stored procedure has found an entry in the Customer table, and returned it as part of its results. The problem was that it has picked up that record, I am assuming, as part of a dirty read. The record ended up having an entry in PreferredCust later, and ended up creating a problem downstream. Question How can you explicitly prevent dirty reads by that second stored proc? The environment is SQL Server 2005 with the default configuration out of the box. No other locking hits are given in either of these stored procedures.

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  • Bookmarkable URLs after Ajax for Wicket

    - by Wolfgang
    There is this well-known problem that browsers don't put Ajax request in the request history and cause problems for bookmarkability, forward/back button, and refresh. Also, there is a common solution to that problem that appends the hash symbol # and some additional parameters to the URL by using Javascript window.location.hash = .... In this question a basic solution to this problem is proposed, for example. = My question is if such a solution has been integrated in Wicket, so that existing Wicket facilities are used and no custom Javascript had to be added. If not, I'd be interested in how this could be done. Such a solution had to answer the question what should be put after the hash. I like the idea that the bookmarkable URL that (in the non-Ajax case) were in front of the hash could be put behind it. For example, when you are on http://host/catalog and reach a page http://host/product/xyz the Ajax-triggered URL would be http://host/catalog#/product/xyz. Then it would be easy to write an onload handler that checks for the # and does a redirect to the URL after the hash.

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  • Hibernate is persisting entity during flush when the entity has not changed

    - by Preston
    I'm having a problem where the entity manger is persisting an entity that I don't think has changed during the flush. I know the following code is the problem because if I comment it out the entity doesn't persist. In this code all I'm doing is loading the entity and calling some getters. Query qry = em.createNamedQuery("Clients.findByClientID"); qry.setParameter("clientID", clientID); Clients client = (Clients) qry.getSingleResult(); results.setFname(client.getFirstName()); results.setLname(client.getLastName()); ... return results; Later in a different method I do another namedQuery which causes the entity manger to flush. For some reason the client loaded above is persisted. The reason this is a problem is because in the middle of all this, there is some old code that is making some straight JDBC changes to the client. When the entity manger persists the changes made by the straight JDBC are lost. The theory we have at moment is that the entity manger is comparing the entity to the underlying record, sees that it's different, then persists it. Can someone explain or confirm the behavior we're seeing?

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  • Working with complex objects in Prevayler commands

    - by alexantd
    The demos included in the Prevayler distribution show how to pass in a couple strings (or something simple like that) into a command constructor in order to create or update an object. The problem is that I have an object called MyObject that has a lot of fields. If I had to pass all of them into the CreateMyObject command manually, it would be a pain. So an alternative I thought of is to pass my business object itself into the command, but to hang onto a clone of it (keeping in mind that I can't store the BO directly in the command). Of course after executing this command, I would need to make sure to dispose of the original copy that I passed in. public class CreateMyObject implements TransactionWithQuery { private MyObject object; public CreateMyObject(MyObject business_obj) { this.object = (MyObject) business_obj.clone(); } public Object executeAndQuery(...) throws Exception { ... } } The Prevayler wiki says: Transactions can't carry direct object references (pointers) to business objects. This has become known as the baptism problem because it's a common beginner pitfall. Direct object references don't work because once a transaction has been serialized to the journal and then deserialized for execution its object references no longer refer to the intended objects - - any objects they may have referred to at first will have been copied by the serialization process! Therefore, a transaction must carry some kind of string or numeric identifiers for any objects it wants to refer to, and it must look up the objects when it is executed. I think by cloning the passed-in object I will be getting around the "direct object pointer" problem, but I still don't know whether or not this is a good idea...

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  • Qt4Dotnet on Mac OS X

    - by Tony
    Hello everyone. I'm using Qt4Dotnet project in order to port application originally written in C# on Linux and Mac. Port to Linux hasn't taken much efforts and works fine. But Mac (10.4 Tiger) is a bit more stubborn. The problem is: when I try to start my application it throws an exception. Exception states that com.trolltech.qt.QtJambi_LibraryInitializer is unable to find all necessary ibraries. QtJambi library initializer uses java.library.path VM environment variable. This variable includes current working directory. I put all necessary libraries in a working directory. When I try to run the application from MonoDevelop IDE, initializer is able to load one library, but the other libraries are 'missing': An exception was thrown by the type initializer for com.trolltech.qt.QtJambi_LibraryInitializer --- java.lang.RuntimeException: Loading library failed, progress so far: No 'qtjambi-deployment.xml' found in classpath, loading libraries via 'java.library.path' Loading library: 'libQtCore.4.dylib'... - using 'java.library.path' - ok, path was: /Users/chin/test/bin/Debug/libQtCore.4.dylib Loading library: 'libqtjambi.jnilib'... - using 'java.library.path' Both libQtCore.4.dylib and libqtjambi.jnilib are in the same directory. When I try to run it from the command prompt, the initializer is unable to load even libQtCore.4.dylib. I'm using Qt4Dotnet v4.5.0 (currently the latest) with QtJambi v4.5.2 libraries. This might be the source of the problem, but I'm neither able to compile Qt4Dotnet v4.5.2 by myself nor to find QtJambi v4.5.0 libraries. Project's page states that some sort of patch should be applied to QtJambi's source code in order to be compatible with Mono framework, but this patch hasn't been released yet. Without this patch application crashes in a strange manner (other than library seek fault). I must note that original QtJambi loads all necessary libraries perfectly, so it might be issues of IKVM compiler used to translate QtJambi into .Net library. Any suggestions how can I overcome this problem?

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  • std::string insert method has ambiguous overloads?

    - by sdg
    Environment: VS2005 C++ using STLPort 5.1.4. Compiling the following code snippet: std::string copied = "asdf"; char ch = 's'; copied.insert(0,1,ch); I receive an error: Error 1 error C2668: 'stlpx_std::basic_string<_CharT,_Traits,_Alloc>::insert' : ambiguous call to overloaded function It appears that the problem is the insert method call on the string object. The two defined overloads are void insert ( iterator p, size_t n, char c ); string& insert ( size_t pos1, size_t n, char c ); But given that STLPort uses a simple char* as its iterator, the literal zero in the insert method in my code is ambiguous. So while I can easily overcome the problem by hinting such as copied.insert(size_t(0),1,ch); My question is: is this overloading and possible ambiguity intentional in the specification? Or more likely an unintended side-effect of the specific STLPort implementation? (Note that the Microsoft-supplied STL does not have this problem as it has a class for the iterator, instead of a naked pointer)

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  • Mac OS X and static boost libs -> std::string fail

    - by Ionic
    Hi all, I'm experiencing some very weird problems with static boost libraries under Mac OS X 10.6.6. The error message is main(78485) malloc: *** error for object 0x1000e0b20: pointer being freed was not allocated *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug [1] 78485 abort (core dumped) and a tiny bit of example code which will trigger this problem: #define BOOST_FILESYSTEM_VERSION 3 #include <boost/filesystem.hpp> #include <iostream> int main (int argc, char **argv) { std::cout << boost::filesystem::current_path ().string () << '\n'; } This problem always occurs when linking the static boost libraries into the binary. Linking dynamically will work fine, though. I've seen various reports for quite a similar OS X bug with GCC 4.2 and the _GLIBCXX_DEBUG macro set, but this one seems even more generic, as I'm neither using XCode, nor setting the macro (even undefining it does not help. I tried it just to make sure it's really not related to this problem.) Does anybody have any pointers to why this is happening or even maybe a solution (rather than using the dynamic library workaround)? Best regards, Mihai

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  • Web-app currency input/manipulation/calculation with javascript .. there has got to be a better (fra

    - by dreftymac
    BACKGROUND: I am of the "user-input-lockdown" school of thought. Whenever possible, I try to mistrust and sanitize user input, both client side and server side; and I try to take multiple opportunities to restrict possible inputs to a known subset of possibilities, usually this means providing a lot of checkboxes and select lists. (This is from the usability side of things, I know security-wise that malicious users can easily bypass fixed user input GUI controls). PROBLEM: Anyway, the problem always arises with non-fixed input of currency. Whenever I have to accept a freely-specified dollar amount as user input, I always have to confront these problems/annoyances and it is always painful: 1) Make sure to give the user two input boxes for each currency_datapoint, one for the whole_dollar_part and another for the fractional_pennies_part 2) Whenever the user changes a currency_datapoint, provide keystroke-by-keystroke GUI feedback to let them know whether the currency_datapoint is well-formed, with context-appropriate validation rules (e.g., no negatives?, nonzero only?, numeric only!, no non-numeric punctuation! no symbols!) 3) For display purposes, every user-provided currency_datapoint should be translated to human-readable currency formatting (dollar sign, period, commas provided by the app, where appropriate) 4) For calculation purposes, every user-provided currency_datapoint has to be converted to integer (all pennies, to avoid floating point errors) and summed into a grand total with zero or more subtotals. 5) Every user-provided currency_datapoint should be displayed or displayable in a nice "tabular" format, which auto-updates as the user enters each currency_datapoint, including a baloon that warns when one or more currency_datapoints is not well-formed. I seem to be re-inventing this wheel every time I have to work with currency in Javascript on the client side (server side is a bit more flexible since most programming languages have higher-level currency formatting logic). QUESTION: Has anyone out there solved the problem of dealing with the above issues, client side, in a way that is server-side-technology-stack agnostic, (preferrably plain javascript or jquery)? This is getting old, there has to be a better way.

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  • Application.ProcessMessages hangs???

    - by X-Ray
    my single threaded delphi 2009 app (not quite yet complete) has started to have a problem with Application.ProcessMessages hanging. my app has a TTimer object that fires every 100 ms to poll an external device. i use Application.ProcessMessages to update the screen when something changes so the app is still responsive. one of these was in a grid OnMouseDown event. in there, it had an Application.ProcessMessages that essentially hung. removing that was no problem except that i soon discovered another Application.ProcessMessages that was also blocking. i think what may be happening to me is that the TTimer is--in the app mode i'm currently debugging--probably taking too long to complete. i have prevented the TTimer.OnTimer event hander from re-entering the same code (see below): procedure TfrmMeas.tmrCheckTimer(Sender: TObject); begin if m_CheckTimerBusy then exit; m_CheckTimerBusy:=true; try PollForAndShowMeasurements; finally m_CheckTimerBusy:=false; end; end; what places would it be a bad practice to call Application.ProcessMessages? OnPaint routines springs to mind as something that wouldn't make sense. any general recommendations? i am surprised to see this kind of problem arise at this point in the development!

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  • Why do I get empty request from the Jakarta Commons HttpClient?

    - by polyurethan
    I have a problem with the Jakarta Commons HttpClient. Before my self-written HttpServer gets the real request there is one request which is completely empty. That's the first problem. The second problem is, sometimes the request data ends after the third or fourth line of the http request: POST / HTTP/1.1 User-Agent: Jakarta Commons-HttpClient/3.1 Host: 127.0.0.1:4232 For debugging I am using the Axis TCPMonitor. There every things is fine but the empty request. How I process the stream: StringBuffer requestBuffer = new StringBuffer(); InputStreamReader is = new InputStreamReader(socket.getInputStream(), "UTF-8"); int byteIn = -1; do { byteIn = is.read(); if (byteIn > 0) { requestBuffer.append((char) byteIn); } } while (byteIn != -1 && is.ready()); String requestData = requestBuffer.toString(); How I send the request: client.getParams().setSoTimeout(30000); method = new PostMethod(url.getPath()); method.getParams().setContentCharset("utf-8"); method.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/xml; charset=utf-8"); method.addRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); method.setFollowRedirects(false); byte[] requestXml = getRequestXml(); method.setRequestEntity(new InputStreamRequestEntity(new ByteArrayInputStream(requestXml))); client.executeMethod(method); int statusCode = method.getStatusCode(); Have anyone of you an idea how to solve these problems? Alex

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  • C# : Forcing a clean run in a long running SQL reader loop?

    - by Wardy
    I have a SQL data reader that reads 2 columns from a sql db table. once it has done its bit it then starts again selecting another 2 columns. I would pull the whole lot in one go but that presents a whole other set of challenges. My problem is that the table contains a large amount of data (some 3 million rows or so) which makes working with the entire set a bit of a problem. I'm trying to validate the field values so i'm pulling the ID column then one of the other cols and running each value in the column through a validation pipeline where the results are stored in another database. My problem is that when the reader hits the end of handlin one column I need to force it to immediately clean up every little block of ram used as this process uses about 700MB and it has about 200 columns to go through. Without a full Garbage Collect I will definately run out of ram. Anyone got any ideas how I can do this? I'm using lots of small reusable objects, my thought was that I could just call GC.Collect() on the end of each read cycle and that would flush everything out, unfortunately that isn't happening for some reason.

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  • How to obtain the panel within a treeview (WPF)

    - by sperling
    How can one obtain the panel that is used within a TreeView? I've read that by default TreeView uses a VirtualizingStackPanel for this. When I look at a TreeView template, all I see is <ItemsPresenter />, which seems to hide the details of what panel is used. Possible solutions: 1) On the treeview instance ("tv"), from code, do this: tv.ItemsPanel. The problem is, this does not return a panel, but an ItemsPanelTemplate ("gets or sets the template that defines the panel that controls the layout of the items"). 2) Make a TreeView template that explicitly replaces <ItemsPresenter /> with your own ItemsControl.ItemsPanel. I am providing a special template anyways, so this is fine in my scenario. Then give a part name to the panel that you place within that template, and from code you can obtain that part (i.e. the panel). The problem with this? see below. (I am using a control named VirtualTreeView which is derived from TreeView, as is seen below): , use following: -- [sorry folks about poor formatting here, this is my first post, I tried 4 spaces for code... doesn't seem to work?] [I stripped out all clutter here for visibility...] The problem with this is: this immediately overrides any TreeView layout mechanism. Actually, you just get a blank screen, even when you have TreeViewItems filling the tree. Well, the reason I want to get a hold of the panel is to take some part in the MeaureOverride, but without going into all of that, I certainly do not want to rewrite the book of how to layout a treeview. I.e., doing this the step #2 way seems to invalidate the point of even using a TreeView in the first place. Sorry if there is some confusion here, thanks for any help you can offer.

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  • Impersonate SYSTEM (or equivalent) from Administrator Account

    - by KevenK
    This question is a follow up and continuation of this question about a Privilege problem I'm dealing with currently. Problem Summary: I'm running a program under a Domain Administrator account that does not have Debug programs (SeDebugPrivilege) privilege, but I need it on the local machine. Klugey Solution: The program can install itself as a service on the local machine, and start the service. Said service now runs under the SYSTEM account, which enables us to use our SeTCBPrivilege privilege to create a new access token which does have SeDebugPrivilege. We can then use the newly created token to re-launch the initial program with the elevated rights. I personally do not like this solution. I feel it should be possible to acquire the necessary privileges as an Administrator without having to make system modifications such as installing a service (even if it is only temporary). I am hoping that there is a solution that minimizes system modifications and can preferably be done on the fly (ie: Not require restarting itself). I have unsuccessfully tried to LogonUser as SYSTEM and tried to OpenProcessToken on a known SYSTEM process (such as csrss.exe) (which fails, because you cannot OpenProcess with PROCESS_TOKEN_QUERY to get a handle to the process without the privileges I'm trying to acquire). I'm just at my wit's end trying to come up with an alternative solution to this problem. I was hoping there was an easy way to grab a privileged token on the host machine and impersonate it for this program, but I haven't found a way. If anyone knows of a way around this, or even has suggestions on things that might work, please let me know. I really appreciate the help, thanks!

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  • Git + GitHub + Heroku

    - by Haseeb Khan
    Hi All, I am new to the world of Git, GitHub and Heroku. So far, I am enjoying this paradigm but coming from a background with SVN, things seems a bit complicated to me in the world of Git. I am facing a problem for which I am looking for a solution. Scenario: I have setup a new private project on GitHub. I forked the private project and now I have the following structure in my branch: /project /apps /my-apps /my-app-1 .... /my-app-2 .... /your-apps /your-app-1 .... /your-app-2 .... /plugins .... I can commit the code in my Fork on GitHub from my machine in any of the folders I want. Later on, these would be pulled into the master repository by the admin of the project. For every individual application in the apps folder, I have setup an app on Heroku which is a Git Repo in itself where I push my changes when I am done with the user stories from my local machine. In short, every app in the apps folder is a Rails App hosted on Heroku. Problem: What I want is that when I push my changes into Heroku, they can be committed into my project fork on GitHub as well, so, it also has the latest code all the time. The issue I see is that the code on Heroku is a Git Repo while the folders which I have on GitHub are part of a Repo. So far, what I have researched is that there is something known as Submodule in the Git World which can come to the rescue, however, I have not been able to find some newbie instructions. Can someone in the community be kind enough to share thoughts and help me to identify the solution of this problem? Thanks in advance. Regards, Haseeb Khan haseeb [AT] tkxel.com TkXel

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  • MUD (game) design concept question about timed events.

    - by mudder
    I'm trying my hand at building a MUD (multiplayer interactive-fiction game) I'm in the design/conceptualizing phase and I've run into a problem that I can't come up with a solution for. I'm hoping some more experienced programmers will have some advice. Here's the problem as best I can explain it. When the player decides to perform an action he sends a command to the server. the server then processes the command, determines whether or not the action can be performed, and either does it or responds with a reason as to why it could not be done. One reason that an action might fail is that the player is busy doing something else. For instance, if a player is mid-fight and has just swung a massive broadsword, it might take 3 seconds before he can repeat this action. If the player attempts to swing again to soon, the game will respond indicating that he must wait x seconds before doing that. Now, this I can probably design without much trouble. The problem I'm having is how I can replicate this behavior from AI creatures. All of the events that are being performed by the server ON ITS OWN, aka not as an immediate reaction to something a player has done, will have to be time sensitive. Some evil monster has cast a spell on you but must wait 30 seconds before doing it again... I think I'll probably be adding all these events to some kind of event queue, but how can I make that event queue time sensitive?

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  • "One or more breakpoints cannot be set and have been disabled. Execution will stop at the beginning

    - by sam
    I set a breakpoint in my code in Visual-C++, but when I run, I see the error mentioned in the title. I know this question has been asked before on Stack Overflow (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/657470/breakpoints-cannot-be-set-and-have-been-disabled-problem), but none of the answers there fully explained the problem I'm seeing. The closest I can see is something about the linker, but I don't understand that - so if someone could explain in more detail that would be great. In my case, I have 2 projects in Visual C++ - the production dsw, and the test code dsw. I have loaded and rebuilt both dsws in debug mode. I want a breakpoint in the production code, which is run via the test scripts. My issue is I get the error message when I run the test code, because the break point is in the production code, which isn't loaded up when the test starts. Near the beginning of the test script there is a mytest_initialize() command. I imagine this goes off and loads up the production dll. Once this line has executed, I can put the breakpoint in my production code and run until I hit it. But it's quite annoying to have to run to this line, set the breakpoint and continue every time I want to run the test. So I think the problem is Visual C++ doesn't realise the two projects are related. Is this a linker issue? What does the linker do and what settings should I change to make this work? Thanks in advance. Apologies if instead I should be appending this question to the existing one, this is my first post so not quite sure how this should work.

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  • Why are my event listeners firing more than once?

    - by Arms
    In my Flash project I have a movieclip that has 2 keyframes. Both frames contain 1 movieclip each. frame 1 - Landing frame 2 - Game The flow of the application is simple: User arrives on landing page (frame 1) User clicks "start game" button User is brought to the game page (frame 2) When the game is over, the user can press a "play again" button which brings them back to step 1 Both Landing and Game movieclips are linked to separate classes that define event listeners. The problem is that when I end up back at step 1 after playing the game, the Game event listeners fire twice for their respective event. And if I go through the process a third time, the event listeners fire three times for every event. This keeps happening, so if I loop through the application flow 7 times, the event listeners fire seven times. I don't understand why this is happening because on frame 1, the Game movieclip (and I would assume its related class instance) does not exist - but I'm clearly missing something here. I've run into this problem in other projects too, and tried fixing it by first checking if the event listeners existed and only defining them if they didn't, but I ended up with unexpected results that didn't really solve the problem. I need to ensure that the event listeners only fire once. Any advice & insight would be greatly appreciated, thanks!

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  • Broken console in Maven project using Netbeans

    - by Maciek Sawicki
    Hi, I have strange problem with my Neatens+Maven installation. This is the shortest code to reproduce the problem: public class App { public static void main( String[] args ) { // Create a scanner to read from keyboard Scanner scanner = new Scanner (System.in); Scanner s= new Scanner(System.in); String param= s.next(); System.out.println(param); } } When I'm running it as Maven Project inside Netbeans console seems to be broken. It just ignores my input. It's look like infinitive loop in System.out.println(param);. However this project works fine when it's compiled as "Java Aplication" project. It also works O.K. if I build and run it from cmd. System info: Os: Vista IDE: Netbeans 6.8 Maven: apache-maven-2.2.1 //edit Built program (using mavean from Netbeans) works fine. I just can't test it using Net beans. And I think I forgot to ask the question ;). So of course my first question is: how can I fix this problem? And second is: Is it any workaround for this? For example configuring Netbeans to run external commend line app instead of using built in console.

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