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  • Flex web application: prevent framerate drop when window is invisible

    - by JayPea
    So there's been a new "feature" in the flash player since version 10.1, which reduces the player's framerate to 2 fps when the application window is out of view. This is good news for performance, but it can break some functionality, such as the Timer class. I have an application which uses a Timer to display a countdown. Given the nature of the application, it is required for the Timer to complete its countdown even if the user is not there to see it. Imagine that you need to give the user only 10 seconds to perform a task. If the user minimizes the window halfway through the counter, they can take as much time as they want and still have 5 seconds left when they return to the window. This apparently can not be avoided with the newer flash players. In Air applications there is the backgroundFrameRate property which can be set to prevent this behavior, but this is part of the WindowedApplication class, so it seems that it is not available in a web application. Does anyone know a way to keep a constant frame rate even when the window is not visible? Thanks

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  • Syntactical analysis with Flex/Bison part 2

    - by Imran
    Hallo, I need help in Lex/Yacc Programming. I wrote a compiler for a syntactical analysis for inputs of many statements. Now i have a special problem. In case of an Input the compiler gives the right output, which statement is uses, constant operator or a jmp instructor to which label, now i have to write so, if now a if statement comes, first the first command (before the else) must be give out when the assignment of the if is yes then it must jump to the end because the command after the else isnt needed, so after this jmp then the second command must be give out. I show it in an example maybe you understand what i mean. Input adr. Output if(x==0) 10 if(x==0) Wait 5 20 WAIT 5 else 30 JMP 50 Wait 1 40 WAIT 1 end 50 END like so. I have an idea, maybe i can do it whith a special if statement like IF exp jmp_stmt_end stmt_seq END when the if statement is given in the input the compiler has to recognize the end ofthe statement and like my jmp_stmt in my compiler ( you have to download the files from http://bitbucket.org/matrix/changed-tiny) only to jump to the end. I hope you understand my problem.thanks.

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  • Linq to Entities custom ordering via position mapping table

    - by Bigfellahull
    Hi, I have a news table and I would like to implement custom ordering. I have done this before via a positional mapping table which has newsIds and a position. I then LEFT OUTER JOIN the position table ON news.newsId = position.itemId with a select case statement CASE WHEN [position] IS NULL THEN 9999 ELSE [position] END and order by position asc, articleDate desc. Now I am trying to do the same with Linq to Entities. I have set up my tables with a PK, FK relationship so that my News object has an Entity Collection of positions. Now comes the bit I can't work out. How to implement the LEFT OUTER JOIN. I have so far: var query = SelectMany (n => n.Positions, (n, s) => new { n, s }) .OrderBy(x => x.s.position) .ThenByDescending(x => x.n.articleDate) .Select(x => x.n); This kinda works. However this uses a INNER JOIN so not what I am after. I had another idea: ret = ret.OrderBy(n => n.ShufflePositions.Select(s => s.position)); However I get the error DbSortClause expressions must have a type that is order comparable. I also tried ret = ret.GroupJoin(tse.ShufflePositions, n => n.id, s => s.itemId, (n, s) => new { n, s }) .OrderBy(x => x.s.Select(z => z.position)) .ThenByDescending(x => x.n.articleDate) .Select(x => x.n); but I get the same error! If anyone can help me out, it would be much appreciated!

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  • Performance of VIEW vs. SQL statement

    - by Matt W.
    I have a query that goes something like the following: select <field list> from <table list> where <join conditions> and <condition list> and PrimaryKey in (select PrimaryKey from <table list> where <join list> and <condition list>) and PrimaryKey not in (select PrimaryKey from <table list> where <join list> and <condition list>) The sub-select queries both have multiple sub-select queries of their own that I'm not showing so as not to clutter the statement. One of the developers on my team thinks a view would be better. I disagree in that the SQL statement uses variables passed in by the program (based on the user's login Id). Are there any hard and fast rules on when a view should be used vs. using a SQL statement? What kind of performance gain issues are there in running SQL statements on their own against regular tables vs. against views. (Note that all the joins / where conditions are against indexed columns, so that shouldn't be an issue.) EDIT for clarification... Here's the query I'm working with: select obj_id from object where obj_id in( (select distinct(sec_id) from security where sec_type_id = 494 and ( (sec_usergroup_id = 3278 and sec_usergroup_type_id = 230) or (sec_usergroup_id in (select ug_gi_id from user_group where ug_ui_id = 3278) and sec_usergroup_type_id = 231) ) and sec_obj_id in ( select obj_id from object where obj_ot_id in (select of_ot_id from obj_form left outer join obj_type on ot_id = of_ot_id where ot_app_id = 87 and of_id in (select sec_obj_id from security where sec_type_id = 493 and ( (sec_usergroup_id = 3278 and sec_usergroup_type_id = 230) or (sec_usergroup_id in (select ug_gi_id from user_group where ug_ui_id = 3278) and sec_usergroup_type_id = 231) ) ) and of_usage_type_id = 131 ) ) ) ) or (obj_ot_id in (select of_ot_id from obj_form left outer join obj_type on ot_id = of_ot_id where ot_app_id = 87 and of_id in (select sec_obj_id from security where sec_type_id = 493 and ( (sec_usergroup_id = 3278 and sec_usergroup_type_id = 230) or (sec_usergroup_id in (select ug_gi_id from user_group where ug_ui_id = 3278) and sec_usergroup_type_id = 231) ) ) and of_usage_type_id = 131 ) and obj_id not in (select sec_obj_id from security where sec_type_id = 494) )

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  • How do I debug into an ILMerged assembly?

    - by Rory Becker
    Summary I want to alter the build process of a 2-assembly solution, such that a call to ILMerge is invoked, and the build results in a single assembly. Further I would like to be able to debug into the resultant assembly. Preparation - A simple example New Solution - ClassLibrary1 Create a static function 'GetMessage' in Class1 which returns the string "Hello world" Create new console app which references the ClassLibrary. Output GetMessage from main() via the console. You now have a 2 assembly app which outputs "Hello World" to the console. So what next..? I would like to alter the Console app build process, to include a post build step which uses ILMerge, to merge the ClassLibrary assembly into the Console assembly After this step I should be able to: Run the Console app directly with no ClassLibrary1.dll present Run the Console app via F5 (or F11) in VS and be able to debug into each of the 2 projects. Limited Success I read this blogpost and managed to achieve the merge I was after with a post-build command of... "$(ProjectDir)ILMerge.bat" "$(TargetDir)" $(ProjectName) ...and an ILMerge.bat file which read... CD %1 Copy %2.exe temp.exe ILMerge.exe /out:%2.exe temp.exe ClassLibrary1.dll Del temp.exe Del ClassLibrary1.* This works fairly well, and does in fact produce an exe which runs outside the VS environment as required. However it does not appear to produce symbols (.pdb file) which VS is able to use in order to debug into the code. I think this is the last piece of the puzzle. Does anyone know how I can make this work? FWIW I am running VS2010 on an x64 Win7 x64 machine.

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  • Apache proxy to Lighttpd: changing $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] in php

    - by watain
    I have a WordPress blog running on lighttpd-1.4.19, listening on at www00:81. On the same host, apache-2.2.11 listens on port 80, which creates a proxy connection from http://blog.mydomain.org:80 to http://blog.mydomain.org:81. The Apache virtualhost looks as follows: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName blog.mydomain.org ProxyRequests Off <Proxy *> Order deny,allow Allow from all </Proxy> ProxyPass / http://blog.mydomain.org:81/ ProxyPassReverse / http://blog.mydomain.org:81/ </VirtualHost> Using debug.log-request-handling = "enable" I get the following log entry when I browse http://blog.mydomain.org:80 (notice the Host headers): 2010-05-10 08:47:14: (request.c.294) fd: 6 request-len: 853 GET / HTTP/1.1 Host: blog.mydomain.org:81 [...] 2010-05-10 08:47:15: (request.c.294) fd: 8 request-len: 754 GET /wp-content/uploads/2010/01/image.gif?w=280 HTTP/1.1 Host: www00:81 My problem: as far as I know, the PHP environment variable $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] is set to that Host header variable. Unfortunately, WordPress uses that variable in their system to create URLs to pictures on the blog. These URLs won't be accessible behind a firewall of course. How can I force the host header to be blog.mydomain.org instead of blog.mydomain.org:81, respectively www00:81? I already added set server.name = "blog.mydomain.org" to my lighttpd.conf, but this didn't work. Any suggestions are appreciated, thank you.

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  • Website: Make printable version with footnotes?

    - by DavidR
    I have a website that uses editable divs so that a user can modify or make notes to a text. Is there a way I can have the website generate a pdf or some printable document with footnotes, such that if a user has this: <div class="text" id="text_1"> <div class="bodyTest">This is the body text</div> <div class="notes">These are the notes</div> </div> <div class="text" id="text_2"> <div class="bodyTest">This is the body text</div> <div class="notes">These are the notes</div> </div> the website will generate a printable version (or document) in such a way thatdiv.notes will appear as a footnote on the same page on which div#text_1 appears? I don't need a full answer, just a shove in the general direction will be amazing. Thanks.

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  • This pagination script is doodoo - I need a better one!

    - by ClarkSKent
    Hello, I was looking at the pagination script (posted below) and found it to be gros,s and not very good at all especially when trying to customize it. This is what the main page looks like: <?php include('config.php'); $per_page = 9; //Calculating no of pages $sql = "select * from messages"; $result = mysql_query($sql); $count = mysql_num_rows($result); $pages = ceil($count/$per_page) ?> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/ libs/jquery/1.3.0/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery_pagination.js"></script> <div id="loading" ></div> <div id="content" ></div> <ul id="pagination"> <?php //Pagination Numbers for($i=1; $i<=$pages; $i++) { echo '<li id="'.$i.'">'.$i.'</li>'; } ?> </ul> The top part of the code gets the results from the mysql db and than uses this information to display the numbers in the body of this page. I am trying to put something like this on a separate page like count_page.php and then just include it. I guess my question is, if there is a better way of doing the above with better structure. A better way to go through the db and count the results and display the appropriate numbers. The above seems messy. Thanks for any help or suggestions on this.

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  • How should I secure my webapp written using Wicket, Spring, and JPA?

    - by Martin
    So, I have an web-based application that is using the Wicket 1.4 framework, and it uses Spring beans, the Java Persistence API (JPA), and the OpenSessionInView pattern. I'm hoping to find a security model that is declarative, but doesn't require gobs of XML configuration -- I'd prefer annotations. Here are the options so far: Spring Security (guide) - looks complete, but every guide I find that combines it with Wicket still calls it Acegi Security, which makes me think it must be old. Wicket-Auth-Roles (guide 1 and guide 2) - Most guides recommend mixing this with Spring Security, and I love the declarative style of @Authorize("ROLE1","ROLE2",etc). I'm concerned about having to extend AuthenticatedWebApplication, since I'm already extending org.apache.wicket.protocol.http.WebApplication, and Spring is already proxying that behind org.apache.wicket.spring.SpringWebApplicationFactory. SWARM / WASP (guide) - This looks the newest (though the main contributor passed away years ago), but I hate all of the JAAS-styled text files that declare permissions for principals. I also don't like the idea of making an Action class for every single thing a user might want to do. Secure models also aren't immediately obvious to me. Plus, there isn't an Authn example. Additionally, it looks like lots of folks recommend mixing the first and second options. I can't tell what the best practice is at all, though.

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  • Installer downloads wrong version of sql server compact edition

    - by MartinStettner
    I have a Visual Studio setup project which defines SQL Server 3.5 as prerequisite. I also set it up to download the required files from the source (i.e. Microsoft). My project uses Sql Server 3.5 SP1. If I create the installer on my development machine, everything works fine. When the installer is built on the build machine, it downloads the "old" 3.5 version (without SP1) which makes my application crash. (If I install SP1 on the test system manually, the application just works find...) I installed both Visual Studio 2008 SP1 and Sql Server 3.5 SP1 on the build machine. This seems to be some issue with the prerequisite packages but they look the same on the development and the build machines. Any idea what goes wrong here? EDIT Ok, I rechecked it and the package descriptions are'nt the sames. Oddly enough, the .msi file is the right one on the build machine but the old one on the development machine, so I guess if I tried to build an installer which includes the prerequisites, I'd get the wrong result on the dev machine and the right one on the build machine. Extended question: How are the prerequesite packages (under C:\Program Files\Microsoft SDKs\Windows\v6.0A\Bootstrapper\Packages\SQL Server Compact Edition) meant to be updated to SP1? Is the SQL Server CE SP1 installer responsible for this?

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  • What is a good automated data import method for SQL Server?

    - by Joel Potter
    I'm in the process of porting some SQL Server 2005 databases to SQL Server 2008. One of these databases has an associated import application (Windows task) which uses SSIS with a DTS package to import a large dataset from an MS Access database nightly. In upgrading to SQL Server 2008, I discovered that I can't run the same console application which has been performing the imports due to the missing manageddts DLL in SQL Server 2008. It's several years old and in need of a rewrite for various reason, plus, I've been fairly unhappy with DTS in general. The original reason DTS was chosen was for speed (5 min import time compared to 30+ for ADO.NET). The format of the data to import is out of my control (the client likes Access). I would also like to be able to run the import from a machine completely separate from the server hosting SQL Server and preferably with minimal SQL features installed. Options I've considered: Creating an Access application to connect to both databases (SQL Server and Access) and perform the import (Ugh!) Revisiting ADO.NET to see if the original implementation was poorly written. Updated SSIS packages. What other technologies should I be considering for this job?

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  • Redirecting to frontpage after 404 error in PHP

    - by Saif Bechan
    I have a php web page that now uses custom error pages when a page is not found. The custom error pages are included in PHP. So when somebody types in an URL that does not exists I just include an error page, and the error page starts with: <?php header("HTTP/1.1 404 Not> Found"); ?> This also tells crawlers that the page does not exist. Now I have set up a new system. When a user types a wrong url, the user is sent back to the frontpage and a message is displayed on the frontpage. I redirect to the frontpage like this: header('Location:' . __TINY_URL . '/'); Now the problem is PHP just sends back a 200 code, page found. How can I mix these two to create a 404 code on the frontpage. And is this overall a nice way of presenting and error page.

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  • Using an ORM with a database that has no defined relationships?

    - by Ahmad
    Consider a database(MSSQL 2005) that consists of 100+ tables which have primary keys defined to a certain degree. There are 'relationships' between tables, however these are not enforced with foreign key constraints. Consider the following simplified example of typical types of tables I am dealing with. The are clear relations between the User and City and Province tables. However, they key issues is the inconsistent data types in the tables and naming conventions. User: UserRowId [int] PK Name [varchar(50)] CityId [smallint] ProvinceRowId [bigint] City: CityRowId [bigint] PK CityDescription [varchar(100)] Province: ProvinceId [int] PK ProvinceDesc [varchar(50)] I am considering a rewrite of the application (in ASP.net MVC) that uses this data source as is similar in design to MVC storefront. However I am going through a proof of concept phase and this is one of the stumbling blocks I have come across. What are my options in terms of ORM choice that can be easily used and why? Should I even be considering an ORM? (The reason I ask this is that most explanations and tutorials all work with relatively cleanly designed existing databases, or newly created ones when compared to mine. I am thus having a very hard time trying to find a way forward with this problem) There is a huge amount of existing SQL queries, would a datamappper(eg IBatis.net) be more suitable since we could easily modify them to work and reuse the investment already made? I have found this question on SO which indicates to me that an ORM can be used - however I get the impression that this a question of mapping? Note: at the moment, the object model is not clearly defined as it was non-existent. The existing system pretty much did almost everything in SQL or consisted of overly complicated, and numerous queries to complete fucntionality. I am pretty much a noob and have zero experience around ORMs and MVC - so this an awesome learning curve I am on.

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  • Why does first call to java.io.File.createTempFile(String,String,File) take 5 seconds on Citrix?

    - by Ben Roling
    While debugging slow startup of an Eclipse RCP app on a Citrix server, I came to find out that java.io.createTempFile(String,String,File) is taking 5 seconds. It does this only on the first execution and only for certain user accounts. Specifically, I am noticing it Citrix anonymous user accounts. I have not tried many other types of accounts, but this behavior is not exhibited with an administrator account. Also, it does not matter if the user has access to write to the given directory or not. If the user does not have access, the call will take 5 seconds to fail. If they do have access, the call with take 5 seconds to succeed. This is on a Windows 2003 Server. I've tried Sun's 1.6.0_16 and 1.6.0_19 JREs and see the same behavior. I googled a bit expecting this to be some sort of known issue, but didn't find anything. It seems like someone else would have had to have run into this before. The Eclipse Platform uses File.createTempFile() to test various directories to see if they are writeable during initialization and this issue adds 5 seconds to the startup time of our application. I imagine somebody has run into this before and might have some insight. Here is sample code I executed to see that it is indeed this call that is consuming the time. I also tried it with a second call to createTempFile and notice that subsequent calls return nearly instantaneously. public static void main(final String[] args) throws IOException { final File directory = new File(args[0]); final long startTime = System.currentTimeMillis(); File file = null; try { file = File.createTempFile("prefix", "suffix", directory); System.out.println(file.getAbsolutePath()); } finally { System.out.println(System.currentTimeMillis() - startTime); if (file != null) { file.delete(); } } } Sample output of this program is the following: C:\java.exe -jar filetest.jar C:/Temp C:\Temp\prefix8098550723198856667suffix 5093

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  • Applying fine-grained security to an existing application

    - by Mark
    I've inherited a reasonably large and complex ASP.NET MVC3 web application using EF Code First on SQL Server. It uses ASP.NET Membership roles with database authentication. The controller actions are secured with attributes derived from AuthorizeAttribute that map roles to actions. There are extension methods for the finer points, such as showing a particular widget to particular roles. This is works great and I have a good understanding of the current security model. I've been asked to provide finer grained security at the data level. For example a 'Customer' user can only see data (throughout the database) associated with themselves and not other Customers. The problem is that 'Customer' is only 1 of 5 different types with their own specific restrictions (each of the 9 roles is one of these 5 types). The best thing I can think of is to go through all the data repositories and extend each and every LINQ statements/query with a filter for every user type. Even if I had time for that it doesn't seem like the most elegant way. Any suggestions? I really don't know where to start with this so anything could be helpful. Many thanks.

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  • Problem with OnSubmit in Validation plugin in jQuery

    - by novellino
    Hello, I an quite new to jQuery and I have a problem while trying to create a form. I am using the Validation plugin for validate the email (one the form's field). When I click the Submit button I want to call my own function because I want to save the data in an XML file. This is my button: (as I understood the plugin uses "submit" for understand the button) <input type="submit" name="submit" class="submit" id="submit_btn" value="Send"/> and here is the script for the validation: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { //this is my form $("#contactForm").validate(); /*save the valid data in the xml*/ $(".submit").click(function() { var email = $("input#email").val(); var subject = $("input#subject").val(); var message = $("textarea#message").val(); if (email == "" || !$("#contactForm").valid()) { return false; } var dataString = 'email='+ email + '&subject=' + subject + '&message=' + message; //alert("DATA: " +dataString); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "SaveData.jsp", data: dataString, success: function(data){} }); return false; }); }); </script> In general it works ok but I have two basic problems. When I click the button in the beginning having all the form empty, I get no message for the field required. Also when the data are valid and I am doing the submit, the form does not become clear after the submit. If I deleted this script code, these actions are working properly but I can not save the data! Does anyone know what is wrong? Thanks a lot!

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  • Silverlight 4 ComboBox - Binding to Nullable data (tried TargetNullValue but not working as expected)

    - by Laurence
    (Please note - I am a Silverlight beginner and am looking for the simplest solution here, e.g. that doesn't involve writing/installing a replacement for the ComboBox control!) This is an issue with a Silverlight 4 application that uses the View Model (MVVM) approach. I have a simple form for editing a "Product" object. Product has a CategoryID property which is nullable (int?). A ComboBox is used to view and set the CategoryID - this is bound to an ObservableCollection of Categories. Product also has number of non-nullable properties bound to TextBoxes. I want the user to see "N/A" in the ComboBox for a product with no category, and to be use this "N/A" option to set CategoryID to null. So, I manually added a Category object with CategoryID=0 and CategoryName="N/A" to the collection; then I set TargetNullValue=0 in the SelectedValue Binding of the ComboBox. My thinking was - when the ComboBox SelectedValue was bound to a null CategoryID it would substitute zero, and therefore select the "N/A" option. When editing a Product with a non-null CategoryID, everything works. However when a null CategoryID is found, two problems occur: No option is selected in the ComboBox (its blank) The ComboBox binding seems broken from this point onwards - any Product I subsequently edit (incl. ones with a non-null CategoryID) have nothing selected in the ComboBox (its still populated with all categories - just no selected item). I've seen reports of problem #2 (here, here) but I was under the impression that #1 should have worked. What am I missing to get the "N/A" option to be selected? XAML for ComboBox: <ComboBox x:Name="cboCategory" ItemsSource="{Binding colCategories, Mode=OneWay}" SelectedValuePath="CategoryID" DisplayMemberPath="CategoryName" SelectedValue="{Binding CurrentProduct.CategoryID, Mode=TwoWay, TargetNullValue=0}" Height="24" Width="344"></ComboBox>

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  • Objective-C protocol vs inheritance vs extending?

    - by ryanjm.mp
    I have a couple classes that have nearly identical code. Only a string or two is different between them. What I would like to do is to make them "x" from another class that defines those functions and then uses constants or something else to define those strings that are different. I'm not sure if "x" is inheritance or extending or what. That is what I need help with. For example: objectA.m: -(void)helloWorld { NSLog("Hello %@",child.name); } objectBob.m: #define name @"Bob" objectJoe.m #define name @"Joe" (I'm not sure if it's legal to define strings, but this gets the point across) It would be ideal if objectBob.m and objectJoe.m didn't have to even define the methods, just their relationship to objectA.m. Is there any way to do something like this? It is kind of like protocol, except in reverse, I want the "protocol" to actually define the functions. If all else fails I'll just make objectA.m: -(void)helloWorld:(NSString *name) { NSLog("Hello %@",name); } And have the other files call that function (and just #import objectA.m).

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  • Transitioning from Domain Authentication to SQL Server Authentication

    - by Albert Perrien
    Greetings all, I've run into a problem that has me stumped. I've put together a database in SQL Server Express, and I'm having a strange permissions problem. The database is on my development machine with a domain user: DOMAIN\albertp. My development database server is set for "SQL Server and Windows Authentication" mode. I can edit and query my database without any problems when I log in using Windows Authentication. However, when I log in to any user that uses SQL Server authentication (Including sa) I get this message when I run queries against my database. SELECT * FROM [Testing].[dbo].[AuditingReport] I get: Msg 18456, Level 14, State 1, Line 1 Login failed for user 'auditor'. I'm logged into the server from SQL Server Management Studio as 'auditor' and I don't see anything in the error log about the login failure. I've already run: Use Testing; Grant All to auditor; Go And I still get the same error. What permissions do I have to set for the database to be usable by others outside of my personal domain login? Or am I looking at the wrong problem? My ultimate goal is to have the database be accessible from a set of PHP pages, using a either a common login (hence 'auditor') or a login specific to a set of individual users.

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  • Importing data from third party datasource (open architecture design )

    - by mare
    How would you design an application (classes, interfaces in class library) in .NET when we have a fixed database design on our side and we need to support imports of data from third party data sources, which will most likely be in XML? For instance, let us say we have a Products table in our DB which has columns Id Title Description TaxLevel Price and on the other side we have for instance Products: ProductId ProdTitle Text BasicPrice Quantity. Currently I do it like this: Have the third party XML convert to classes and XSD's and then deserialize its contents into strong typed objects (what we get as a result of this process is classes like ThirdPartyProduct, ThirdPartyClassification, etc.). Then I have methods like this: InsertProduct(ThirdPartyProduct newproduct) I do not use interfaces at the moment but I would like them to. What I would like is implement something like public class Contoso_ProductSynchronization : ProductSynchronization InsertProduct(ContosoProduct p) where ProductSynchronization will be an interface or abstract class. There will most likely be many implementations of ProductSynchronization. I cannot hardcode the types - classes like ContosoProduct, NorthwindProduct might be created from the third party XML's (so preferably I would continue to use deserialization). Hopefully someone will understand what I'm trying to explain here. Just imagine you are the seller and you have numerous providers and each one uses their own proprietary XML format. I don't mind the development, which will of course be needed everytime new format appears, because it will only require 10-20 methods to be implemented, I just want the architecture to be open and support that.

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  • how to return a list using SwingWorker

    - by Ender
    I have an assignment where i have to create an Image Gallery which uses a SwingWorker to load the images froma a file, once the image is load you can flip threw the image and have a slideshow play. I am having trouble getting the list of loaded images using SwingWorker. This is what happens in the background it just publishes the results to a TextArea // In a thread @Override public List<Image> doInBackground() { List<Image> images = new ArrayList<Image>(); for (File filename : filenames) { try { //File file = new File(filename); System.out.println("Attempting to add: " + filename.getAbsolutePath()); images.add(ImageIO.read(filename)); publish("Loaded " + filename); System.out.println("Added file" + filename.getAbsolutePath()); } catch (IOException ioe) { publish("Error loading " + filename); } } return images; } } when it is done I just insert the images in a List<Image> and that is all it does. // In the EDT @Override protected void done() { try { for (Image image : get()) { list.add(image); } } catch (Exception e) { } } Also I created an method that returns the list called getImages() what I need to get is the list from getImages() but doesn't seam to work when I call execute() for example MySwingWorkerClass swingworker = new MySwingWorkerClass(log,list,filenames); swingworker.execute(); imageList = swingworker.getImage() Once it reaches the imageList it doesn't return anything the only way I was able to get the list was when i used the run() instead of the execute() is there another way to get the list or is the run() method the only way?. or perhaps i am not understanding the Swing Worker Class.

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  • Are there more secure alternatives to the .Net SQLConnection class?

    - by KeyboardMonkey
    Hi SO people, I'm very surprised this issue hasn't been discussed in-depth: This article tells us how to use windbg to dump a running .Net process strings in memory. I spent much time researching the SecureString class, which uses unmanaged pinned memory blocks, and keeps the data encrypted too. Great stuff. The problem comes in when you use it's value, and assign it to the SQLConnection.ConnectionString property, which is of the System.String type. What does this mean? Well... It's stored in plain text Garbage Collection moves it around, leaving copies in memory It can be read with windbg memory dumps That totally negates the SecureString functionality! On top of that, the SQLConnection class is non-inheritable, I can't even roll my own with a SecureString property instead; Yay for closed-source. Yay. A new DAL layer is in progress, but for a new major version and for so many users it will be at least 2 years before every user is upgraded, others might stay on the old version indefinitely, for whatever reason. Because of the frequency the connection is used, marshalling from a SecureString won't help, since the immutable old copies stick in memory until GC comes around. Integrated Windows security isn't an option, since some clients don't work on domains, and other roam and connect over the net. How can I secure the connection string, in memory, so it can't be viewed with windbg?

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  • Problem: How to display a Wordpress RSS feed in a browser that doesn't have a built in RSS reader?

    - by StephenMeehan
    If I can, i'd rather not use a service like FeedBurner. My setup: I've setup a RSS feed link on a self-hosted Wordpress website, clicking the RSS link in Safari shows the feed - because Safari has a built in RSS reader. Great. Unfortunately clicking the same RSS link in Chrome displays the raw XML feed. I know why this happens - Chrome doesn't have a built in RSS reader. I also assume this will be the same in older versions of Internet Explorer. Possible solution? I've noticed http://www.bbc.co.uk/news has a nice solution: Click the RSS feed (top tight of the page) in a RSS enabled browser (Safari) and it uses the built in RSS reader to display the RSS feed. Click the same RSS feed link in Chrome (Chrome has no built in RSS reader) it displays the RSS feed using what looks like a custom page. Is there a way to check if a browser has a built in RSS reader? How would I provide alternative content (like the BBC site) to a browser that doesn't have a RSS reader installed? Any help on this would be brilliant, thanks for taking the time to read this. Stephen

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  • noncopyable static const member class in template class

    - by Dukales
    I have a non-copyable (inherited from boost::noncopyable) class that I use as a custom namespace. Also, I have another class, that uses previous one, as shown here: #include <boost/utility.hpp> #include <cmath> template< typename F > struct custom_namespace : boost::noncopyable { F sqrt_of_half(F const & x) const { using std::sqrt; return sqrt(x / F(2.0L)); } // ... maybe others are not so dummy const/constexpr methods }; template< typename F > class custom_namespace_user { static ::custom_namespace< F > const custom_namespace_; public : F poisson() const { return custom_namespace_.sqrt_of_half(M_PI); } static F square_diagonal(F const & a) { return a * custom_namespace_.sqrt_of_half(1.0L); } }; template< typename F > ::custom_namespace< F > const custom_namespace_user< F >::custom_namespace_(); this code leads to the next error (even without instantiation): error: no 'const custom_namespace custom_namespace_user::custom_namespace_()' member function declared in class 'custom_namespace_user' The next way is not legitimate: template< typename F ::custom_namespace< F const custom_namespace_user< F ::custom_namespace_ = ::custom_namespace< F (); What should I do to declare this two classes (first as noncopyable static const member class of second)? Is this feaseble?

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  • How do I use InputType=numberDecimal with the "phone" soft keypad?

    - by Adam Dunn
    For an EditText box, the user should only be entering valid numbers, so I am using android:inputType="numberDecimal". Unfortunately, the soft keyboard that Android brings up has numbers only along the top row, while the next three rows have various other symbols (dollar sign, percent sign, exclamation mark, space, etc). Since the numberDecimal only accepts numbers 0-9, negative sign, and decimal point, it would make more sense to use the "phone" soft keyboard (0-9 in a 3x3 grid, plus some other symbols). This would make the buttons larger and easier to hit (since it's a 4x4 grid rather than a 10x4 grid in the same screen area). Unfortunately, using android:inputType="phone" allows non-numeric characters such as parentheses I have attempted to use android:inputType="numberDecimal|phone", but the numberDecimal aspect of the bit flag seems to be ignored. I have also tried using android:inputType="phone" in combination with android:digits="0123456789-.", but that still allows multiple negative signs or decimal points (inputType="number" has really good error checking for things like that, and won't let the user even type it in). I have also tried using android:inputType="phone" in the xml layout file, while using a DigitsKeyListener in the java code, but then that just uses the default number soft keyboard (the one that has numbers only along top row) (it appears to set InputType.TYPE_CLASS_NUMBER, which voids the InputType.TYPE_CLASS_PHONE set by the xml layout). Writing a custom IME wouldn't work, since the user would have to select the IME as a global option outside the app. Is there any way to use the "phone" style soft keyboard while also using the "number" restrictions on what is entered?

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