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  • getting string.substring(N) not to choke when N > string.length

    - by aape
    I'm writing some code that takes a report from the mainframe and converts it to a spreadsheet. They can't edit the code on the MF to give me a delimited file, so I'm stuck dealing with it as fixed width. It's working okay now, but I need to get it more stable before I release it for testing. My problem is that in any given line of data, say it could have three columns of numbers, each five chars wide at positions 10, 16, and 22. If on this one particular row, there's no data for the last two cols, it won't be padded with spaces; rather, the length of the string will be only 14. So, I can't just blindly have dim s as string = someStream.readline a = s.substring(10, 5) b = s.substring(16, 5) c = s.substring(22, 5) because it'll choke when it substrings past the length of the string. I know I could test the length of the string before processing each row, and I have automated the filling of some of the vsariables using a counter and a loop, and using the counter*theWidthOfTheGivenVariable to jump around, but this project was a dog to start with (come on! turning a report into a spreadsheet?), but there are many different types of rows (it's not just a grid), and the code's getting ugly fast. I'd like this to be clean, clear, and maintainable for the poor sucker that gets this after me. If it matters, here's my code so far (it's really crufty at the moment). You can see some of my/its idiocy in the processSection#data subs So, I'm wondering 1) is there a way baked in to .NET to have string.substring not error when reading past the end of a string without wrapping it in a try...catch? and 2) would it be appropriate in this situation to write a new string class that inherits from string that has a more friendly substring function in it? ETA: Thanks for all the advice and knowledge everyone. I'll go with the extension. Hopefully one of these years, I'll get my chops up enough to pay someone back in kind. :)

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  • jQuery select by two name roots and perform one of two function depending on which root was selected

    - by RetroCoder
    I'm trying to get this code to work in jQuery and I'm trying to make sure that for each iteration of each root element, its alternate root element for that same iteration doesn't contain anything. Otherwise it sets the .val("") property to an empty string. Looking for a simple solution if possible using search, find, or swap. Each matching number is on the same row level and the same iteration count. I have two input types of input text elements with two different root names like so: 1st Root is "rootA" <input type="text" name="rootA1" /> <input type="text" name="rootA2 /> <input type="text" name="rootA3" /> 2nd Root is "rootB" <input type="text" name="rootB1" /> <input type="text" name="rootB2 /> <input type="text" name="rootB3" /> On blur if any of rootA is called call function fnRootA();. On blur if any of rootB is called call function fnRootB();. Again, I'm trying to make sure that for each iteration like 1 that the alternate root doesn't contain anything, else it sets the .val("") property to an empty string of the root being blurred. My current code works for a single element but wanted to use find or search but not sure how to construct it.. $("input[name='rootA1']").blur(function(e) { fnRootA(1); // this code just removes rootA1's value val("") //if rootB1 has something in it value property // the (1) in parenthesis is the iteration number });

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  • Passing $_GET or $_POST data to PHP script that is run with wget

    - by Matt
    Hello, I have the following line of PHP code which works great: exec( 'wget http://www.mydomain.com/u1.php /dev/null &' ); u1.php acts to do various types of maintenance on my server and the above command makes it happen in the background. No problems there. But I need to pass variable data to u1.php before it's executed. I'd like to pass POST data preferably, but could accommodate GET or SESSION data if POST isn't an option. Basically the type of data being passed is user-specific and will vary depending on who is logged in to the site and triggering the above code. I've tried adding the GET data to the end of the URL and that didn't work. So how else might I be able to send the data to u1.php? POST data preferred, SESSION data would work as well (but I tried this and it didn't pick up the logged in user's session data). GET would be a last resort. Thanks!

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  • Tools for Automated Source Code Editing

    - by Steve
    I'm working on a research project to automatically modify code to include advanced mathematical concepts (like adding random effects into a loop or encapsulating an existing function with a new function that adds in a more advanced physical model). My question to the community is: are there are any good tools for manipulating source code directly? I want to do things like Swap out functions Add variable declarations wherever they are required Determine if a function is multiplied by anything Determine what functions are called on a line of code See what parameters are passed to a function and replace them with alternatives Introduce new function calls on certain lines of code Wherever possible just leaving the rest of the code untouched and write out the results I never want to actually compile the code I only want to understand what symbols are used, replace and add in a syntactically correct way, and be able to declare variables at the right position. I've been using a minimal flex/bison approach with some success but I do not feel the it is robust. I hate to take on writing a full language parser just to add some new info to the end of a line or the top of a function. It seems like this is almost what is going to be required but it also seems like there should be some tools out there to do these types of manipulations already. The code to be changed is in a variety of languages, but I'm particularly interested in FORTRAN. Any thoughts?

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  • Post JSON array to mvc controller

    - by Yustme
    I'm trying to post a JSON array to a mvc controller. But no matter what i try, everything is 0 or null. I have this table that contains textboxes. I need from all those textboxes it's ID and value as an object. This is my java code: $(document).ready(function () { $('#submitTest').click(function (e) { var $form = $('form'); var trans = new Array(); var parameters = { TransIDs: $("#TransID").val(), ItemIDs: $("#ItemID").val(), TypeIDs: $("#TypeID").val(), }; trans.push(parameters); if ($form.valid()) { $.ajax( { url: $form.attr('action'), type: $form.attr('method'), data: JSON.stringify(parameters), dataType: "json", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", success: function (result) { $('#result').text(result.redirectTo) if (result.Success == true) { return fase; } else { $('#Error').html(result.Html); } }, error: function (request) { alert(request.statusText) } }); } e.preventDefault(); return false; }); }); This is my view code: <table> <tr> <th>trans</th> <th>Item</th> <th>Type</th> </tr> @foreach (var t in Model.Types.ToList()) { { <tr> <td> <input type="hidden" value="@t.TransID" id="TransID" /> <input type="hidden" value="@t.ItemID" id="ItemID" /> <input type="hidden" value="@t.TypeID" id="TypeID" /> </td> </tr> } } </table> This is the controller im trying to receive the data to: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Update(CustomTypeModel ctm) { return RedirectToAction("Index"); } What am i doing wrong?

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  • Events + Adapter Pattern

    - by Stretto
    I have an adapter pattern on a generic class that essentially adapts between types: class A<T> { event EventHandler e; } class Aadapter<T1, T2> : A<T1> { A<T2> a; Aadapter(A<T2> _a) { a = _a; } } The problem is that A contains an event. I effectively want all event handlers assigned to Adapter to fall through to a. It would be awesome if I could assign the a's event handler to adapter's event handler but this is impossible? The idea here is that A is almost really just A but we need a way to adapt the them. Because of the way event's work I can't how to efficiently do it except manually add two event handlers and when they are called they "relay" the to the other event. This isn't pretty though and it would seem much nicer if I could have something like class A<T> { event EventHandler e; } class Aadapter<T1, T2> : A<T1> { event *e; A<T2> a; Aadapter(A<T2> _a) { a = _a; e = a.e; } } in a sense we have a pointer to the event that we can assign a2's event to. I doubt there is any simple way but maybe someone has some idea to make it work. (BTW, I realize this is possible with virtual events but I'd like to avoid this if at all possible)

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  • Prevent coersion to a single type in unlist() or c(); passing arguments to wrapper functions

    - by Leo Alekseyev
    Is there a simple way to flatten a list while retaining the original types of list constituents?.. Is there a way to programmatically construct a heterogeneous list?.. For instance, I want to create a simple wrapper for functions like png(filename,width,height) that would take device name, file name, and a list of options. The naive approach would be something like my.wrapper <- function(dev,name,opts) { do.call(dev,c(filename=name,opts)) } or similar code with unlist(list(...)). This doesn't work because opts gets coerced to character, and the resulting call is e.g. png(filename,width="500",height="500"). If there's no straightforward way to create heterogeneous lists like that, is there a standard idiomatic way to splice arguments into functions without naming them explicitly (e.g. do.call(dev,list(filename=name,width=opts["width"]))? -- Edit -- Gavin Simpson answered both questions below in his discussion about constructing wrapper functions. Let me give a summary of the answer to the title question: It is possible to construct a heterogeneous list with c() provided the arguments to c() are lists. To wit: > foo <- c("a","b"); bar <- 1:3 > c(foo,bar) [1] "a" "b" "1" "2" "3" > c(list(foo),list(bar)) [[1]] [1] "a" "b" [[2]] [1] 1 2 3 > c(as.list(foo),as.list(bar)) ## this creates a flattened heterogeneous list [[1]] [1] "a" [[2]] [1] "b" [[3]] [1] 1 [[4]] [1] 2 [[5]] [1] 3

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  • Troubleshooting multiple GET variables In PHP

    - by V413HAV
    This may be a very simple question but I don't what's the wrong thing am doing here... To explain you clearly, I've set a real simple example below: <ul> <li><a href="test.php?link1=true">Link 1</a></li> <li><a href="test.php?link2=true">Link 2</a></li> <li><a href="test.php?link3=true">Link 3</a></li> </ul> <?php if(isset($_GET['link1'])) { if(($_GET['link1']) == 'true') { echo 'This Is Link 1'; } } if(isset($_GET['link2'])) { if(($_GET['link2']) == 'true') { echo 'This Is Link 2'; } } if(isset($_GET['link3'])) { if(($_GET['link3']) == 'true') { echo 'This Is Link 3'; } } ?> This is a test.php page, here I've set 3 different arguments for $_GET, and show contents accordingly, now everything works perfect, the only thing am not understanding is how to block this kind of url say if user clicks on link 1 the url will be : http://localhost/test.php?link1=true And the Output of this url is This is Link 1 Now if I change this url to : http://localhost/test.php?link3=true&link2=true&link1=true And the Output what I get is This Is Link 1This Is Link 2This Is Link 3 Now this is ok here, but it's very annoying if someone types this and see's forms one below the other, any way I can stop this tampering?

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  • Accessing both stored procedure output parameters AND the result set in Entity Framework?

    - by MS.
    Is there any way of accessing both a result set and output parameters from a stored procedure added in as a function import in an Entity Framework model? I am finding that if I set the return type to "None" such that the designer generated code ends up calling base.ExecuteFunction(...) that I can access the output parameters fine after calling the function (but of course not the result set). Conversely if I set the return type in the designer to a collection of complex types then the designer generated code calls base.ExecuteFunction<T>(...) and the result set is returned as ObjectResult<T> but then the value property for the ObjectParameter instances is NULL rather than containing the proper value that I can see being passed back in Profiler. I speculate the second method is perhaps calling a DataReader and not closing it. Is this a known issue? Any work arounds or alternative approaches? Edit My code currently looks like public IEnumerable<FooBar> GetFooBars( int? param1, string param2, DateTime from, DateTime to, out DateTime? createdDate, out DateTime? deletedDate) { var createdDateParam = new ObjectParameter("CreatedDate", typeof(DateTime)); var deletedDateParam = new ObjectParameter("DeletedDate", typeof(DateTime)); var fooBars = MyContext.GetFooBars(param1, param2, from, to, createdDateParam, deletedDateParam); createdDate = (DateTime?)(createdDateParam.Value == DBNull.Value ? null : createdDateParam.Value); deletedDate = (DateTime?)(deletedDateParam.Value == DBNull.Value ? null : deletedDateParam.Value); return fooBars; }

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  • C# Automatic Properties - Still null after +=?

    - by Sam Schutte
    This seems like a bug to me... I accept that automatic properties, defined as such: public decimal? Total { get; set; } Will be null when they are first accessed. They haven't been initialized, so of course they are null. But, even after setting their value through +=, this decimal? still remains null. So after: Total += 8; Total is still null. How can this be correct? I understand that it's doing a (null + 8), but seems strange that it doesn't pick up that it means it should just be set to 8... Addendums: I made the "null + 8" point in my question - but notice that it works with strings. So, it does null + "hello" just fine, and returns "hello". Therefore, behind the scenes, it is initializing the string to a string object with the value of "hello". The behavior should be the same for the other types, IMO. It might be because a string can accept a null as a value, but still, a null string is not an initialized object, correct? Perhaps it's just because a string isn't a nullable...

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  • How do I populate an NSMutableArray in one class with another object?

    - by AngeloS
    Hello, I know this is a simple answer, but I can't seem to find the solution. I created an object in its own class and I am trying to populate it with data from another class. For simple data types like NSString, I have no problem, but when trying make an NSMutableArray equal to another NSMutableArray or when I try to populate a NSMutableArray with another objects (like strings), I keep getting exception errors... Here is the object I am trying to populate: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface RSSFeedList : NSObject { NSString *subject; NSMutableArray *rssfeedDetail; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *subject; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *rssfeedDetail; @end This is how I was able to populate the NSString 'subject' in another class: rssFeedList.subject = @"test"; However, if I follow similar convention within that same class with respect to an Array, it throws an exception: rssFeedList.rssfeedDetail = rssItemDetailArray; Where rssItemDetailArray is a NSMutableArray that I have built in the same class. I have also tried to add items (i tried strings for testing) to the NSMutableArray directly like so to no avail: [rssFeedList.rssfeedDetail addObject:@"test"]; Any ideas?? Thanks in advance!!

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  • C++ universal data type

    - by Gokul
    I have a universal data type, which is passed by value, but does not maintain the type information. We store only pointers and basic data types(like int, float etc) inside this. Now for the first time, we need to store std::string inside this. So we decided to convert it into std::string* and store it. Then comes the problem of destruction. We don't like to copy the std::string every time. So i am thinking of an approach like this. Say the data type looks like this class Atom { public : enum flags { IS_STRING, IS_EMPTY, HAS_GOT_COPIED, MARKER }; private: void* m_value; std::bitset<MARKER> m_flags; public: ..... Atom( Atom& atm ) { atm.m_flags.set( HAS_GOT_COPIED ); ..... } ..... ~Atom() { if( m_flags.test(IS_STRING) && !m_flags.test(HAS_GOT_COPIED) ) { std::string* val = static_cast<std::string*>(m_value); delete val; } } }; Is this a good approach to find out whether there is no more reference to std::string*? Any comments.. Thanks, Gokul.

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  • How should I map an abstract class with simple xml in Java?

    - by spderosso
    Hi, I want to achieve the following xml using simple xml framework (http://simple.sourceforge.net/): <events> <course-added date="01/01/2010"> ... </course-added> <course-removed date="01/02/2010"> .... </course-removed> <student-enrolled date="01/02/2010"> ... </student-enrolled> </events> I have the following (but it doesn't achieve the desired xml): @Root(name="events") class XMLEvents { @ElementList(inline=true) ArrayList<XMLEvent> events = Lists.newArrayList(); ... } abstract class XMLEvent { @Attribute(name="date") String dateOfEventFormatted; ... } And different type of XMLNodes that have different information (but are all different types of events) @Root(name="course-added") class XMLCourseAdded extends XMLEvent{ @Element(name="course") XMLCourseLongFormat course; .... } @Root(name="course-removed") class XMLCourseRemoved extends XMLEvent { @Element(name="course-id") String courseId; ... } How should I do the mapping or what should I change in order to be able to achieve de desired xml? Thanks!

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  • Writing a generic function that can take a Writer as well as an OutputStream

    - by ebruchez
    I wrote a couple of functions that look like this: def myWrite(os: OutputStream) = {} def myWrite(w: Writer) = {} Now both are very similar and I thought I would try to write a single parametrized version of the function. I started with a type with the two methods that are common in the Java OutputStream and Writer: type Writable[T] = { def close() : Unit def write(cbuf: Array[T], off: Int, len: Int): Unit } One issue is that OutputStream writes Byte and Writer writes Char, so I parametrized the type with T. Then I write my function: def myWrite[T, A[T] <: Writable[T]](out: A[T]) = {} and try to use it: val w = new java.io.StringWriter() myWrite(w) Result: <console>:9: error: type mismatch; found : java.io.StringWriter required: ?A[ ?T ] Note that implicit conversions are not applicable because they are ambiguous: both method any2ArrowAssoc in object Predef of type [A](x: A)ArrowAssoc[A] and method any2Ensuring in object Predef of type [A](x: A)Ensuring[A] are possible conversion functions from java.io.StringWriter to ?A[ ?T ] myWrite(w) I tried a few other combinations of types and parameters, to no avail so far. My question is whether there is a way of achieving this at all, and if so how. (Note that the implementation of myWrite will need, internally, to know the type T that parametrizes the write() method, because it needs to create a buffer as in new ArrayT.)

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  • Javascript Regex: Testing string for intelligent query

    - by Shyam
    Hi, I have a string that holds user input. This string can contain various types of data, like: a six digit id a zipcode that contains out of 4 digits and two alphanumeric characters a name (characters only) As I am using this string to search through a database, the query type is determined on the type of search, which i want to handle serverside using JavaScript (yes, I am using JavaScript serverside). Searching on StackOverflow, brought me some interesting information, like the .test-method, which seems perfect for my needs. The test-method returns either true or false based on the evaluation on the string using a regex object. I am using this page as a reference: http://www.javascriptkit.com/jsref/regexp.shtml So I am trying to determine the zipcode, by using the following very noobish regex. var r = /[A-Za-z]{2,2}/ As far I can understand, this should limit the amount of occurrences of alphanumeric characters to a maximum of two. See beneath the output of my JavaScript console. > var r = /[A-Za-z]{2,2}/ > var x = "2233AL" > r.test(x) true > var x = "2233A" > r.test(x) false > var x = "2233ALL" > r.test(x) true /* i want this to be false */ > A little help would be really appreciated!

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  • Why can a public class not inherit from a less visible one?

    - by Dan Tao
    I apologize if this question has been asked before. I've searched SO somewhat and wasn't able to find it. I'm just curious what the rationale behind this design was/is. Obviously I understand that private/internal members of a base type cannot, nor should they, be exposed through a derived public type. But it seems to my naive thinking that the "hidden" parts could easily remain hidden while some base functionality is still shared and a new interface is exposed publicly. I'm thinking of something along these lines: Assembly X internal class InternalClass { protected virtual void DoSomethingProtected() { // Let's say this method provides some useful functionality. // Its visibility is quite limited (only to derived types in // the same assembly), but at least it's there. } } public class PublicClass : InternalClass { public void DoSomethingPublic() { // Now let's say this method is useful enough that this type // should be public. What's keeping us from leveraging the // base functionality laid out in InternalClass's implementation, // without exposing anything that shouldn't be exposed? } } Assembly Y public class OtherPublicClass : PublicClass { // It seems (again, to my naive mind) that this could work. This class // simply wouldn't be able to "see" any of the methods of InternalClass // from AssemblyX directly. But it could still access the public and // protected members of PublicClass that weren't inherited from // InternalClass. Does this make sense? What am I missing? }

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  • in haskell, why do I need to specify type constraints, why can't the compiler figure them out?

    - by Steve
    Consider the function, add a b = a + b This works: *Main> add 1 2 3 However, if I add a type signature specifying that I want to add things of the same type: add :: a -> a -> a add a b = a + b I get an error: test.hs:3:10: Could not deduce (Num a) from the context () arising from a use of `+' at test.hs:3:10-14 Possible fix: add (Num a) to the context of the type signature for `add' In the expression: a + b In the definition of `add': add a b = a + b So GHC clearly can deduce that I need the Num type constraint, since it just told me: add :: Num a => a -> a -> a add a b = a + b Works. Why does GHC require me to add the type constraint? If I'm doing generic programming, why can't it just work for anything that knows how to use the + operator? In C++ template programming, you can do this easily: #include <string> #include <cstdio> using namespace std; template<typename T> T add(T a, T b) { return a + b; } int main() { printf("%d, %f, %s\n", add(1, 2), add(1.0, 3.4), add(string("foo"), string("bar")).c_str()); return 0; } The compiler figures out the types of the arguments to add and generates a version of the function for that type. There seems to be a fundamental difference in Haskell's approach, can you describe it, and discuss the trade-offs? It seems to me like it would be resolved if GHC simply filled in the type constraint for me, since it obviously decided it was needed. Still, why the type constraint at all? Why not just compile successfully as long as the function is only used in a valid context where the arguments are in Num? Thank you.

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  • "pseudo-atomic" operations in C++

    - by dan
    So I'm aware that nothing is atomic in C++. But I'm trying to figure out if there are any "pseudo-atomic" assumptions I can make. The reason is that I want to avoid using mutexes in some simple situations where I only need very weak guarantees. 1) Suppose I have globally defined volatile bool b, which initially I set true. Then I launch a thread which executes a loop while(b) doSomething(); Meanwhile, in another thread, I execute b=true. Can I assume that the first thread will continue to execute? In other words, if b starts out as true, and the first thread checks the value of b at the same time as the second thread assigns b=true, can I assume that the first thread will read the value of b as true? Or is it possible that at some intermediate point of the assignment b=true, the value of b might be read as false? 2) Now suppose that b is initially false. Then the first thread executes bool b1=b; bool b2=b; if(b1 && !b2) bad(); while the second thread executes b=true. Can I assume that bad() never gets called? 3) What about an int or other builtin types: suppose I have volatile int i, which is initially (say) 7, and then I assign i=7. Can I assume that, at any time during this operation, from any thread, the value of i will be equal to 7? 4) I have volatile int i=7, and then I execute i++ from some thread, and all other threads only read the value of i. Can I assume that i never has any value, in any thread, except for either 7 or 8? 5) I have volatile int i, from one thread I execute i=7, and from another I execute i=8. Afterwards, is i guaranteed to be either 7 or 8 (or whatever two values I have chosen to assign)?

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  • Why do we need serialization in web service

    - by Cloud2010
    I have one webservice: public class Product { public int ProductId { get; set; } public string ProductName { get; set; } } public class Service : System.Web.Services.WebService { public Service () { //Uncomment the following line if using designed components //InitializeComponent(); } [WebMethod] public List<Product> GetItems() { List<Product> productList = new List<Product>() { new Product{ProductId=1,ProductName="Pencil"}, new Product{ProductId=2,ProductName="Pen"} }; return productList; } and in a asp.net application I am consuming it like: localhost.Service s = new localhost.Service(); List<localhost.Product> k = new List<localhost.Product>(); k = s.GetItems().ToList(); // i am getting the values here. now my question is do I need to serialize my webmethod as i am returning custom types? when should we serialize ? is it necessary at all, if yes , then what are the conditions?

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  • Memory allocation patterns in C++

    - by Mahatma
    I am confused about the memory allocation in C++ in terms of the memory areas such as Const data area, Stack, Heap, Freestore, Heap and Global/Static area. I would like to understand the memory allocation pattern in the following snippet. Can anyone help me to understand this. If there any thing more apart from the variable types mentioned in the example to help understand the concept better please alter the example. class FooBar { int n; //Stored in stack? public: int pubVar; //stored in stack? void foo(int param) //param stored in stack { int *pp = new int; //int is allocated on heap. n = param; static int nStat; //Stored in static area of memory int nLoc; //stored in stack? string str = "mystring"; //stored in stack? .. if(CONDITION) { static int nSIf; //stored in static area of memory int loopvar; //stored in stack .. } } } int main(int) { Foobar bar; //bar stored in stack? or a part of it? Foobar *pBar; //pBar is stored in stack pBar = new Foobar(); //the object is created in heap? What part of the object is stored on heap } EDIT: What confuses me is, if pBar = new Foobar(); stores the object on the heap, how come int nLoc; and int pubVar;, that are components of the object stored on stack? Sounds contradictory to me. Shouldn't the lifetime of pubvar and pBar be the same?

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  • Detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed on Windows Phone 7

    - by David_001
    Simple question: How do I detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed on windows mobile 7? Is there an event I can add a listener to? It takes up about half the screen and I want to scroll the view up when it gets displayed... EDIT: A comment below indicates more clearly what I'm trying to do: I have a textbox input, and as the user types into it an autocomplete dropdown appears below it (like google suggest). By default, the active control (the textbox) scrolls into view when focussed, and the onscreen keyboard is directly below it. The onscreen keyboard appears in front of my autocomplete dropdown - what I want to do is make the screen scroll a little further up, so there's some room for my dropdown to be shown. The windows phone UI design guidelines say: "When the keyboard is deployed, the application should scroll to ensure the active edit control and the caret are in view". This happens fine, it's just the non-active dropdown gets hidden behind the onscreen keyboard. The guidelines also say that an application can choose to show the onscreen keyboard, and can also choose to close it. At the moment i'm stuck, and I don't think (based on my research and the replies to this question) that it's possible to detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed. I'm moving my investigation to see if it's possible to determine the "visible area" of the page (width & height in pixels for example), and combine this with an onfocus for the textbox... not sure if this will prove fruitful though.

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  • can I store an id value in array of float type ?

    - by srikanth rongali
    I used, for(id value in values) to get the value from an NSArray. Now I want to store it in 2 dimensional float array[][]. When I try to assign the values to array it is giving error:incompatible types in assignment. I tried to cast the value but I got error: pointer value used where a floating point value was expected. I need to store the values in an 2 dimensional array . How can I make it ? Thank You. @implementation fromFileRead1 NSString *fileNameString; int numberOfEnemies, numberOfValues; -(id)init { if( (self = [super init]) ) { NSString *path = @"/Users/sridhar/Desktop/Projects/exampleOnFile2/enemyDetals.txt"; NSString *contentsOfFile = [[NSString alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:path]; NSArray *lines = [contentsOfFile componentsSeparatedByString:@"\n"]; numberOfEnemies = [lines count]; NSLog(@"The number of Lines: %d", numberOfEnemies); for (id line in lines) { NSLog(@"Line %@", line ); NSString *string1 = line; NSArray *split1 = [string1 componentsSeparatedByString:@","]; numberOfValues = [split1 count]; NSLog(@"The number of values in Row: %d", numberOfValues); for (id value in split1) { NSLog(@"value %@", value); float value1; value1 = [split1 objectAtIndex:2]); NSLog(@"VAlue of Value1 at index 2: %f", value1 ); } } } return self; } @end In enemyDetal.txt I have 1,3,3 2,3,2.8 10,2,1.6

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  • Returning JSON or XML for Exceptions in Jersey

    - by Dominic
    My goal is to have an error bean returned on a 404 with a descriptive message when a object is not found, and return the same MIME type that was requested. I have a look up resource, which will return the specified object in XML or JSON based on the URI (I have setup the com.sun.jersey.config.property.resourceConfigClass servlet parameter so I dont need the Accept header. My JAXBContextResolver has the ErrorBean.class in its list of types, and the correct JAXBContext is returned for this class because I can see in the logs). eg: http://foobar.com/rest/locations/1.json @GET @Path("{id}") @Produces({MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON, MediaType.APPLICATION_XML}) public Location getCustomer(@PathParam("id") int cId) { //look up location from datastore .... if (location == null) { throw new NotFoundException("Location" + cId + " is not found"); } } And my NotFoundException looks like this: public class NotFoundException extends WebApplicationException { public NotFoundException(String message) { super(Response.status(Response.Status.NOT_FOUND). entity(new ErrorBean( message, Response.Status.NOT_FOUND.getStatusCode() ) .build()); } } The ErrorBean is as follows: @XmlRootElement(name = "error") public class ErrorBean { private String errorMsg; private int errorCode; //no-arg constructor, property constructor, getter and setters ... } However, I'm always getting a 204 No Content response when I try this. I have hacked around, and if I return a string and specify the mime type this works fine: public NotFoundException(String message) { super(Response.status(Response.Status.NOT_FOUND). entity(message).type("text/plain").build()); } I have also tried returning an ErrorBean as a resource. This works fine: {"errorCode":404,"errorMsg":"Location 1 is not found!"}

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  • Nginx Rails app can't deploy

    - by user3596718
    I have an issue with my rails application running with passenger and nginx hosted in Ubuntu 12.04. In the nginx.conf file below, my "example.com" (Regular HTML) and "redmine.example.com" (Rails app) are working perfectly, but my "crete.example.com" (Another Rails app) is showing "502 bad gateway". I have them both hosted in /var/data with the same permissions and ownerships, also tried different ports, I can't think of something else to try. worker_processes 1; events { worker_connections 1024; } http { passenger_root /usr/lib/ruby/vendor_ruby/phusion_passenger/locations.ini; include mime.types; default_type application/octet-stream; sendfile on; keepalive_timeout 65; server{ listen 80; server_name example.com; root /opt/nginx/html; } server{ server_name redmine.example.com; root /var/data/redmine/public; passenger_enabled on; location ~ ^/<SUBURI>(/.*|$){ alias /var/data/redmine/public$1; passenger_base_uri /redmine; passenger_app_root /var/data/redmine; passenger_document_root /var/data/redmine/public; passenger_enabled on;} } server{ server_name crete.example.com; root /var/data/crete/public; passenger_enabled on; location ~ ^/<SUBURI>(/.*|$){ alias /var/data/crete/public$1; passenger_base_uri /crete; passenger_app_root /var/data/crete; passenger_document_root /var/data/crete/public; passenger_enabled on;} } } This are my Ruby and Rails versions: ruby 2.0.0p451 (2014-02-24 revision 45167) [x86_64-linux] Rails 4.1.0 My nginx error.log 2014/05/02 12:29:50 [error] 3343#0: *4 upstream prematurely closed connection while reading response header from upstream, client: xxx.xx.xx.xx, server: crete.example.com, request: "GET / HTTP/1.1", upstream: "passenger:/tmp/passenger.1.0.3 323/generation-0/request:", host: "crete.example.com" Any other conf file you might need to solve this don't hesitate to ask.

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  • casting char[][] to char** causes segfault?

    - by Earlz
    Ok my C is a bit rusty but I figured I'd make my next(small) project in C so I could polish back up on it and less than 20 lines in I already have a seg fault. This is my complete code: #define ROWS 4 #define COLS 4 char main_map[ROWS][COLS+1]={ "a.bb", "a.c.", "adc.", ".dc."}; void print_map(char** map){ int i; for(i=0;i<ROWS;i++){ puts(map[i]); //segfault here } } int main(){ print_map(main_map); //if I comment out this line it will work. puts(main_map[3]); return 0; } I am completely confused as to how this is causing a segfault. What is happening when casting from [][] to **!? That is the only warning I get. rushhour.c:23:3: warning: passing argument 1 of ‘print_map’ from incompatible pointer type rushhour.c:13:7: note: expected ‘char **’ but argument is of type ‘char (*)[5]’ Are [][] and ** really not compatible pointer types? They seem like they are just syntax to me.

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