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  • WMI Query Script as a Job

    - by Kenneth
    I have two scripts. One calls the other with a list of servers as parameters. The second query is designed to execute a WMI query. When I run it manually, it does this perfectly. When I try to run it as a job it hangs forever and I have to remove it. For the sake of space here is the relevant part of the calling script: ProcessServers.ps1 Start-Job -FilePath .\GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 -ArgumentList $sqlsrv,$destdb,$server,$instance GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 param($sqlsrv,$destdb,$server,$instance) $password = get-content C:\SQLPS\auth.txt | convertto-securestring $credentials = new-object -typename System.Management.Automation.PSCredential -argumentlist "DOMAIN\MYUSER",$password [System.Reflection.Assembly]::LoadWithPartialName('Microsoft.SqlServer.SMO') $box_id = 0; if ($sqlsrv.length -eq 0) { write-output "No data passed" break } function getinfo { param( [string]$svr, [string]$inst ) "Entered GetInfo with: $svr,$inst" $cs = get-wmiobject win32_operatingsystem -computername $svr -credential $credentials -authentication 6 -Verbose -Debug | select Name, Model, Manufacturer, Description, DNSHostName, Domain, DomainRole, PartOfDomain, NumberOfProcessors, SystemType, TotalPhysicalMemory, UserName, Workgroup write-output "WMI Results: $cs" } getinfo $server $instance write-output "Complete" Executed as a job it will show as 'running' forever: PS C:\sqlps> Start-Job -FilePath .\GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 -ArgumentList DBSERVER,LOGDB,SERVER01,SERVER01 Id Name State HasMoreData Location Command -- ---- ----- ----------- -------- ------- 21 Job21 Running True localhost param($sqlsrv,$destdb,... GAC Version Location --- ------- -------- True v2.0.50727 C:\WINDOWS\assembly\GAC_MSIL\Microsoft.SqlServer.Smo\10.0.0.0__89845dcd8080cc91\Microsoft.SqlServer.Smo.dll getinfo MSDCHR01 MSDCHR01 Entered GetInfo with: SERVER01,SERVER01 The last output I ever get is the 'Entered GetInfo with: SERVER01,SERVER01'. If I run it manually like so: PS C:\sqlps> .\GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 DBSERVER LOGDB SERVER01 SERVER01 The WMI query executes just as expected. I am trying to determine why this is, or at least a useful way to trap errors from within jobs. Thanks!

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  • How to avoid loading a LINQ to SQL object twice when editting it on a website.

    - by emzero
    Hi guys I know you are all tired of this Linq-to-Sql questions, but I'm barely starting to use it (never used an ORM before) and I've already find some "ugly" things. I'm pretty used to ASP.NET Webforms old school developing, but I want to leave that behind and learn the new stuff (I've just started to read a ASP.NET MVC book and a .NET 3.5/4.0 one). So here's is one thing I didn't like and I couldn't find a good alternative to it. In most examples of editing a LINQ object I've seen the object is loaded (hitting the db) at first to fill the current values on the form page. Then, the user modify some fields and when the "Save" button is clicked, the object is loaded for second time and then updated. Here's a simplified example of ScottGu NerdDinner site. // // GET: /Dinners/Edit/5 [Authorize] public ActionResult Edit(int id) { Dinner dinner = dinnerRepository.GetDinner(id); return View(new DinnerFormViewModel(dinner)); } // // POST: /Dinners/Edit/5 [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post), Authorize] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection collection) { Dinner dinner = dinnerRepository.GetDinner(id); UpdateModel(dinner); dinnerRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id=dinner.DinnerID }); } As you can see the dinner object is loaded two times for every modification. Unless I'm missing something about LINQ to SQL caching the last queried objects or something like that I don't like getting it twice when it should be retrieved only one time, modified and then comitted back to the database. So again, am I really missing something? Or is it really hitting the database twice (in the example above it won't harm, but there could be cases that getting an object or set of objects could be heavy stuff). If so, what alternative do you think is the best to avoid double-loading the object? Thank you so much, Greetings!

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  • puzzled with java if else performance

    - by user1906966
    I am doing an investigation on a method's performance and finally identified the overhead was caused by the "else" portion of the if else statement. I have written a small program to illustrate the performance difference even when the else portion of the code never gets executed: public class TestIfPerf { public static void main( String[] args ) { boolean condition = true; long time = 0L; int value = 0; // warm up test for( int count=0; count<10000000; count++ ) { if ( condition ) { value = 1 + 2; } else { value = 1 + 3; } } // benchmark if condition only time = System.nanoTime(); for( int count=0; count<10000000; count++ ) { if ( condition ) { value = 1 + 2; } } time = System.nanoTime() - time; System.out.println( "1) performance " + time ); time = System.nanoTime(); // benchmark if else condition for( int count=0; count<10000000; count++ ) { if ( condition ) { value = 1 + 2; } else { value = 1 + 3; } } time = System.nanoTime() - time; System.out.println( "2) performance " + time ); } } and run the test program with java -classpath . -Dmx=800m -Dms=800m TestIfPerf. I performed this on both Mac and Linux Java with 1.6 latest build. Consistently the first benchmark, without the else is much faster than the second benchmark with the else section even though the code is structured such that the else portion is never executed because of the condition. I understand that to some, the difference might not be significant but the relative performance difference is large. I wonder if anyone has any insight to this (or maybe there is something I did incorrectly). Linux benchmark (in nano) performance 1215488 performance 2629531 Mac benchmark (in nano) performance 1667000 performance 4208000

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  • How to handle "Remember me" in the Asp.Net Membership Provider

    - by RemotecUk
    Ive written a custom membership provider for my ASP.Net website. Im using the default Forms.Authentication redirect where you simply pass true to the method to tell it to "Remember me" for the current user. I presume that this function simply writes a cookie to the local machine containing some login credential of the user. What does ASP.Net put in this cookie? Is it possible if the format of my usernames was known (e.g. sequential numbering) someone could easily copy this cookie and by putting it on their own machine be able to access the site as another user? Additionally I need to be able to inercept the authentication of the user who has the cookie. Since the last time they logged in their account may have been cancelled, they may need to change their password etc so I need the option to intercept the authentication and if everything is still ok allow them to continue or to redirect them to the proper login page. I would be greatful for guidance on both of these two points. I gather for the second I can possibly put something in global.asax to intercept the authentication? Thanks in advance.

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  • WPF - binding ElementName problem...

    - by zvi
    Hello First Sorry for my English. I wanted to ask why ElementName does not work the first case, and work in the second. I give the two sections of code . the firts not work <Button Name="button1" Width="100" > <Button.LayoutTransform> <ScaleTransform x:Name="ttt" ScaleX="3" ScaleY="6"/> </Button.LayoutTransform> <Button.Triggers> <EventTrigger RoutedEvent="Path.Loaded"> <EventTrigger.Actions> <BeginStoryboard> <Storyboard RepeatBehavior="Forever"> <DoubleAnimation Storyboard.Target="{Binding ElementName=ttt}" Storyboard.TargetProperty="ScaleX" From="10" To="5" Duration="0:0:1" /> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </EventTrigger.Actions> </EventTrigger> </Button.Triggers> Button </Button> But it does work <Button Name="button1" Width="100" > <Button.LayoutTransform> <ScaleTransform x:Name="ttt" ScaleX="3" ScaleY="6"/> </Button.LayoutTransform> <Button.Triggers> <EventTrigger RoutedEvent="Path.Loaded"> <EventTrigger.Actions> <BeginStoryboard> <Storyboard RepeatBehavior="Forever"> <DoubleAnimation Storyboard.Target="{Binding ElementName=button1}" Storyboard.TargetProperty="Width" From="100" To="50" Duration="0:0:1" /> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </EventTrigger.Actions> </EventTrigger> </Button.Triggers> Button </Button> I know I can use Storyboard.TargetName .

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  • Dojo Widgets not rendering when returned in response to XhrPost

    - by lazynerd
    I am trying to capture the selected item in a Dijit Tree widget to render remaining part of the web page. Here is the code that captures the selected item and sends it to Django backend: <div dojoType="dijit.Tree" id="leftTree" store="leftTreeStore" childrenAttr="folders" query="{type:'folder'}" label="Explorer"> <script type="dojo/method" event="onClick" args="item"> alert("Execute of node " + termStore.getLabel(item)); var xhrArgs = { url: "/load-the-center-part-of-page", handleAs: "text", postData: dojo.toJson(leftTreeStore.getLabel(item), true), load: function(data) { dojo.byId("centerPane").innerHTML = data; //window.location = data; }, error: function(error) { dojo.byId("centerPane").innerHTML = "<p>Error in loading...</p>"; } } dojo.byId("centerPane").innerHTML = "<p>Loading...</p>"; var deferred = dojo.xhrPost(xhrArgs); </script> </div> The remaining part of the page contains HTML code with dojo widgets. This is the code sent back as 'response' to the select item event. Here is a snippet: <div dojoType="dijit.layout.TabContainer" id="tabs" jsId="tabs"> <div dojoType="dijit.layout.BorderContainer" title="Dashboard"> <div dojoType="dijit.layout.ContentPane" region="bottom"> first tab </div> </div> <div dojoType="dijit.layout.BorderContainer" title="Compare"> <div dojoType="dijit.layout.ContentPane" region="bottom"> Second Tab </div> </div> </div> It renders this html 'response' but without the dojo widgets. Is handleAs: "text" in XhrPost the culprit here?

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  • jQuery - Loading content into div, styles not applied?

    - by Kenny Bones
    Hi! I'm trying to get this content loader to work and I've managed to get it to get new content, once the content is loaded it isn't styled correctly. Also the character "é" becomes a questionmark. Doctype problem? As well as the h2 tag normally having Cufon applied to it is not triggering. So basically, this content loader require me to have a bunch of pages being essentially the same, except for the content I want to retreice. This way, users can use the actual URL as you'd normally exect. Only when a link is clicked on an already loaded page, it's only the content from the #content div that's realle being replaced. I can post code here, but I think it's better to just watch it happen on the testpage. It's very low on graphics btw ;) http://www.matkalenderen.no Just click the blue text link and you'll see it. Also, the red button on the second loaded content is supposed to revert the content back to previous. But it's not being triggered or something. What's happening?

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  • MVC design question for forms

    - by kenny99
    Hi, I'm developing an app which has a large amount of related form data to be handled. I'm using a MVC structure and all of the related data is represented in my models, along with the handling of data validation from form submissions. I'm looking for some advice on a good way to approach laying out my controllers - basically I will have a huge form which will be broken down into manageable categories (similar to a credit card app) where the user progresses through each stage/category filling out the answers. All of these form categories are related to the main relation/object, but not to each other. Does it make more sense to have each subform/category as a method in the main controller class (which will make that one controller fairly massive), or would it be better to break each category into a subclass of the main controller? It may be just for neatness that the second approach is better, but I'm struggling to see much of a difference between either creating a new method for each category (which communicates with the model and outputs errors/success) or creating a new controller to handle the same functionality. Thanks in advance for any guidance!

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  • Dynamically bind argument and default value to existing function in Javascript

    - by Scott
    Let's suppose you have some function someFunc() already defined in javascript, that may or may not have its own argument set defined. Is it possible to write another function to add a required argument and set that argument to a default for someFunc()? Something like: var someFunc = function(arg1, arg2 ...){ Do stuff...} var addRequired = function(argName, argValue, fn) { Add the required default arg to a function... } addRequired("x", 20, someFunc); Now someFunc would be defined roughly like so: someFunc = function(x, arg1, arg2...) { x = 20; Do stuff... } What I am really seeking is to not only bind a this value to a function (which I already know how to achieve), but also bind another object reference to that same function (the function not being known ahead of time, as a user will define it, but then the user's code has access to this second object reference for use in their own function). So in my simple example above, the "20" value will actually be an object reference. Thanks for any help you can offer.

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  • DelphiTwain how to show form setting

    - by Erwan
    Hi, I'm using Delphitwain (delphitwain.sourceforge.net) to add scan functionality to my app. Everything was fine, when i click scan button on my app it will show scan mode with scanner's Properties such as Page Size, Scanning Side (canon dr-3010c) and there is a Scan button and Cancel button. If i click cancel of course all the properties back to it's value before. How can I show this Scanner's Properties only to change properties without Scan, since i can do scan without showing properties Twain.LoadLibrary; Twain.LoadSourceManager; Twain.Source[CurrentSource].Loaded := TRUE; Twain.Source[CurrentSource].TransferMode := TTwainTransferMode(0); Twain.Source[CurrentSource].EnableSource(True, True); while Twain.Source[CurrentSource].Enabled do Application.ProcessMessages; Twain.UnloadLibrary; Twain.Source[CurrentSource].EnableSource(True, True); The first True for ShowUI and the second True for Modal I know it can be achieved 'cos i've seen another application that can show scanner's properties without scan, only OK and Cancel button, i've searched google all over but no luck, or maybe it just the limitation of the delphitwain component? Thanks, any suggestion appreciated

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  • How to implement the Facebook "Like" button for my website

    - by vamsivanka
    I am trying to implement facebook like button on my website. The first four lines in the code is already there on my site after the end of the "" tag. To implement the "Like button" i have added the second script (Line five to the end) and ran the application. Its giving me an error as "Microsoft Jscript runtime error:'_onLoad' is null or not an object" Please Let me know. Thanks <script type="text/javascript" src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/FeatureLoader.js.php"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> FB.init("myapikey", "xd_receiver.htm", { "reloadIfSessionStateChanged": true }); </script> <script type="text/javascript"> window.fbAsyncInit = function() { FB.init({appId: 'myappid', status: true, cookie: true, xfbml: true}); }; (function() { var e = document.createElement('script'); e.async = true; e.src = document.location.protocol + '//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js'; document.getElementById('fb-root').appendChild(e); }()); </script> References: http://developers.facebook.com/docs/reference/plugins/like <fb:like href="http://webclip.in" layout="standard" show-faces="true" width="450" action="like" font="arial" colorscheme="light"/>

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  • AJAX CascadingDropDown ViewState Problem

    - by Steven
    Question: How do I maintain both the contents (from queries) and selected value of both dropdowns after postback? Source Code: Download my source code from this link (link now works). Just add a reference to your AjaxControlToolkit User Action: Select a value from each dropdown. Click Submit. After Postback: StatesDrop: (Selected value), CitiesDrop "Select a City" Before and after: I believe that when the first dropdown gets its selected value, the second dropdown refreshes and therefore loses its selected value. C# answers also welcome. Default.aspx Active States<br /><asp:DropDownList ID="StatesDrop" runat="server" /><br /> Active Cities<br /><asp:DropDownList ID="CitiesDrop" runat="server" /><br /> <ajax:CascadingDropDown ID="StatesCasc" TargetControlID="StatesDrop" ServicePath="WebService1.asmx" ServiceMethod="GetActiveStates" Category="States" runat="server" PromptText="Select a State" PromptValue="?" /> <ajax:CascadingDropDown ID="CitiesCasc" TargetControlID="CitiesDrop" ServicePath="WebService1.asmx" ServiceMethod="GetActiveCities" Category="Cities" runat="server" ParentControlID="StatesDrop" PromptText="Select a City" PromptValue="?" /> WebService1.asmx.vb Imports System.Web.Services Imports System.Web.Services.Protocols Imports System.ComponentModel Imports System.Web.Script.Services Imports AjaxControlToolkit <System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService()> _ <System.Web.Services.WebService(Namespace:="http://tempuri.org/")> _ <System.Web.Services.WebServiceBinding _ (ConformsTo:=WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)> _ <ToolboxItem(False)> _ Public Class WebService1: Inherits System.Web.Services.WebService <WebMethod()> _ Public Function GetActiveStates (ByVal knownCategoryValues As String, _ ByVal category As String) As CascadingDropDownNameValue() Dim values As New List(Of CascadingDropDownNameValue)() 'Fill values array' Return values.ToArray() End Function <WebMethod()> _ Public Function GetActiveCities (ByVal knownCategoryValues As String, _ ByVal category As String) As CascadingDropDownNameValue() Dim values As New List(Of CascadingDropDownNameValue)() Dim kv As StringDictionary = _ CascadingDropDown.ParseKnownCategoryValuesString(knownCategoryValues) Dim SelState As String = "" If kv.ContainsKey("State") Then SelState = kv("State") 'Fill values array' Return values.ToArray() End Function End Class Default.aspx.vb Imports System.Web.Services Imports System.Web.Script.Services Imports AjaxControlToolkit Partial Public Class _Default Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Protected Sub Submit_Click(ByVal sender As Object, _ ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles SubmitBtn.Click ResultsGrid.DataBind() End Sub End Class

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  • WPF: Once I set a property in code, it ignores XAML binding forever more... how do I prevent that?

    - by Timothy Khouri
    I have a button that has a datatrigger that is used to disable the button if a certain property is not set to true: <Button Name="ExtendButton" Click="ExtendButton_Click" Margin="0,0,0,8"> <Button.Style> <Style> <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding IsConnected}" Value="False"> <Setter Property="Button.IsEnabled" Value="False" /> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> </Button.Style> That's some very simple binding, and it works perfectly. I can set "IsConnected" true and false and true and false and true and false, and I love to see my button just auto-magically become disabled, then enabled, etc. etc. However, in my Button_Click event... I want to: Disable the button (by using ExtendButton.IsEnabled = false;) Run some asynchronous code (that hits a server... takes about 1 second). Re-enable the button (by using ExtendButton.IsEnabled = true;) The problem is, the very instant that I manually set IsEnabled to either true or false... my XAML binding will never fire again. This makes me very sad :( I wish that IsEnabled was tri-state... and that true meant true, false meant false and null meant inherit. But that is not the case, so what do I do?

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  • Saving twice don't update my object in JDO

    - by Javi
    Hello I have an object persisted in the GAE datastore using JDO. The object looks like this: public class MyObject implements Serializable, StoreCallback { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="gae.encoded-pk", value="true") private String id; @Persistent private String firstId; ... } As usually when the object is stored for the first time a new id value is generated for the identifier. I need that if I don't provide a value for firstId it sets the same value as the id. I don't want to solve it with a special getter which checks for null value in firstId and then return the id value because I want to make queries relating on firstId. I can do it in this way by saving the object twice (Probably there's a better way to do this, but I'll do it in this way until I find a better one). But it is not working. when I debug it I can see that result.firstId is set with the id value and it seems to be persisted, but when I go into the datastore I see that firstId is null (as it was saved the first time). This save method is in my DAO and it is called in another save method in the service annotated with @Transactional. Does anyone have any idea why the second object in not persisted properly? @Override public MyObject save(MyObject obj) { PersistenceManager pm = JDOHelper.getPersistenceManagerFactory("transactions-optional"); MyObject result = pm.makePersistent(obj); if(result.getFirstId() == null){ result.setFirstId(result.getId()); result = pm.makePersistent(result); } return result; } Thanks.

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  • C# .NET : Is using the .NET Image Conversion enough?

    - by contactmatt
    I've seen a lot of people try to code their own image conversion techniques. It often seems to be very complicated, and ends up using GDI+ funciton calls, and manipulating bits of the image. This has got me wondering if I am missing something in the simplicity of .NET's image conversion call when saving an image. Here's the code I have Bitmap tempBmp = new Bitmap("c:\temp\img.jpg"); Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(tempBmp, 800, 600); bmp.Save(c:\temp\img.bmp, //extension depends on format ImageFormat.Bmp) //These are all the ImageFormats I allow conversion to within the program. Ignore the syntax for a second ;) ImageFormat.Gif) //or ImageFormat.Jpeg) //or ImageFormat.Png) //or ImageFormat.Tiff) //or ImageFormat.Wmf) //or ImageFormat.Bmp)//or ); This is all I'm doing in my image conversion. Just setting the location of where the image should be saved, and passing it an ImageFormat type. I've tested it the best I can, but I'm wondering if I am missing anything in this simple format conversion, or if this is suffice?

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  • Entity framework memory leak after detaching newly created object

    - by Tom Peplow
    Hi, Here's a test: WeakReference ref1; WeakReference ref2; TestRepositoryEntitiesContainer context; int i = 0; using (context = GetContext<TestRepositoryEntitiesContainer>()) { context.ObjectMaterialized += (o, s) => i++; var item = context.SomeEntities.Where(e => e.SomePropertyToLookupOn == "some property").First(); context.Detach(item); ref1 = new WeakReference(item); var newItem = new SomeEntity {SomePropertyToLookupOn = "another value"}; context.SomeEntities.AddObject(newItem); ref2 = new WeakReference(newItem); context.SaveChanges(); context.SomeEntities.Detach(newItem); newItem = null; item = null; } context = null; GC.Collect(); Assert.IsFalse(ref1.IsAlive); Assert.IsFalse(ref2.IsAlive); First assert passes, second fails... I hope I'm missing something, it is late... But it appears that detaching a fetched item will actually release all handles on the object letting it be collected. However, for new objects something keeps a pointer and creates a memory leak. NB - this is EF 4.0 Anyone seen this before and worked around it? Thanks for your help! Tom

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  • JScrollPanel without scrollbars

    - by Erik Itland
    I'm trying to use a JScrollPanel to display a JPanel that might be too big for the containing Jpanel. I don't want to show the scrollbars (yes, this is questionable UI design, but it is my best guess of what the customer wants. We use the same idea other places in the application, and I feel this case have given me enough time to ponder if I can do it in a better way, but if you have a better idea I might accept it an answer.) First attempt: set verticalScrollBarPolicy to NEVER. Result: Scrolling using mouse wheel doesn't work. Second attempt: set the scrollbars to null. Result: Scrolling using mouse wheel doesn't work. Third attempt: set scrollbars visible property to false. Result: It is immidiately set visible by Swing. Fourth attempt: inject a scrollbar where setVisible is overridden to do nothing when called with true. Result: Can't remember exactly, but I think it just didn't work. Fifth attempt: inject a scrollbar where setBounds are overridden. Result: Just didn't look nice. (I might have missed something here, though.) Sixth attempt: ask stackoverflow. Result: Pending. Scrolling works once scrollbars are back.

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  • T4MVC not generating an action

    - by Maslow
    I suspected there was some hidden magic somewhere that stopped what looks like actual method calls all over the place in T4MVC. Then I had a view fail to compile, and the stackTrace went into my actual method. [Authorize] public string Apply(string shortName) { if (shortName.IsNullOrEmpty()) return "Failed alliance name was not transmitted"; if (Request.IsAuthenticated == false || User == null || User.Identity == null) return "Apply authentication failed"; Models.Persistence.AlliancePersistance.Apply(User.Identity.Name, shortName); return "Applied"; } So this method isn't generating in the template after all. <%=Ajax.ActionLink("Apply", "Apply", new RouteValueDictionary() { { "shortName", item.Shortname } }, new AjaxOptions() { UpdateTargetId = "masterstatus" })%> <%=Html.ActionLink("Apply",MVC.Alliance.Apply(item.Shortname),new AjaxOptions() { UpdateTargetId = "masterstatus" }) %> The second method threw an exception on compile because the method Apply in my controller has an [Authorize] attribute so that if someone that isn't logged on clicks this, they get redirected to login, then right back to this page. There they can click on apply again, this time being logged in. And yes I realize one is Ajax.ActionLink while the other is Html.ActionLink I did try them both with the T4MVC version.

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  • Efficient way of calculating average difference of array elements from array average value

    - by Saysmaster
    Is there a way to calculate the average distance of array elements from array average value, by only "visiting" each array element once? (I search for an algorithm) Example: Array : [ 1 , 5 , 4 , 9 , 6 ] Average : ( 1 + 5 + 4 + 9 + 6 ) / 5 = 5 Distance Array : [|1-5|, |5-5|, |4-5|, |9-5|, |6-5|] = [4 , 0 , 1 , 4 , 1 ] Average Distance : ( 4 + 0 + 1 + 4 + 1 ) / 5 = 2 The simple algorithm needs 2 passes. 1st pass) Reads and accumulates values, then divides the result by array length to calculate average value of array elements. 2nd pass) Reads values, accumulates each one's distance from the previously calculated average value, and then divides the result by array length to find the average distance of the elements from the average value of the array. The two passes are identical. It is the classic algorithm of calculating the average of a set of values. The first one takes as input the elements of the array, the second one the distances of each element from the array's average value. Calculating the average can be modified to not accumulate the values, but caclulating the average "on the fly" as we sequentialy read the elements from the array. The formula is: Compute Running Average of Array's elements ------------------------------------------- RA[i] = E[i] {for i == 1} RA[i] = RA[i-1] - RA[i-1]/i + A[i]/i { for i > 1 } Where A[x] is the array's element at position x, RA[x] is the average of the array's elements between position 1 and x (running average). My question is: Is there a similar algorithm, to calculate "on the fly" (as we read the array's elements), the average distance of the elements from the array's mean value? The problem is that, as we read the array's elements, the final average value of the array is not known. Only the running average is known. So calculating differences from the running average will not yield the correct result. I suppose, if such algorithm exists, it probably should have the "ability" to compensate, in a way, on each new element read for the error calculated as far.

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  • Tableview not updating correctly after adding person

    - by tazboy
    I have to be missing something simple here but it escapes me. After the user enters a new person to a mutable array I want to update the table. The mutable array is the datasource. I believe my issue lies within cellForRowAtIndexPath. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { TextFieldCell *customCell = (TextFieldCell *)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:@"TextCellID"]; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:@"cell"]; if (indexPath.row == 0) { if (customCell == nil) { NSArray *nibObjects = [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"TextFieldCell" owner:nil options:nil]; for (id currentObject in nibObjects) { if ([currentObject isKindOfClass:[TextFieldCell class]]) customCell = (TextFieldCell *)currentObject; } } customCell.nameTextField.delegate = self; cell = customCell; } else { if (cell == nil) { cell = [[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:@"cell"]; cell.textLabel.text = [[self.peopleArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row-1] name]; NSLog(@"PERSON AT ROW %d = %@", indexPath.row-1, [[self.peopleArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row-1] name]); NSLog(@"peopleArray's Size = %d", [self.peopleArray count]); } } return cell; } When I first load the view everything is great. This is what prints: PERSON AT ROW 0 = Melissa peopleArray's Size = 2 PERSON AT ROW 1 = Dave peopleArray's Size = 2 After I add someone to that array I get this: PERSON AT ROW 1 = Dave peopleArray's Size = 3 PERSON AT ROW 2 = Tom peopleArray's Size = 3 When I add a second person I get: PERSON AT ROW 2 = Tom peopleArray's Size = 4 PERSON AT ROW 3 = Ralph peopleArray's Size = 4 Why is not printing everyone in the array? This pattern continues and it only ever prints two people, and it's always the last two people. What the heck am I missing?

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  • Overload Resolution and Optional Arguments in C# 4

    - by Dale McCoy
    I am working with some code that has seven overloads of a function TraceWrite: void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, string Data = ""); void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, bool LogToFileOnly, string Data = ""); void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, string PieceID, string Data = ""); void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, LogWindowCommandENUM LogWindowCommand, string Data = ""); void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, bool UserMessage, int UserMessagePercent, string Data = ""); void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, string PieceID, LogWindowCommandENUM LogWindowCommand, string Data = ""); void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, LogWindowCommandENUM LogWindowCommand, bool UserMessage, int UserMessagePercent, string Data = ""); (All public static, namespacing noise elided above and throughout.) So, with that background: 1) Elsewhere, I call TraceWrite with four arguments: string, LogLevelENUM, string, bool, and I get the following errors: error CS1502: The best overloaded method match for 'TraceWrite(string, LogLevelENUM, string, string)' has some invalid arguments error CS1503: Argument '4': cannot convert from 'bool' to 'string' Why doesn't this call resolve to the second overload? (TraceWrite(string, LogLevelENUM, string, bool, string = "")) 2) If I were to call TraceWrite with string, LogLevelENUM, string, string, which overload would be called? The first or the third? And why?

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  • WPF : Multiple views, one DataContext

    - by zapho
    Hi, I'm working on a WPF application which must handle multiple screens (two at this this time). One view can be opened on several screens and user actions must be reflected consistently on all screens. To achieve this, for a given type of view, a single DataContext is instantiated. Then, when a view is displayed on a screen, the unique DataContext is attached to it. So, one DataContext, several views (same type of view/xaml). So far so good. It works quite well in most cases. I do have a problem with a specific view which relies on ItemsControl. These ItemsControl are used to display UIElements dynamically build in the ViewModel/DataContext (C# code). These UIElements are mostly Path objects. Example : <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding WindVectors}"> <ItemsControl.Template> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type ItemsControl}"> <Canvas IsItemsHost="True" /> </ControlTemplate> </ItemsControl.Template> </ItemsControl> Here, WindVectors is a ObservableCollection<UIElement>. When the view is opened the first time, everything is fine. The problem is that when the view is opened one another screen, all ItemsControl are removed from the first screen and displayed one the second screen. Other WPF components (TextBlock for instance) on this view react normally and are displayed on both screens. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks. Fabrice

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  • Pair-wise iteration in C# or sliding window enumerator

    - by f3lix
    If I have an IEnumerable like: string[] items = new string[] { "a", "b", "c", "d" }; I would like to loop thru all the pairs of consecutive items (sliding window of size 2). Which would be ("a","b"), ("b", "c"), ("c", "d") My solution was is this public static IEnumerable<Pair<T, T>> Pairs(IEnumerable<T> enumerable) { IEnumerator<T> e = enumerable.GetEnumerator(); e.MoveNext(); T current = e.Current; while ( e.MoveNext() ) { T next = e.Current; yield return new Pair<T, T>(current, next); current = next; } } // used like this : foreach (Pair<String,String> pair in IterTools<String>.Pairs(items)) { System.Out.PrintLine("{0}, {1}", pair.First, pair.Second) } When I wrote this code, I wondered if there are already functions in the .NET framework that do the same thing and do it not just for pairs but for any size tuples. IMHO there should be a nice way to do this kind of sliding window operations. I use C# 2.0 and I can imagine that with C# 3.0 (w/ LINQ) there are more (and nicer) ways to do this, but I'm primarily interested in C# 2.0 solutions. Though, I will also appreciate C# 3.0 solutions.

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  • having trouble disabling textbox in vb.net

    - by user225269
    How do I disable a textbox the second time? here is my code, In form load the textbox is disabled, unless the user will input an idnumber that is in the database. But what if the user will input an idnumber that is in the database then, input again another that is not, That is where this code comes in, but it has problems, it doesnt disable the textbox in the event of a mouse click, what would be the proper way of doing this? Private Sub Button12_MouseClick(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.MouseEventArgs) Handles Button12.MouseClick Dim NoAcc As String Dim NoAccmod2 As String Dim NoPas As String Dim sqlcon As New MySqlConnection("Server=localhost; Database=school;Uid=root;Pwd=nitoryolai123$%^;") Dim sqlcom As MySqlCommand = New MySqlCommand("Select * from student where IDNO= '" & TextBox14.Text & "' ", sqlcon) sqlcon.Open() Dim rdr As MySqlDataReader rdr = sqlcom.ExecuteReader If rdr.HasRows Then rdr.Read() NoAcc = rdr("IDNO") If (TextBox14.Text <> NoAcc) Then MsgBox("ID Number is not yet registered!, please register first in the general information before trying to register parents information", MsgBoxStyle.Information) TextBox7.Enabled = False TextBox8.Enabled = False TextBox9.Enabled = False TextBox10.Enabled = False TextBox11.Enabled = False TextBox12.Enabled = False TextBox13.Enabled = False End If End If

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  • How to handle pagination queries properly with mongodb and php?

    - by luckytaxi
    Am I doing this right? I went to look at some old PHP code w/ MySQL and I've managed to get it to work, however I'm wondering if there's a much "cleaner" and "faster" way of accomplishing this. First I would need to get the total number of "documents" $total_documents = $collection->find(array("tags" => $tag, "seeking" => $this->session->userdata('gender'), "gender" => $this->session->userdata('seeking')))->count(); $skip = (int)($docs_per_page * ($page - 1)); $limit = $docs_per_page; $total_pages = ceil($total_documents / $limit); // Query to populate array so I can display with pagination $data['result'] = $collection->find(array("tags" => $tag, "seeking" => $this->session->userdata('gender'), "gender" => $this->session->userdata('seeking')))->limit($limit)->skip($skip)->sort(array("_id" => -1)); My question is, can I run the query in one shot? I'm basically running the same query twice, except the second time I'm passing the value to skip between records.

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