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  • puzzled with java if else performance

    - by user1906966
    I am doing an investigation on a method's performance and finally identified the overhead was caused by the "else" portion of the if else statement. I have written a small program to illustrate the performance difference even when the else portion of the code never gets executed: public class TestIfPerf { public static void main( String[] args ) { boolean condition = true; long time = 0L; int value = 0; // warm up test for( int count=0; count<10000000; count++ ) { if ( condition ) { value = 1 + 2; } else { value = 1 + 3; } } // benchmark if condition only time = System.nanoTime(); for( int count=0; count<10000000; count++ ) { if ( condition ) { value = 1 + 2; } } time = System.nanoTime() - time; System.out.println( "1) performance " + time ); time = System.nanoTime(); // benchmark if else condition for( int count=0; count<10000000; count++ ) { if ( condition ) { value = 1 + 2; } else { value = 1 + 3; } } time = System.nanoTime() - time; System.out.println( "2) performance " + time ); } } and run the test program with java -classpath . -Dmx=800m -Dms=800m TestIfPerf. I performed this on both Mac and Linux Java with 1.6 latest build. Consistently the first benchmark, without the else is much faster than the second benchmark with the else section even though the code is structured such that the else portion is never executed because of the condition. I understand that to some, the difference might not be significant but the relative performance difference is large. I wonder if anyone has any insight to this (or maybe there is something I did incorrectly). Linux benchmark (in nano) performance 1215488 performance 2629531 Mac benchmark (in nano) performance 1667000 performance 4208000

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  • How to read XML using XPath in Java

    - by kaibuki
    Hi guys, I want to read XML data using XPath in Java, so for the information I have gathered I am not able to parse XML according to my requirement. here is what I want to do: Get XML file from online via its URL, then use XPath to parse it, I want to create two methods in it. One is in which I enter a specific node attribute id, and I get all the child nodes as result, and second is suppose I just want to get a specific child node value only <?xml version="1.0"?><howto> <topic name="Java"> <url>http://www.rgagnonjavahowto.htm</url> <car>taxi</car> </topic> <topic ame="PowerBuilder"> <url>http://www.rgagnon/pbhowto.htm</url> <url>http://www.rgagnon/pbhowtonew.htm</url> </topic> <topic name="Javascript"> <url>http://www.rgagnon/jshowto.htm</url> </topic> <topic name="VBScript"> <url>http://www.rgagnon/vbshowto.htm</url> </topic></howto> In above example I want to read all the elements if I search via @name and also one function in which I just want the url from @name 'Javascript' only return one node element. I hope I cleared my question :) Thanks. Kai

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  • C# .NET : Is using the .NET Image Conversion enough?

    - by contactmatt
    I've seen a lot of people try to code their own image conversion techniques. It often seems to be very complicated, and ends up using GDI+ funciton calls, and manipulating bits of the image. This has got me wondering if I am missing something in the simplicity of .NET's image conversion call when saving an image. Here's the code I have Bitmap tempBmp = new Bitmap("c:\temp\img.jpg"); Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(tempBmp, 800, 600); bmp.Save(c:\temp\img.bmp, //extension depends on format ImageFormat.Bmp) //These are all the ImageFormats I allow conversion to within the program. Ignore the syntax for a second ;) ImageFormat.Gif) //or ImageFormat.Jpeg) //or ImageFormat.Png) //or ImageFormat.Tiff) //or ImageFormat.Wmf) //or ImageFormat.Bmp)//or ); This is all I'm doing in my image conversion. Just setting the location of where the image should be saved, and passing it an ImageFormat type. I've tested it the best I can, but I'm wondering if I am missing anything in this simple format conversion, or if this is suffice?

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  • How to implement the Facebook "Like" button for my website

    - by vamsivanka
    I am trying to implement facebook like button on my website. The first four lines in the code is already there on my site after the end of the "" tag. To implement the "Like button" i have added the second script (Line five to the end) and ran the application. Its giving me an error as "Microsoft Jscript runtime error:'_onLoad' is null or not an object" Please Let me know. Thanks <script type="text/javascript" src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/FeatureLoader.js.php"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> FB.init("myapikey", "xd_receiver.htm", { "reloadIfSessionStateChanged": true }); </script> <script type="text/javascript"> window.fbAsyncInit = function() { FB.init({appId: 'myappid', status: true, cookie: true, xfbml: true}); }; (function() { var e = document.createElement('script'); e.async = true; e.src = document.location.protocol + '//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js'; document.getElementById('fb-root').appendChild(e); }()); </script> References: http://developers.facebook.com/docs/reference/plugins/like <fb:like href="http://webclip.in" layout="standard" show-faces="true" width="450" action="like" font="arial" colorscheme="light"/>

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  • Dependency Injection and decoupling of software layers

    - by cs31415
    I am trying to implement Dependency Injection to make my app tester friendly. I have a rather basic doubt. Data layer uses SqlConnection object to connect to a SQL server database. SqlConnection object is a dependency for data access layer. In accordance with the laws of dependency injection, we must not new() dependent objects, but rather accept them through constructor arguments. Not wanting to upset the DI gods, I dutifully create a constructor in my DAL that takes in SqlConnection. Business layer calls DAL. Business layer must therefore, pass in SqlConnection. Presentation layer calls Business layer. Hence it too, must pass in SqlConnection to business layer. This is great for class isolation and testability. But didn't we just couple the UI and Business layers to a specific implementation of the data layer which happens to use a relational database? Why do the Presentation and Business layers need to know that the underlying data store is SQL? What if the app needs to support multiple data sources other than SQL server (such as XML files, Comma delimited files etc.) Furthermore, what if I add another object upon which my data layer is dependent on (say, a second database). Now, I have to modify the upper layers to pass in this new object. How can I avoid this merry-go-round and reap all the benefits of DI without the pain?

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  • WMI Query Script as a Job

    - by Kenneth
    I have two scripts. One calls the other with a list of servers as parameters. The second query is designed to execute a WMI query. When I run it manually, it does this perfectly. When I try to run it as a job it hangs forever and I have to remove it. For the sake of space here is the relevant part of the calling script: ProcessServers.ps1 Start-Job -FilePath .\GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 -ArgumentList $sqlsrv,$destdb,$server,$instance GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 param($sqlsrv,$destdb,$server,$instance) $password = get-content C:\SQLPS\auth.txt | convertto-securestring $credentials = new-object -typename System.Management.Automation.PSCredential -argumentlist "DOMAIN\MYUSER",$password [System.Reflection.Assembly]::LoadWithPartialName('Microsoft.SqlServer.SMO') $box_id = 0; if ($sqlsrv.length -eq 0) { write-output "No data passed" break } function getinfo { param( [string]$svr, [string]$inst ) "Entered GetInfo with: $svr,$inst" $cs = get-wmiobject win32_operatingsystem -computername $svr -credential $credentials -authentication 6 -Verbose -Debug | select Name, Model, Manufacturer, Description, DNSHostName, Domain, DomainRole, PartOfDomain, NumberOfProcessors, SystemType, TotalPhysicalMemory, UserName, Workgroup write-output "WMI Results: $cs" } getinfo $server $instance write-output "Complete" Executed as a job it will show as 'running' forever: PS C:\sqlps> Start-Job -FilePath .\GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 -ArgumentList DBSERVER,LOGDB,SERVER01,SERVER01 Id Name State HasMoreData Location Command -- ---- ----- ----------- -------- ------- 21 Job21 Running True localhost param($sqlsrv,$destdb,... GAC Version Location --- ------- -------- True v2.0.50727 C:\WINDOWS\assembly\GAC_MSIL\Microsoft.SqlServer.Smo\10.0.0.0__89845dcd8080cc91\Microsoft.SqlServer.Smo.dll getinfo MSDCHR01 MSDCHR01 Entered GetInfo with: SERVER01,SERVER01 The last output I ever get is the 'Entered GetInfo with: SERVER01,SERVER01'. If I run it manually like so: PS C:\sqlps> .\GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 DBSERVER LOGDB SERVER01 SERVER01 The WMI query executes just as expected. I am trying to determine why this is, or at least a useful way to trap errors from within jobs. Thanks!

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  • WPF: Once I set a property in code, it ignores XAML binding forever more... how do I prevent that?

    - by Timothy Khouri
    I have a button that has a datatrigger that is used to disable the button if a certain property is not set to true: <Button Name="ExtendButton" Click="ExtendButton_Click" Margin="0,0,0,8"> <Button.Style> <Style> <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding IsConnected}" Value="False"> <Setter Property="Button.IsEnabled" Value="False" /> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> </Button.Style> That's some very simple binding, and it works perfectly. I can set "IsConnected" true and false and true and false and true and false, and I love to see my button just auto-magically become disabled, then enabled, etc. etc. However, in my Button_Click event... I want to: Disable the button (by using ExtendButton.IsEnabled = false;) Run some asynchronous code (that hits a server... takes about 1 second). Re-enable the button (by using ExtendButton.IsEnabled = true;) The problem is, the very instant that I manually set IsEnabled to either true or false... my XAML binding will never fire again. This makes me very sad :( I wish that IsEnabled was tri-state... and that true meant true, false meant false and null meant inherit. But that is not the case, so what do I do?

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  • WPF - binding ElementName problem...

    - by zvi
    Hello First Sorry for my English. I wanted to ask why ElementName does not work the first case, and work in the second. I give the two sections of code . the firts not work <Button Name="button1" Width="100" > <Button.LayoutTransform> <ScaleTransform x:Name="ttt" ScaleX="3" ScaleY="6"/> </Button.LayoutTransform> <Button.Triggers> <EventTrigger RoutedEvent="Path.Loaded"> <EventTrigger.Actions> <BeginStoryboard> <Storyboard RepeatBehavior="Forever"> <DoubleAnimation Storyboard.Target="{Binding ElementName=ttt}" Storyboard.TargetProperty="ScaleX" From="10" To="5" Duration="0:0:1" /> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </EventTrigger.Actions> </EventTrigger> </Button.Triggers> Button </Button> But it does work <Button Name="button1" Width="100" > <Button.LayoutTransform> <ScaleTransform x:Name="ttt" ScaleX="3" ScaleY="6"/> </Button.LayoutTransform> <Button.Triggers> <EventTrigger RoutedEvent="Path.Loaded"> <EventTrigger.Actions> <BeginStoryboard> <Storyboard RepeatBehavior="Forever"> <DoubleAnimation Storyboard.Target="{Binding ElementName=button1}" Storyboard.TargetProperty="Width" From="100" To="50" Duration="0:0:1" /> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </EventTrigger.Actions> </EventTrigger> </Button.Triggers> Button </Button> I know I can use Storyboard.TargetName .

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  • Dynamically bind argument and default value to existing function in Javascript

    - by Scott
    Let's suppose you have some function someFunc() already defined in javascript, that may or may not have its own argument set defined. Is it possible to write another function to add a required argument and set that argument to a default for someFunc()? Something like: var someFunc = function(arg1, arg2 ...){ Do stuff...} var addRequired = function(argName, argValue, fn) { Add the required default arg to a function... } addRequired("x", 20, someFunc); Now someFunc would be defined roughly like so: someFunc = function(x, arg1, arg2...) { x = 20; Do stuff... } What I am really seeking is to not only bind a this value to a function (which I already know how to achieve), but also bind another object reference to that same function (the function not being known ahead of time, as a user will define it, but then the user's code has access to this second object reference for use in their own function). So in my simple example above, the "20" value will actually be an object reference. Thanks for any help you can offer.

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  • Pair-wise iteration in C# or sliding window enumerator

    - by f3lix
    If I have an IEnumerable like: string[] items = new string[] { "a", "b", "c", "d" }; I would like to loop thru all the pairs of consecutive items (sliding window of size 2). Which would be ("a","b"), ("b", "c"), ("c", "d") My solution was is this public static IEnumerable<Pair<T, T>> Pairs(IEnumerable<T> enumerable) { IEnumerator<T> e = enumerable.GetEnumerator(); e.MoveNext(); T current = e.Current; while ( e.MoveNext() ) { T next = e.Current; yield return new Pair<T, T>(current, next); current = next; } } // used like this : foreach (Pair<String,String> pair in IterTools<String>.Pairs(items)) { System.Out.PrintLine("{0}, {1}", pair.First, pair.Second) } When I wrote this code, I wondered if there are already functions in the .NET framework that do the same thing and do it not just for pairs but for any size tuples. IMHO there should be a nice way to do this kind of sliding window operations. I use C# 2.0 and I can imagine that with C# 3.0 (w/ LINQ) there are more (and nicer) ways to do this, but I'm primarily interested in C# 2.0 solutions. Though, I will also appreciate C# 3.0 solutions.

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  • having trouble disabling textbox in vb.net

    - by user225269
    How do I disable a textbox the second time? here is my code, In form load the textbox is disabled, unless the user will input an idnumber that is in the database. But what if the user will input an idnumber that is in the database then, input again another that is not, That is where this code comes in, but it has problems, it doesnt disable the textbox in the event of a mouse click, what would be the proper way of doing this? Private Sub Button12_MouseClick(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.MouseEventArgs) Handles Button12.MouseClick Dim NoAcc As String Dim NoAccmod2 As String Dim NoPas As String Dim sqlcon As New MySqlConnection("Server=localhost; Database=school;Uid=root;Pwd=nitoryolai123$%^;") Dim sqlcom As MySqlCommand = New MySqlCommand("Select * from student where IDNO= '" & TextBox14.Text & "' ", sqlcon) sqlcon.Open() Dim rdr As MySqlDataReader rdr = sqlcom.ExecuteReader If rdr.HasRows Then rdr.Read() NoAcc = rdr("IDNO") If (TextBox14.Text <> NoAcc) Then MsgBox("ID Number is not yet registered!, please register first in the general information before trying to register parents information", MsgBoxStyle.Information) TextBox7.Enabled = False TextBox8.Enabled = False TextBox9.Enabled = False TextBox10.Enabled = False TextBox11.Enabled = False TextBox12.Enabled = False TextBox13.Enabled = False End If End If

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  • DelphiTwain how to show form setting

    - by Erwan
    Hi, I'm using Delphitwain (delphitwain.sourceforge.net) to add scan functionality to my app. Everything was fine, when i click scan button on my app it will show scan mode with scanner's Properties such as Page Size, Scanning Side (canon dr-3010c) and there is a Scan button and Cancel button. If i click cancel of course all the properties back to it's value before. How can I show this Scanner's Properties only to change properties without Scan, since i can do scan without showing properties Twain.LoadLibrary; Twain.LoadSourceManager; Twain.Source[CurrentSource].Loaded := TRUE; Twain.Source[CurrentSource].TransferMode := TTwainTransferMode(0); Twain.Source[CurrentSource].EnableSource(True, True); while Twain.Source[CurrentSource].Enabled do Application.ProcessMessages; Twain.UnloadLibrary; Twain.Source[CurrentSource].EnableSource(True, True); The first True for ShowUI and the second True for Modal I know it can be achieved 'cos i've seen another application that can show scanner's properties without scan, only OK and Cancel button, i've searched google all over but no luck, or maybe it just the limitation of the delphitwain component? Thanks, any suggestion appreciated

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  • Adding trend lines/boxplots (by group) in ggplot2

    - by Tal Galili
    Hi all, I have 40 subjects, of two groups, over 15 weeks, with some measured variable (Y). I wish to have a plot where: x = time, y = T, lines are by subjects and colours by groups. I found it can be done like this: TIME <- paste("week",5:20) ID <- 1:40 GROUP <- sample(c("a","b"),length(ID), replace = T) group.id <- data.frame(GROUP, ID) a <- expand.grid(TIME, ID) colnames(a) <-c("TIME", "ID") group.id.time <- merge(a, group.id) Y <- rnorm(dim(group.id.time)[1], mean = ifelse(group.id.time$GROUP =="a",1,3) ) DATA <- cbind(group.id.time, Y) qplot(data = DATA, x=TIME, y=Y, group=ID, geom = c("line"),colour = GROUP) But now I wish to add to the plot something to show the difference between the two groups (for example, a trend line for each group, with some CI shadelines) - how can it be done? I remember once seeing the ggplot2 can (easily) do this with geom_smooth, but I am missing something about how to make it work. Also, I wondered at maybe having the lines be like a boxplot for each group (with a line for the different quantiles and fences and so on). But I imagine answering the first question would help me resolve the second. Thanks.

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  • Apache mod_deflate not compressing responses from Adobe BlazeDS

    - by DumCoder
    Hello, I have following setup Apache Box <=> Weblogic Box1 <=> Weblogic Box2 Apache Box : mod_weblogic(weblogic apache plugin), mod_deflate Weblogic Box1 : Weblogic 10.3 Weblogic Portal, Adobe BlazeDS Weblogic Box2 : Weblogic 10.3 SUN Jersey for REST API Apache forwards the request to Box1, where some of the REST requests get forwarded to Box 2 by Adobe BlazeDS. On Apache i have setup mod_deflate and mod_weblogic as follows: <IfModule mod_weblogic.c> WebLogicHost portalappeng.xxx.com WebLogicPort 7001 </IfModule> <Location /Portal> SetHandler weblogic-handler SetOutputFilter DEFLATE </Location> but when i look at the Apache deflate log i only see the jsp responses from Box1 being compressed, but the responses which BlazeDS forwarded to Box 2 are not compressed. Also the .js and .css files which are served from Box1 are not compressed Here are sample from log file, first response came directly from Box1 and got compressed, second and third also from Box1 but not compressed. Fourth one came from Box 2 to Box 1(BlazeDS) and then to Apache, not compressed. What am i missing? "GET /Portal/resources/services/userService/users?AppId=CM&CMUserType=ContentProducer&token=PSWNV8kb8db4WMBgWUjAbw%3D%3D&UserId=user123 HTTP/1.1" 711/7307 (9%) "GET /Portal/css/jquery-ui-1.7.2.custom.css HTTP/1.1" -/- (-%) "GET /Portal/framework/skins/shared/js/console.js HTTP/1.1" -/- (-%) "POST /Portal/messagebroker/http HTTP/1.1" -/- (-%)

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  • JScrollPanel without scrollbars

    - by Erik Itland
    I'm trying to use a JScrollPanel to display a JPanel that might be too big for the containing Jpanel. I don't want to show the scrollbars (yes, this is questionable UI design, but it is my best guess of what the customer wants. We use the same idea other places in the application, and I feel this case have given me enough time to ponder if I can do it in a better way, but if you have a better idea I might accept it an answer.) First attempt: set verticalScrollBarPolicy to NEVER. Result: Scrolling using mouse wheel doesn't work. Second attempt: set the scrollbars to null. Result: Scrolling using mouse wheel doesn't work. Third attempt: set scrollbars visible property to false. Result: It is immidiately set visible by Swing. Fourth attempt: inject a scrollbar where setVisible is overridden to do nothing when called with true. Result: Can't remember exactly, but I think it just didn't work. Fifth attempt: inject a scrollbar where setBounds are overridden. Result: Just didn't look nice. (I might have missed something here, though.) Sixth attempt: ask stackoverflow. Result: Pending. Scrolling works once scrollbars are back.

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  • Entity framework memory leak after detaching newly created object

    - by Tom Peplow
    Hi, Here's a test: WeakReference ref1; WeakReference ref2; TestRepositoryEntitiesContainer context; int i = 0; using (context = GetContext<TestRepositoryEntitiesContainer>()) { context.ObjectMaterialized += (o, s) => i++; var item = context.SomeEntities.Where(e => e.SomePropertyToLookupOn == "some property").First(); context.Detach(item); ref1 = new WeakReference(item); var newItem = new SomeEntity {SomePropertyToLookupOn = "another value"}; context.SomeEntities.AddObject(newItem); ref2 = new WeakReference(newItem); context.SaveChanges(); context.SomeEntities.Detach(newItem); newItem = null; item = null; } context = null; GC.Collect(); Assert.IsFalse(ref1.IsAlive); Assert.IsFalse(ref2.IsAlive); First assert passes, second fails... I hope I'm missing something, it is late... But it appears that detaching a fetched item will actually release all handles on the object letting it be collected. However, for new objects something keeps a pointer and creates a memory leak. NB - this is EF 4.0 Anyone seen this before and worked around it? Thanks for your help! Tom

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  • What is the best way to handle autorotation with multiple subview?

    - by thangnguyen
    I am learning and programing an application. I do this project based on what I learned from the book Beginning iphone 3 development. I have two main questions here: I would like to create a multi utility application so I need multiple-view. I have a main view controller which will control switching between views. In this example I have two views A and B. I have 2 view controller A and B which will handles all of events on these 2 views. I have 2 nib files viewA.xib and viewB.xib. One of the uitility is reading PDF. So I create another class which handle the PDF file which can load a PDF page call PDFview. From Interface Builder, I selected class identity for view of the viewB.xib as PDFView class. The result is I can switching between View A and view B. View B will display the content of the PDF page. I am not sure if my solution is right or wrong but now I don't know how to handle the autorotation. The rotation will active the view controller B. But the PDFView handle how to display the PDF on the View. Could you please tell me how I should handle this in a right way? Second question: Should I create the subview automatically? In case I need to do the swipe page animation, how can I do that? I think that I need to load another subview so I can do the animation when swap view. But I think this solution will waste the resource. I can just load another page of the PDF, but in this case I don't know how to use animation? Please tell me how I should solve this? I highly appreciate your time reading and answering my question. Thang Nguyen

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  • Overload Resolution and Optional Arguments in C# 4

    - by Dale McCoy
    I am working with some code that has seven overloads of a function TraceWrite: void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, string Data = ""); void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, bool LogToFileOnly, string Data = ""); void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, string PieceID, string Data = ""); void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, LogWindowCommandENUM LogWindowCommand, string Data = ""); void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, bool UserMessage, int UserMessagePercent, string Data = ""); void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, string PieceID, LogWindowCommandENUM LogWindowCommand, string Data = ""); void TraceWrite(string Application, LogLevelENUM LogLevel, string Message, LogWindowCommandENUM LogWindowCommand, bool UserMessage, int UserMessagePercent, string Data = ""); (All public static, namespacing noise elided above and throughout.) So, with that background: 1) Elsewhere, I call TraceWrite with four arguments: string, LogLevelENUM, string, bool, and I get the following errors: error CS1502: The best overloaded method match for 'TraceWrite(string, LogLevelENUM, string, string)' has some invalid arguments error CS1503: Argument '4': cannot convert from 'bool' to 'string' Why doesn't this call resolve to the second overload? (TraceWrite(string, LogLevelENUM, string, bool, string = "")) 2) If I were to call TraceWrite with string, LogLevelENUM, string, string, which overload would be called? The first or the third? And why?

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  • How to handle "Remember me" in the Asp.Net Membership Provider

    - by RemotecUk
    Ive written a custom membership provider for my ASP.Net website. Im using the default Forms.Authentication redirect where you simply pass true to the method to tell it to "Remember me" for the current user. I presume that this function simply writes a cookie to the local machine containing some login credential of the user. What does ASP.Net put in this cookie? Is it possible if the format of my usernames was known (e.g. sequential numbering) someone could easily copy this cookie and by putting it on their own machine be able to access the site as another user? Additionally I need to be able to inercept the authentication of the user who has the cookie. Since the last time they logged in their account may have been cancelled, they may need to change their password etc so I need the option to intercept the authentication and if everything is still ok allow them to continue or to redirect them to the proper login page. I would be greatful for guidance on both of these two points. I gather for the second I can possibly put something in global.asax to intercept the authentication? Thanks in advance.

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  • T4MVC not generating an action

    - by Maslow
    I suspected there was some hidden magic somewhere that stopped what looks like actual method calls all over the place in T4MVC. Then I had a view fail to compile, and the stackTrace went into my actual method. [Authorize] public string Apply(string shortName) { if (shortName.IsNullOrEmpty()) return "Failed alliance name was not transmitted"; if (Request.IsAuthenticated == false || User == null || User.Identity == null) return "Apply authentication failed"; Models.Persistence.AlliancePersistance.Apply(User.Identity.Name, shortName); return "Applied"; } So this method isn't generating in the template after all. <%=Ajax.ActionLink("Apply", "Apply", new RouteValueDictionary() { { "shortName", item.Shortname } }, new AjaxOptions() { UpdateTargetId = "masterstatus" })%> <%=Html.ActionLink("Apply",MVC.Alliance.Apply(item.Shortname),new AjaxOptions() { UpdateTargetId = "masterstatus" }) %> The second method threw an exception on compile because the method Apply in my controller has an [Authorize] attribute so that if someone that isn't logged on clicks this, they get redirected to login, then right back to this page. There they can click on apply again, this time being logged in. And yes I realize one is Ajax.ActionLink while the other is Html.ActionLink I did try them both with the T4MVC version.

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  • xCode: iPhone Swipe Gesture crash

    - by David DelMonte
    I have an app that I'd like the swipe gesture to flip to a second view. The app is all set up with buttons that work. The swipe gesture though causes a crash ( “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”.). The gesture code is: - (void)handleSwipe:(UISwipeGestureRecognizer *)recognizer { NSLog(@"%s", __FUNCTION__); switch (recognizer.direction) { case (UISwipeGestureRecognizerDirectionRight): [self performSelector:@selector(flipper:)]; break; case (UISwipeGestureRecognizerDirectionLeft): [self performSelector:@selector(flipper:)]; break; default: break; } } and "flipper" looks like this: - (IBAction)flipper:(id)sender { FlashCardsAppDelegate *mainDelegate = (FlashCardsAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [mainDelegate flipToFront]; } flipToBack (and flipToFront) look like this.. - (void)flipToBack { NSLog(@"%s", __FUNCTION__); BackViewController *theBackView = [[BackViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"BackView" bundle:nil]; [self setBackViewController:theBackView]; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1.0]; [UIView setAnimationTransition:UIViewAnimationTransitionFlipFromLeft forView:window cache:YES]; [frontViewController.view removeFromSuperview]; [self.window addSubview:[backViewController view]]; [UIView commitAnimations]; [frontViewController release]; frontViewController = nil; [theBackView release]; // NSLog (@" FINISHED "); } Maybe I'm going about this the wrong way... All ideas are welcome...

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  • Can't select data from MySQL database: java.lang.NullPointerException

    - by Devel
    Hi, I'm trying to select data from database using this code: //DATABASE ResultSet rs; String polecenie; Statement st; String[] subj; public void polacz() { try { Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"); Connection pol=DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/testgenerator", "root", "pospaz"); st = pol.createStatement(); lblPolaczonoZBaza.setText("Polaczono z baza danych testgenerator"); } catch (Exception ek) { statusMessageLabel.setText("Can't connect to d: "+ek); } polecenie = "select * from subjects"; try { rs = st.executeQuery(polecenie); int i=0; while (rs.next()){ subj[i] = rs.getString("name"); i++; } st.close(); } catch (Exception ek) { statusMessageLabel.setText("Can't select data: "+ek); } } The second catch shows exception: java.lang.NullPointerException I looked everywhere and I can't find the solution. I'd be grateful for any help.

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  • Saving twice don't update my object in JDO

    - by Javi
    Hello I have an object persisted in the GAE datastore using JDO. The object looks like this: public class MyObject implements Serializable, StoreCallback { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="gae.encoded-pk", value="true") private String id; @Persistent private String firstId; ... } As usually when the object is stored for the first time a new id value is generated for the identifier. I need that if I don't provide a value for firstId it sets the same value as the id. I don't want to solve it with a special getter which checks for null value in firstId and then return the id value because I want to make queries relating on firstId. I can do it in this way by saving the object twice (Probably there's a better way to do this, but I'll do it in this way until I find a better one). But it is not working. when I debug it I can see that result.firstId is set with the id value and it seems to be persisted, but when I go into the datastore I see that firstId is null (as it was saved the first time). This save method is in my DAO and it is called in another save method in the service annotated with @Transactional. Does anyone have any idea why the second object in not persisted properly? @Override public MyObject save(MyObject obj) { PersistenceManager pm = JDOHelper.getPersistenceManagerFactory("transactions-optional"); MyObject result = pm.makePersistent(obj); if(result.getFirstId() == null){ result.setFirstId(result.getId()); result = pm.makePersistent(result); } return result; } Thanks.

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  • Security implications of writing files using PHP

    - by susmits
    I'm currently trying to create a CMS using PHP, purely in the interest of education. I want the administrators to be able to create content, which will be parsed and saved on the server storage in pure HTML form to avoid the overhead that executing PHP script would incur. Unfortunately, I could only think of a few ways of doing so: Setting write permission on every directory where the CMS should want to write a file. This sounds like quite a bad idea. Setting write permissions on a single cached directory. A PHP script could then include or fopen/fread/echo the content from a file in the cached directory at request-time. This could perhaps be carried out in a Mediawiki-esque fashion: something like index.php?page=xyz could read and echo content from cached/xyz.html at runtime. However, I'll need to ensure the sanity of $_GET['page'] to prevent nasty variations like index.php?page=http://www.bad-site.org/malicious-script.js. I'm personally not too thrilled by the second idea, but the first one sounds very insecure. Could someone please suggest a good way of getting this done?

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  • emacs: x-popup-menu max size constraints?

    - by Cheeso
    I'm working on an intellisense or code-completion capability for C#. So far, so good. Right now I have basic completion working. There are 2 ways to request completion. The first cycles through all the potential matches. The second presents a popup menu of the matches. It works for types: And also for local variables: I'm confronting two problems with x-popup-menu: the popup menu can expand to consume all available screen space, when the number of choices is large. Literally it can obscure the entire screen. The silly thing is, it's scrollable. First it expands to consume all available space, then it also becomes scrollable. Is there a way I can limit the maximum size of x-popup-menu? To specify the position of the popup menu, I pass in a position, and x-popup-menu uses that as the *middle*, not the left, of the top line of the menu. Why middle? who knows. What this means is, if I specify (40 . 60) for the location of the menu, and the menu happens to be 100 pixels wide, the menu will extend beyond the left border of the emacs window. You can see this in the 2nd image above. If I knew how wide the popup would be before specifying the position, I could compensate. But I don't. Is there a workaround? Is there a way to get x-popup-menu to take its position as the LEFT rather than the middle.

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