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  • How can I reject a Windows "Service Stop" request in ATL 7?

    - by Matt Dillard
    I have a Windows service built upon ATL 7's CAtlServiceModuleT class. This service serves up COM objects that are used by various applications on the system, and these other applications naturally start getting errors if the service is stopped while they are still running. I know that ATL DLLs solve this problem by returning S_OK in DllCanUnloadNow() if CComModule's GetLockCount() returns 0. That is, it checks to make sure no one is currently using any COM objects served up by the DLL. I want equivalent functionality in the service. Here is what I've done in my override of CAtlServiceModuleT::OnStop(): void CMyServiceModule::OnStop() { if( GetLockCount() != 0 ) { return; } BaseClass::OnStop(); } Now, when the user attempts to Stop the service from the Services panel, they are presented with an error message: Windows could not stop the XYZ service on Local Computer. The service did not return an error. This could be an internal Windows error or an internal service error. If the problem persists, contact your system administrator. The Stop request is indeed refused, but it appears to put the service in a bad state. A second Stop request results in this error message: Windows could not stop the XYZ service on Local Computer. Error 1061: The service cannot accept control messages at this time. Interestingly, the service does actually stop this time (although I'd rather it not, since there are still outstanding COM references). I have two questions: Is it considered bad practice for a service to refuse to stop when asked? Is there a polite way to signify that the Stop request is being refused; one that doesn't put the Service into a bad state?

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  • Creating .ics file from code sometimes givs "The file <filename>[<index>].ics" is not a valid intern

    - by KaJo
    Hi! I am building an ASP site where i use response.write to create an ics file where user can choose open or save dialog for the event. When the user choose open, outlook sometimes gives the error "The file [].ics" is not a valid internet Calender file"? It is always the same event that is written to the response. The code looks like this: this.Response.ContentType = "text/calendar"; this.Response.AddHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache, must-revalidate"); this.Response.AddHeader("Pragma", "no-cache"); this.Response.Expires = -1; this.Response.AddHeader("Content-disposition", string.Format("attachment; filename={0}.ics",filename)); this.Response.Write("BEGIN:VCALENDAR"); this.Response.Write("\nVERSION:2.0"); this.Response.Write("\nMETHOD:PUBLISH"); this.Response.Write("\nBEGIN:VEVENT"); this.Response.Write("\nType:Single Meeting"); this.Response.Write("\nORGANIZER:MAILTO:" + organizer); this.Response.Write("\nDTSTART:" + startDate.ToUniversalTime().ToString(DateFormat)); this.Response.Write("\nDTEND:" + endDate.ToUniversalTime().ToString(DateFormat)); this.Response.Write("\nLOCATION:" + location); this.Response.Write("\nUID:" + Guid.NewGuid().ToString()); this.Response.Write("\nDTSTAMP:" + DateTime.Now.ToUniversalTime().ToString(DateFormat)); this.Response.Write("\nSUMMARY:" + summary); this.Response.Write("\nDESCRIPTION:" + description); this.Response.Write("\nPRIORITY:5"); this.Response.Write("\nCLASS:PUBLIC"); this.Response.Write("\nEND:VEVENT"); this.Response.Write("\nEND:VCALENDAR"); this.Response.End(); I usually get the error the first time I try to open the event in outlook, and the it works the second time? Does anyone knows how to solve this problem?

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  • Detecting what changed in an HTML Textfield

    - by teehoo
    For a major school project I am implementing a real-time collaborative editor. For a little background, basically what this means is that two(or more) users can type into a document at the same time, and their changes are automatically propagated to one another (similar to Etherpad). Now my problem is as follows: I want to be able to detect what changes a user carried out onto an HTML textfield. They could: Insert a character Delete a character Paste a string of characters Cut a string of characters I want to be able to detect which of these changes happened and then notify other clients similar to "insert character 'c' at position 2" etc. Anyway I was hoping to get some advice on how I would go about implementing the detection of these changes? My first attempt was to consider the carot position before and after a change occurred, but this failed miserably. For my second attempt I was thinking about doing a diff on the entire contents of the textfields old and new value. Am I missing anything obvious with this solution? Is there something simpler?

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  • Spring and hibernate.cfg.xml

    - by Steve Kuo
    How do I get Spring to load Hibernate's properties from hibernate.cfg.xml? We're using Spring and JPA (with Hibernate as the implementation). Spring's applicationContext.xml specifies the JPA dialect and Hibernate properties: <bean id="entityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="jpaDialect"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaDialect" /> </property> <property name="jpaProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLInnoDBDialect</prop> </props> </property> </bean> In this configuration, Spring is reading all the Hibernate properties via applicationContext.xml . When I create a hibernate.cfg.xml (located at the root of my classpath, the same level as META-INF), Hibernate doesn't read it at all (it's completely ignored). What I'm trying to do is configure Hibernate second level cache by inserting the cache properties in hibernate.cfg.xml: <cache usage="transactional|read-write|nonstrict-read-write|read-only" region="RegionName" include="all|non-lazy" />

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  • Why am I getting a segmentation fault?

    - by Phenom
    If I pass a value greater than 100 as the second argument to BinaryInsertionSort, I get a segmentation fault. int BinarySearch (int a[], int low, int high, int key) { int mid; if (low == high) return low; mid = low + ((high - low) / 2); if (key > a[mid]) return BinarySearch (a, mid + 1, high, key); else if (key < a[mid]) return BinarySearch (a, low, mid, key); return mid; } void BinaryInsertionSort (int a[], int n) { int ins, i, j; int tmp; for (i = 1; i < n; i++) { ins = BinarySearch (a, 0, i, a[i]); if (ins < i) { tmp = a[i]; memmove (a + ins + 1, a + ins, sizeof (int) * (i - ins)); a[ins] = tmp; } } }

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  • Extracting email addresses in an html block in ruby/rails

    - by corroded
    I am creating a parser that wards off against spamming and harvesting of emails from a block of text that comes from tinyMCE (so it may or may not have html tags in it) I've tried regexes and so far this has been successful: /\b[A-Z0-9._%+-]+@[A-Z0-9.-]+\.[A-Z]{2,4}\b/i problem is, i need to ignore all email addresses with mailto hrefs. for example: <a href="mailto:[email protected]">[email protected]</a> should only return the second email add. To get a background of what im doing, im reversing the email addresses in a block so the above example would look like this: <a href="mailto:[email protected]">moc.liam@tset</a> problem with my current regex is that it also replaces the one in href. Is there a way for me to do this with a single regex? Or do i have to check for one then the other? Is there a way for me to do this just by using gsub or do I have to use some nokogiri/hpricot magicks and whatnot to parse the mailtos? Thanks in advance! Here were my references btw: so.com/questions/504860/extract-email-addresses-from-a-block-of-text so.com/questions/1376149/regexp-for-extracting-a-mailto-address im also testing using this: http://rubular.com/ edit here's my current helper code: def email_obfuscator(text) text.gsub(/\b[A-Z0-9._%+-]+@[A-Z0-9.-]+\.[A-Z]{2,4}\b/i) { |m| m = "<span class='anti-spam'>#{m.reverse}</span>" } end which results in this: <a target="_self" href="mailto:<span class='anti-spam'>moc.liamg@tset</span>"><span class="anti-spam">moc.liamg@tset</span></a>

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  • WPF : Multiple views, one DataContext

    - by zapho
    Hi, I'm working on a WPF application which must handle multiple screens (two at this this time). One view can be opened on several screens and user actions must be reflected consistently on all screens. To achieve this, for a given type of view, a single DataContext is instantiated. Then, when a view is displayed on a screen, the unique DataContext is attached to it. So, one DataContext, several views (same type of view/xaml). So far so good. It works quite well in most cases. I do have a problem with a specific view which relies on ItemsControl. These ItemsControl are used to display UIElements dynamically build in the ViewModel/DataContext (C# code). These UIElements are mostly Path objects. Example : <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding WindVectors}"> <ItemsControl.Template> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type ItemsControl}"> <Canvas IsItemsHost="True" /> </ControlTemplate> </ItemsControl.Template> </ItemsControl> Here, WindVectors is a ObservableCollection<UIElement>. When the view is opened the first time, everything is fine. The problem is that when the view is opened one another screen, all ItemsControl are removed from the first screen and displayed one the second screen. Other WPF components (TextBlock for instance) on this view react normally and are displayed on both screens. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks. Fabrice

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  • Shouldn't prepared statements be much faster?

    - by silversky
    $s = explode (" ", microtime()); $s = $s[0]+$s[1]; $con = mysqli_connect ('localhost', 'test', 'pass', 'db') or die('Err'); for ($i=0; $i<1000; $i++) { $stmt = $con -> prepare( " SELECT MAX(id) AS max_id , MIN(id) AS min_id FROM tb "); $stmt -> execute(); $stmt->bind_result($M,$m); $stmt->free_result(); $rand = mt_rand( $m , $M ).'<br/>'; $res = $con -> prepare( " SELECT * FROM tb WHERE id >= ? LIMIT 0,1 "); $res -> bind_param("s", $rand); $res -> execute(); $res->free_result(); } $e = explode (" ", microtime()); $e = $e[0]+$e[1]; echo number_format($e-$s, 4, '.', ''); // and: $link = mysql_connect ("localhost", "test", "pass") or die (); mysql_select_db ("db") or die ("Unable to select database".mysql_error()); for ($i=0; $i<1000; $i++) { $range_result = mysql_query( " SELECT MAX(`id`) AS max_id , MIN(`id`) AS min_id FROM tb "); $range_row = mysql_fetch_object( $range_result ); $random = mt_rand( $range_row->min_id , $range_row->max_id ); $result = mysql_query( " SELECT * FROM tb WHERE id >= $random LIMIT 0,1 "); } defenitly prepared statements are much more safer but also every where it says that they are much faster BUT in my test on the above code I have: - 2.45 sec for prepared statements - 5.05 sec for the secon example What do you think I'm doing wrong? Should I use the second solution or I should try to optimize the prep stmt?

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  • what's an effective way to build a csproj file in code?

    - by jcollum
    I'd like to avoid a command line for this. I've been using the MSBuild API ( Microsoft.Build.Framework and Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine) with code that looks like this: this.buildEngine = new Engine(); BuildPropertyGroup props = new BuildPropertyGroup(); props.SetProperty("Configuration", "Debug"); this.buildEngine.RegisterLogger(this.logger); Project proj = new Project(this.buildEngine); proj.LoadXml(this.projectFileAndPath, ProjectLoadSettings.None); this.buildEngine.BuildProject(proj, "Build"); However I've run into enough problems that I can't find answers for that I'm really wondering if I'm doing this right. First, I can't find the output (there's no bin directory in any of the places where I figured the dll's would end up). Second, I tried building a project that I had made in VS2008 and the line proj.LoadXml( fails for invalid xml encoding. But of course the xml file is valid, since VS2008 can build it (I checked). At this point I'm beginning to wonder if I've picked up some code that's way out of date or a methodology that's been superseded by something else. Opinions?

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  • How to use include within a function?

    - by mahks
    I have a large function that I wish to load only when it is needed. So I assume using include is the way to go. But I need several support functions as well -only used in go_do_it(). If they are in the included file I get a redeclare error. See example A If I place the support functions in an include_once it works fine, see Example B. If I use include_once for the func_1 code, the second call fails. -func_1 needs include -func_2 needs include_once Why does does include_once fail for func_1, does it get reloaded each time the function is called? Example A: <?php /* main.php */ go_do_it(); go_do_it(); function go_do_it(){ include 'func_1.php'; } ?> <?php /* func_1.php */ echo '<br>Doing it'; nested_func() function nested_func(){ echo ' in nest'; } ?> Example B: <?php /* main.php */ go_do_it(); go_do_it(); function go_do_it(){ include_once 'func_2.php'; include 'func_1.php'; } ?> <?php /* func_1.php */ echo '<br> - doing it'; nested_func(); ?> <?php /* func_2.php */ function nested_func(){ echo ' in nest'; } ?>

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  • JDBC/OSGi and how to dynamically load drivers without explicitly stating dependencies in the bundle?

    - by Chris
    Hi, This is a biggie. I have a well-structured yet monolithic code base that has a primitive modular architecture (all modules implement interfaces yet share the same classpath). I realize the folly of this approach and the problems it represents when I go to deploy on application servers that may have different conflicting versions of my library. I'm dependent on around 30 jars right now and am mid-way though bnding them up. Now some of my modules are easy to declare the versioned dependencies of, such as my networking components. They statically reference classes within the JRE and other BNDded libraries but my JDBC related components instantiate via Class.forName(...) and can use one of any number of drivers. I am breaking everything up into OSGi bundles by service area. My core classes/interfaces. Reporting related components. Database access related components (via JDBC). etc.... I wish for my code to be able to still be used without OSGi via single jar file with all my dependencies and without OSGi at all (via JARJAR) and also to be modular via the OSGi meta-data and granular bundles with dependency information. How do I configure my bundle and my code so that it can dynamically utilize any driver on the classpath and/or within the OSGi container environment (Felix/Equinox/etc.)? Is there a run-time method to detect if I am running in an OSGi container that is compatible across containers (Felix/Equinox/etc.) ? Do I need to use a different class loading mechanism if I am in a OSGi container? Am I required to import OSGi classes into my project to be able to load an at-bundle-time-unknown JDBC driver via my database module? I also have a second method of obtaining a driver (via JNDI, which is only really applicable when running in an app server), do I need to change my JNDI access code for OSGi-aware app servers?

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  • modifying ajax returned data before showing

    - by Nick
    I'm processing subscribtion form with jQuery/ajax and need to display results with success function (they are different depending on if email exists in database). But the trick is I do not need h2 and first "p" tag. How can I show only div#alertmsg and second "p" tag? I've tried revoming unnecessary elements with method described here, but it didn't work. Thanks in advance. Here is my code: var dataString = $('#subscribe').serialize(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/templates/willrock/pommo/user/process.php", data: dataString, success: function(data){ var result = $(data); $('#success').append(result); } Here is the data returned: <h2>Subscription Review</h2> <p><a href="url" onClick="history.back(); return false;"><img src="/templates/willrock/pommo/themes/shared/images/icons/back.png" alt="back icon" class="navimage" /> Back to Subscription Form</a></p> <div id="alertmsg" class="error"> <ul> <li>Email address already exists. Duplicates are not allowed.</li> </ul> </div> <p><a href="login.php">Update your records</a></p>

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  • AJAX Partial Rendering issues for the default page in IIS 7 when using custom http module

    - by WiseGuyEh
    The problem When I try to make a AJAX partial update request (using the UpdatePanel control) from the default page of an IIS7 web site, it fails- instead of returning the html to be updated, it returns the entire page, which then causes the MS AJAX Javascript to throw a parsing shit-fit. The suspected cause I have narrowed the cause down to two issues- making an AJAX request to the default page when I have a certain custom http module registered. A partial rendering request to http://localhost will fail, but a partial rendering request to http://localhost/default.aspx will work fine. Also, If i remove the following line in my custom HttpModule: _application.PreRequestHandlerExecute += OnPreRequestHandlerExecute; The AJAX partial render will work correctly. Wierd huh? Another wierd thing... If I look at trace.axd, I can see that when a partial rendering request fails, two POST requests are logged for the one partial rendering request- one where the default.aspx page executes successfully (trace information such as page_load is logged) but no content is produced and a second that doesn't seem to actually execute (no trace information is logged) but produces content (HTTP_CONTENT_LENGTH is greater than 0). Please help! If anyone with a good knowledge of HTTP modules or the MS AJAX Http module could explain why this is occuring I would be very grateful. As it is, the obvious work arround is to just redirect to default.aspx if the request url is "/" but I would really like to understand why this is occurring.

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  • A way for a file to have its own MD5 inside? Or a string that is it's own MD5?

    - by Eli
    Hi all, In considering several possible solutions to a recent task, I found myself considering how to get a php file that includes it's own MD5 hash. I ended up doing something else, but the question stayed with me. Something along the lines of: <?php echo("Hello, my MD5 is [MD5 OF THIS FILE HERE]"); ?> Whatever placeholder you have in the file, the second you take its MD5 and insert it, you've changed it, which changes it's MD5, etc. Edit: Perhaps I should rephrase my question: Does anyone know if it has been proven impossible, or if there has been any research on an algorithm that would result in a file containing it's own MD5 (or other hash)? I suppose if the MD5 was the only content in the file, then the problem can be restated as how to find a string that is it's own MD5. It may well be impossible for us to create a process that will result in such a thing, but I can't think of any reason the solution itself can't exist. The question is basically whether it really is impossible, simply improbable (on the order of monkeys randomly typing Shakespeare), or actually solvable by somebody smarter than myself.

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  • Strange Ruby String Selection

    - by Daniel
    The string in question (read from a file): if (true) then { _this = createVehicle ["Land_hut10", [6226.8901, 986.091, 4.5776367e-005], [], 0, "CAN_COLLIDE"]; _vehicle_10 = _this; _this setDir -2.109278; }; Retrieved from a large list of similar (all same file) strings via the following: get_stringR(string,"if","};") And the function code: def get_stringR(a,b,c) b = a.index(b) b ||= 0 c = a.rindex(c) c ||= b r = a[b,c] return r end As so far, this works fine, but what I wanted to do is select the array after "createVehicle", the following (I thought) should work. newstring = get_string(myString,"\[","\];") Note get_string is the same as get_stringR, except it uses the first occurrence of the pattern both times, rather then the first and last occurrence. The output should have been: ["Land_hut10", [6226.8901, 986.091, 4.5776367e-005], [], 0, "CAN_COLLIDE"]; Instead it was the below, given via 'puts': ["Land_hut10", [6226.8901, 986.091, 4.5776367e-005], [], 0, "CAN_COLLIDE"]; _vehicle_10 = _this; _this setDir Some 40 characters past the point it should have retrieve, which was very strange... Second note, using both get_string and get_stringR produced the exact same result with the parameters given. I then decided to add the following to my get_string code: b = a.index(b) b ||= 0 c = a.index(c) c ||= b if c 40 then c -= 40 end r = a[b,c] return r And it works as expected (for every 'block' in the file, even though the strings after that array are not identical in any way), but something obviously isn't right :).

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  • jQuery Tools alert works once (but only once)

    - by Jim Miller
    I'm trying to build a simple alert mechanism with jQuery Tools -- in response to a bit of Javascript code, pop up an overlay with a message and an OK button that, when clicked, makes the overlay go away. Trivial, or it should be. I've been slavishly following http://flowplayer.org/tools/demos/overlay/trigger.html, and have something that works fine the first time it's invoked, but only that time. If I repeat the JS action that should expose the overlay, it doesn't. My content/DIV: <div class='modal' id='the_alert'> <div id='modal_content' class='modal_content'> <h2>hi there</h2> this is the body <p> <button class='close'>OK</button> </p> </div> <div id='modal_background' class='modal_background'><img src='/images/overlay/f9f9f9-180.png' class='stretch' alt='' /></div> </div> and the Javascript: function showOverlayDialog() { $('#the_alert').overlay({ mask: {color: '#cccccc', loadSpeed: 200, opacity: 0.9}, closeOnClick: false, load: true }); } As I said: When showOverlayDialog() is invoked the first time, the overlay appears just like it should, and goes away when the "OK" button is clicked. But if I cause showOverlayDialog() to run again, without reloading the page, nothing happens. If I reload the page, then the pattern repeats -- the first invocation brings up the overlay, but the second one doesn't. I'm obviously missing something -- any advice out there? Thanks!

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  • Why is execution-time method resolution faster than compile-time resolution?

    - by Felix
    At school, we about virtual functions in C++, and how they are resolved (or found, or matched, I don't know what the terminology is -- we're not studying in English) at execution time instead of compile time. The teacher also told us that compile-time resolution is much faster than execution-time (and it would make sense for it to be so). However, a quick experiment would suggest otherwise. I've built this small program: #include <iostream> #include <limits.h> using namespace std; class A { public: void f() { // do nothing } }; class B: public A { public: void f() { // do nothing } }; int main() { unsigned int i; A *a = new B; for (i=0; i < UINT_MAX; i++) a->f(); return 0; } Where I made A::f() once normal, once virtual. Here are my results: [felix@the-machine C]$ time ./normal real 0m25.834s user 0m25.742s sys 0m0.000s [felix@the-machine C]$ time ./virtual real 0m24.630s user 0m24.472s sys 0m0.003s [felix@the-machine C]$ time ./normal real 0m25.860s user 0m25.735s sys 0m0.007s [felix@the-machine C]$ time ./virtual real 0m24.514s user 0m24.475s sys 0m0.000s [felix@the-machine C]$ time ./normal real 0m26.022s user 0m25.795s sys 0m0.013s [felix@the-machine C]$ time ./virtual real 0m24.503s user 0m24.468s sys 0m0.000s There seems to be a steady ~1 second difference in favor of the virtual version. Why is this? Relevant or not: dual-core pentium @ 2.80Ghz, no extra applications running between two tests. Archlinux with gcc 4.5.0. Compiling normally, like: $ g++ test.cpp -o normal Also, -Wall doesn't spit out any warnings, either.

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  • Why a "private static" is not seen in a method?

    - by Roman
    I have a class with the following declaration of the fields: public class Game { private static String outputFileName; .... } I set the value of the outputFileName in the main method of the class. I also have a write method in the class which use the outputFileName. I always call write after main sets value for outputFileName. But write still does not see the value of the outputFileName. It say that it's equal to null. Could anybody, pleas, tell me what I am doing wrong? ADDED As it is requested I post more code: In the main: String outputFileName = userName + "_" + year + "_" + month + "_" + day + "_" + hour + "_" + minute + "_" + second + "_" + millis + ".txt"; f=new File(outputFileName); if(!f.exists()){ try { f.createNewFile(); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } System.out.println("IN THE MAIN!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!"); System.out.println("------>" + outputFileName + "<------"); This line outputs me the name of the file. Than in the write I have: public static void write(String output) { // Open a file for appending. System.out.println("==========>" + outputFileName + "<============"); ...... } And it outputs null.

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  • Flex 3 - Issues with textArea "editable" property

    - by BS_C3
    Hello Community! I'm having issues with the property "editable" of textArea control. I have a component: OrderView.mxml and it's associated data class OrderViewData.as. Orderview.mxml is inside a viewStack to enable navigation from a component to another. In this particular case, OrderView.mxml is called by another component: SearchResult.mxml. I can thus navigate from SearchResult.mxml to OrderView.mxml, and back to SearchResult.mxml... OrderView.mxml has textArea and textInput control, that have to be editable or nonEditable depending on the property var isEditable:Boolean from OrderViewData.as. When the application is launched, isEditable = true. So, all textInput and textArea controls are editable the first time the user gets to OrderView.mxml. When the user clicks on the button order from OrderView.mxml, isEditable = false. When the user goes back to SearchResult.mxml, isEditable = true (again) -- Until here, everything works fine. The thing is: when the user goes back to OrderView.mxml for the second time (and beyond), even if the property isEditable = true, textArea controls are still non editable... But the textInput controls are editable! Here is some code for your comprehension: OrderView.mxml <mx:Canvas xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" backgroundColor="#F3EDEC"> <mx:TextArea id="contentTA" text="{OrderViewData.instance.contentTA}" enabled="{OrderViewData.instance.isEnabled}" width="100%" height="51" maxChars="18" styleName="ORTextInput" focusIn="if(OrderViewData.instance.isEditable) contentTA.setSelection(0, contentTA.length)"/> <mx:TextInput id="contentTI" text="{OrderViewData.instance.contentTI}" width="40" height="18" maxChars="4" styleName="ORTextInput" change="contentTI_change()" focusIn="if(OrderViewData.instance.isEditable) contentTI.setSelection(0, contentTI.length)" editable="{OrderViewData.instance.isEditable}"/> </mx:Canvas> Am I missing something? Thanks for any help you can provide. Regards. BS_C3

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  • GET variable after doing a Join Query

    - by John
    Hello, For the code below, on the second link (http://www...com/sandbox/comments/index.php?submission='.$row["title"].'), I would like to pass $row["submissionid"], on as a GET variable. I tried this and it caused all of the code below to produce a blank result. Is there a way that I can do I want? Thanks in advance, John $sqlStr = "SELECT s.loginid ,s.title ,s.url ,s.displayurl ,l.username ,COUNT(c.commentid) countComments FROM submission s INNER JOIN login l ON s.loginid = l.loginid LEFT OUTER JOIN comment c ON s.submissionid = c.submissionid GROUP BY s.submissionid ORDER BY s.datesubmitted DESC LIMIT 10"; $result = mysql_query($sqlStr); $arr = array(); echo "<table class=\"samplesrec\">"; while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename1"><a href="http://www.'.$row["url"].'">'.$row["title"].'</a></td>'; echo '</tr>'; echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename2"><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/members/index.php?profile='.$row["username"].'">'.$row["username"].'</a><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/comments/index.php?submission='.$row["title"].'">'.$row["countComments"].'</a></td>'; echo '</tr>'; } echo "</table>";

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  • Calculate total batch upload transfer percent with limited information

    - by GONeale
    Hi there, I have a system which uploads to a server file by file and displays a progress bar on file upload progress, then underneath a second progress bar which I want to indicate percentage of batch complete across all files queued to upload. Information and algorithms I can work out are: Bytes Sent / Total Bytes To Send = First progress bar (eg. 512KB of 1024KB (50%)) That works fine. However supposing I have two other files left to upload, but both file sizes are unknown (as this is only known once the file is about to commence upload, at which point it is compressed and file size is determined) how would I go about making my third progress bar? I didn't think this would be possible as I would need "Total Bytes Sent" / "Total Bytes To Send", to replicate the logic of my first progress bar on a larger scale, however I did get a version working: "Current file number we are on" / "total number of files to send" returning the percentage through the batch, however obviously will not incrementally update and it's pretty crude. So on further thinking I thought if I could incorporate the current file % with this algorithm I could perhaps get the correct progress percentage of my batch's current point. I tried this algorithm, but alas to no such avail (sorry to any math heads, it's probably quite apparent why it won't work) ("Current file number we are on" / "total number of files to send") * ("Bytes Sent" / "Total Bytes To Send") For example I thought I was on the right track when testing with this example: 2/3 (2nd of 3rd file) = 66% (this is right so far) but then when I added * 0.20 (for indicating only 20% of 2nd file has uploaded) we went back to 13%. What I need is only a little over 33%! I did try the inverse at 0.80 and a (2/3 * (2/3 * 0.2)) Can this be done without knowing entire bytes in batch to upload? Please help! Thank you!

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  • Can per-user randomized salts be replaced with iterative hashing?

    - by Chas Emerick
    In the process of building what I'd like to hope is a properly-architected authentication mechanism, I've come across a lot of materials that specify that: user passwords must be salted the salt used should be sufficiently random and generated per-user ...therefore, the salt must be stored with the user record in order to support verification of the user password I wholeheartedly agree with the first and second points, but it seems like there's an easy workaround for the latter. Instead of doing the equivalent of (pseudocode here): salt = random(); hashedPassword = hash(salt . password); storeUserRecord(username, hashedPassword, salt); Why not use the hash of the username as the salt? This yields a domain of salts that is well-distributed, (roughly) random, and each individual salt is as complex as your salt function provides for. Even better, you don't have to store the salt in the database -- just regenerate it at authentication-time. More pseudocode: salt = hash(username); hashedPassword = hash(salt . password); storeUserRecord(username, hashedPassword); (Of course, hash in the examples above should be something reasonable, like SHA-512, or some other strong hash.) This seems reasonable to me given what (little) I know of crypto, but the fact that it's a simplification over widely-recommended practice makes me wonder whether there's some obvious reason I've gone astray that I'm not aware of.

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  • Sendkeys problem from .NET program

    - by user203123
    THe code below I copied from MSDN with a bit of modification: [DllImport("user32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Unicode)] public static extern IntPtr FindWindow(string lpClassName,string lpWindowName); DllImport("User32")] public static extern bool SetForegroundWindow(IntPtr hWnd); int cnt = 0; private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { IntPtr calculatorHandle = FindWindow("Notepad", "Untitled - Notepad"); if (calculatorHandle == IntPtr.Zero) { MessageBox.Show("Calculator is not running."); return; } SetForegroundWindow(calculatorHandle); SendKeys.SendWait(cnt.ToString()); SendKeys.SendWait("{ENTER}"); cnt++; SendKeys.Flush(); System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1000); } The problem is the number sequence in Notepad is not continuously. The first click always results 0 (as expected). but from the second click, the result is unpredictable (but the sequence is still in order, e.g. 3, 4, 5, 10, 14, 15, ....) If I click the button fast enough, I was able to get the result in continuous order (0,1,2,3,4,....) but sometimes it produces more than 2 same numbers (e.g. 0,1,2,3,3,3,4,5,6,6,6,7,8,9,...)

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  • Adding changes from one Mercurial repository to another

    - by Patrik Hägne
    When changing the VCS for my project FakeItEasy from SVN to Mercurial on Google Code I was a bit too eager (I'm funny like that). What I did was just checking the latest version out of SVN and then commiting that checkout as the first revision of the new Mercurial repo. This obviously has the effect that all history is lost. Later when getting a bit better acustomed to Mercurial I realized that there is such a thing as a "convert extension" that allows you to convert a SVN repo into a Mercurial repo. Now what I want to do is to convert the old SVN repo and then have all change sets from the currently existing Mercurial repo imported into this converted repo except the very first commit to Mercurial. I've converted the SVN repo to a local Mercurial repo but now is when I'm stuck. I thought I'd be able to use the convert extension to bring the current Mercurial repository into the converted one and having a splice map remove the first commit but I can not seem to get this to work. I've also tried to just use convert without splice map to get all change sets from the current Mercurial repo into the converted one and the rebase the second version in the current to the last commit from the old SVN repository but I can't get that to work either. To make this clearer lets say I have these two repositories: A: revA1-revA2 B: revB1-revB2-revB3 (Where revB1 is actually a copy of revA2) Now I want to combine these two into the new repository containing this: C: revA1-revA2-revB2-revB3

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  • (ASP.NET) Problem with a repeater nested in a repeater, how to know when it is a itemCommand?

    - by NoProblemBabe
    I have the following problem: Keeping in mind the following structure: <repeater> <updatepanel> <div> <link id="fatherLink" /> </div> <div> <repeater> <link id="childLink"/> </repeater> <div> </updatepanel> </repeater> right? I am using updatepanel, so, when i click in the fatherlink, i put a click method in the server side, so it populates it's child repeater. no problems in there, but I need that the childLink to perform a action on the server side, like take in account some data and then sending to a given page to do something else. When doing this I happen to notice that there are three situations: 1 - First server call, is not a postback it populates the father repeater (no problems here). 2 - Second server call, when the father link is clicked i populate the child repeater. Something like a "fatherLink_Click" function (no problems here). 3 - Third server call, when the child is clicked: i can't seem to know that it is the child's item command, so i can't stop it from databinding all over again, which kills my itemcommand event... (the problem). What can I do?

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