Search Results

Search found 15385 results on 616 pages for 'context menu'.

Page 509/616 | < Previous Page | 505 506 507 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516  | Next Page >

  • How can I disable the CTRL-ALT-DEL key combination completely on XP/Vista/7?

    - by Travesty3
    I have been googling extensively to figure this out, and nobody seems to be able to give a direct answer. Let me start by saying that I'm NOT talking about requiring CTRL-ALT-DEL to enter logon information. I'm working on a golf simulator program which is used at golf centers. I need the ability to completely disable the CTRL-ALT-DEL key sequence so that the golf center customers can't get out of the program and access the computer at all. I realize there are other key combinations that need to be handled as well, we already have this entire feature working in XP, but we're going to be switching to Windows 7 soon, and CTRL-ALT-DEL is the only one that doesn't seem to work in Win7. I'd really like an all-around solution if at all possible. This same program may also be installed on a client's personal computer for an in-home golf simulator, but the computers that really need this feature (golf center computers) are provided to the golf center by us, so would the best option be to write a new shell? I don't know anything about that at all, other than others that suggest writing a new shell for kiosk mode. I'd really like a simpler option, like modifying the registry in some way. I have heard that you can remove some buttons from the menu screen that pops up, but unless I can remove pretty much all of them (including the shutdown/restart button in the bottom-right corner), this won't be enough of a solution for me. Thanks for taking the time to read this and thanks again for any help you could provide! -Travis

    Read the article

  • Hiding a UINavigationController's UIToolbar during viewWillDisappear:

    - by Nathan de Vries
    I've got an iPhone application with a UITableView menu. When a row in the table is selected, the appropriate view controller is pushed onto the application's UINavigationController stack. My issue is that the MenuViewController does not need a toolbar, but the UIViewControllers which are pushed onto the stack do. Each UIViewController that gets pushed calls setToolbarHidden:animated: in viewDidAppear:. To hide the toolbar, I call setToolbarHidden:animated: in viewWillDisappear:. Showing the toolbar works, such that when the pushed view appears the toolbar slides up and the view resizes correctly. However, when the back button is pressed the toolbar slides down but the view does not resize. This means that there's a black strip along the bottom of the view as the other view transitions in. I've tried adding the toolbar's height to the height of the view prior to hiding the toolbar, but this causes the view to be animated during the transition so that there's still a black bar. I realise I can manage my own UIToolbar, but I'd like to use UINavigationControllers built in UIToolbar for convenience. This forum post mentions the same issue, but no workaround is mentioned.

    Read the article

  • iPhone: Utility Application - Open Flipside on startup

    - by Joel
    I have an application that I started with the Utility Application template. I'm using the Flipside for the Settings screen. I'm having the settings serialized to a file when the app is closed and deserialized when the app is opened. If there is no file to deserialize at startup, I want the flipside to be shown so the user can enter required information. This is what I have: - (void)viewDidLoad { flipController = [[FlipsideViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"FlipsideView" bundle:nil]; flipController.delegate = self; flipController.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; if(![self deserialize]) { [self showInfo]; } } - (IBAction)showInfo { [self presentModalViewController:flipController animated:YES]; } showInfo is the method that is called with the little 'i' button is pressed on the MainView. The button works, however my call in viewDidLoad doesn't. I have run through my code with the debugger. [self deserialize] is returning NO and [self showInfo] is being called, and I checked if flipController is nil in that context, and it's not. I've searched around and couldn't find anyone who's tried to do the same thing. I'm stumped to as why this isn't working. Anyone see what I'm doing wrong? Thanks

    Read the article

  • android bindservice

    - by mnish
    hi, I get null pointer exception at line mService.start() when i try to bind to an already started service. I do the same thing from different activity(where the service gets started) everythig goes right. All these activities are part of one application. What do you think I do wrong? public class RouteOnMap extends MapActivity{ private static final int NEW_LOCATION = 1; private static final int GPS_OFF = 2; private MapView mMapView; private ILocService mService; private boolean mServiceStarted; private boolean mBound; private Intent mServiceIntent; private double mLatitude, mLongitude; private ServiceConnection connection = new ServiceConnection() { public void onServiceConnected(ComponentName className, IBinder iservice) { mService = ILocService.Stub.asInterface(iservice); mBound = true; } public void onServiceDisconnected(ComponentName className) { mService = null; mBound = false; } }; public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState){ super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.mapview); mMapView = (MapView) findViewById(R.id.mapview); mMapView.setBuiltInZoomControls(true); mServiceIntent = new Intent(); mLatitude = 0.0; mLongitude = 0.0; mBound = false; } @Override public void onStart(){ super.onStart(); mServiceIntent.setClass(this, LocationService.class); //startService(mServiceIntent); if(!mBound){ mBound = true; this.bindService(mServiceIntent, connection, Context.BIND_AUTO_CREATE); } } @Override public void onResume(){ super.onResume(); try { mService.start(); } catch (RemoteException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } @Override public void onPause(){ super.onPause(); if(mBound){ this.unbindService(connection); } } @Override protected boolean isRouteDisplayed() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return false; } }

    Read the article

  • MVC and repository pattern data efficiency

    - by Shawn Mclean
    My project is structured as follows: DAL public IQueryable<Post> GetPosts() { var posts = from p in context.Post select p; return posts; } Service public IList<Post> GetPosts() { var posts = repository.GetPosts().ToList(); return posts; } //Returns a list of the latest feeds, restricted by the count. public IList<PostFeed> GetPostFeeds(int latestCount) { List<Post> post - GetPosts(); //CODE TO CREATE FEEDS HERE return feeds; } Lets say the GetPostFeeds(5) is supposed to return the 5 latest feeds. By going up the list, doesn't it pull down every single post from the database from GetPosts(), just to extract 5 from it? If each post is say 5kb from the database, and there is 1 million records. Wont that be 5GB of ram being used per call to GetPostFeeds()? Is this the way it happens? Should I go back to my DAL and write queries that return only what I need?

    Read the article

  • A generic error in GDI+ with ToolStrip in ManagerRenderMode

    - by volody
    I have a vb.net form with ToolStrip menu RenderMode - ManagerRenderMode LayoutStyle - HorizontalStackWithOverflow My development environment is .net 4.0, VS2010, windows 7 x64; but occasionally I am getting next error A generic error occurred in GDI+. Stacktrace: at System.Drawing.Graphics.CheckErrorStatus(Int32 status) at System.Drawing.Graphics.FillRectangle(Brush brush, Int32 x, Int32 y, Int32 width, Int32 height) at System.Drawing.Graphics.FillRectangle(Brush brush, Rectangle rect) at System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripProfessionalRenderer.FillWithDoubleGradient(Color beginColor, Color middleColor, Color endColor, Graphics g, Rectangle bounds, Int32 firstGradientWidth, Int32 secondGradientWidth, LinearGradientMode mode, Boolean flipHorizontal) at System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripProfessionalRenderer.RenderToolStripBackgroundInternal(ToolStripRenderEventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripProfessionalRenderer.OnRenderToolStripBackground(ToolStripRenderEventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripRenderer.DrawToolStripBackground(ToolStripRenderEventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.ToolStrip.OnPaintBackground(PaintEventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.PaintWithErrorHandling(PaintEventArgs e, Int16 layer) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmPaint(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ScrollableControl.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ToolStrip.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.OnMessage(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam)

    Read the article

  • WPF Grid Row / Column Sizing in Proportion to DesiredSize?

    - by sinibar
    I have two user controls arranged vertically in a grid, both of which can expand to be taller than the grid can accommodate. I've put them in each in a scrollviewer which functionally works. What I want though is to give them them space in proportion to the amount that they want at run time. So if there's 500 height available, the upper control wants 400 and the lower 600, the upper control would get 200 and the bottom 300. I have no idea at design time how much space each will want in proportion to the other, so using 1*, 2* etc. for row height won't work for me. I can hand-code run-time proportional sizing, but am I missing a simple trick in XAML that would get me what I want? Context is as follows (trimmed for brevity)... <Grid> <TabControl> <TabItem> <Grid> <Grid> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto"/> <RowDefinition Height="*"/> <RowDefinition Height="*"/> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <GroupBox Grid.Row="0" Header="Title Area" /> <ScrollViewer Grid.Row="1" VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Auto"> <UserControl /> </ScrollViewer> <ScrollViewer Grid.Row="2" VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Auto"> <UserControl /> </ScrollViewer> </Grid> </Grid> </TabItem> </TabControl> </Grid>

    Read the article

  • How to know when StatusBar size changed (iPhone)

    - by JOM
    I have UITabBarController with 2 tabs. One resizes just fine, when StatusBar size changes (emulator "Toggle In-Call Status Bar" menu item). The other one doesn't. The problematic tab item contains a static view, which dynamically loads one or another view depending on certain things. While getting this setup working I discovered that main tab view did NOT automagically send e.g. viewWillAppear and viewWillDisappear messages to my dynamic subviews. Apple docs explained this was because dynamically added views were not recognized by the system. @interface MyTabViewController : UIViewController { UIView *mainView; FirstViewController *aController; SecondViewController *bController; } ... if (index == 0) { self.aController = [[FirstViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"FirstViewController" bundle:nil]; [self.mainView addSubview:aController.view]; [self.aController viewWillAppear:YES]; } How can I get StatusBar size changed event into my dynamic subviews? The "didChangeStatusBarFrame" doesn't work, as documented elsewhere.

    Read the article

  • MVC Areas - View not found

    - by user314827
    Hi, I have a project that is using MVC areas. The area has the entire project in it while the main "Views/Controllers/Models" folders outside the Areas are empty barring a dispatch controller I have setup that routes default incoming requests to the Home Controller in my area. This controller has one method as follows:- public ActionResult Index(string id) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home", new {area = "xyz"}); } I also have a default route setup to use this controller as follows:- routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Default route "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Dispatch", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } ); Any default requests to my site are appropriately routed to the relevant area. The Area's "RegisterArea" method has a single route:- context.MapRoute( "xyz_default", "xyz/{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } My area has multiple controllers with a lot of views. Any call to a specific view in these controller methods like "return View("blah"); renders the correct view. However whenever I try and return a view along with a model object passed in as a parameter I get the following error:- Server Error in '/DeveloperPortal' Application. The view 'blah' or its master was not found. The following locations were searched: ~/Views/Profile/blah.aspx ~/Views/Profile/blah.ascx ~/Views/Shared/blah.aspx ~/Views/Shared/blah.ascx It looks like whenever a model object is passed in as a param. to the "View()" method [e.g. return View("blah",obj) ] it searches for the view in the root of the project instead of in the area specific view folder. What am I missing here ? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC and WCF

    - by Michael Stum
    I'm working my way into MVC at the moment, but on my "To learn at some point" list, I also have WCF. I just wonder if WCF is something that should/could be used in an MVC Application or not? The Background is that I want a Desktop Application (.NET 3.5, WPF) interact with my MVC Web Site, and I wonder what the best way to transfer data between the two is. Should I just use special Views/have the controllers return JSON or XML (using the ContentResult)? And maybe even more important, for the other way round, could I just call special controllers? Not sure how Authorization would work in such a context. I can either use Windows Authentication or (if the Site is running forms authentication) have the user store his/her credentials in the application, but I would then essentially create a HTTP Client in my Application. So while MVC = Application seems really easy, Application = MVC does seem to be somewhat tricky and a possible use for WCF? I'm not trying to brute-force WCF in this, but I just wonder if there is indeed a good use case for WCF in an MVC application.

    Read the article

  • How can I improve my real-time behavior in multi-threaded app using pthreads and condition variables

    - by WilliamKF
    I have a multi-threaded application that is using pthreads. I have a mutex() lock and condition variables(). There are two threads, one thread is producing data for the second thread, a worker, which is trying to process the produced data in a real time fashion such that one chuck is processed as close to the elapsing of a fixed time period as possible. This works pretty well, however, occasionally when the producer thread releases the condition upon which the worker is waiting, a delay of up to almost a whole second is seen before the worker thread gets control and executes again. I know this because right before the producer releases the condition upon which the worker is waiting, it does a chuck of processing for the worker if it is time to process another chuck, then immediately upon receiving the condition in the worker thread, it also does a chuck of processing if it is time to process another chuck. In this later case, I am seeing that I am late processing the chuck many times. I'd like to eliminate this lost efficiency and do what I can to keep the chucks ticking away as close to possible to the desired frequency. Is there anything I can do to reduce the delay between the release condition from the producer and the detection that that condition is released such that the worker resumes processing? For example, would it help for the producer to call something to force itself to be context switched out? Bottom line is the worker has to wait each time it asks the producer to create work for itself so that the producer can muck with the worker's data structures before telling the worker it is ready to run in parallel again. This period of exclusive access by the producer is meant to be short, but during this period, I am also checking for real-time work to be done by the producer on behalf of the worker while the producer has exclusive access. Somehow my hand off back to running in parallel again results in significant delay occasionally that I would like to avoid. Please suggest how this might be best accomplished.

    Read the article

  • JQuery not working.

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    I am trying to implement JQuery in my web page but i am not been able to implement it successfully. I have a master page where i added one script for menu bar that is already using jquery hosted by Google This is coded in master page itself <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.0/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#ddmenu > li').bind('mouseover', ddmenu_open) $('#ddmenu > li').bind('mouseout', ddmenu_timer) }); document.onclick = ddmenu_close; // ]]> </script> Now i want to implement a Jquery to set the css visibility property to true or false. into my content page of same master page. <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#lnkAddMore").click(function(){ alert(); } ); }); </script> This html control is under my UpdatePanel. I dont know why it is not working ? I am using this control under UpdatePanel. <input type="button" id="lnkAddMore" value="Add More" /> I tried to use it outside my update panel it is running successfully but not in UpdatePanel I think there is a problem using it with an UpdatePanel

    Read the article

  • Error checking overkill?

    - by James
    What error checking do you do? What error checking is actually necessary? Do we really need to check if a file has saved successfully? Shouldn't it always work if it's tested and works ok from day one? I find myself error checking for every little thing, and most of the time if feels overkill. Things like checking to see if a file has been written to a file system successfully, checking to see if a database statement failed.......shouldn't these be things that either work or don't? How much error checking do you do? Are there elements of error checking that you leave out because you trust that it'll just work? I'm sure I remember reading somewhere something along the lines of "don't test for things that'll never really happen".....can't remember the source though. So should everything that could possibly fail be checked for failure? Or should we just trust those simpler operations? For example, if we can open a file, should we check to see if reading each line failed or not? Perhaps it depends on the context within the application or the application itself. It'd be interesting to hear what others do. Thanks, James.

    Read the article

  • ejb lookup failing with NamingException

    - by Drake
    I've added the following in my web.xml: <ejb-ref> <ejb-ref-name>ejb/userManagerBean</ejb-ref-name> <ejb-ref-type>Session</ejb-ref-type> <home>gha.ywk.name.entry.ejb.usermanager.UserManagerHome</home> <remote>what should go here??</remote> </ejb-ref> The following java code is giving me NamingException: public UserManager getUserManager () throws HUDException { String ROLE_JNDI_NAME = "ejb/userManagerBean"; try { Properties props = System.getProperties(); Context ctx = new InitialContext(props); UserManagerHome userHome = (UserManagerHome) ctx.lookup(ROLE_JNDI_NAME); UserManager userManager = userHome.create(); WASSSecurity user = userManager.getUserProfile("user101", null); return userManager; } catch (NamingException e) { log.error("Error Occured while getting EJB UserManager" + e); return null; } catch (RemoteException ex) { log.error("Error Occured while getting EJB UserManager" + ex); return null; } catch (CreateException ex) { log.error("Error Occured while getting EJB UserManager" + ex); return null; } } The code is used inside the container. By that I mean that the .WAR is deployed on the server (Sun Application Server). StackTrace (after jsight's suggestion): >Exception occurred in target VM: com.sun.enterprise.naming.java.javaURLContext.<init>(Ljava/util/Hashtable;Lcom/sun/enterprise/naming/NamingManagerImpl;)V java.lang.NoSuchMethodError: com.sun.enterprise.naming.java.javaURLContext.<init>(Ljava/util/Hashtable;Lcom/sun/enterprise/naming/NamingManagerImpl;)V at com.sun.enterprise.naming.java.javaURLContextFactory.getObjectInstance(javaURLContextFactory.java:32) at javax.naming.spi.NamingManager.getURLObject(NamingManager.java:584) at javax.naming.spi.NamingManager.getURLContext(NamingManager.java:533) at javax.naming.InitialContext.getURLOrDefaultInitCtx(InitialContext.java:279) at javax.naming.InitialContext.lookup(InitialContext.java:351) at gov.hud.pih.eiv.web.EjbClient.EjbClient.getUserManager(EjbClient.java:34)

    Read the article

  • How do you unit test a method containing a LINQ expression?

    - by Phil.Wheeler
    I'm struggling to get my head around how to accommodate a mocked method that only accepts a Linq expression as its argument. Specifically, the repository I'm using has a First() method that looks like this: public T First(Expression<Func<T, bool>> expression) { return All().Where(expression).FirstOrDefault(); } The difficulty I'm encountering is with my MSpec tests, where I'm (probably incorrectly) trying to mock that call: public abstract class with_userprofile_repository { protected static Mock<IRepository<UserProfile>> repository; Establish context = () => { repository = new Mock<IRepository<UserProfile>>(); repository.Setup<UserProfile>(x => x.First(up => up.OpenID == @"http://testuser.myopenid.com")).Returns(GetDummyUser()); }; protected static UserProfile GetDummyUser() { UserProfile p = new UserProfile(); p.OpenID = @"http://testuser.myopenid.com"; p.FirstName = "Joe"; p.LastLogin = DateTime.Now.Date.AddDays(-7); p.LastName = "Bloggs"; p.Email = "[email protected]"; return p; } } I run into trouble because it's not enjoying the Linq expression: System.NotSupportedException: Expression up = (up.OpenID = "http://testuser.myopenid.com") is not supported. So how does one test these sorts of scenarios?

    Read the article

  • How do I use an SWT Control to render the content of an SWT/JFace table?

    - by jastram
    I have a JFace TableViewer with an SWT Table, and I would like to custom render the content of some cells. I would like to use an SWT Control to render the cell content. I would prefer to have only one instance of the Control doing the rendering, but if I have to instantiate one for each row, that would be acceptable. Next, the solution MUST be compatible with the ContentProvider/LabelProvider approach (I am using EMF). This means that I cannot use the solution described in Sniplet 126 (http://dev.eclipse.org/viewcvs/index.cgi/org.eclipse.swt.snippets). Next, I though about using custom drawing. But here the catch is, that I have to send individual drawing operations to the graphics context. I was trying to have the Control render the content for me by calling redraw() or print(GC) upon SWT.PaintItem, but that just lead to uncontrollable flickering. At this point, my best guess is to use SWT.PaintItem to do the drawing. This will result in duplicate code, as I already have a Control that can render the content the way I'd like it. I'd like to prevent this redundancy. Any help is appreciated!

    Read the article

  • How does symbol binding work for shared libraries in linux

    - by bbazso
    When compiling a cpp program with g++ -O0 I noticed that my binary does not contain the symbol for the empty string (basic_string): _S_empty_rep_storage When I do compile this same program with -O2 I notice that the aforementioned symbol is indeed contained within the binary as follows (using nm on the bin): 00000000006029a0 V _ZNSs4_Rep20_S_empty_rep_storageE@@GLIBCXX_3.4 My application uses several .so (dynamic libraries) and when my aplication loads I notice that several of these .so files bind as follows (I set LD_DEBUG=all and ran my program): 28596: binding file /home/bbazso/usr/local/lib/mydynamiclib.so [0] to /usr/lib64/libstdc++.so.6 [0]: normal symbol `_ZNSs4_Rep20_S_empty_rep_storageE' [GLIBCXX_3.4] 28596: binding file /home/bbazso/usr/local/lib/mydynamiclib.so [0] to /home/bbazso/workspace/mytestapplication [0]: normal symbol `_ZNSs4_Rep20_S_empty_rep_storageE' [GLIBCXX_3.4] 28596: binding file /home/bbazso/workspace/mytestapplication [0] to /usr/lib64/libstdc++.so.6 [0]: normal symbol `_ZNSs4_Rep20_S_empty_rep_storageE' [GLIBCXX_3.4]** But I also noticed that one of my .so only binds as follows: 28087: binding file /home/bbazso/usr/local/lib/anotherdynamiclib.so [0] to /usr/lib64/libstdc++.so.6 [0]: normal symbol `_ZNSs4_Rep20_S_empty_rep_storageE' [GLIBCXX_3.4] but never binds to the binary (mytestapplication) as shown above for the mydynamiclib.so. So I was wondering what this actually means? Does this mean that anotherdynamiclib.so will use a different symbol for the empty string above than the rest of the application? I guess what I'm really asking is how does symbol binding work in the context of the example above? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to pass PHP variable as FlashVars via SWFObject

    - by Matt
    I am trying to take a PHP variable and pass it along to Flash via Flash vars. My end goal is to pass a string formatted as XML to Flash, but because I'm struggling I've stripped everything down to the basics. I'm just trying to pass a simple PHP string variable to Flash via FlashVars with SWFObject but something isn't right. The page won't load when I try to pass the variable inside of php tags, but it will load if I just pass a hard coded string. The basic structure of my page is that I have some PHP declared at the top like so: PHP <?php $test = "WTF"; ?> Some HTML (excluded here for simplicity sake) and then the JavaScript SWFObject Embed within my HTML: <script type="text/javascript" src="js/swfobject2.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> // <![CDATA[ var swfURL = "swfs/Init-Flash-PHP.swf"; var flashvars = {}; flashvars.theXML = <?php print $test ?>; var params = {}; //params.menu = "false"; params.scale = "showAll"; params.bgcolor = "#000000"; params.salign = "TL"; //params.wmode = "transparent"; params.allowFullScreen = "true"; params.allowScriptAccess = "always"; var attributes = {}; attributes.id = "container"; attributes.name = "container"; swfobject.embedSWF(swfURL, "container", '100%', '100%', "9.0.246", "elements/swfs/expressinstall.swf", flashvars, params, attributes); // ]]> </script> And the bare essentials of the ActionScript 3 Code: _paramObj = LoaderInfo(stage.loaderInfo).parameters; theText_txt.text = _paramObj['theXML']; How do I pass a PHP variable using SWFObject and FlashVars? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Deriving an HTMLElement Object from jQuery Object

    - by Jasconius
    I'm doing a fairly exhaustive series of DOM manipulations where a few elements (specifically form elements) have some events. I am dynamically creating (actually cloning from a source element) several boxes and assigning a change() event to them. The change event executes, and within the context of the event, "this" is the HTML Element Object. What I need to do at this point however is determine a contact for this HTML Element Object. I have these objects stored already as jQuery entities in assorted arrays, but obviously [HTMLElement Object] != [Object Object] And the trick is that I cannot cast $(this) and make a valid comparison since that would create a new object and the pointer would be different. So... I've been banging my head against this for a while. In the past I've been able to circumvent this problem by doing an innerHTML comparison, but in this case the objects I am comparing are 100% identical, just there's lots of them. Therefore I need a solid comparison. This would be easy if I could somehow derive the HTMLElement object from my originating jQuery object. Thoughts, other ideas? Help. :(

    Read the article

  • XAML Binding to complex value objects

    - by Gus
    I have a complex value object class that has 1) a number or read-only properties; 2) a private constructor; and 3) a number of static singleton instance properties [so the properties of a ComplexValueObject never change and an individual value is instantiated once in the application's lifecycle]. public class ComplexValueClass { /* A number of read only properties */ private readonly string _propertyOne; public string PropertyOne { get { return _propertyOne; } } private readonly string _propertyTwo; public string PropertyTwo { get { return _propertyTwo; } } /* a private constructor */ private ComplexValueClass(string propertyOne, string propertyTwo) { _propertyOne = propertyOne; _propertyTwo = PropertyTwo; } /* a number of singleton instances */ private static ComplexValueClass _complexValueObjectOne; public static ComplexValueClass ComplexValueObjectOne { get { if (_complexValueObjectOne == null) { _complexValueObjectOne = new ComplexValueClass("string one", "string two"); } return _complexValueObjectOne; } } private static ComplexValueClass _complexValueObjectTwo; public static ComplexValueClass ComplexValueObjectTwo { get { if (_complexValueObjectTwo == null) { _complexValueObjectTwo = new ComplexValueClass("string three", "string four"); } return _complexValueObjectTwo; } } } I have a data context class that looks something like this: public class DataContextClass : INotifyPropertyChanged { private ComplexValueClass _complexValueClass; public ComplexValueClass ComplexValueObject { get { return _complexValueClass; } set { _complexValueClass = value; PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("ComplexValueObject")); } } } I would like to write a XAML binding statement to a property on my complex value object that updates the UI whenever the entire complex value object changes. What is the best and/or most concise way of doing this? I have something like: <Object Value="{Binding ComplexValueObject.PropertyOne}" /> but the UI does not update when ComplexValueObject as a whole changes.

    Read the article

  • What are the correct bindings for an NSComboBox for use with Core Data

    - by theMikeSwan
    Imagine if you will a Core Data app with two entities (Employee, and Department). Employees have a to-one relationship with department (department) and the inverse is a to-many relationship (employees). In the UI you can select individual Employee entities and edit the details in a detail area (there are of course other attributes and there is UI for adding and editing Department entities). When using a popup button the bindings are: content = PopUpArrayController.arrangedObjects content values = PopUpArrayController.arrangedObjects.name (name is an NSString) selected object = EmployeeArrayController.selection.department.name This allows for viewing of all departments in the popup menu, correct selection of the current Employee's department, and allows that department to be changed as expected. The goal is to change this for an NSComboBox so that the user can tab to the box and type the department name in without switching to the mouse. I have tried numerous different bindings to accomplish this. I even had it work for one run with these bindings: content = PopUpArrayController.arrangedObjects.name value = EmployeeArrayController.selection.department.name At least once this worked as expected (it even added a new department when the entered text did not match any existing department). Now however it will display the available Departments and auto complete but will not update the model with the correct value when the value is changed in the combo box. If the Department is set or changed with the popup the correct department is shown in the combo box. Does anyone know what I am missing? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Compiling Visual c++ programs from the command line and msvcr90.dll

    - by Stanley kelly
    Hi, When I compile my Visual c++ 2008 express program from inside the IDE and redistribute it on another computer, It starts up fine without any dll dependencies that I haven't accounted for. When I compile the same program from the visual c++ 2008 command line under the start menu and redistribute it to the other computer, it looks for msvcr90.dll at start-up. Here is how it is compiled from the command line cl /Fomain.obj /c main.cpp /nologo -O2 -DNDEBUG /MD /ID:(list of include directories) link /nologo /SUBSYSTEM:WINDOWS /ENTRY:mainCRTStartup /OUT:Build\myprogram.ex e /LIBPATH:D:\libs (list of libraries) and here is how the IDE builds it based on the relevant parts of the build log. /O2 /Oi /GL /I clude" /I (list of includes) /D "WIN32" /D "NDEBUG" /D "_CONSOLE" /D "_UNICODE" /D "UNICODE" /FD /EHsc /MD /Gy /Yu"stdafx.h" /Fp"Release\myprogram" /Fo"Release\\" /Fd"Release\vc90.pdb" /W3 /c /Zi /TP /wd4250 /vd2 Creating command line "cl.exe @d:\myprogram\Release\RSP00000118003188.rsp /nologo /errorReport:prompt" /OUT:"D:\myprgram\Release\myprgram.exe" /INCREMENTAL:NO /LIBPATH:"d:\gtkmm\lib" /MANIFEST /MANIFESTFILE:"Release\myprogam.exe.intermediate.manifest" /MANIFESTUAC:"level='asInvoker' uiAccess='false'" /DEBUG /PDB:"d:\myprogram\Release\myprogram.pdb" /SUBSYSTEM:WINDOWS /OPT:REF /OPT:ICF /LTCG /ENTRY:"mainCRTStartup" /DYNAMICBASE /NXCOMPAT /MACHINE:X86 (list of libraries) Creating command line "link.exe @d:\myprogram\Release\RSP00000218003188.rsp /NOLOGO /ERRORREPORT:PROMPT" /outputresource:"..\Release\myprogram.exe;#1" /manifest .\Release\myprogram.exe.intermediate.manifest Creating command line "mt.exe @d:\myprogram\Release\RSP00000318003188.rsp /nologo" I would like to be able to compile it from the command line and not have it look for such a late version of the runtime dll, like the version compiled from the IDE seems not to do. Both versions pass /MD to the compiler, so i am not sure what to do.

    Read the article

  • DataBinding the AJAX Control Toolkit's Rating Control

    - by Nevada
    I'm attempting to use the AJAX Control Toolkit's Rating control in a DataBinding scenario. I have a ReuseRating column in my database that is a tinyint. It can hold values 1 through 5. Every record in the table has the value set to 1 currently. If I do this in my ItemTemplate everything works fine. I get 1 star filled in on my rating control. <act:Rating ID="ReuseRatingRating" runat="server" CurrentRating='<%# Convert.ToInt16(Eval("ReuseRating")) %>' MaxRating="5" StarCssClass="ratingStar" WaitingStarCssClass="savedRatingStar" FilledStarCssClass="filledRatingStar" EmptyStarCssClass="emptyRatingStar" /> Now I want to DataBind this in my EditTemplate like so. <act:Rating ID="ReuseRatingRating" runat="server" CurrentRating='<%# Convert.ToInt16(Bind("ReuseRating")) %>' MaxRating="5" StarCssClass="ratingStar" WaitingStarCssClass="savedRatingStar" FilledStarCssClass="filledRatingStar" EmptyStarCssClass="emptyRatingStar" /> Note, that I changed my Eval to a Bind in the CurrentRating property. This throws the following error. CS0103: The name 'Bind' does not exist in the current context Can anyone help me out on this one? I've been knocking my head against the wall for a couple of hours now.

    Read the article

  • Adding a UITapGestureRecognizer to a view then removing seems to short circuit button events

    - by heymon
    In the code below I am popping up a ImageView as the result of a users touchUpInside on a simple info button. There are other buttons on the view. To dismiss the info I added a UITapGestureRecognizer to my controllers view, and hide the view when the tap is detected. If I don't remove the tapGestureRecognizer, the action is called every time some. Even when I do remove the gesture action, no bottons receive touchUpInside events once this gesture recognizer is added. Why? Code from my MainViewController (void) dismissInfo: (UITapGestureRecognizer *)gesture { [kInfoView setHidden: YES]; [gesture removeTarget: self action: NULL]; } (IBAction) displayInfo { CGRect startFrame = CGRectMake(725, 25, 0, 0), origFrame; CGFloat yCenter = [kInfoView frame].size.height/2 + 200; CGPoint startCenter = CGPointMake(724, 25), displayCenter = CGPointMake(384, yCenter); UITapGestureRecognizer *g = [[UITapGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget: self action: @selector(dismissInfo:)]; [self.view addGestureRecognizer: g]; origFrame = [kInfoView frame]; [kInfoView setCenter: startCenter]; [kInfoView setHidden: NO]; [kInfoView setFrame: startFrame]; [UIView beginAnimations: @"info" context: nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration: .5]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate: self]; [kInfoView setFrame: origFrame]; [kInfoView setCenter: displayCenter]; [UIView commitAnimations]; }

    Read the article

  • Observing events on injected elements using prototype

    - by snaken
    I asked a question previously, it was answered correctly in the form i asked it but realised now why it wasnt working for me. i have this code to observe multiple select menus: $('product_options').select('select').invoke("observe","change",optchange); This does work - as pointed out - with static layout like this: <html> <head> <title>optchange</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="prototype.js"></script> </head> <body> <div id="product_options"> <select id="o0"> <option>1</option> <option>2</option> </select> <select id="o1"> <option>1</option> <option>2</option> </select> <select id="o3"> <option>1</option> <option>2</option> </select> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> function optchange(e) { alert("optchanged"); } $('product_options').select('select').invoke("observe","change", optchange); </script> </body> </html> But in my context, making a selection in the first select menu fires of an Ajax.Updater that completely replaces the content of Select 2 - this is killing the event observer. Is there a way to fix this without having to apply a new event observer each time? Thanks.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 505 506 507 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516  | Next Page >