Search Results

Search found 14531 results on 582 pages for 'proxy pass'.

Page 513/582 | < Previous Page | 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520  | Next Page >

  • How to call shared_ptr<boost::signal> from a vector in a loop?

    - by BTR
    I've got a working callback system that uses boost::signal. I'm extending it into a more flexible and efficient callback manager which uses a vector of shared_ptr's to my signals. I've been able to successfully create and add callbacks to the list, but I'm unclear as to how to actually execute the signals. ... // Signal aliases typedef boost::signal<void (float *, int32_t)> Callback; typedef std::shared_ptr<Callback> CallbackRef; // The callback list std::vector<CallbackRef> mCallbacks; // Adds a callback to the list template<typename T> void addCallback(void (T::* callbackFunction)(float * data, int32_t size), T * callbackObject) { CallbackRef mCallback = CallbackRef(new Callback()); mCallback->connect(boost::function<void (float *, int32_t)>(boost::bind(callbackFunction, callbackObject, _1, _2))); mCallbacks.push_back(mCallback); } // Pass the float array and its size to the callbacks void execute(float * data, int32_t size) { // Iterate through the callback list for (vector<CallbackRef>::iterator i = mCallbacks.begin(); i != mCallbacks.end(); ++i) { // What do I do here? // (* i)(data, size); // <-- Dereferencing doesn't work } } ... All of this code works. I'm just not sure how to run the call from within a shared_ptr from with a vector. Any help would be neat-o. Thanks, in advance.

    Read the article

  • Custom PHP Framework Feedback

    - by Jascha
    I've been learning OOP programming for about a year and a half now and have developed a fairly standard framework to which I generally abide by. I'd love some feedback or input on how I might improve some functionality or if there are some things I'm overlooking. VIEW MODE 1) Essentially everything starts at the Index.php page. The first thing I do is require my "packages.php" file that is basically a config file that imports all of the classes and function lists I'll be using. 2) I have no direct communication between my index.php file and my classes, what I've done is "pretty them up" with my viewfunctions.php file which is essentially just a conduit to the classes so that in my html I can write <?php get_title('page'); ?> instead of <?php echo $pageClass->get_title('page'); ?> Plus, I can run a couple small booleans and what not in the view function script that can better tailor the output of the class. 3) Any information brought in via the database is started from it's corresponding class that has direct communication with the database class, the only class that is allowed direct to communicate with the database (allowed in the sense that I run all of my queries with custom class code). INPUT MODE 1) Any user input is sent to my userFunctions.php. 2) My security class is then instantiated where I send whatever user input that has been posted for verification and validation. 3) If the input passes my security check, I then pass it to my DB class for input into my Database. FEEDBACK I'm wondering if there are any glaringly obvious pitfalls to the general structure, or ways I can improve this. Thank you in advance for your input. I know there is real no "right" answer for this, but I imagine a couple up votes would be in order for some strong advice regarding building frameworks. -J

    Read the article

  • Passing bundle to activity set as singletask

    - by Falmarri
    So I have a MapActivity that runs an asynchtask that occasionally updates what exactly it's displaying on the map (via a string). I originally pass this string in from the intent when the activity is first created. And then if you click on one of the drawables on the map, it opens a new activity, which can then create a new mapview (same class) with a different string setting. The problem I have is that I only want one instance of the mapview to be running at once. Thus I set android:launchmode="singletask" in the manifest. This works in that it brings the mapactivity to the front, but is there any way to send it a new intent bundle to get a new setting for the string it needs? I tried regetting the extras from the bundle, but it seems to retain the old bundle, not the new intent that was passed to it. I'm not sure I want to do startActivityForResult because the 2nd activity may or may not want to update the original activity. I hope that made sense. I can post code if necessary, but I think that should explain my situation.

    Read the article

  • Android : start intent in setOnClickListener

    - by Derek
    I have a button, and this button is going to get the values from EditText, then using this value to start a new Intent protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { textDay = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.textDay); textMonth = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.textMonth); textYear = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.textYear); gen = (Button) findViewById(R.id.getGraph); gen.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { getthisIntent(); } public Intent getthisIntent(Context context) { day = textDay.getText(); month = textMonth.getText(); year = textYear.getText(); date = day + "/" + month + "/" + year; . .// Plot graph using AchartEngine, then return an Intent // . } } }); but i get the error "The method getthisIntent(Context) in the type new View.OnClickListener(){} is not applicable for the arguments ()" Can i get some help? or do i have another alternative solution, when i click the button, then the button pass the values to the new intent, and start it without having a new xxx.java file? Edit This is basically what I am doing now, i need to get the things inserted by user, and plot a graph, the only way i know how to plot graph using AchartEngine is create a new activity with define this public Intent getthisIntent(Context context) To be honest, i dont really know what the hell I am doing, please correct me...

    Read the article

  • c# creating a database query METHOD

    - by Sinaesthetic
    I'm not sure if im delluded but what I would like to do is create a method that will return the results of a query, so that i can reuse the connection code. As i understand it, a query returns an object but how do i pass that object back? I want to send the query into the method as a string argument, and have it return the results so that I can use them. Here's what i have which was a stab in the dark, it obviously doesn't work. This example is me trying to populate a listbox with the results of a query; the sheet name is Employees and the field/column is name. The error i get is "Complex DataBinding accepts as a data source either an IList or an IListSource.". any ideas? public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); openFileDialog1.ShowDialog(); openedFile = openFileDialog1.FileName; lbxEmployeeNames.DataSource = Query("Select [name] FROM [Employees$]"); } public object Query(string sql) { System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection MyConnection; System.Data.OleDb.OleDbCommand myCommand = new System.Data.OleDb.OleDbCommand(); string connectionPath; //build connection string connectionPath = "provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source='" + openedFile + "';Extended Properties=Excel 8.0;"; MyConnection = new System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection(connectionPath); MyConnection.Open(); myCommand.Connection = MyConnection; myCommand.CommandText = sql; return myCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); }

    Read the article

  • Using an embedded DB (SQLite / SQL Compact) for Message Passing within an app?

    - by wk1989
    Hello, Just out of curiosity, for applications that have a fairly complicated module tree, would something like sqlite/sql compact edition work well for message passing? So if I have modules containing data such as: \SubsystemA\SubSubSysB\ModuleB\ModuleDataC, \SubSystemB\SubSubSystemC\ModuleA\ModuleDataX Using traditional message passing/routing, you have to go through intermediate modules in order to pass a message to ModuleB to request say ModuleDataC. Instead of doing that, if we we simply store "\SubsystemA\SubSubSysB\ModuleB\ModuleDataC" in a sqlite database, getting that data is as simple as a sql query and needs no routing and passing stuff around. Has anyone done this before? Even if you haven't, do you foresee any issues & performance impact? The only concern I have right now would be the passing of custom types, e.g. if ModuleDataC is a custom data structure or a pointer, I'll need some way of storing the data structure into the DB or storing the pointer into the DB. Thanks, JW EDIT One usage case I haven't thought about is when you want to send a message from ModuleA to ModuleB to get ModuleB to do something rather than just getting/setting data. Is it possible to do this using an embedded DB? I believe callback from the DB would be needed, how feasible is this?

    Read the article

  • Create and define Vector

    - by zdmytriv
    I'm looking for method to create Vector and push some values without defining variable Vector. For example: I have function: public function bla(data:Vector.<Object>):void { ... } this function expects Vector as parameter. I can pass parameters this way var newVector:Vector.<Object> = new Vector.<Object>(); newVector.push("bla1"); newVector.push("bla2"); bla(newVector); Can I do it in one line in Flex? I'm looking for something like: bla(new Vector.<Object>().push("bla1").push("bla2")); I've also tried this: bla(function():Vector.<Object> { var result:Vector.<Object> = new Vector.<Object>(2, true); result.push("bla1"); result.push("bla2"); return result; }); But it complains: 1067: Implicit coercion of a value of type Function to an unrelated type __AS3__.vec:Vector.<Object>... Thanks

    Read the article

  • C++ and Dependency Injection in unit testing

    - by lhumongous
    Suppose I have a C++ class like so: class A { public: A() { } void SetNewB( const B& _b ) { m_B = _b; } private: B m_B; } In order to unit test something like this, I would have to break A's dependency on B. Since class A holds onto an actual object and not a pointer, I would have to refactor this code to take a pointer. Additionally, I would need to create a parent interface class for B so I can pass in my own fake of B when I test SetNewB. In this case, doesn't unit testing with dependency injection further complicate the existing code? If I make B a pointer, I'm now introducing heap allocation, and some piece of code is now responsible for cleaning it up (unless I use ref counted pointers). Additionally, if B is a rather trivial class with only a couple of member variables and functions, why introduce a whole new interface for it instead of just testing with an instance of B? I suppose you could make the argument that it would be easier to refactor A by using an interface. But are there some cases where two classes might need to be tightly coupled?

    Read the article

  • first major web app

    - by vbNewbie
    I have created a web app version of my previous crawler app and the initial form has controls to allow the client to make selections and start a search 'job'. These searches 'jobs' will be run my different threads created individually and added to a list to keep track of. Now the idea is to have another web form that will display this list of 'jobs' and their current status and will allow the jobs to be cancelled or removed only from the server side. This second form contains a grid to display these jobs. Now I have no idea if I should create the threads in the initial form code or send all user input to my main class which runs the search and if so how do I pass the the thread list to the second form to have it displayed on the grid. Any ideas really appreciated. Dim count As Integer = 0 Dim numThread As Integer = 0 Dim jobStartTime As Date Dim thread = New Thread(AddressOf ResetFormControlValues) 'StartBlogDiscovery) jobStartTime = Date.Now thread.Name = "Job" & jobStartTime 'clientName Session("Job") = "Job" & jobStartTime 'clientName thread.start() thread.sleep(50000) If numThread >= 10 Then For Each thread In threadlist thread.Join() Next Else numThread = numThread + 1 SyncLock threadlist threadlist.Enqueue(thread) End SyncLock End If this is the code that is called when the user clicks the search button on the inital form. this is what I just thought might work on the second web form if i used the session method. Try If Not Page.IsPostBack Then If Not Session("Job") = Nothing Then Grid1.DataSource = Session("Job") Grid1.DataBind() End If End If Finally

    Read the article

  • Passing C++ object to C++ code through Python?

    - by cornail
    Hi all, I have written some physics simulation code in C++ and parsing the input text files is a bottleneck of it. As one of the input parameters, the user has to specify a math function which will be evaluated many times at run-time. The C++ code has some pre-defined function classes for this (they are actually quite complex on the math side) and some limited parsing capability but I am not satisfied with this construction at all. What I need is that both the algorithm and the function evaluation remain speedy, so it is advantageous to keep them both as compiled code (and preferrably, the math functions as C++ function objects). However I thought of glueing the whole simulation together with Python: the user could specify the input parameters in a Python script, while also implementing storage, visualization of the results (matplotlib) and GUI, too, in Python. I know that most of the time, exposing C++ classes can be done, e.g. with SWIG but I still have a question concerning the parsing of the user defined math function in Python: Is it possible to somehow to construct a C++ function object in Python and pass it to the C++ algorithm? E.g. when I call f = WrappedCPPGaussianFunctionClass(sigma=0.5) WrappedCPPAlgorithm(f) in Python, it would return a pointer to a C++ object which would then be passed to a C++ routine requiring such a pointer, or something similar... (don't ask me about memory management in this case, though :S) The point is that no callback should be made to Python code in the algorithm. Later I would like to extend this example to also do some simple expression parsing on the Python side, such as sum or product of functions, and return some compound, parse-tree like C++ object but let's stay at the basics for now. Sorry for the long post and thx for the suggestions in advance.

    Read the article

  • How to deal with unknown entity references?

    - by Chris
    I'm parsing (a lot of) XML files that contain entity references which i dont know in advance (can't change that fact). For example: xml = "<tag>I'm content with &funny; &entity; &references;.</tag>" when i try to parse this using the following code: final DocumentBuilderFactory dbf = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); final DocumentBuilder db = dbf.newDocumentBuilder(); final InputSource is = new InputSource(new StringReader(xml)); final Document d = db.parse(is); i get the following exception: org.xml.sax.SAXParseException: The entity "funny" was referenced, but not declared. but, what i do want to achieve is, that the parser replaces every entity that is not declared (unknown to the parser) with an empty String ''. Or even better, is there a way to pass a map to the parser like: Map<String,String> entityMapping = ... entityMapping.put("funny","very"); entityMapping.put("entity","important"); entityMapping.put("references","stuff"); so that i could do the following: final DocumentBuilderFactory dbf = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); final DocumentBuilder db = dbf.newDocumentBuilder(); final InputSource is = new InputSource(new StringReader(xml)); db.setEntityResolver(entityMapping); final Document d = db.parse(is); if i would obtain the text from the document using this example code i should receive: I'm content with very important stuff. Any suggestions? Of course, i already would be happy to just replace the unknown entity's with empty strings. Thanks,

    Read the article

  • MVC design pattern in complex iPad app: is one fat controller acceptable?

    - by nutsmuggler
    I am building a complex iPad application; think of it as a scrapbook. For the purpose of this question, let's consider a page with two images over it. My main view displays my doc data rendered as a single UIImage; this because I need to do some global manipulation over them. This is my DisplayView. When editing I need to instantiate an EditorView with my two images as subviews; this way I can interact with a single image, (rotate it, scale it, move it). When editing is triggered, I hide my DisplayView and show my EditorView. In a iPhone app, I'd associate each main view (that is, a view filling the screen) to a view controller. The problem is here there is just one view controller; I've considered passing the EditorView via a modal view controller, but it's not an option (there a complex layout with a mask covering everything and palettes over it; rebuilding it in the EditorView would create duplicate code). Presently the EditorView incorporates some logic (loads data from the model, invokes some subviews for fine editing, saves data back to the model); EditorView subviews also incorporate some logic (I manipulate images and pass them back to the main EditorView). I feel this logic belongs more to a controller. On the other hand, I am not sure making my only view controller so fat a good idea. What is the best, cocoa-ish implementation of such a class structure? Feel free to ask for clarifications. Cheers.

    Read the article

  • Extra NotifyIcon shown in system tray

    - by Kettch19
    I'm having an issue with an app where my NotifyIcon displays an extra icon. The steps to reproduce it are easy, but the problem is that the extra icon shows up after any of the actual codebehind we've added fires. Put simply, clicking a button triggers execution of method FooBar() which runs all the way through fine but its primary duty is to fire a backgroundworker to log into another of our apps. It only appears if this particular button is clicked. Strangely enough, we have a WndProc method override and if I step through until the extra NotifyIcon appears, it always appears during this method so something else beyond the codebehind must be triggering the behavior. Our WndProc method is currently (although I don't think it's caused by the WndProc): Protected Overrides Sub WndProc(ByRef m As System.Windows.Forms.Message) 'Check for WM_COPYDATA message from other app or drag/drop action and handle message If m.Msg = NativeMethods.WM_COPYDATA Then ' get the standard message structure from lparam Dim CD As NativeMethods.COPYDATASTRUCT = m.GetLParam(GetType(NativeMethods.COPYDATASTRUCT)) 'setup byte array Dim B(CD.cbData) As Byte 'copy data from memory into array Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.Copy(New IntPtr(CD.lpData), B, 0, CD.cbData) 'Get message as string and process ProcessWMCopyData(System.Text.Encoding.Default.GetString(B)) 'empty array Erase B 'set message result to 'true', meaning message handled m.Result = New IntPtr(1) End If 'pass on result and all messages not handled by this app MyBase.WndProc(m) End Sub The only place in the code where the NotifyIcon in question is manipulated at all is in the following event handler (again, don't think this is the culprit, but just for more info): Private Sub TrayIcon_MouseDoubleClick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.MouseEventArgs) Handles TrayIcon.MouseDoubleClick If Me.Visible Then Me.Hide() Else PositionBottomRight() Me.Show() End If End Sub The backgroundworker's DoWork is as follows (just a class call to log in to our other app, but again just for info): Private Sub LoginBackgroundWorker_DoWork(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.ComponentModel.DoWorkEventArgs) Handles LoginBackgroundWorker.DoWork Settings.IsLoggedIn = _wdService.LogOn(Settings.UserName, Settings.Password) End Sub Does anyone else have ideas on what might be causing this or how to possibly further debug this? I've been banging my head on this without seeing a pattern so another set of eyes would be extremely appreciated. :) I've posted this on MSDN winforms forums as well and have had no luck there so far either.

    Read the article

  • problem in variables in jquery

    - by Alvin
    Hi, I don't understand why I'm not getting the message as "username already exits" if type the username which is already in database. If the username in a server, then it is returning the value as "1" otherwise empty, and despite of successfully getting the value from the server based on username is present or not, and assigning the value to variable "x", I'm unable to get message when I pass already exist username. May I know? $(document).ready(pageInit); function pageInit() { $('#1').bind('blur',go); } function go() { var value = $('#1').val(); var x = 0; $.post('just.do',{username:value},function(data){ x = data; } ); if(x) { $('#para').show(); $('#para').html("Username already exits"); return false; } else { $('#para').hide(); return true; } }; EDIT: This is what I'm doing in post request in servlets: String user1 = request.getParameter("username"); if(user != null) { String query = "Select * from users where user_name="+"\""+user+"\""; b = db.doExecuteQuery(stmt,query); if(b) { out.write("1"); } }

    Read the article

  • Debugging scripts loaded with GroovyShell (in eclipse)

    - by MSh
    I am working with eclipse and groovy plug in. I am building a test harness to debug and test groovy scripts. The scripts are really simple but long, most of them just if/else/return. I figured out that I can call them using GroovyShell and Bindings to pass in the values. The problem is that, while I can call the script and get the results just fine, I CAN NOT step in there with the debugger. Breakpoints in those scripts are not active. Is there a way to debug the scripts? Maybe I should use something other than GroovyShell? I really don't want to modify the scripts by wrapping them into functions, and then calling those functions from my test classes. That's how I am using Binding and GroovyShell: def binding = new Binding(); binding.lineList = [list1]; binding.count = 5; def shell = new GroovyShell(binding); def result = shell.evaluate(new File("src/Rules/checkLimit.groovy"));

    Read the article

  • so i got an econ degree...computing science or software systems (software engineering) degree ?

    - by sofreakinghigh
    okay so here's the story. i want to work in developing software (not QA or writing tests), so although I am currently starting computing science this summer, i came across Software Systems (aka s.e.) program which is "applied" but under computing science.... so what is the difference between the 2 disciplines ? if i choose software engineering, would it require more in depth expertise with calculus (i fail at it), and more coding time ? i am looking for a way to write better and more efficient code. I want to go to school, so i wont get lazy. i want to pick a program that would directly aid me in writing and developing software. graduating with an Econ degree in last year doesn't really help in landing jobs requiring comp sci/software engineering degrees....i should've studied harder in Economics (and maybe land a job) but i was obsessed with learning how to program with various languages since day 1 at University, but i didn't think i was smart enough to pass comp sci courses (so i just relied on books + irc...) and my parents said software jobs are being outsourced to India so i thought this obsession was just a "phase" and i should keep it as a hobby. but yes, it's quite funny why i hadn't pursued this field much earlier. as Joelonsoftware.com says economics degree starts with a bang (microeconomics the only course you only need really)....predicting stock prices (ridiculous!) + realizing China's potential power to meltdown US economy and vice versa + interest rate is inversely related to bond premium which is inversely related to stock market it would absolutely awesome if there was a program that combined finance + programming.

    Read the article

  • IList<T> vs IEnumerable<T>. What is more efficient IList<T> or IEnumerable<T>

    - by bigb
    What is more efficient way to make methods return IList<T> or IEnumerable<T>? IEnumerable<T> it is immutable collection but IList<T> mutable and contain a lot of useful methods and properties. To cast IList<T> to IEnumerable<T> it is just reference copy: IList<T> l = new List<T>(); IEnumerable<T> e = l; To cast IEnumerable<T> to List<T> we need to iterate each element or to call ToList() method: IEnumerable<T>.ToList(); or may pass IEnumerable<T> to List<T> constructor which doing the same iteration somewhere within its constructor. List<T> l = new List<T>(e); Which cases you think is more efficient? Which you prefer more in your practice?

    Read the article

  • Jquery passing an HTML element into a function

    - by christian
    I have an HTML form where I am going to copy values from a series of input fields to some spans/headings as the user populates the input fields. I am able to get this working using the following code: $('#source').keyup(function(){ if($("#source").val().length == 0){ $("#destinationTitle").text('Sample Title'); }else{ $("#destinationTitle").text($("#source").val()); } }); In the above scenario the html is something like: Sample Title Basically, as the users fills out the source box, the text of the is changed to the value of the source input. If nothing is input in, or the user deletes the values typed into the box some default text is placed in the instead. Pretty straightforward. However, since I need to make this work for many different fields, it makes sense to turn this into a generic function and then bind that function to each 's onkeyup() event. But I am having some trouble with this. My implementation: function doStuff(source,target,defaultValue) { if($(source).val().length == 0){ $(target).text(defaultValue); }else{ $(target).text($(source).val()); } } which is called as follows: $('#source').keyup(function() { doStuff(this, '"#destinationTitle"', 'SampleTitle'); }); What I can't figure out is how to pass the second parameter, the name of the destination html element into the function. I have no problem passing in the element I'm binding to via "this", but can't figure out the destination element syntax. Any help would be appreciated - many thanks!

    Read the article

  • Security of Flex for payment website

    - by Mario
    So, it's been about 3 years since I wrote and went live with my company's main internet facing website. Originally written in php, I've since just been making minor changes here and there to progress the site as we've needed to. I've wanted to rewrite it from the ground up in the last year or so and now, we want to add some major features so this is a perfect time. The website in question is as close to a banking website as you'd get (without being a bank; sorry for the obscurity, but the less info I can give out, the better). For the rewrite, I want to separate the presentation layer from the processing layer as much as I can. I want the end user to be stuck in a box and not be able to get out so to speak (this is all because of PCI complacency, being PEN tested every 3 months, etc...) So, being probed every 3 months has increasingly made me nervous. We haven't failed yet and there hasen't been a breach yet, but I want to make sure I continue to pass (as much as I can anyways) So, I'm considering rewriting the presentation layer in Adobe Flex and do all the processing in PHP (effectively IMO, separating presentation from processing) - I would do all my normal form validation in flex (as opposed to javascript or php) and do my reads and writes to the db via php. My questions are: I know Flash has something like 99% market penetration - do people find this to be true? Has anyone seen on their own sites being in flash that someone couldn't access it? Flash in general has come under alot of attacks about security and the like - i know this. I would use a swf encryptor - disable debugging (which i got snagged on once on a different application), continue to use https and any other means i can think of. At the end of the day, everyone knows if someone wants in to the data bad enough, their going to find a ways in; i just wanna make it as difficult for them as i can. Any thoughts are appreciated. -Mario

    Read the article

  • File IO with Streams - Best Memory Buffer Size

    - by AJ
    I am writing a small IO library to assist with a larger (hobby) project. A part of this library performs various functions on a file, which is read / written via the FileStream object. On each StreamReader.Read(...) pass, I fire off an event which will be used in the main app to display progress information. The processing that goes on in the loop is vaired, but is not too time consuming (it could just be a simple file copy, for example, or may involve encryption...). My main question is: What is the best memory buffer size to use? Thinking about physical disk layouts, I could pick 2k, which would cover a CD sector size and is a nice multiple of a 512 byte hard disk sector. Higher up the abstraction tree, you could go for a larger buffer which could read an entire FAT cluster at a time. I realise with today's PC's, I could go for a more memory hungry option (a couple of MiB, for example), but then I increase the time between UI updates and the user perceives a less responsive app. As an aside, I'm eventually hoping to provide a similar interface to files hosted on FTP / HTTP servers (over a local network / fastish DSL). What would be the best memory buffer size for those (again, a "best-case" tradeoff between perceived responsiveness vs. performance).

    Read the article

  • Design issue when having classes implement different interfaces to restrict client actions

    - by devoured elysium
    Let's say I'm defining a game class that implements two different views: interface IPlayerView { void play(); } interface IDealerView { void deal(); } The view that a game sees when playing the game, and a view that the dealer sees when dealing the game (this is, a player can't make dealer actions and a dealer can't make player actions). The game definition is as following: class Game : IPlayerView, IDealerView { void play() { ... } void deal() { ... } } Now assume I want to make it possible for the players to play the game, but not to deal it. My original idea was that instead of having public Game GetGame() { ... } I'd have something like public IPlayerView GetGame() { ... } But after some tests I realized that if I later try this code, it works: IDealerView dealerView = (IDealerView)GameClass.GetGame(); this works as lets the user act as the dealer. Am I worrying to much? How do you usually deal with this patterns? I could instead make two different classes, maybe a "main" class, the dealer class, that would act as factory of player classes. That way I could control exactly what I would like to pass on the the public. On the other hand, that turns everything a bit more complex than with this original design. Thanks

    Read the article

  • I have a bunch of template parameters that I want to hide from my users. How can I do this?

    - by Alex
    I have a superclass which is defined in terms of a few internal types it uses. Subclassing is performed as so: template <class InternalType1, class InternalType2> class Super { ... } class Sub : Super <interalTypeClass1, interalTypeClass2> { ... } But when I want to write a function that takes a pointer to the superclass, this happens : template <class InternalType1, class InternalType2> void function(Super<InternalType1, InternalType2>* in) { ... } The user really shouldn't know anything about the inside classes, and should really just concern himself with the use of the function. Some of these template lists become very very large, and expecting the user to pass them every time is wasteful, in my opinion. Any suggestions? EDIT: The function needs to know the internal types in use, so unless there is a way to access template types at compile time, I think there is no solution? Potential solution: Have each class do the following: #define SubTemplateArgs <SubTypeName, SubInternalType1, SubInternalType2> ?

    Read the article

  • If I cast an IQueryable as an IEnumerable then call a Linq extension method, which implementation gets called?

    - by James Morcom
    Considering the following code: IQueryable<T> queryable; // something to instantiate queryable var enumerable = (IEnumerable<T>) queryable; var filtered = enumerable.Where(i => i > 3); In the final line, which extension method gets called? Is it IEnumerable<T>.Where(...)? Or will IQueryable<T>.Where(...) be called because the actual implementation is still obviously a queryable? Presumably the ideal would be for the IQueryable version to be called, in the same way that normal polymorphism will always use the more specific override. In Visual Studio though when I right-click on the Where method and "Go to Definition" I'm taken to the IEnumerable version, which kind of makes sense from a visual point-of-view. My main concern is that if somewhere in my app I use Linq to NHibernate to get a Queryable, but I pass it around using an interface that uses the more general IEnumerable signature, I'll lose the wonders of deferred database execution!

    Read the article

  • Procesing 16bit sample audio

    - by user2431088
    Right now i have an audio file (2 Channels, 44.1kHz Sample Rate, 16bit Sample size, WAV) I would like to pass it into this method but i am not sure of any way to convert the WAV file to a byte array. /// <summary> /// Process 16 bit sample /// </summary> /// <param name="wave"></param> public void Process(ref byte[] wave) { _waveLeft = new double[wave.Length / 4]; _waveRight = new double[wave.Length / 4]; if (_isTest == false) { // Split out channels from sample int h = 0; for (int i = 0; i < wave.Length; i += 4) { _waveLeft[h] = (double)BitConverter.ToInt16(wave, i); _waveRight[h] = (double)BitConverter.ToInt16(wave, i + 2); h++; } } else { // Generate artificial sample for testing _signalGenerator = new SignalGenerator(); _signalGenerator.SetWaveform("Sine"); _signalGenerator.SetSamplingRate(44100); _signalGenerator.SetSamples(16384); _signalGenerator.SetFrequency(5000); _signalGenerator.SetAmplitude(32768); _waveLeft = _signalGenerator.GenerateSignal(); _waveRight = _signalGenerator.GenerateSignal(); } // Generate frequency domain data in decibels _fftLeft = FourierTransform.FFTDb(ref _waveLeft); _fftRight = FourierTransform.FFTDb(ref _waveRight); }

    Read the article

  • Getting a type for a template instantiation?

    - by ebo
    I have the following situation: I have a object of type MyClass, which has a method to cast itself to it's base class. The class includes a typedef for it's base class and a method to do the downcast. template <class T, class B> class BaseClass; template <class T> class NoAccess; template <class T> class MyClass : public BaseClass<T, NoAccess<T> > { private: typedef BaseClass<T, NoAccess<T> > base; public: base &to_base(); }; I need to pass the result of a base call to a functor Operator: template <class Y> class Operator { Operator(Y &x); }; Operator<???> op(myobject.to_base()); Is there a easy way to fill the ??? provided that I do not want to use NoAccess?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520  | Next Page >