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  • Core Data combined Query

    - by Chris Summer
    Hey, i have question related to CoreData. My iphone project has 2 Entities, Organisation and Brand with a 1 to many "BrandsToOrg" relationship and inverse. So my project has a Mapview, where you can see all the Organisations and a little subview when you click on those Organisations.At the subview there is a "show Brands" Button, which should init a new TableView who only shows the brands belong to the seleceted organisation. Any ideas how i can code that? thx NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat: @"(TitleMedium == %@)",@"Rock Antenne"];???? NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:self.entityName inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [request setEntity:entity]; // If a predicate was passed, pass it to the query if(predicate != nil) { [request setPredicate:predicate]; } // If a sort key was passed, use it for sorting. NSString *sortKey=@"TitleMedium"; BOOL sortAscending=YES; if(sortKey != nil) { NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:sortKey ascending:sortAscending]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [sortDescriptors release]; [sortDescriptor release]; } NSError *error; NSMutableArray *mutableFetchResults = [[managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:&error] mutableCopy]; [request release]; [self setEntityArray:mutableFetchResults];

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  • .Net SQL Parameter for String List Problem

    - by JK
    I am writing a C# program in which I send a query to SQL Server to be processed and a dataset returns. I am using parameters to pass information to the query before it is sent to SQL server. This works fine except in the situation below. The query looks like this: reportQuery = " Select * From tableName Where Account_Number in (@AccountNum); and Account_Date = @AccountDate "; The AccountDate parameter works find but not the AccountNum parameter. I need the final query to execute like this: Select * From tableName Where Account_Number in ('AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123'); and Account_Date = '1-Jan-2010' The problem is that I have these account numbers (actually text) in a C# string list. To feed it to the parameter, I have been declaring the parameter as a string. I turn the list into one string and feed it to the parameter. I think the problem is that I am feeding the paramater this: "'AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123'" when it wants this 'AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123' How do I get the string list into the query using a parameter and have it execute as shown above? This is how I am declaring and assigning the parameter. SqlParameter AccountNumsParam = new SqlParameter(); AccountNumsParam.ParameterName = "@AccountNums"; AccountNumsParam.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.NVarChar; AccountNumsParam.Value = AccountNumsString; FYI, AccountNumString == "'AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123'"

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  • Trouble accessing Mutable array

    - by Jared Gross
    Im having trouble with my for loop where I am trying to index user names. I am able to separate my original array into individual objects but am not able to send the value to a new array that I need to reference later on. The value and count for userNames in my self.userNamesArray = userNames; line is correct. But right after that when I log self.userNamesArray, I get (null). Any tips cause I'm not completely sure I'm cheers! .h @property (nonatomic, copy) NSMutableArray *userNamesArray; .m - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { self.friendsRelation = [[PFUser currentUser] objectForKey:@"friendsRelation"]; PFQuery *query = [self.friendsRelation query]; [query orderByAscending:@"username"]; [query findObjectsInBackgroundWithBlock:^(NSArray *objects, NSError *error) { if (error) { NSLog(@"Error: %@ %@", error, [error userInfo]); } else { self.friends = objects; NSArray *users = [self.friends valueForKey:@"username"]; NSLog(@"username:%@", users); //Create an array of name wrappers and pass to the root view controller. NSMutableArray *userNames = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:[self.friends count]]; for (NSString *user in users) { componentsSeparatedByCharactersInSet:charSet]; NSArray *nameComponents = [user componentsSeparatedByString:@" "]; UserNameWrapper *userNameWrapper = [[UserNameWrapper alloc] initWithUserName:nil nameComponents:nameComponents]; [userNames addObject:userNameWrapper]; } self.userNamesArray = userNames; NSLog(@"userNamesArray:%@",self.userNamesArray); [self.tableView reloadData]; } Here's the code where I need to reference the self.userNamesArray where again, it is comping up nil. - (void)setUserNamesArray:(NSMutableArray *)newDataArray { if (newDataArray != self.userNamesArray) { self.userNamesArray = [newDataArray mutableCopy]; if (self.userNamesArray == nil) { self.sectionsArray = nil; NSLog(@"user names empty"); } else { [self configureSections]; } } }

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  • Passing values for method

    - by Kasun
    I beginner for programming. So can you please show me how to pass values for your compile() method. class CL { private const string clexe = @"cl.exe"; private const string exe = "Test.exe", file = "test.cpp"; private string args; public CL(String[] args) { this.args = String.Join(" ", args); this.args += (args.Length > 0 ? " " : "") + "/Fe" + exe + " " + file; } public Boolean Compile(String content, ref string errors) { //remove any old copies if (File.Exists(exe)) File.Delete(exe); if (File.Exists(file)) File.Delete(file); File.WriteAllText(file, content); Process proc = new Process(); proc.StartInfo.UseShellExecute = false; proc.StartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = true; proc.StartInfo.RedirectStandardError = true; proc.StartInfo.FileName = clexe; proc.StartInfo.Arguments = this.args; proc.StartInfo.CreateNoWindow = true; proc.Start(); //errors += proc.StandardError.ReadToEnd(); errors += proc.StandardOutput.ReadToEnd(); proc.WaitForExit(); bool success = File.Exists(exe); return success; } }

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  • Call instance method with objc_msgSend

    - by user772349
    I'm trying to use the objc_msgSend method to call some method dynamically. Say I want call some method in Class B from Class A and there are two methods in class B like: - (void) instanceTestWithStr1:(NSString *)str1 str2:(NSString *)str1; + (void) methodTestWithStr1:(NSString *)str1 str2:(NSString *)str1; And I can call the class method like this in Class A successfully: objc_msgSend(objc_getClass("ClassB"), sel_registerName("methodTestWithStr1:str2:"), @"111", @"222"); And I can call the instance method like this in Class A successfully as well: objc_msgSend([[objc_getClass("ClassB") alloc] init], sel_registerName("instanceTestWithStr1:str2:"), @"111", @"222"); But the thing is to get a instance of Class B I have to call "initWithXXXXX:XXXXXX:XXXXXX" instead of "init" so that to pass some necessary parameters to class B to do the init stuff. So I stored a instance of ClassB in class A as variable: self.classBInstance = [[ClassB alloc] initWithXXXXX:XXXXXX:XXXXXX]; And then I call the method like this (successfully): The problem is, I want to call a method by simply applying the classname and the method sel like "ClassName" and "SEL" and then call it dynamically: If it's a class method. then call it like: objc_msgSend(objc_getClass("ClassName"), sel_registerName("SEL")); If it's a instance method, find the existing class instance variable in the calling class then: objc_msgSend([self.classInstance, sel_registerName("SEL")); So I want to know if there is any way to: Check if a class has a given method (I found "responseToSelector" will be the one) Check if a given method in class method or instance method (maybe can use responseToSelector as well) Check if a class has a instance variable of a given class So I can call a instance method like: objc_msgSend(objc_getClassInstance(self, "ClassB"), sel_registerName("SEL"));

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  • JQuery to PHP function and back Ajaxed

    - by Xaris
    Hi all, i have a set of php function that i want to call on different events mostly onclick with jquery async (ajax). The first function is called on load $(document).ready(function() { $("#div2").hide('slow'); $("#div1").empty().html('<img src="ajax-loader.gif" />'); $.ajax( { type: "POST", url: "WebFunctions.php", data: {'func':'1'}, success: function(html) { $("#div1").show('slow').html(html) } }); The Data: {'func':'1'} -- is a switch statement on the php side switch($_POST['func']) { case '1': getParents(); break; case '2': getChilds(params); break; case '3': getChildObjects(params); break; default: } "This functions are calls to a soap server" <-- irrelevant. So when that function finishes i get an array which contains IDs and Names. I echo the names but i want the ID for reference so when i click on the echoed name i can call an other php function with parameter the ID of the name... How do i get rid of the switch statement?? How do i call properly php functions and pass params to it??? How can i save this IDs so when i click on an item with that id an other php function is called?? Plz feel free to ask any question, any answer is welcome :)

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  • How can I initialize an ActiveX control from a URL?

    - by Peter Ruderman
    I have an MFC ActiveX control embedded in a web page. Some of the parameters for this control are very large. I don't know what these values will be at compile time, but I do know that once retrieved, they will almost certainly never change. Currently, I embed the parameters like so: <object name="MyActiveX"> <param name="param" value="<%= GetData() %>" /> </object> I want to do something like this: <object name="MyActiveX"> <param name="param" value="content/data" valuetype="ref" /> </object> The idea is that the browser would retrieve the resource from the web server and pass it on to the control. The browser's own caching would then take care of the unneccesary downloads. Unfortunately, ref parameters don't work like this. The browser just passes the url along to the control (which strikes me as utterly useless, but I digress). So, is there some way I can make this work? Alternatively, is there an easy way in MFC to instruct the control's host container to retrieve a URI identified resource? Any better ideas?

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  • jQuery .load() call doesn't execute javascript in loaded html file

    - by Mike
    This seems to be a problem related to Safari only. I've tried 4 on mac and 3 on windows and am still having no luck. What I'm trying to do is load an external html file and have the Javascript that is embedded execute. The code I'm trying to use is this: $("#myBtn").click(function() { $("#myDiv").load("trackingCode.html"); }); trackingCode.html looks like this (simple now, but will expand once/if I get this working): <html> <head> <title>Tracking HTML File</title> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> alert("outside the jQuery ready"); $(function() { alert("inside the jQuery ready"); }); </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> I'm seeing both alert messages in IE (6 & 7) and Firefox (2 & 3). However, I am not able to see the messages in Safari (the last browser that I need to be concerned with - project requirements - please no flame wars). Any thoughts on why Safari is ignoring the Javascript in the trackingCode.html file? Eventually I'd like to be able to pass Javascript objects to this trackingCode.html file to be used within the jQuery ready call, but I'd like to make sure this is possible in all browsers before I go down that road. Thanks for your help!

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  • Rails 3 MySQL 2 reports an error in what looks to be valid SQL syntax

    - by John Judd
    I am trying to use the following bit of code to help in seeding my database. I need to add data continually over development and do not want to have to completely reseed data every time I add something new to the seeds.rb file. So I added the following function to insert the data if it doesn't already exist. def AddSetting(group, name, value, desc) Admin::Setting.create({group: group, name: name, value: value, description: desc}) unless Admin::Setting.find_by_sql("SELECT * FROM admin_settings WHERE group = '#{group}' AND name = '#{name}';").exists? end AddSetting('google', 'analytics_id', '', 'The ID of your Google Analytics account.') AddSetting('general', 'page_title', '', '') AddSetting('general', 'tag_line', '', '') This function is included in the db/seeds.rb file. Is this the right way to do this? However I am getting the following error when I try to run it through rake. rake aborted! Mysql2::Error: You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'group = 'google' AND name = 'analytics_id'' at line 1: SELECT * FROM admin_settings WHERE group = 'google' AND name = 'analytics_id'; Tasks: TOP => db:seed (See full trace by running task with --trace) Process finished with exit code 1 What is confusing me is that I am generating correct SQL as far as I can tell. In fact my code generates the SQL and I pass that to the find_by_sql function for the model, Rails itself can't be changing the SQL, or is it? SELECT * FROM admin_settings WHERE group = 'google' AND name = 'analytics_id'; I've written a lot of SQL over the years and I've looked through similar questions here. Maybe I've missed something, but I cannot see it.

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  • mvc design in a card game

    - by Hong
    I'm trying to make a card game. some classes I have are: CardModel, CardView; DeckModel, DeckView. The deck model has a list of card model, According to MVC, if I want to send a card to a deck, I can add the card model to the deck model, and the card view will be added to the deck view by a event handler. So I have a addCard(CardModel m) in the DeckModel class, but if I want to send a event to add the card view of that model to the deck view, I only know let the model has a reference to view. So the question is: If the card model and deck model have to have a reference to their view classes to do it? If not, how to do it better? Update, the code: public class DeckModel { private ArrayList<CardModel> cards; private ArrayList<EventHandler> actionEventHandlerList; public void addCard(CardModel card){ cards.add(card); //processEvent(event x); //must I pass a event that contain card view here? } CardModel getCards(int index){ return cards.get(index); } public synchronized void addEventHandler(EventHandler l){ if(actionEventHandlerList == null) actionEventHandlerList = new ArrayList<EventHandler>(); if(!actionEventHandlerList.contains(l)) actionEventHandlerList.add(l); } public synchronized void removeEventHandler(EventHandler l){ if(actionEventHandlerList!= null && actionEventHandlerList.contains(l)) actionEventHandlerList.remove(l); } private void processEvent(Event e){ ArrayList list; synchronized(this){ if(actionEventHandlerList!= null) list = (ArrayList)actionEventHandlerList.clone(); else return; } for(int i=0; i<actionEventHandlerList.size(); ++i){ actionEventHandlerList.get(i).handle(e); } } }

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  • Passing XML data and user from coldfusion page to .NET page

    - by Mark Rullo
    I'd appreciate some input on this situation, I can't figure out the best way to do this. I have some data that's being prepared for me in a ColdFusion app and in an IFrame within the CF app we want to display some graphs (not strictly an image, it's an entire page) being generated on the .NET side of things. I'd like to pass XML data from the CF side to .NET as well as the user. On the .NET side I'm putting the data in a session so the user can sift through it without the need to have it re-queried and re-passed from CF. What I've tried: Generating XML with CF, putting it in a hidden form field, auto-submitting (with JS) a the form to the .NET side. The issue I'm having with this approach is the encoding being done on the form post. The data has entries like <entry data="hello &amp; goodbye">. It's an issue because it's being URL encdeded, Posted, and when I get it on the .NET side I get <entry data="hello & goodbye"> which isn't properly formed XML. What I'd like to avoid: An intermediary DB approach (dropping the data in a DB on CF, picking it up with .NET) I'd like to only display what is passed to the page. I have security concerns with the data, it's very sensitive. Passing the data to a webservice, returning a GUID, forwarding the user with a URL Parameter to access the passed in data. I think that'd be risky if someone happened on a link to that data. I can't take that risk. I was thinking of passing the data with JSON, but I'm very unfamiliar with it. Thoughts? Thanks for your time folks.

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  • Rails dealing with blank params at controller level

    - by stephenmurdoch
    I have a User model: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_secure_password # validation lets users update accounts without entering password validates :password, presence: { on: :create }, allow_blank: { on: :update } validates :password_confirmation, presence: { if: :password_digest_changed? } end I also have a password_reset_controller: def update # this is emailed to the user by the create action - not shown @user=User.find_by_password_reset_token!(params[:id]) if @user.update_attributes(params[:user]) # user is signed in if password and confirmation pass validations sign_in @user redirect_to root_url, :notice => "Password has been reset." else flash.now[:error] = "Something went wrong, please try again." render :edit end end Can you see the problem here? A user can submit a blank a password/confirmation and rails will sign them in, because the User model allows blank on update. It's not a security concern, since an attacker would still need access to a user's email account before they could get anywhere near this action, but my problem is that a user submitting 6 blank chars would be signed in, and their password would not be changed for them, which could lead to confusion later on. So, I've come up with the following solution, and I'd like to check if there's a better way of doing it, before I push to production: def update @user=User.find_by_password_reset_token!(params[:id]) # if user submits blank password, add an error, and render edit action if params[:user][:password].blank? @user.errors.add(:password_digest, "can't be blank.") render :edit elsif @user.update_attributes(params[:user]) sign_in @user redirect_to root_url, :notice => "Password has been reset." else flash.now[:error] = "Something went wrong, please try again." render :edit end end Should I be checking for nil as well as blank? Are there any rails patterns or idiomatic ruby techniques for solving this? [Fwiw, I've got required: true on the html inputs, but want this handled server side too.]

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  • Need a design approach or suggestion for a simple structure using Servlet.

    - by akshay
    Hi I have to design such that whenever user pass a query I process it using servlet and then call the js page to draw the chart 1 user writes a query on a page 2 the page call the servelt class public class MyServlet extends Httpservlet implements DataSourceServlet {..... return data The user see a beautiful string like this.. google.visualization.Query.setResponse......... /Tiger'},{v:80.0}, {v:false}]}]}}); 3 when the user hits on different html page myhtml.js it draws the chart. I want the Myservlet class itself call the myhtml.js page and draw the chart directly. and want to eliminate the beautiful string google.visualization.Query.setResponse......... /Tiger'},{v:80.0}, {v:false}]}]}}); from coming on user's browser What should i do? I tried using functions to call another page like request dispatcher(), redirect() calling myhtml.js page directly after myservlet process the query results. But i get the result like this google.visualization.Query.setResponse......... /Tiger'},{v:80.0}, {v:false}]}]}}); and the entire myhtml.js code page below it on the browsers that to without the chart been draw. Is there anyway to element the beautiful string from coming on clients browser and only show them the chart been drawn ? :) This is the small tutorial i am following http://code.google.com/apis/visualization/documentation/dev/dsl_get_started.html

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  • Using same log4j logger in standalone java application

    - by ktaylorjohn
    I have some code which is a standalone java application comprising of 30+ classes. Most of these inherit from some other base classes. Each and every class has this method to get and use a log4j logger public static Logger getLogger() { if (logger != null) return logger; try { PropertyUtil propUtil = PropertyUtil.getInstance("app-log.properties"); if (propUtil != null && propUtil.getProperties() != null) PropertyConfigurator.configure(propUtil.getProperties ()); logger = Logger.getLogger(ExtractData.class); return logger; } catch (Exception exception) { exception.printStackTrace(); } } A) My question is whether this should be refactored to some common logger which is initialized once and used across by all classes? Is that a better practice? B) If yes, how can this be done ? How can I pass the logger around ? C) This is actually being used in the code not as Logger.debug() but getLogger().debug(). What is the impact of this in terms of performance?

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  • What's the best practice for make username check like Twitter ?

    - by Space Cracker
    I develop registration form and it have username field, and it's required to be like twitter username check ( real time check ) .. i already develop as in every textbox key up I use jquery to pass textbox.Text to page that return if is username exist or not as following code : function Check() { var userName = $('#<%= TextBox1.ClientID %>').val(); if (userName.length < 3) { $('#checkUserNameDIV').html("user name must be between 3 and 20"); return; } $('#checkUserNameDIV').html('<img src="loader.gif" />'); //setTimeout("CheckExistance('" + userName + "')", 5000); CheckExistance(userName); } function CheckExistance(userName) { $.get( "JQueryPage.aspx", { name: userName }, function(result) { var msg = ""; if (result == "1") msg = "Not Exist " + '<img src="unOK.gif" />'; else if (result == "0") msg = "Exist" ; else if (result == "error") msg = "Error , try again"; $('#checkUserNameDIV').html(msg); } ); } but i don't know if is it the best way to do that ? specially i do check every keyup .. is there any design pattern for this problem or nay good practice for doing that ?

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  • Printing the "source" class in a log statement with a log4j wrapper

    - by Dur4ndal
    My application has a homebrew logging class that I'm migrating to using log4j under the covers. However, since I'm using the homebrew class to pass the rest of the application's logging statements to log4j, the output statements are logged as coming from the wrapper class instead of the source class. Is there a way to ensure that the "correct" source is being shown besides creating new org.apache.log4j.Logger instances for every log statement? I've also tried using the Logger.log(String callerFQCN, Priority level, Object message, Throwable t) method, but it doesnt seem to be working, for example: public class Logger2 { public static org.apache.log4j.Logger log4JLogger = org.apache.log4j.Logger.getLogger(Logger2.class); public static void warning(Object source, String message) { log(source, message, Level.WARN, null) } private static void log(Object source, String message, Level level, Throwable t) { String className = source.getClass().getName(); System.out.println("Logging class should be " + className); log4JLogger.log(className, loggingLevel, message, t); } } When called by: public void testWarning() { Logger2.warning(new Integer(3), "This should warn"); } Prints: Logging class should be java.lang.Integer 2010-05-25 10:49:57,152 WARN test.Logger2 - This should warn

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  • Rails: update_attribute vs update_attributes

    - by Sam
    Object.update_attribute(:only_one_field, "Some Value") Object.update_attributes(:field1 => "value", :field2 => "value2", :field3 => "value3") Both of these will update an object without having to explicitly tell AR to update. Rails API says: for update_attribute Updates a single attribute and saves the record without going through the normal validation procedure. This is especially useful for boolean flags on existing records. The regular update_attribute method in Base is replaced with this when the validations module is mixed in, which it is by default. for update_attributes Updates all the attributes from the passed-in Hash and saves the record. If the object is invalid, the saving will fail and false will be returned. So if I don't want to have the object validated I should use update_attribute. What if I have this update on a before_save, will it stackoverflow? My question is does update_attribute also bypass the before save or just the validation. Also, what is the correct syntax to pass a hash to update_attributes... check out my example at the top.

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  • JDBC with JSP fails to insert

    - by StrykeR
    I am having some issues right now with JDBC in JSP. I am trying to insert username/pass ext into my MySQL DB. I am not getting any error or exception, however nothing is being inserted into my DB either. Below is my code, any help would be greatly appreciated. <% String uname=request.getParameter("userName"); String pword=request.getParameter("passWord"); String fname=request.getParameter("firstName"); String lname=request.getParameter("lastName"); String email=request.getParameter("emailAddress"); %> <% try{ String dbURL = "jdbc:mysql:localhost:3306/assi1"; String user = "root"; String pwd = "password"; String driver = "com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"; String query = "USE Users"+"INSERT INTO User (UserName, UserPass, FirstName, LastName, EmailAddress) " + "VALUES ('"+uname+"','"+pword+"','"+fname+"','"+lname+"','"+email+"')"; Class.forName(driver); Connection conn = DriverManager.getConnection(dbURL, user, pwd); Statement statement = conn.createStatement(); statement.executeUpdate(query); out.println("Data is successfully inserted!"); } catch(SQLException e){ for (Throwable t : e) t.printStackTrace(); } %> DB script here: CREATE DATABASE Users; use Users; CREATE TABLE User ( UserID INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, UserName VARCHAR(20), UserPass VARCHAR(20), FirstName VARCHAR(30), LastName VARCHAR(35), EmailAddress VARCHAR(50), PRIMARY KEY (UserID) );

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  • Python threading question (Working with a method that blocks forever)

    - by Nix
    I am trying to wrap a thread around some receiving logic in python. Basically we have an app, that will have a thread in the background polling for messages, the problem I ran into is that piece that actually pulls the messages waits forever for a message. Making it impossible to terminate... I ended up wrapping the pull in another thread, but I wanted to make sure there wasn't a better way to do it. Original code: class Manager: def __init__(self): receiver = MessageReceiver() receiver.start() #do other stuff... class MessageReceiver(Thread): receiver = Receiver() def __init__(self): Thread.__init__(self) def run(self): #stop is a flag that i use to stop the thread... while(not stopped ): #can never stop because pull below blocks message = receiver.pull() print "Message" + message What I refectored to: class Manager: def __init__(self): receiver = MessageReceiver() receiver.start() class MessageReceiver(Thread): receiver = Receiver() def __init__(self): Thread.__init__(self) def run(self): pullThread = PullThread(self.receiver) pullThread.start() #stop is a flag that i use to stop the thread... while(not stopped and pullThread.last_message ==None): pass message = pullThread.last_message print "Message" + message class PullThread(Thread): last_message = None def __init__(self, receiver): Thread.__init(self, target=get_message, args=(receiver)) def get_message(self, receiver): self.last_message = None self.last_message = receiver.pull() return self.last_message I know the obvious locking issues exist, but is this the appropriate way to control a receive thread that waits forever for a message? One thing I did notice was this thing eats 100% cpu while waiting for a message... **If you need to see the stopping logic please let me know and I will post.

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  • Passing null child object from parent object to a partial view

    - by Mike
    I have an object which contains models for my ASP.NET MVC web app. The Model that is being passed into the view has sub models for "gadgets" on that particular view. Each of these sub models gets passed to a partial view (gadget). The problem is when I have a null model in the view model. See example below. View Model: public class FooBarHolder() { public FooBar1 FooBar1 { get; set; } public FooBar2 FooBar2 { get; set; } } We pass FooBarHolder into the view and inside the view we make calls such as <% Html.RenderPartial("Foo", Model.FooBar1); %> <% Html.RenderPartial("Foo2", Model.FooBar2); %> Now say for instance that Model.FooBar2 was null. What I am experiencing from the strongly typed partial view is an error that says "This view expected a model of type FooBar2 but got a model of type FooBarHolder." Why is this happening instead of just passing in a null?

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  • HTML form with single text field + preventing postback in Internet Explorer

    - by SudheerKovalam
    I have noticed a rather strange behaviour in IE. I have a HTML form with a single input text field and a submit button On Submit click I need to execute a client side JavaScript function that does the necessary. Now when I want to prevent the postback in the text field (on enter key press) I have added a key press JavaScript function that looks like this: <input type=text onkeypress="return OnEnterKeyPress(event)" /> function OnEnterKeyPress(event) { var keyNum = 0; if (window.event) // IE { keyNum = event.keyCode; } else if (event.which) // Netscape/Firefox/Opera { keyNum = event.which; } else return true; if (keyNum == 13) // Enter Key pressed, then start search, else do nothing. { OnButtonClick(); return false; } else return true; } Strangly this doesn't work. But if I pass the text field to the function : <input type=text onkeypress="return OnEnterKeyPress(this,event);" /> function OnEnterKeyPress(thisForm,event) { var keyNum = 0; if (window.event) // IE { keyNum = event.keyCode; } else if (event.which) // Netscape/Firefox/Opera { keyNum = event.which; } else return true; if (keyNum == 13) // Enter Key pressed, then start search, else do nothing. { OnButtonClick(); return false; } else return true; } I am able to prevent the postback. Can anyone confirm what is exactly happening here?? the HTML form has just one text box and a submit button The resultant o/p of the JavaScript function executed on submit is displayed in a HTML text area in a separate div.

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  • Objective-C Result from a Static Method saved to class instance variable giving "EXC_BAD_ACCESS" when used.

    - by KinGBin
    I am trying to store the md5 string as a class instance variable instead of the actual password. I have a static function that will return a md5 string which I'm trying to store in an instance variable instead of the actual password. I have the following setter for my class instance variable: -(void)setPassword:(NSString *)newpass{ if(newpass != password){ password = [utils md5HexDigest:newpass]; } } This will pass back the correct md5 string and save it to the password variable in my init function: [self setPassword:pword];. If I call another instance method and try to access self.password" I will get "EXC_BAD_ACCESS". I understand that the memory is getting released, but I have no clue to make sure it stays. I have tried alloc init with autorelease with no luck. This is the md5HexDigest function getting called during the init (graciously found in another stackoverflow question): + (NSString*)md5HexDigest:(NSString*)input { const char* str = [input UTF8String]; unsigned char result[CC_MD5_DIGEST_LENGTH]; CC_MD5(str, strlen(str), result); NSMutableString *ret = [NSMutableString stringWithCapacity:CC_MD5_DIGEST_LENGTH*2]; for(int i = 0; i<CC_MD5_DIGEST_LENGTH; i++) { [ret appendFormat:@"%02x",result[i]]; } return ret; } Any help/pointers would be greatly appreciated. I would rather have the md5 string saved in memory than the actual password calling the md5 every time I needed to use the password. Thanks in advance.

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  • Get the parent class of a null object (C# Reflection)

    - by Nick
    How would I get the parent class of an object that has a value of null? For example... 'Class A' contains 'int? i' which is not set to any value when the class is created. Then in some other place in the code I want to pass in 'i' as a parameter to some function. Using 'i' as the only info, I want to be able to figure out that 'Class A' "owns" 'i'. The reason for this is because 'Class A' also contains some other object, and I want to call this other object's value from that same function mentioned in the above paragraph. Could also be: public class A { public class B { public int? i; public int? j; } B classBInstance = new B(); public string s; } { ... A someClassAInstance = new A(); ... doSomething(someClassAInstance.classBInstance.i); ... } public static bool doSomething(object theObject) { string s = /* SOMETHING on theObject to get to "s" from Class A */; int someValue = (int)theObject; }

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  • Random Loss of precision in Python ReadLine()

    - by jackyouldon
    Hi all, We have a process which takes a very large csv (1.6GB) and breaks it down into pieces (in this case 3). This runs nightly and normally doesn't give us any problems. When it ran last night, however, the first of the output files had lost precision on the numeric fields in the data. The active ingredient in the script are the lines: while lineCounter <= chunk: oOutFile.write(oInFile.readline()) lineCounter = lineCounter + 1 and the normal output might be something like StringField1; StringField2; StringField3; StringField4; 1000000; StringField5; 0.000054454 etc. On this one occasion and in this one output file the numeric fields were all output with 6 zeros at the end i.e. StringField1; StringField2; StringField3; StringField4; 1000000.000000; StringField5; 0.000000 We are using Python v2.6 (and don't want to upgrade unless we really have to) but we can't afford to lose this data. Does anyone have any idea why this might have happened? If the readline is doing some kind of implicit conversion is there a way to do a binary read, because we really just want this data to pass through untouched? It is very wierd to us that this only affected one of the output files generated by the same script, and when it was rerun the output was as expected. thanks Jack

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  • Cryptography for P2P card game

    - by zephyr
    I'm considering writing a computer adaptation of a semi-popular card game. I'd like to make it function without a central server, and I'm trying to come up with a scheme that will make cheating impossible without having to trust the client. The basic problem as I see it is that each player has a several piles of cards (draw deck, current hand and discard deck). It must be impossible for either player to alter the composition of these piles except when allowed by the game rules (ie drawing or discarding cards), nor should players be able to know what is in their or their oppponent's piles. I feel like there should be some way to use something like public-key cryptography to accomplish this, but I keep finding holes in my schemes. Can anyone suggest a protocol or point me to some resources on this topic? [Edit] Ok, so I've been thinking about this a bit more, and here's an idea I've come up with. If you can poke any holes in it please let me know. At shuffle time, a player has a stack of cards whose value is known to them. They take these values, concatenate a random salt to each, then hash them. They record the salts, and pass the hashes to their opponent. The opponent concatenates a salt of their own, hashes again, then shuffles the hashes and passes the deck back to the original player. I believe at this point, the deck has been randomized and neither player can have any knowledge of the values. However, when a card is drawn, the opponent can reveal their salt, allowing the first player to determine what the original value is, and when the card is played the player reveals their own salt, allowing the opponent to verify the card value.

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