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  • Sending variable data from one of two text boxes to javascript

    - by Enyalius
    Greetings, all! I am fairly new to JS (my background is in C++, enterprise languages like assembly and COBOL, and some light .NET), so I was wondering if I could get some advice regarding how to send variable information from one of two text boxes to some javascript and then have the JS do some basic checks and such. Here's the pseudocode for what I am trying to do: <form = webForm> <p> _____________ textboxPeople| searchIcon //a text box to search an online phonebook at my company. ------------- //It has a little "magnifying glass" icon to search //(onClick), but I would also like them to be able to //search by hitting the "enter" key on their keyboards. </p> <p> _____________ texboxIntranet| searchIcon //Same as above search textbox, but this one is used if ------------- //the user wishes to search my corporate intranet site. </form> So ends the front-facing basic form that I would like to use. Now, onClick or onEnter, I would like the form to pass the contents of the text box used as well as an identifier such as "People" or "Intranet," depending on which box is used, to some basic JS on the back end: begin JavaScript: if(identifier = 'People') fire peopleSearch(); else if(identifier = 'Intranet') fire intranetSearch(); function peopleSearch() { http://phonebook.corporate.com/query=submittedValue //This will take the person //that the user submitted in the form and //place it at the end of a URL, after which //it will open said complete URL in the //same window. } function intranetSearch() { http://intranet.corporate.com/query=submittedValue //This will function in the //same way as the people search function. } end JavaScript Any thoughts/suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thank you all in advance!

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  • Core Data combined Query

    - by Chris Summer
    Hey, i have question related to CoreData. My iphone project has 2 Entities, Organisation and Brand with a 1 to many "BrandsToOrg" relationship and inverse. So my project has a Mapview, where you can see all the Organisations and a little subview when you click on those Organisations.At the subview there is a "show Brands" Button, which should init a new TableView who only shows the brands belong to the seleceted organisation. Any ideas how i can code that? thx NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat: @"(TitleMedium == %@)",@"Rock Antenne"];???? NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:self.entityName inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [request setEntity:entity]; // If a predicate was passed, pass it to the query if(predicate != nil) { [request setPredicate:predicate]; } // If a sort key was passed, use it for sorting. NSString *sortKey=@"TitleMedium"; BOOL sortAscending=YES; if(sortKey != nil) { NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:sortKey ascending:sortAscending]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [sortDescriptors release]; [sortDescriptor release]; } NSError *error; NSMutableArray *mutableFetchResults = [[managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:&error] mutableCopy]; [request release]; [self setEntityArray:mutableFetchResults];

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  • Angular throws "Error: Invalid argument." in IE

    - by przno
    I have a directive which takes element's text and places wbr elements after every 10th character. I'm using it for example on table cells with long text (e.g. URLs), so it does not span over the table. Code of the directive: myApp.directive('myWbr', function ($interpolate) { return { restrict: 'A', link: function (scope, element, attrs) { // get the interpolated text of HTML element var expression = $interpolate(element.text()); // get new text, which has <wbr> element on every 10th position var addWbr = function (inputText) { var newText = ''; for (var i = 0; i < inputText.length; i++) { if ((i !== 0) && (i % 10 === 0)) newText += '<wbr>'; // no end tag newText += inputText[i]; } return newText; }; scope.$watch(function (scope) { // replace element's content with the new one, which contains <wbr>s element.html(addWbr(expression(scope))); }); } }; }); Works fine except in IE (I have tried IE8 and IE9), where it throws an error to the console: Error: Invalid argument. Here is jsFiddle, when clicking on the button you can see the error in console. So obvious question: why is the error there, what is the source of it, and why only in IE? (Bonus question: how can I make IE dev tools to tell me more about error, like the line from source code, because it took me some time to locate it, Error: Invalid argument. does not tell much about the origin.) P.S.: I know IE does not know the wbr at all, but that is not the issue. Edit: in my real application I have re-written the directive to not to look on element's text and modify that, but rather pass the input text via attribute, and works fine now in all browsers. But I'm still curious why the original solution was giving that error in IE, thus starting the bounty.

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  • Rails 3 MySQL 2 reports an error in what looks to be valid SQL syntax

    - by John Judd
    I am trying to use the following bit of code to help in seeding my database. I need to add data continually over development and do not want to have to completely reseed data every time I add something new to the seeds.rb file. So I added the following function to insert the data if it doesn't already exist. def AddSetting(group, name, value, desc) Admin::Setting.create({group: group, name: name, value: value, description: desc}) unless Admin::Setting.find_by_sql("SELECT * FROM admin_settings WHERE group = '#{group}' AND name = '#{name}';").exists? end AddSetting('google', 'analytics_id', '', 'The ID of your Google Analytics account.') AddSetting('general', 'page_title', '', '') AddSetting('general', 'tag_line', '', '') This function is included in the db/seeds.rb file. Is this the right way to do this? However I am getting the following error when I try to run it through rake. rake aborted! Mysql2::Error: You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'group = 'google' AND name = 'analytics_id'' at line 1: SELECT * FROM admin_settings WHERE group = 'google' AND name = 'analytics_id'; Tasks: TOP => db:seed (See full trace by running task with --trace) Process finished with exit code 1 What is confusing me is that I am generating correct SQL as far as I can tell. In fact my code generates the SQL and I pass that to the find_by_sql function for the model, Rails itself can't be changing the SQL, or is it? SELECT * FROM admin_settings WHERE group = 'google' AND name = 'analytics_id'; I've written a lot of SQL over the years and I've looked through similar questions here. Maybe I've missed something, but I cannot see it.

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  • How can I create an instance of a class that I can use is more than one place in c#

    - by user1743574
    So I've been working on a class that details students of a university. I have one button that sets the details to a new instance of a class, and another to check if the student passed, through a method in my Class. The problem is that I create an instance of a class in the first button to add the values from what the user input, but I cannot use the second button to access the instance of the class created in the first button. private void button3_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Student student1 = new Student(); label1.Text = student1.text(); if (student1.hasPassed() == true) { passfailtextbox.Text = "Pass"; } else { passfailtextbox.Text = "Fail"; } } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Student student1 = new Student(); student1.FirstName = firstnamebox.Text; student1.SecondName = secondnamebox.Text; student1.DateofBirth = DateTime.Parse(dobtextbox.Text).Date; student1.Course = coursetextbox.Text; student1.MatriculationNumber = int.Parse(matriculationtextbox.Text); student1.YearMark = double.Parse(yearmarktextbox.Text); } public Boolean hasPassed() { if (YearMark < 40) { return false; } else { return true; } } public string text() { return "Student" + " " + firstname + " " + secondname + " " + course + " " + dob.ToString() + " " + matriculationnumber.ToString() + " " + yearmark.ToString() ; }

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  • Printing the "source" class in a log statement with a log4j wrapper

    - by Dur4ndal
    My application has a homebrew logging class that I'm migrating to using log4j under the covers. However, since I'm using the homebrew class to pass the rest of the application's logging statements to log4j, the output statements are logged as coming from the wrapper class instead of the source class. Is there a way to ensure that the "correct" source is being shown besides creating new org.apache.log4j.Logger instances for every log statement? I've also tried using the Logger.log(String callerFQCN, Priority level, Object message, Throwable t) method, but it doesnt seem to be working, for example: public class Logger2 { public static org.apache.log4j.Logger log4JLogger = org.apache.log4j.Logger.getLogger(Logger2.class); public static void warning(Object source, String message) { log(source, message, Level.WARN, null) } private static void log(Object source, String message, Level level, Throwable t) { String className = source.getClass().getName(); System.out.println("Logging class should be " + className); log4JLogger.log(className, loggingLevel, message, t); } } When called by: public void testWarning() { Logger2.warning(new Integer(3), "This should warn"); } Prints: Logging class should be java.lang.Integer 2010-05-25 10:49:57,152 WARN test.Logger2 - This should warn

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  • MS 70-536 .NET Framework Foundation - info on Exam? Especially regex?

    - by Sebastian P.R. Gingter
    Hi, I know there are already some questions about this, but not that specific. I have the self-paced training kit and worked through the test exam tool that is on the CD coming with the book. I constantly fail on the test tool, mostly on the regex questions. I'm not a regex guru. In fact my regex-fu is more than weak. I know what regex'es are, how I can use them and where my 'Regular expressions - kurz und gut' book is in my drawer in case I really need them. And to be honest I feel like learning regex is a total waste of time, because if I need them I have either a colleague that is fit and can do them in just a few seconds or I need my book and get them right in a still fair amount of time. And from my experience I can tell that I need regex like once in two or three years. So just putting in a lot of time into learning just the expressions to pass the exam is.. something I like not to have to do. Can you tell me something about the real exam vs. the test exam tool on the book and about the need to know regex for passing it? Thank you for your time. Marked as Community Wiki. Hope that fits?

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  • Objective-C Result from a Static Method saved to class instance variable giving "EXC_BAD_ACCESS" when used.

    - by KinGBin
    I am trying to store the md5 string as a class instance variable instead of the actual password. I have a static function that will return a md5 string which I'm trying to store in an instance variable instead of the actual password. I have the following setter for my class instance variable: -(void)setPassword:(NSString *)newpass{ if(newpass != password){ password = [utils md5HexDigest:newpass]; } } This will pass back the correct md5 string and save it to the password variable in my init function: [self setPassword:pword];. If I call another instance method and try to access self.password" I will get "EXC_BAD_ACCESS". I understand that the memory is getting released, but I have no clue to make sure it stays. I have tried alloc init with autorelease with no luck. This is the md5HexDigest function getting called during the init (graciously found in another stackoverflow question): + (NSString*)md5HexDigest:(NSString*)input { const char* str = [input UTF8String]; unsigned char result[CC_MD5_DIGEST_LENGTH]; CC_MD5(str, strlen(str), result); NSMutableString *ret = [NSMutableString stringWithCapacity:CC_MD5_DIGEST_LENGTH*2]; for(int i = 0; i<CC_MD5_DIGEST_LENGTH; i++) { [ret appendFormat:@"%02x",result[i]]; } return ret; } Any help/pointers would be greatly appreciated. I would rather have the md5 string saved in memory than the actual password calling the md5 every time I needed to use the password. Thanks in advance.

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  • How to strongly type properties in JavaScript that map to models in C# ?

    - by Roberto Sebestyen
    I'm not even sure if I worded the question right, but I'll try and explain as clearly as possible with an example: In the following example scenario: 1) Take a class such as this: public class foo { public string firstName {get;set;} public string lastName {get;set} } 2) Serialize that into JSON, pass it over the wire to the Browser. 3) Browser de-serializes this and turns the JSON into a JavaScript object so that you can then access the properties like this: var foo = deSerialize("*******the JSON from above**************"); alert(foo.firstName); alert(foo.lastName); What if now a new developer comes along working on this project decides that firstName is no longer a suitable property name. Lets say they use ReSharper to rename this property, since ReSharper does a pretty good job at finding (almost) all the references to the property and renaming them appropriately. However ReSharper will not be able to rename the references within the JavaScript code (#3) since it has no way of knowing that these also really mean the same thing. Which means the programmer is left with the responsibility of manually finding these references and renaming those too. The risk is that if this is forgotten, no one will know about this error until someone tests that part of the code, or worse, slip through to the customer. Back to the actual question: I have been trying to think of a solution to this to some how strongly type these property names when used in javascript, so that a tool like ReSharper can successfully rename ALL usages of the property? Here is what I have been thinking for example (This would obviously not work unless i make some kind of static properties) var foo = deSerialize("*******the JSON from above**************"); alert(foo.<%=foo.firstName.GetPropertyName()%>) alert(foo.<%=foo.lastName.GetPropertyName()%>) But that is obviously not practical. Does anyone have any thoughts on this? Thanks, and kudos to all of the talented people answering questions on this site.

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  • Get the parent class of a null object (C# Reflection)

    - by Nick
    How would I get the parent class of an object that has a value of null? For example... 'Class A' contains 'int? i' which is not set to any value when the class is created. Then in some other place in the code I want to pass in 'i' as a parameter to some function. Using 'i' as the only info, I want to be able to figure out that 'Class A' "owns" 'i'. The reason for this is because 'Class A' also contains some other object, and I want to call this other object's value from that same function mentioned in the above paragraph. Could also be: public class A { public class B { public int? i; public int? j; } B classBInstance = new B(); public string s; } { ... A someClassAInstance = new A(); ... doSomething(someClassAInstance.classBInstance.i); ... } public static bool doSomething(object theObject) { string s = /* SOMETHING on theObject to get to "s" from Class A */; int someValue = (int)theObject; }

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  • Passing null child object from parent object to a partial view

    - by Mike
    I have an object which contains models for my ASP.NET MVC web app. The Model that is being passed into the view has sub models for "gadgets" on that particular view. Each of these sub models gets passed to a partial view (gadget). The problem is when I have a null model in the view model. See example below. View Model: public class FooBarHolder() { public FooBar1 FooBar1 { get; set; } public FooBar2 FooBar2 { get; set; } } We pass FooBarHolder into the view and inside the view we make calls such as <% Html.RenderPartial("Foo", Model.FooBar1); %> <% Html.RenderPartial("Foo2", Model.FooBar2); %> Now say for instance that Model.FooBar2 was null. What I am experiencing from the strongly typed partial view is an error that says "This view expected a model of type FooBar2 but got a model of type FooBarHolder." Why is this happening instead of just passing in a null?

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  • Get parameter values from method at run time

    - by Landin Martens
    I have the current method example: public void MethodName(string param1,int param2) { object[] obj = new object[] { (object) param1, (object) param2 }; //Code to that uses this array to invoke dynamic methods } Is there a dynamic way (I am guessing using reflection) that will get the current executing method parameter values and place them in a object array? I have read that you can get parameter information using MethodBase and MethodInfo but those only have information about the parameter and not the value it self which is what I need. So for example if I pass "test" and 1 as method parameters without coding for the specific parameters can I get a object array with two indexes { "test", 1 }? I would really like to not have to use a third party API, but if it has source code for that API then I will accept that as an answer as long as its not a huge API and there is no simple way to do it without this API. I am sure there must be a way, maybe using the stack, who knows. You guys are the experts and that is why I come here. Thank you in advance, I can't wait to see how this is done. EDIT It may not be clear so here some extra information. This code example is just that, an example to show what I want. It would be to bloated and big to show the actual code where it is needed but the question is how to get the array without manually creating one. I need to some how get the values and place them in a array without coding the specific parameters.

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  • mvc design in a card game

    - by Hong
    I'm trying to make a card game. some classes I have are: CardModel, CardView; DeckModel, DeckView. The deck model has a list of card model, According to MVC, if I want to send a card to a deck, I can add the card model to the deck model, and the card view will be added to the deck view by a event handler. So I have a addCard(CardModel m) in the DeckModel class, but if I want to send a event to add the card view of that model to the deck view, I only know let the model has a reference to view. So the question is: If the card model and deck model have to have a reference to their view classes to do it? If not, how to do it better? Update, the code: public class DeckModel { private ArrayList<CardModel> cards; private ArrayList<EventHandler> actionEventHandlerList; public void addCard(CardModel card){ cards.add(card); //processEvent(event x); //must I pass a event that contain card view here? } CardModel getCards(int index){ return cards.get(index); } public synchronized void addEventHandler(EventHandler l){ if(actionEventHandlerList == null) actionEventHandlerList = new ArrayList<EventHandler>(); if(!actionEventHandlerList.contains(l)) actionEventHandlerList.add(l); } public synchronized void removeEventHandler(EventHandler l){ if(actionEventHandlerList!= null && actionEventHandlerList.contains(l)) actionEventHandlerList.remove(l); } private void processEvent(Event e){ ArrayList list; synchronized(this){ if(actionEventHandlerList!= null) list = (ArrayList)actionEventHandlerList.clone(); else return; } for(int i=0; i<actionEventHandlerList.size(); ++i){ actionEventHandlerList.get(i).handle(e); } } }

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  • Rails: update_attribute vs update_attributes

    - by Sam
    Object.update_attribute(:only_one_field, "Some Value") Object.update_attributes(:field1 => "value", :field2 => "value2", :field3 => "value3") Both of these will update an object without having to explicitly tell AR to update. Rails API says: for update_attribute Updates a single attribute and saves the record without going through the normal validation procedure. This is especially useful for boolean flags on existing records. The regular update_attribute method in Base is replaced with this when the validations module is mixed in, which it is by default. for update_attributes Updates all the attributes from the passed-in Hash and saves the record. If the object is invalid, the saving will fail and false will be returned. So if I don't want to have the object validated I should use update_attribute. What if I have this update on a before_save, will it stackoverflow? My question is does update_attribute also bypass the before save or just the validation. Also, what is the correct syntax to pass a hash to update_attributes... check out my example at the top.

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  • JMS message. Model to include data or pointers to data?

    - by John
    I am trying to resolve a design difference of opinion where neither of us has experience with JMS. We want to use JMS to communicate between a j2ee application and the stand-alone application when a new event occurs. We would be using a single point-to-point queue. Both sides are Java-based. The question is whether to send the event data itself in the JMS message body or to send a pointer to the data so that the stand-alone program can retrieve it. Details below. I have a j2ee application that supports data entry of new and updated persons and related events. The person records and associated events are written to an Oracle database. There are also stand-alone, separate programs that contribute new person and event records to the database. When a new event occurs through any of 5-10 different application functions, I need to notify remote systems through an outbound interface using an industry-specific standard messaging protocol. The outbound interface has been designed as a stand-alone application to support scalability through asynchronous operation and by moving it to a separate server. The j2ee application currently has most of the data in memory at the time the event is entered. The data would consist of approximately 6 different objects; a person object and some with multiple instances for an average size in the range of 3000 to 20,000 bytes. Some special cases could be many times this amount. From a performance and reliability perspective, should I model the JMS message to pass all the data needed to create the interface message, or model the JMS message to contain record keys for the data and have the stand-alone Java application retrieve the data to create the interface message?

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  • jsf custom control strange behaviour

    - by Cristian Boariu
    hi, I have a jsf custom control which contains this: <rich:column> <c:if test="#{not empty columnTitle}"> <f:facet name="header"> <rich:spacer/> </f:facet> </c:if> <s:link view="#{view}" value="#{messages['edit']}" propagation="#{propagation}"> <f:param name="${paramName}" value="${paramValue}"/> </s:link> &#160; <h:commandLink action="#{entityHome.removeMethodName(entity)}" value="#{messages['remove']}"/> </rich:column> You see that command link action. I want it to call an action like this: action="#{documentHome.removeProperty(property)"} Well, in order to do this i call the control like: <up:columnDetails view="/admin/property.xhtml" columnTitle="yes" entity="#{property}" paramValue="#{property.propertyId}" propagation="nest" entityHome="documentHome" removeMethodName="removeProperty"/> So, i hardcode entityHome and removeMethodName. Well an error is firing. Caused by javax.servlet.ServletException with message: "#{entityHome.removeMethodName(entity)}: javax.el.MethodNotFoundException It seems that it cannot interpret "removeMethodName". If i print entityHome or removeMethodName it correctly shows the values i pass. But i think jsf has an error like not beeing able to "believe" that after an object.something, that something can be a parameter... Can anyone guide me...?

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  • Automate Field Entry in outside site

    - by JClaspill
    I am attempting to automate the entry of data into form fields. The problem is that this data (user/pass) is not known by the user. I'm not expressly hiding it from them, but they also don't need to know it. This is used to automate logins on several of our outside partner websites, who do not want our agents knowing their passwords. Sadly, most of these sites do not have any APIs I can work with... so I have to get the user logged in. I tried using an iframe and javascript, but I ran into the issue of security permissions denying it access. And sadly, our clients do not have access to add our domain to their sites(they seem to be 3rd party). Requirements: - Display webpage - Automatically enter data into fields Would be nice: - Automate signin similar to form.submit() - Flash/AJAX support. These seem to give the VB app issues. Is there a way to do this via javascript/html, and if not, do you have any recommendations for C#/php/asp.net options? PS: I am not sure what this techinque is called, so google isn't helping me it seems. Please set me straight on the terminology of what I am actually trying to accomplish.

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  • Rails dealing with blank params at controller level

    - by stephenmurdoch
    I have a User model: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_secure_password # validation lets users update accounts without entering password validates :password, presence: { on: :create }, allow_blank: { on: :update } validates :password_confirmation, presence: { if: :password_digest_changed? } end I also have a password_reset_controller: def update # this is emailed to the user by the create action - not shown @user=User.find_by_password_reset_token!(params[:id]) if @user.update_attributes(params[:user]) # user is signed in if password and confirmation pass validations sign_in @user redirect_to root_url, :notice => "Password has been reset." else flash.now[:error] = "Something went wrong, please try again." render :edit end end Can you see the problem here? A user can submit a blank a password/confirmation and rails will sign them in, because the User model allows blank on update. It's not a security concern, since an attacker would still need access to a user's email account before they could get anywhere near this action, but my problem is that a user submitting 6 blank chars would be signed in, and their password would not be changed for them, which could lead to confusion later on. So, I've come up with the following solution, and I'd like to check if there's a better way of doing it, before I push to production: def update @user=User.find_by_password_reset_token!(params[:id]) # if user submits blank password, add an error, and render edit action if params[:user][:password].blank? @user.errors.add(:password_digest, "can't be blank.") render :edit elsif @user.update_attributes(params[:user]) sign_in @user redirect_to root_url, :notice => "Password has been reset." else flash.now[:error] = "Something went wrong, please try again." render :edit end end Should I be checking for nil as well as blank? Are there any rails patterns or idiomatic ruby techniques for solving this? [Fwiw, I've got required: true on the html inputs, but want this handled server side too.]

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  • jQuery plugin design pattern for using `this` in private methods?

    - by thebossman
    I'm creating jQuery plugins using the pattern from the Plugins Authoring page: (function($) { $.fn.myPlugin = function(settings) { var config = {'foo': 'bar'}; if (settings) $.extend(config, settings); this.each(function() { // element-specific code here }); return this; }; })(jQuery); My code calls for several private methods that manipulate this. I am calling these private methods using the apply(this, arguments) pattern. Is there a way of designing my plugin such that I don't have to call apply to pass this from method to method? My modified plugin code looks roughly like this: (function($) { $.fn.myPlugin = function(settings) { var config = {'foo': 'bar'}; if (settings) $.extend(config, settings); this.each(function() { method1.apply(this); }); return this; }; function method1() { // do stuff with $(this) method2.apply(this); } function method2() { // do stuff with $(this), etc... } })(jQuery);

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  • How to start x-axis labels(dates) from 0th position without using set_range(..)

    - by Rishi2686
    Hi there, First of all, I am really a newbie for flash charts. I have problem in using it. I am developing an app which gets values from database for chart. I have a line on chart, there are dates on x-axis starting from 0th position. I have dates 03-06-2010 and 05-06-2010 right now and may increase in future. When I set range of 1 month i.e 1st jun to 30th jun , it does not show lines but show values on y-axis. When I use range, i am not able to pass array of above two dates from database to chart, and viceversa. Here is my code-snippet can you give some hint. $x = new x_axis(); $x->set_range( mktime(0, 0, 0, 6, 1, date('Y')), // <-- min == 1st Jan, this year mktime(0, 0, 0, 6, 16, date('Y')) // <-- max == 31st Jan, this year ); $x->set_steps(86400); $labels = new x_axis_labels(); $labels->text('#date: jS, M Y#'); $labels->set_steps(86400); $labels->visible_steps(1); $labels->rotate(90); //$labels->set_labels($data_4); // date_4 is array of database values $x->set_labels($labels);

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  • Listening to PHP function calls to intercept the returned value

    - by Lansen Q
    I am working on making use of a Web Services API offered by the hosts of our internal system. I am accessing it via PHP with the built-in SOAP offering. The API session is initiated by a remote call to a function that returns some session tokens; every call to any function thereafter will return a new session token, which must accompany the next request. I have an API Client class that is doing the bulk of the work; what I would like to do is to set something up whereby any SOAP call that is made will make sure to update the API Client class' $session variable with the new session details, and then pass the data along. So far the only way I can think of doing this is creating a new class extending the SoapClient class, with a __call function wrapper to execute the function, update the new session token, and return the results nonetheless. I'm not sure that this will a) work b) be the best way to go about this. The wrapper class would be identical to making a SOAP call, and it would return an identical result, just it would update the session token before you get your result back. Thanks! Hope I explained myself properly.

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  • Export to csv, string w/ comma in it, splits it up

    - by Brad
    This code exports data into a csv file, which is opened within Excel. When a string has a comma within it, it messes up the order of the data. I need help modifying my code below to resolve any data that contains a comma within it, to not to create a new column. I am assuming it will pass each string within double quotes, so any comma within those quotes, then it will make an exception. Any help is appreciated. $result = mysql_query("select lname, fname, email, dtelephone, etelephone, contactwhen, comments, thursday, friday, saturday, sunday, monday FROM volunteers_2010"); $csv_output .= "Last Name,First Name,Email,Telephone (Day),Telephone (Evening),Contact When,Comments,Thursday,Friday,Saturday,Sunday,Monday,Comments\n"; $i = 0; if (mysql_num_rows($result) > 0) { while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { $csv_output .= $row['Field'].", "; $i++; } } $csv_output .= "\n"; $values = mysql_query("SELECT lname, fname, email, dtelephone, etelephone, contactwhen, comments, thursday, friday, saturday, sunday, monday FROM volunteers_2010 WHERE venue_id = $venue_id"); while ($rowr = mysql_fetch_row($values)) { for ($j=0;$j<$i;$j++) { $csv_output .= $rowr[$j].", "; } $csv_output .= "\n"; }

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  • Change post form data function into curl

    - by QLiu
    Hello Guys, In the old way in our website, when users clicks “logout” button. It runs a post form function; which will pass parameters (logout, sn) to external sites to execute “logout” function. Like: I do not want the users jump to the external site, therefore, i use curl to post data. (because we are in different domain, i guess Ajax request doesnot work ) Post the same data to execute logout function in external site. // create cURL resource $URL = "http://bswi.development.intra.local/"; //Initl curl $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $URL); // Load in the destination URL curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPAUTH, CURLAUTH_BASIC); //Normal HTTP request, not SSL curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, "logout=1"); // receive server response ... curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_exec ($ch); echo $content; curl_close ($ch); Do u think i am going in the right direction?

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  • how to fetch data from Plist in Label

    - by SameSung Vs Iphone
    I have a RegistrationController screen to store email-id ,password,DOB,Height,Weight and logininController screen to match email-id and password to log-in purpose. Now In some third screen I have to fetch only the Height,Weight from the plist of the logged-in user to display it on the label.now if I Store the values of email-id and password in from LoginViewController in string and call it in the new screen to match if matches then gives Height,Weight ..if it corrects then how to fetch Height,Weight from the plist of the same one. how can i fetch from the stored plist in a string... the code which i used to match in LoginController -(NSArray*)readFromPlist { NSArray *documentPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [documentPaths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *documentPlistPath = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"XYZ.plist"]; NSDictionary *dict = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithContentsOfFile:documentPlistPath]; NSArray *valueArray = [dict objectForKey:@"title"]; return valueArray; } - (void)authenticateCredentials { NSMutableArray *plistArray = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray:[self readFromPlist]]; for (int i = 0; i< [plistArray count]; i++) { id object = [plistArray objectAtIndex:i]; if ([object isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) { NSDictionary *objDict = (NSDictionary *)object; if ([[objDict objectForKey:@"pass"] isEqualToString:emailTextFeild.text] && [[objDict objectForKey:@"title"] isEqualToString:passwordTextFeild.text]) { NSLog(@"Correct credentials"); return; } NSLog(@"INCorrect credentials"); } else { NSLog(@"Error! Not a dictionary"); } } }

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  • Python threading question (Working with a method that blocks forever)

    - by Nix
    I am trying to wrap a thread around some receiving logic in python. Basically we have an app, that will have a thread in the background polling for messages, the problem I ran into is that piece that actually pulls the messages waits forever for a message. Making it impossible to terminate... I ended up wrapping the pull in another thread, but I wanted to make sure there wasn't a better way to do it. Original code: class Manager: def __init__(self): receiver = MessageReceiver() receiver.start() #do other stuff... class MessageReceiver(Thread): receiver = Receiver() def __init__(self): Thread.__init__(self) def run(self): #stop is a flag that i use to stop the thread... while(not stopped ): #can never stop because pull below blocks message = receiver.pull() print "Message" + message What I refectored to: class Manager: def __init__(self): receiver = MessageReceiver() receiver.start() class MessageReceiver(Thread): receiver = Receiver() def __init__(self): Thread.__init__(self) def run(self): pullThread = PullThread(self.receiver) pullThread.start() #stop is a flag that i use to stop the thread... while(not stopped and pullThread.last_message ==None): pass message = pullThread.last_message print "Message" + message class PullThread(Thread): last_message = None def __init__(self, receiver): Thread.__init(self, target=get_message, args=(receiver)) def get_message(self, receiver): self.last_message = None self.last_message = receiver.pull() return self.last_message I know the obvious locking issues exist, but is this the appropriate way to control a receive thread that waits forever for a message? One thing I did notice was this thing eats 100% cpu while waiting for a message... **If you need to see the stopping logic please let me know and I will post.

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