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  • C++ Operator Ambiguity

    - by Scott
    Forgive me, for I am fairly new to C++, but I am having some trouble regarding operator ambiguity. I think it is compiler-specific, for the code compiled on my desktop. However, it fails to compile on my laptop. I think I know what's going wrong, but I don't see an elegant way around it. Please let me know if I am making an obvious mistake. Anyhow, here's what I'm trying to do: I have made my own vector class called Vector4 which looks something like this: class Vector4 { private: GLfloat vector[4]; ... } Then I have these operators, which are causing the problem: operator GLfloat* () { return vector; } operator const GLfloat* () const { return vector; } GLfloat& operator [] (const size_t i) { return vector[i]; } const GLfloat& operator [] (const size_t i) const { return vector[i]; } I have the conversion operator so that I can pass an instance of my Vector4 class to glVertex3fv, and I have subscripting for obvious reasons. However, calls that involve subscripting the Vector4 become ambiguous to the compiler: enum {x, y, z, w} Vector4 v(1.0, 2.0, 3.0, 4.0); glTranslatef(v[x], v[y], v[z]); Here are the candidates: candidate 1: const GLfloat& Vector4:: operator[](size_t) const candidate 2: operator[](const GLfloat*, int) <built-in> Why would it try to convert my Vector4 to a GLfloat* first when the subscript operator is already defined on Vector4? Is there a simple way around this that doesn't involve typecasting? Am I just making a silly mistake? Thanks for any help in advance.

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  • initWithContentsOfURL seems to have issues with "long" URLs

    - by samsam
    Hi there I'm facing a rather strange Issue when trying to load data from an XML-Webservice. The webservice allows me to pass separated identifiers within the URL-Request. It is therefore possible for the URL to become rather long (240 characters). If I open said URL in firefox the response arrives as planned, if I execute the following code xmlData remains empty. NSString *baseUrl = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:[[[[kSearchDateTimeRequestTV stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"{LANG}" withString:appLanguageCode] stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"{IDENTIFIERS}" withString:myIdentifiers] stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"{STARTTICKS}" withString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", [[startTime getTicks] descriptionWithLocale:nil]]] stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"{ENDTICKS}" withString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", [[endTime getTicks] descriptionWithLocale:nil]]]]; NSLog(baseUrl); //looks good, if openend in browser, returnvalue is ok urlRequest = [NSURL URLWithString:baseUrl]; NSString *xmlData = [NSString stringWithContentsOfURL:urlRequest encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding error:&err]; //err is nil, therefore i guess everything must be ok... :( NSLog(xmlData); //nothing... is there any sort of URL-Length restriction, does the same problem happened to anyone of you as well? whats a good workaround? thanks for your help sam

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  • Best way to not update empty posts

    - by user1533106
    Hello, Im using codeigniter, and the page in case just update infos about an user. If the user go to the page and edit values and that posts come as "" or empty (samething) then no update it let the query pass it, i got a logic but its a bit ugly and ill take alot of time. $nome = "'nome' =>" . $this->input->post('nome') . "'"; $sobrenome = "'sobrenome' =>" . $this->input->post('sobrenome') . "'"; if($nome != ""){ $nome = "'nome' =>" . $this->input->post('nome') . "'"; }else{ $nome = ""; } if($sobrenome != ""){ $sobrenome = "'sobrenome' =>" . $this->input->post('sobrenome') . "'"; }else{ $sobrenome = ""; } $data = array($nome, $sobrenome); The problem is, i got alot of fields :( If anyone know a smart way or a better way, please i want know

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  • Zend Framework: How to display multiple actions, each requiring different authorizations levels, on

    - by Iain
    Imagine I have 4 database tables, and an interface that presents forms for the management of the data in each of these tables on a single webpage (using the accordion design pattern to show only one form at a time). Each form is displayed with a list of rows in the table, allowing the user to insert a new row or select a row to edit or delete. AJAX is then used to send the request to the server. A different set of forms must be displayed to different users, based on the application ACL. My question is: In terms of controllers, actions, views, and layouts, what is the best architecture for this interface? For example, so far I have a controller with add, edit and delete actions for each table. There is an indexAction for each, but it's an empty function. I've also extended Zend_Form for each table. To display the forms, I then in the IndexController pass the Forms to it's view, and echo each form. Javascript then takes care of populating the form and sending requests to the appropraite add/edit/delete action of the appropriate controller. This however doesn't allow for ACL to control the display or not of Forms to different users. Would it be better to have the indexAction instantiate the form, and then use something like $this-render(); to render each view within the view of the indexAction of the IndexController? Would ACL then prevent certain views from being rendered? Cheers.

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  • Passing bundle to activity set as singletask

    - by Falmarri
    So I have a MapActivity that runs an asynchtask that occasionally updates what exactly it's displaying on the map (via a string). I originally pass this string in from the intent when the activity is first created. And then if you click on one of the drawables on the map, it opens a new activity, which can then create a new mapview (same class) with a different string setting. The problem I have is that I only want one instance of the mapview to be running at once. Thus I set android:launchmode="singletask" in the manifest. This works in that it brings the mapactivity to the front, but is there any way to send it a new intent bundle to get a new setting for the string it needs? I tried regetting the extras from the bundle, but it seems to retain the old bundle, not the new intent that was passed to it. I'm not sure I want to do startActivityForResult because the 2nd activity may or may not want to update the original activity. I hope that made sense. I can post code if necessary, but I think that should explain my situation.

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  • Need a design approach or suggestion for a simple structure using Servlet.

    - by akshay
    Hi I have to design such that whenever user pass a query I process it using servlet and then call the js page to draw the chart 1 user writes a query on a page 2 the page call the servelt class public class MyServlet extends Httpservlet implements DataSourceServlet {..... return data The user see a beautiful string like this.. google.visualization.Query.setResponse......... /Tiger'},{v:80.0}, {v:false}]}]}}); 3 when the user hits on different html page myhtml.js it draws the chart. I want the Myservlet class itself call the myhtml.js page and draw the chart directly. and want to eliminate the beautiful string google.visualization.Query.setResponse......... /Tiger'},{v:80.0}, {v:false}]}]}}); from coming on user's browser What should i do? I tried using functions to call another page like request dispatcher(), redirect() calling myhtml.js page directly after myservlet process the query results. But i get the result like this google.visualization.Query.setResponse......... /Tiger'},{v:80.0}, {v:false}]}]}}); and the entire myhtml.js code page below it on the browsers that to without the chart been draw. Is there anyway to element the beautiful string from coming on clients browser and only show them the chart been drawn ? :) This is the small tutorial i am following http://code.google.com/apis/visualization/documentation/dev/dsl_get_started.html

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  • What's the best practice for make username check like Twitter ?

    - by Space Cracker
    I develop registration form and it have username field, and it's required to be like twitter username check ( real time check ) .. i already develop as in every textbox key up I use jquery to pass textbox.Text to page that return if is username exist or not as following code : function Check() { var userName = $('#<%= TextBox1.ClientID %>').val(); if (userName.length < 3) { $('#checkUserNameDIV').html("user name must be between 3 and 20"); return; } $('#checkUserNameDIV').html('<img src="loader.gif" />'); //setTimeout("CheckExistance('" + userName + "')", 5000); CheckExistance(userName); } function CheckExistance(userName) { $.get( "JQueryPage.aspx", { name: userName }, function(result) { var msg = ""; if (result == "1") msg = "Not Exist " + '<img src="unOK.gif" />'; else if (result == "0") msg = "Exist" ; else if (result == "error") msg = "Error , try again"; $('#checkUserNameDIV').html(msg); } ); } but i don't know if is it the best way to do that ? specially i do check every keyup .. is there any design pattern for this problem or nay good practice for doing that ?

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  • If I cast an IQueryable as an IEnumerable then call a Linq extension method, which implementation gets called?

    - by James Morcom
    Considering the following code: IQueryable<T> queryable; // something to instantiate queryable var enumerable = (IEnumerable<T>) queryable; var filtered = enumerable.Where(i => i > 3); In the final line, which extension method gets called? Is it IEnumerable<T>.Where(...)? Or will IQueryable<T>.Where(...) be called because the actual implementation is still obviously a queryable? Presumably the ideal would be for the IQueryable version to be called, in the same way that normal polymorphism will always use the more specific override. In Visual Studio though when I right-click on the Where method and "Go to Definition" I'm taken to the IEnumerable version, which kind of makes sense from a visual point-of-view. My main concern is that if somewhere in my app I use Linq to NHibernate to get a Queryable, but I pass it around using an interface that uses the more general IEnumerable signature, I'll lose the wonders of deferred database execution!

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  • Merging two arrays in PHP

    - by Industrial
    Hi everyone, I am trying to create a new array from two current arrays. Tried array_merge, but it will not give me what I want. $array1 is a list of keys that I pass to a function. $array2 holds the results from that function, but doesn't contain any non-available resuls for keys. So, I want to make sure that all requested keys comes out with 'null':ed values, as according to the shown $result array. It goes a little something like this: $array1 = array('item1', 'item2', 'item3', 'item4'); $array2 = array( 'item1' => 'value1', 'item2' => 'value2', 'item3' => 'value3' ); Here's the result I want: $result = array( 'item1' => 'value1', 'item2' => 'value2', 'item3' => 'value3', 'item4' => '' ); It can be done this way, but I don't think that it's a good solution - I really don't like to take the easy way out and suppress PHP errors by adding @:s in the code. This sample would obviously throw errors since 'item4' is not in $array2, based on the example. foreach ($keys as $k => $v){ @$array[$v] = $items[$v]; } So, what's the fastest (performance-wise) way to accomplish the same result?

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  • problem in variables in jquery

    - by Alvin
    Hi, I don't understand why I'm not getting the message as "username already exits" if type the username which is already in database. If the username in a server, then it is returning the value as "1" otherwise empty, and despite of successfully getting the value from the server based on username is present or not, and assigning the value to variable "x", I'm unable to get message when I pass already exist username. May I know? $(document).ready(pageInit); function pageInit() { $('#1').bind('blur',go); } function go() { var value = $('#1').val(); var x = 0; $.post('just.do',{username:value},function(data){ x = data; } ); if(x) { $('#para').show(); $('#para').html("Username already exits"); return false; } else { $('#para').hide(); return true; } }; EDIT: This is what I'm doing in post request in servlets: String user1 = request.getParameter("username"); if(user != null) { String query = "Select * from users where user_name="+"\""+user+"\""; b = db.doExecuteQuery(stmt,query); if(b) { out.write("1"); } }

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  • Resetting Globals With Importing

    - by what
    I have this code (Reset.py) that works how I want it to unless I import it. class Res(object): defaults={} class NoKey: pass def __init__(self): for key, values in defaults.items(): globals()[key]=values def add_defaults(key, values): Res.defaults[key]=value def remove_defaults(key=NoKey, remove_all=False): if remove_all: defaults={} else: del defaults[key] Without importing: >>> a=54 >>> Res.add_default('a', 3) >>> Res() <__main__.Res object at 0x> >>> a 3 >>> #great! :D With importing: >>> a=54 >>> Res.add_default('a', 3) >>> Res() <Reset.Res object at 0x> >>> a 54 This must mean when it is imported it changes the globals() under Reset and not __main__. How can I fix this?

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  • Recursion Problem in PHP

    - by streetparade
    I need to create a valid xml from a given array(); My Method looks like this, protected function array2Xml($array) { $xml = ""; if(is_array($array)) { foreach($array as $key=>$value) { $xml .= "<$key>"; if(is_array($value)) { $xml .= $this->array2Xml($value); } $xml .= "</$key>"; } return $xml; } else { throw new Exception("in valid"); } } protected function createValidXMLfromArray($array,$node) { $xml = '<?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?>'; $xmlArray = $this->array2Xml($array); $xml .= "<$node>$xmlArray</$node>"; return $xml; } if i execute the above i just get keys with empty values; like <node> <name></name> </node> What i need is if i pass this array("name"=>"test","value"=>array("test1"=>33,"test2"=>40)); that it return this <node> <name>test</name> <value> <test1>33</test1> <test2>40</test2> </value> </node> Where is the error what did i wrong in the above recursion?

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  • Integration test for H1 text failing when it should be passing (Rspec and Capybara)

    - by rebec
    Below you can see my test for what happens when a user tries to access the page to edit a profile photo that they don't own. I've used the same test on the NEW action, where it worked fine, but it surprised me by failing when I copied it down to the EDIT action tests. I've used save_and_open_page to test what Capybara's seeing (as you can see below); the resulting page definitely has an h1 with the specified text in it. No spelling errors, and case is all the same as in the test. I've tried using both have_css and have_selector. Both fail. I'm still learning Ruby, Rails, Rspec and especially Capybara (was using webrat previously and recently switched over), and wonder if I'm misconceiving of something that's making me expect this to pass when it doesn't. Any thoughts? Thanks! describe "EDIT" do let(:user) { FactoryGirl.create(:user) } let(:different_user) { FactoryGirl.create(:user) } let(:admin_user) { FactoryGirl.create(:user, role: "admin") } let(:profile_photo1) { FactoryGirl.create(:profile_photo, user: user) } subject { page } context "when signed in as any member" do before { login different_user visit edit_user_profile_photo_path(:id => profile_photo1, :user_id => profile_photo1.user_id) save_and_open_page } # It should deny access with an Unauthorised/Forbidden message. it { should have_css('h1', text: "Unauthorised/Forbidden.") } end

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  • C++ arrays as parameters, EDIT: now includes variable scoping

    - by awshepard
    Alright, I'm guessing this is an easy question, so I'll take the knocks, but I'm not finding what I need on google or SO. I'd like to create an array in one place, and populate it inside a different function. I define a function: void someFunction(double results[]) { for (int i = 0; i<100; ++i) { for (int n = 0; n<16; ++n) //note this iteration limit { results[n] += i * n; } } } That's an approximation to what my code is doing, but regardless, shouldn't be running into any overflow or out of bounds issues or anything. I generate an array: double result[16]; for(int i = 0; i<16; i++) { result[i] = -1; } then I want to pass it to someFunction someFunction(result); When I set breakpoints and step through the code, upon entering someFunction, results is set to the same address as result, and the value there is -1.000000 as expected. However, when I start iterating through the loop, results[n] doesn't seem to resolve to *(results+n) or *(results+n*sizeof(double)), it just seems to resolve to *(results). What I end up with is that instead of populating my result array, I just get one value. What am I doing wrong? EDIT Oh fun, I have a typo: it wasn't void someFunction(double results[]). It was: void someFunction(double result[])... So perhaps this is turning into a scoping question. If my double result[16] array is defined in a main.cpp, and someFunction is defined in a Utils.h file that's included by the main.cpp, does the result variable in someFunction then wreak havoc on the result array in main?

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  • Jquery passing an HTML element into a function

    - by christian
    I have an HTML form where I am going to copy values from a series of input fields to some spans/headings as the user populates the input fields. I am able to get this working using the following code: $('#source').keyup(function(){ if($("#source").val().length == 0){ $("#destinationTitle").text('Sample Title'); }else{ $("#destinationTitle").text($("#source").val()); } }); In the above scenario the html is something like: Sample Title Basically, as the users fills out the source box, the text of the is changed to the value of the source input. If nothing is input in, or the user deletes the values typed into the box some default text is placed in the instead. Pretty straightforward. However, since I need to make this work for many different fields, it makes sense to turn this into a generic function and then bind that function to each 's onkeyup() event. But I am having some trouble with this. My implementation: function doStuff(source,target,defaultValue) { if($(source).val().length == 0){ $(target).text(defaultValue); }else{ $(target).text($(source).val()); } } which is called as follows: $('#source').keyup(function() { doStuff(this, '"#destinationTitle"', 'SampleTitle'); }); What I can't figure out is how to pass the second parameter, the name of the destination html element into the function. I have no problem passing in the element I'm binding to via "this", but can't figure out the destination element syntax. Any help would be appreciated - many thanks!

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  • Java Inheritance doubt in parameterised collection

    - by Gala101
    It's obvious that a parent class's object can hold a reference to a child, but does this not hold true in case of parameterised collection ?? eg: Car class is parent of Sedan So public void doSomething(Car c){ ... } public void caller(){ Sedan s = new Sedan(); doSomething(s); } is obviously valid But public void doSomething(Collection<Car> c){ ... } public void caller(){ Collection<Sedan> s = new ArrayList<Sedan>(); doSomething(s); } Fails to compile Can someone please point out why? and also, how to implement such a scenario where a function needs to iterate through a Collection of parent objects, modifying only the fields present in parent class, using parent class methods, but the calling methods (say 3 different methods) pass the collection of three different subtypes.. Ofcourse it compiles fine if I do as below: public void doSomething(Collection<Car> c){ ... } public void caller(){ Collection s = new ArrayList<Sedan>(); doSomething(s); }

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  • Passing C++ object to C++ code through Python?

    - by cornail
    Hi all, I have written some physics simulation code in C++ and parsing the input text files is a bottleneck of it. As one of the input parameters, the user has to specify a math function which will be evaluated many times at run-time. The C++ code has some pre-defined function classes for this (they are actually quite complex on the math side) and some limited parsing capability but I am not satisfied with this construction at all. What I need is that both the algorithm and the function evaluation remain speedy, so it is advantageous to keep them both as compiled code (and preferrably, the math functions as C++ function objects). However I thought of glueing the whole simulation together with Python: the user could specify the input parameters in a Python script, while also implementing storage, visualization of the results (matplotlib) and GUI, too, in Python. I know that most of the time, exposing C++ classes can be done, e.g. with SWIG but I still have a question concerning the parsing of the user defined math function in Python: Is it possible to somehow to construct a C++ function object in Python and pass it to the C++ algorithm? E.g. when I call f = WrappedCPPGaussianFunctionClass(sigma=0.5) WrappedCPPAlgorithm(f) in Python, it would return a pointer to a C++ object which would then be passed to a C++ routine requiring such a pointer, or something similar... (don't ask me about memory management in this case, though :S) The point is that no callback should be made to Python code in the algorithm. Later I would like to extend this example to also do some simple expression parsing on the Python side, such as sum or product of functions, and return some compound, parse-tree like C++ object but let's stay at the basics for now. Sorry for the long post and thx for the suggestions in advance.

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  • OcaIDE doesn't see JoCaml tools

    - by Surikator
    I'm having a problem while using OcaIDE in ocamlbuild mode. I'm trying to compile my own JoCaml sources. According to the JoCaml manual (bottom of page), to use ocamlbuild with JoCaml, I just need to add the -use-jocaml argument to ocamlbuild. Indeed, if I go to the root of my project and write ocamlbuild -use-jocaml foo.native it generates my executable just fine. However, in OcaIDE I get /bin/sh: jocamldep: command not found In OcaIDE, the -use-jocaml flag is passed in the "Other Flags" box (in Project Properties). And that certainly is working, as the complaint is precisely that it doesn't find jocaml stuff. The puzzling thing is that jocaml is installed and can be accessed from any random terminal window. For example, running jocamldep -modules foo.ml > foo.ml.depends on my project does generate the desired dependency file. So, it would seem I would have to configure OcaIDE and tell it where JoCaml executables are or something. This is done for OCaml, for example. But there is no place to do that for JoCaml. And it's really strange that, if jocamldep/jocamlc/etc are all accessible from anywhere, OcaIDE wouldn't be able to pick them. Any ideas? (I am aware I can do an ocamlbuild plugin and pass the flag in a "myocamlbuild.ml" file. I'll probably use that a latter stage after I get familiar with ocamlbuild plugins. But here the question is about OcaIDE. EDIT: Actually, ocamlbuild plugins don't seem to be a solution as, although there is an option -use-jocaml in ocamlbuild to enforce jocaml use (and it works fine), the plugin system doesn't support it, i.e. jocaml is not in the list of options.)

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  • Error Expected Loop VBScript

    - by Yoko21
    I have a script that opens up an excel file if the password provided is correct. If its wrong, it prompts a message. It works perfectly when I add a loop at the end. However, the problem is whenever the password is wrong the script won't stop asking for the password because of the loop. What I want is the script to quit/close if the password is wrong. I tried to remove the loop and replaced it with "wscript.quit" but it always prompts the message "expected loop". Here is the code I made. password = "pass" do ask=inputbox ("Please enter password:","DProject") select case ask case password answer=true Set xl = CreateObject("Excel.application") xl.Application.Workbooks.Open "C:\Users\test1\Desktop\test.xlsx" xl.Application.Visible = True Set xl = Nothing wscript.quit end select answer=false x=msgbox("Password incorrect... Aborting") loop until answer=true Is it possible to put a message like that counts when aborting. like "Aborting in 3.... 2... 1".

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  • JSON onFailure issue

    - by Mikey1980
    I’m having trouble getting a AJAX/JSON function to work correctly. I had this function grabbing value from a drop down box but now I want to use an anchor tag to set it's value. I thought it would be easy to just use the onClick event to pass string to the function I was using for the drop down box but I get the alert in JSON onFailure event even though data gets added to MySQL. I tried removing the alert from onFailure event but then it doesn't add the data. The drop down still continues work work fine, no alerts. (I should note that removing the alert also broke my drop down box) 1st I add an onClick event… <a href="<?php echo Settings::get('app.webroot'); ?>?view=schedule&action=questions" onmouseout="MM_swapImgRestore();" onmouseover="MM_swapImage('bre','','template/images/schedule/bre_f2.gif',1)" onclick="assignCallType('testing')";> 2nd I check main.js.php function assignCallType(type) { alert(type); new Request.JSON({ url: "ajax.php", onSuccess: function(rtndata,txt){ if (rtndata['STATUS'] != 'OK') alert('Status was not okay'); }, onFailure : function () { alert("onFailure") } }).get({ 'action': 'assignCallType', 'call_type': type }); } 3rd Ajax.php: the variable is back in PHP and values get added to MySQL but I get the Alert in the JSON onFailure event if ($_GET['action'] == "assignCallType") { if ($USER->isInsideSales()) { $call_type = $_GET['call_type']; $_SESSION['callinfo']->setCallType($call_type); $_SESSION['callinfo']->save($callid); echo json_encode(array('STATUS'=>'OK')); } else { echo json_encode(array('STATUS'=>'DENIED')); } } Any idea where I am going wrong. The only difference between this and the working drop down is how the function was called, I used onchange="assignCallType(this.value)".

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  • wget not completely processing the http call

    - by user578458
    Here is a wget command that executes a HTML / PHP stack report suite that is hosted by a third party - we don't have control over the PHP or HTML page wget --no-check-certificate --http-user=/myacc --http-password=mypass -O /tmp/myoutput.csv "https://myserver.mydomain.com/mymodule.php?myrepcode=9999&action=exportcsv&admin=myappuserid&password=myappuserpass&startdate=2011-01-16&enddate=2011-01-16&reportby=mypreferredview" All the elements are working perfectly: --http-user / --http-pass as offered by a browsers standard popup for username and password prompt -O /tmp/myoutput.csv - the output file of interest https://myserver.mydomain.com/mymodule.php?myrepcode=9999&action=exportcsv&admin=myappuserid&password=myappuserpass&startdate=2011-01-16&enddate=2011-01-16&reportby=mypreferredview" The file generated on the fly by the parameters myrepcode=9999 - a reference to the report in question action=exportcsv internally written in the function admin=myappuserid the third party operats SSL to access the site - then internal username and password stored in a database to access the functions of the site) password=myappuserpass startdate=2011-01-16 this and end data are parameters specific to the report 9999 enddate=2011-01-16 reportby=mypreferredview This is an option in the report that facilitates different levels of detail or aggregation The problem is that the reportby parameter is a radio button selection in a list of 5 selections (sure I enough the default is highest level of aggregation , I want the last one which is the most detailed) Here is a sample of the HTML page code for the options of reportby View by The Default My Least Preferred My Second Least Preferred My Third Least Preferred My Preferred No matter which of the reportby items I select in the wget statement - thedefault is always executed. Questions 1) Has anyone come across this notation in HTML (id=inputname[inputelement]) I spoke to a senior web developer and he has never seen this notation for inputs (id=inputname[inputelement]) - and w3schools do not appear familiar with this either based on an extensive search 2) Can a wget command select a none default radio item when executing the command ? This probably will be initially received with a "Use CURL" response- however the wget approach works very well in the limited environment I am operating in - particularly as I need to download 10000 of these such items. Thanks ahead of response

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  • Get parameter values from method at run time

    - by Landin Martens
    I have the current method example: public void MethodName(string param1,int param2) { object[] obj = new object[] { (object) param1, (object) param2 }; //Code to that uses this array to invoke dynamic methods } Is there a dynamic way (I am guessing using reflection) that will get the current executing method parameter values and place them in a object array? I have read that you can get parameter information using MethodBase and MethodInfo but those only have information about the parameter and not the value it self which is what I need. So for example if I pass "test" and 1 as method parameters without coding for the specific parameters can I get a object array with two indexes { "test", 1 }? I would really like to not have to use a third party API, but if it has source code for that API then I will accept that as an answer as long as its not a huge API and there is no simple way to do it without this API. I am sure there must be a way, maybe using the stack, who knows. You guys are the experts and that is why I come here. Thank you in advance, I can't wait to see how this is done. EDIT It may not be clear so here some extra information. This code example is just that, an example to show what I want. It would be to bloated and big to show the actual code where it is needed but the question is how to get the array without manually creating one. I need to some how get the values and place them in a array without coding the specific parameters.

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  • C# why unit test has this strange behaviour?

    - by 5YrsLaterDBA
    I have a class to encrypt the connectionString. public class SKM { private string connStrName = "AndeDBEntities"; internal void encryptConnStr() { if(isConnStrEncrypted()) return; ... } private bool isConnStrEncrypted() { bool status = false; // Open app.config of executable. System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenExeConfiguration(ConfigurationUserLevel.None); // Get the connection string from the app.config file. string connStr = config.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings[connStrName].ConnectionString; status = !(connStr.Contains("provider")); Log.logItem(LogType.DebugDevelopment, "isConnStrEncrypted", "SKM::isConnStrEncrypted()", "isConnStrEncrypted=" + status); return status; } } Above code works fine in my application. But not in my unit test project. In my unit test project, I test the encryptConnStr() method. it will call isConnStrEncrypted() method. Then exception (null pointer) will be thrown at this line: string connStr = config.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings[connStrName].ConnectionString; I have to use index like this to pass the unit test: string connStr = config.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings[0].ConnectionString; I remember it worked several days ago at the time I added above unit test. But now it give me an error. The unit test is not integrated with our daily auto build yet. We only have ONE connectionStr. It works with product but not in unit test. Don't know why. Anybody can explain to me?

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  • Get the parent class of a null object (C# Reflection)

    - by Nick
    How would I get the parent class of an object that has a value of null? For example... 'Class A' contains 'int? i' which is not set to any value when the class is created. Then in some other place in the code I want to pass in 'i' as a parameter to some function. Using 'i' as the only info, I want to be able to figure out that 'Class A' "owns" 'i'. The reason for this is because 'Class A' also contains some other object, and I want to call this other object's value from that same function mentioned in the above paragraph. Could also be: public class A { public class B { public int? i; public int? j; } B classBInstance = new B(); public string s; } { ... A someClassAInstance = new A(); ... doSomething(someClassAInstance.classBInstance.i); ... } public static bool doSomething(object theObject) { string s = /* SOMETHING on theObject to get to "s" from Class A */; int someValue = (int)theObject; }

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  • C++ and Dependency Injection in unit testing

    - by lhumongous
    Suppose I have a C++ class like so: class A { public: A() { } void SetNewB( const B& _b ) { m_B = _b; } private: B m_B; } In order to unit test something like this, I would have to break A's dependency on B. Since class A holds onto an actual object and not a pointer, I would have to refactor this code to take a pointer. Additionally, I would need to create a parent interface class for B so I can pass in my own fake of B when I test SetNewB. In this case, doesn't unit testing with dependency injection further complicate the existing code? If I make B a pointer, I'm now introducing heap allocation, and some piece of code is now responsible for cleaning it up (unless I use ref counted pointers). Additionally, if B is a rather trivial class with only a couple of member variables and functions, why introduce a whole new interface for it instead of just testing with an instance of B? I suppose you could make the argument that it would be easier to refactor A by using an interface. But are there some cases where two classes might need to be tightly coupled?

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