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  • Merging two arrays in PHP

    - by Industrial
    Hi everyone, I am trying to create a new array from two current arrays. Tried array_merge, but it will not give me what I want. $array1 is a list of keys that I pass to a function. $array2 holds the results from that function, but doesn't contain any non-available resuls for keys. So, I want to make sure that all requested keys comes out with 'null':ed values, as according to the shown $result array. It goes a little something like this: $array1 = array('item1', 'item2', 'item3', 'item4'); $array2 = array( 'item1' => 'value1', 'item2' => 'value2', 'item3' => 'value3' ); Here's the result I want: $result = array( 'item1' => 'value1', 'item2' => 'value2', 'item3' => 'value3', 'item4' => '' ); It can be done this way, but I don't think that it's a good solution - I really don't like to take the easy way out and suppress PHP errors by adding @:s in the code. This sample would obviously throw errors since 'item4' is not in $array2, based on the example. foreach ($keys as $k => $v){ @$array[$v] = $items[$v]; } So, what's the fastest (performance-wise) way to accomplish the same result?

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  • OcaIDE doesn't see JoCaml tools

    - by Surikator
    I'm having a problem while using OcaIDE in ocamlbuild mode. I'm trying to compile my own JoCaml sources. According to the JoCaml manual (bottom of page), to use ocamlbuild with JoCaml, I just need to add the -use-jocaml argument to ocamlbuild. Indeed, if I go to the root of my project and write ocamlbuild -use-jocaml foo.native it generates my executable just fine. However, in OcaIDE I get /bin/sh: jocamldep: command not found In OcaIDE, the -use-jocaml flag is passed in the "Other Flags" box (in Project Properties). And that certainly is working, as the complaint is precisely that it doesn't find jocaml stuff. The puzzling thing is that jocaml is installed and can be accessed from any random terminal window. For example, running jocamldep -modules foo.ml > foo.ml.depends on my project does generate the desired dependency file. So, it would seem I would have to configure OcaIDE and tell it where JoCaml executables are or something. This is done for OCaml, for example. But there is no place to do that for JoCaml. And it's really strange that, if jocamldep/jocamlc/etc are all accessible from anywhere, OcaIDE wouldn't be able to pick them. Any ideas? (I am aware I can do an ocamlbuild plugin and pass the flag in a "myocamlbuild.ml" file. I'll probably use that a latter stage after I get familiar with ocamlbuild plugins. But here the question is about OcaIDE. EDIT: Actually, ocamlbuild plugins don't seem to be a solution as, although there is an option -use-jocaml in ocamlbuild to enforce jocaml use (and it works fine), the plugin system doesn't support it, i.e. jocaml is not in the list of options.)

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  • Will WCF allow me to use object references across boundries on objects that implement INotifyPropert

    - by zimmer62
    So I've created a series of objects that interact with a piece of hardware over a serial port. There is a thread running monitoring the serial port, and if the state of the hardware changes it updates properties in my objects. I'm using observable collections, and INotifyPropertyChanged. I've built a UI in WPF and it works great, showing me real time updating when the hardware changes and allows me to send changes to the hardware as well by changing these properties using bindings. What I'm hoping is that I can run the UI on a different machine than what the hardware is hooked up to without a lot of wiring up of events. Possibly even allow multiple UI's to connect to the same service and interact with this hardware. So far I understand I'm going to need to create a WCF service. I'm trying to figure out if I'll be able to pass a reference to an object created at the service to the client leaving events intact. So that the UI will really just be bound to a remote object. Am I moving the right direction with WCF? Also I see tons of examples for WCF in C#, are there any good practical use examples in VB that might be along the lines of what I'm trying to do?

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  • Java Inheritance doubt in parameterised collection

    - by Gala101
    It's obvious that a parent class's object can hold a reference to a child, but does this not hold true in case of parameterised collection ?? eg: Car class is parent of Sedan So public void doSomething(Car c){ ... } public void caller(){ Sedan s = new Sedan(); doSomething(s); } is obviously valid But public void doSomething(Collection<Car> c){ ... } public void caller(){ Collection<Sedan> s = new ArrayList<Sedan>(); doSomething(s); } Fails to compile Can someone please point out why? and also, how to implement such a scenario where a function needs to iterate through a Collection of parent objects, modifying only the fields present in parent class, using parent class methods, but the calling methods (say 3 different methods) pass the collection of three different subtypes.. Ofcourse it compiles fine if I do as below: public void doSomething(Collection<Car> c){ ... } public void caller(){ Collection s = new ArrayList<Sedan>(); doSomething(s); }

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  • Jquery passing an HTML element into a function

    - by christian
    I have an HTML form where I am going to copy values from a series of input fields to some spans/headings as the user populates the input fields. I am able to get this working using the following code: $('#source').keyup(function(){ if($("#source").val().length == 0){ $("#destinationTitle").text('Sample Title'); }else{ $("#destinationTitle").text($("#source").val()); } }); In the above scenario the html is something like: Sample Title Basically, as the users fills out the source box, the text of the is changed to the value of the source input. If nothing is input in, or the user deletes the values typed into the box some default text is placed in the instead. Pretty straightforward. However, since I need to make this work for many different fields, it makes sense to turn this into a generic function and then bind that function to each 's onkeyup() event. But I am having some trouble with this. My implementation: function doStuff(source,target,defaultValue) { if($(source).val().length == 0){ $(target).text(defaultValue); }else{ $(target).text($(source).val()); } } which is called as follows: $('#source').keyup(function() { doStuff(this, '"#destinationTitle"', 'SampleTitle'); }); What I can't figure out is how to pass the second parameter, the name of the destination html element into the function. I have no problem passing in the element I'm binding to via "this", but can't figure out the destination element syntax. Any help would be appreciated - many thanks!

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  • C++ arrays as parameters, EDIT: now includes variable scoping

    - by awshepard
    Alright, I'm guessing this is an easy question, so I'll take the knocks, but I'm not finding what I need on google or SO. I'd like to create an array in one place, and populate it inside a different function. I define a function: void someFunction(double results[]) { for (int i = 0; i<100; ++i) { for (int n = 0; n<16; ++n) //note this iteration limit { results[n] += i * n; } } } That's an approximation to what my code is doing, but regardless, shouldn't be running into any overflow or out of bounds issues or anything. I generate an array: double result[16]; for(int i = 0; i<16; i++) { result[i] = -1; } then I want to pass it to someFunction someFunction(result); When I set breakpoints and step through the code, upon entering someFunction, results is set to the same address as result, and the value there is -1.000000 as expected. However, when I start iterating through the loop, results[n] doesn't seem to resolve to *(results+n) or *(results+n*sizeof(double)), it just seems to resolve to *(results). What I end up with is that instead of populating my result array, I just get one value. What am I doing wrong? EDIT Oh fun, I have a typo: it wasn't void someFunction(double results[]). It was: void someFunction(double result[])... So perhaps this is turning into a scoping question. If my double result[16] array is defined in a main.cpp, and someFunction is defined in a Utils.h file that's included by the main.cpp, does the result variable in someFunction then wreak havoc on the result array in main?

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  • JSON onFailure issue

    - by Mikey1980
    I’m having trouble getting a AJAX/JSON function to work correctly. I had this function grabbing value from a drop down box but now I want to use an anchor tag to set it's value. I thought it would be easy to just use the onClick event to pass string to the function I was using for the drop down box but I get the alert in JSON onFailure event even though data gets added to MySQL. I tried removing the alert from onFailure event but then it doesn't add the data. The drop down still continues work work fine, no alerts. (I should note that removing the alert also broke my drop down box) 1st I add an onClick event… <a href="<?php echo Settings::get('app.webroot'); ?>?view=schedule&action=questions" onmouseout="MM_swapImgRestore();" onmouseover="MM_swapImage('bre','','template/images/schedule/bre_f2.gif',1)" onclick="assignCallType('testing')";> 2nd I check main.js.php function assignCallType(type) { alert(type); new Request.JSON({ url: "ajax.php", onSuccess: function(rtndata,txt){ if (rtndata['STATUS'] != 'OK') alert('Status was not okay'); }, onFailure : function () { alert("onFailure") } }).get({ 'action': 'assignCallType', 'call_type': type }); } 3rd Ajax.php: the variable is back in PHP and values get added to MySQL but I get the Alert in the JSON onFailure event if ($_GET['action'] == "assignCallType") { if ($USER->isInsideSales()) { $call_type = $_GET['call_type']; $_SESSION['callinfo']->setCallType($call_type); $_SESSION['callinfo']->save($callid); echo json_encode(array('STATUS'=>'OK')); } else { echo json_encode(array('STATUS'=>'DENIED')); } } Any idea where I am going wrong. The only difference between this and the working drop down is how the function was called, I used onchange="assignCallType(this.value)".

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  • Need a design approach or suggestion for a simple structure using Servlet.

    - by akshay
    Hi I have to design such that whenever user pass a query I process it using servlet and then call the js page to draw the chart 1 user writes a query on a page 2 the page call the servelt class public class MyServlet extends Httpservlet implements DataSourceServlet {..... return data The user see a beautiful string like this.. google.visualization.Query.setResponse......... /Tiger'},{v:80.0}, {v:false}]}]}}); 3 when the user hits on different html page myhtml.js it draws the chart. I want the Myservlet class itself call the myhtml.js page and draw the chart directly. and want to eliminate the beautiful string google.visualization.Query.setResponse......... /Tiger'},{v:80.0}, {v:false}]}]}}); from coming on user's browser What should i do? I tried using functions to call another page like request dispatcher(), redirect() calling myhtml.js page directly after myservlet process the query results. But i get the result like this google.visualization.Query.setResponse......... /Tiger'},{v:80.0}, {v:false}]}]}}); and the entire myhtml.js code page below it on the browsers that to without the chart been draw. Is there anyway to element the beautiful string from coming on clients browser and only show them the chart been drawn ? :) This is the small tutorial i am following http://code.google.com/apis/visualization/documentation/dev/dsl_get_started.html

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  • If I cast an IQueryable as an IEnumerable then call a Linq extension method, which implementation gets called?

    - by James Morcom
    Considering the following code: IQueryable<T> queryable; // something to instantiate queryable var enumerable = (IEnumerable<T>) queryable; var filtered = enumerable.Where(i => i > 3); In the final line, which extension method gets called? Is it IEnumerable<T>.Where(...)? Or will IQueryable<T>.Where(...) be called because the actual implementation is still obviously a queryable? Presumably the ideal would be for the IQueryable version to be called, in the same way that normal polymorphism will always use the more specific override. In Visual Studio though when I right-click on the Where method and "Go to Definition" I'm taken to the IEnumerable version, which kind of makes sense from a visual point-of-view. My main concern is that if somewhere in my app I use Linq to NHibernate to get a Queryable, but I pass it around using an interface that uses the more general IEnumerable signature, I'll lose the wonders of deferred database execution!

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  • problem in variables in jquery

    - by Alvin
    Hi, I don't understand why I'm not getting the message as "username already exits" if type the username which is already in database. If the username in a server, then it is returning the value as "1" otherwise empty, and despite of successfully getting the value from the server based on username is present or not, and assigning the value to variable "x", I'm unable to get message when I pass already exist username. May I know? $(document).ready(pageInit); function pageInit() { $('#1').bind('blur',go); } function go() { var value = $('#1').val(); var x = 0; $.post('just.do',{username:value},function(data){ x = data; } ); if(x) { $('#para').show(); $('#para').html("Username already exits"); return false; } else { $('#para').hide(); return true; } }; EDIT: This is what I'm doing in post request in servlets: String user1 = request.getParameter("username"); if(user != null) { String query = "Select * from users where user_name="+"\""+user+"\""; b = db.doExecuteQuery(stmt,query); if(b) { out.write("1"); } }

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  • wget not completely processing the http call

    - by user578458
    Here is a wget command that executes a HTML / PHP stack report suite that is hosted by a third party - we don't have control over the PHP or HTML page wget --no-check-certificate --http-user=/myacc --http-password=mypass -O /tmp/myoutput.csv "https://myserver.mydomain.com/mymodule.php?myrepcode=9999&action=exportcsv&admin=myappuserid&password=myappuserpass&startdate=2011-01-16&enddate=2011-01-16&reportby=mypreferredview" All the elements are working perfectly: --http-user / --http-pass as offered by a browsers standard popup for username and password prompt -O /tmp/myoutput.csv - the output file of interest https://myserver.mydomain.com/mymodule.php?myrepcode=9999&action=exportcsv&admin=myappuserid&password=myappuserpass&startdate=2011-01-16&enddate=2011-01-16&reportby=mypreferredview" The file generated on the fly by the parameters myrepcode=9999 - a reference to the report in question action=exportcsv internally written in the function admin=myappuserid the third party operats SSL to access the site - then internal username and password stored in a database to access the functions of the site) password=myappuserpass startdate=2011-01-16 this and end data are parameters specific to the report 9999 enddate=2011-01-16 reportby=mypreferredview This is an option in the report that facilitates different levels of detail or aggregation The problem is that the reportby parameter is a radio button selection in a list of 5 selections (sure I enough the default is highest level of aggregation , I want the last one which is the most detailed) Here is a sample of the HTML page code for the options of reportby View by The Default My Least Preferred My Second Least Preferred My Third Least Preferred My Preferred No matter which of the reportby items I select in the wget statement - thedefault is always executed. Questions 1) Has anyone come across this notation in HTML (id=inputname[inputelement]) I spoke to a senior web developer and he has never seen this notation for inputs (id=inputname[inputelement]) - and w3schools do not appear familiar with this either based on an extensive search 2) Can a wget command select a none default radio item when executing the command ? This probably will be initially received with a "Use CURL" response- however the wget approach works very well in the limited environment I am operating in - particularly as I need to download 10000 of these such items. Thanks ahead of response

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  • Error Expected Loop VBScript

    - by Yoko21
    I have a script that opens up an excel file if the password provided is correct. If its wrong, it prompts a message. It works perfectly when I add a loop at the end. However, the problem is whenever the password is wrong the script won't stop asking for the password because of the loop. What I want is the script to quit/close if the password is wrong. I tried to remove the loop and replaced it with "wscript.quit" but it always prompts the message "expected loop". Here is the code I made. password = "pass" do ask=inputbox ("Please enter password:","DProject") select case ask case password answer=true Set xl = CreateObject("Excel.application") xl.Application.Workbooks.Open "C:\Users\test1\Desktop\test.xlsx" xl.Application.Visible = True Set xl = Nothing wscript.quit end select answer=false x=msgbox("Password incorrect... Aborting") loop until answer=true Is it possible to put a message like that counts when aborting. like "Aborting in 3.... 2... 1".

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  • Get parameter values from method at run time

    - by Landin Martens
    I have the current method example: public void MethodName(string param1,int param2) { object[] obj = new object[] { (object) param1, (object) param2 }; //Code to that uses this array to invoke dynamic methods } Is there a dynamic way (I am guessing using reflection) that will get the current executing method parameter values and place them in a object array? I have read that you can get parameter information using MethodBase and MethodInfo but those only have information about the parameter and not the value it self which is what I need. So for example if I pass "test" and 1 as method parameters without coding for the specific parameters can I get a object array with two indexes { "test", 1 }? I would really like to not have to use a third party API, but if it has source code for that API then I will accept that as an answer as long as its not a huge API and there is no simple way to do it without this API. I am sure there must be a way, maybe using the stack, who knows. You guys are the experts and that is why I come here. Thank you in advance, I can't wait to see how this is done. EDIT It may not be clear so here some extra information. This code example is just that, an example to show what I want. It would be to bloated and big to show the actual code where it is needed but the question is how to get the array without manually creating one. I need to some how get the values and place them in a array without coding the specific parameters.

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  • C# why unit test has this strange behaviour?

    - by 5YrsLaterDBA
    I have a class to encrypt the connectionString. public class SKM { private string connStrName = "AndeDBEntities"; internal void encryptConnStr() { if(isConnStrEncrypted()) return; ... } private bool isConnStrEncrypted() { bool status = false; // Open app.config of executable. System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenExeConfiguration(ConfigurationUserLevel.None); // Get the connection string from the app.config file. string connStr = config.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings[connStrName].ConnectionString; status = !(connStr.Contains("provider")); Log.logItem(LogType.DebugDevelopment, "isConnStrEncrypted", "SKM::isConnStrEncrypted()", "isConnStrEncrypted=" + status); return status; } } Above code works fine in my application. But not in my unit test project. In my unit test project, I test the encryptConnStr() method. it will call isConnStrEncrypted() method. Then exception (null pointer) will be thrown at this line: string connStr = config.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings[connStrName].ConnectionString; I have to use index like this to pass the unit test: string connStr = config.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings[0].ConnectionString; I remember it worked several days ago at the time I added above unit test. But now it give me an error. The unit test is not integrated with our daily auto build yet. We only have ONE connectionStr. It works with product but not in unit test. Don't know why. Anybody can explain to me?

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  • Passing C++ object to C++ code through Python?

    - by cornail
    Hi all, I have written some physics simulation code in C++ and parsing the input text files is a bottleneck of it. As one of the input parameters, the user has to specify a math function which will be evaluated many times at run-time. The C++ code has some pre-defined function classes for this (they are actually quite complex on the math side) and some limited parsing capability but I am not satisfied with this construction at all. What I need is that both the algorithm and the function evaluation remain speedy, so it is advantageous to keep them both as compiled code (and preferrably, the math functions as C++ function objects). However I thought of glueing the whole simulation together with Python: the user could specify the input parameters in a Python script, while also implementing storage, visualization of the results (matplotlib) and GUI, too, in Python. I know that most of the time, exposing C++ classes can be done, e.g. with SWIG but I still have a question concerning the parsing of the user defined math function in Python: Is it possible to somehow to construct a C++ function object in Python and pass it to the C++ algorithm? E.g. when I call f = WrappedCPPGaussianFunctionClass(sigma=0.5) WrappedCPPAlgorithm(f) in Python, it would return a pointer to a C++ object which would then be passed to a C++ routine requiring such a pointer, or something similar... (don't ask me about memory management in this case, though :S) The point is that no callback should be made to Python code in the algorithm. Later I would like to extend this example to also do some simple expression parsing on the Python side, such as sum or product of functions, and return some compound, parse-tree like C++ object but let's stay at the basics for now. Sorry for the long post and thx for the suggestions in advance.

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  • Passing bundle to activity set as singletask

    - by Falmarri
    So I have a MapActivity that runs an asynchtask that occasionally updates what exactly it's displaying on the map (via a string). I originally pass this string in from the intent when the activity is first created. And then if you click on one of the drawables on the map, it opens a new activity, which can then create a new mapview (same class) with a different string setting. The problem I have is that I only want one instance of the mapview to be running at once. Thus I set android:launchmode="singletask" in the manifest. This works in that it brings the mapactivity to the front, but is there any way to send it a new intent bundle to get a new setting for the string it needs? I tried regetting the extras from the bundle, but it seems to retain the old bundle, not the new intent that was passed to it. I'm not sure I want to do startActivityForResult because the 2nd activity may or may not want to update the original activity. I hope that made sense. I can post code if necessary, but I think that should explain my situation.

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  • IList<T> vs IEnumerable<T>. What is more efficient IList<T> or IEnumerable<T>

    - by bigb
    What is more efficient way to make methods return IList<T> or IEnumerable<T>? IEnumerable<T> it is immutable collection but IList<T> mutable and contain a lot of useful methods and properties. To cast IList<T> to IEnumerable<T> it is just reference copy: IList<T> l = new List<T>(); IEnumerable<T> e = l; To cast IEnumerable<T> to List<T> we need to iterate each element or to call ToList() method: IEnumerable<T>.ToList(); or may pass IEnumerable<T> to List<T> constructor which doing the same iteration somewhere within its constructor. List<T> l = new List<T>(e); Which cases you think is more efficient? Which you prefer more in your practice?

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  • C++ and Dependency Injection in unit testing

    - by lhumongous
    Suppose I have a C++ class like so: class A { public: A() { } void SetNewB( const B& _b ) { m_B = _b; } private: B m_B; } In order to unit test something like this, I would have to break A's dependency on B. Since class A holds onto an actual object and not a pointer, I would have to refactor this code to take a pointer. Additionally, I would need to create a parent interface class for B so I can pass in my own fake of B when I test SetNewB. In this case, doesn't unit testing with dependency injection further complicate the existing code? If I make B a pointer, I'm now introducing heap allocation, and some piece of code is now responsible for cleaning it up (unless I use ref counted pointers). Additionally, if B is a rather trivial class with only a couple of member variables and functions, why introduce a whole new interface for it instead of just testing with an instance of B? I suppose you could make the argument that it would be easier to refactor A by using an interface. But are there some cases where two classes might need to be tightly coupled?

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  • PHP - complete url parser help

    - by Mark
    I have been trying to find an effective url parser, php's own does not include subdomain or extension. On php.net a number of users had contributed and made this: function parseUrl($url) { $r = "^(?:(?P<scheme>\w+)://)?"; $r .= "(?:(?P<login>\w+):(?P<pass>\w+)@)?"; $r .= "(?P<host>(?:(?P<subdomain>[-\w\.]+)\.)?" . "(?P<domain>[-\w]+\.(?P<extension>\w+)))"; $r .= "(?::(?P<port>\d+))?"; $r .= "(?P<path>[\w/]*/(?P<file>\w+(?:\.\w+)?)?)?"; $r .= "(?:\?(?P<arg>[\w=&]+))?"; $r .= "(?:#(?P<anchor>\w+))?"; $r = "!$r!"; // Delimiters preg_match ( $r, $url, $out ); return $out; } Unfortunately it fails on paths with a '-' and I can't for the life of me workout how to amend it to accept '-' in the path name. Thanks

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  • How do I refer to a client_deploy.wsdd file that's in WEB-INF?

    - by Paul
    A basic question, but I can't seem to find the answer. I have an Axis-generated web service that also calls another web service (for which the stubs are also generated with Axis). It's deployed in weblogic 9.2 That called web service requires authentication. I've googled for the code to set up authentication. It requires that I set up a client_deploy.wsdd file which I've done, and added it to WEB-INF. I need to specify this flle to Axis. There seem to be several ways of doing this, including System.setProperty("axis.ClientConfigFile", "client_deploy.wsdd") or EngineConfiguration config = new FileProvider("client_deploy.wsdd"); but these aren't working for me. Is the issue the path for the client_deploy.wsdd file? How do I refer to a file that's at the top level of the WEB-INF directory? Googling tells me how to access it as a stream, but I don't want that, I need to pass a file name to these functions... Please point out the obvious that I have missed

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  • Custom PHP Framework Feedback

    - by Jascha
    I've been learning OOP programming for about a year and a half now and have developed a fairly standard framework to which I generally abide by. I'd love some feedback or input on how I might improve some functionality or if there are some things I'm overlooking. VIEW MODE 1) Essentially everything starts at the Index.php page. The first thing I do is require my "packages.php" file that is basically a config file that imports all of the classes and function lists I'll be using. 2) I have no direct communication between my index.php file and my classes, what I've done is "pretty them up" with my viewfunctions.php file which is essentially just a conduit to the classes so that in my html I can write <?php get_title('page'); ?> instead of <?php echo $pageClass->get_title('page'); ?> Plus, I can run a couple small booleans and what not in the view function script that can better tailor the output of the class. 3) Any information brought in via the database is started from it's corresponding class that has direct communication with the database class, the only class that is allowed direct to communicate with the database (allowed in the sense that I run all of my queries with custom class code). INPUT MODE 1) Any user input is sent to my userFunctions.php. 2) My security class is then instantiated where I send whatever user input that has been posted for verification and validation. 3) If the input passes my security check, I then pass it to my DB class for input into my Database. FEEDBACK I'm wondering if there are any glaringly obvious pitfalls to the general structure, or ways I can improve this. Thank you in advance for your input. I know there is real no "right" answer for this, but I imagine a couple up votes would be in order for some strong advice regarding building frameworks. -J

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  • Resetting Globals With Importing

    - by what
    I have this code (Reset.py) that works how I want it to unless I import it. class Res(object): defaults={} class NoKey: pass def __init__(self): for key, values in defaults.items(): globals()[key]=values def add_defaults(key, values): Res.defaults[key]=value def remove_defaults(key=NoKey, remove_all=False): if remove_all: defaults={} else: del defaults[key] Without importing: >>> a=54 >>> Res.add_default('a', 3) >>> Res() <__main__.Res object at 0x> >>> a 3 >>> #great! :D With importing: >>> a=54 >>> Res.add_default('a', 3) >>> Res() <Reset.Res object at 0x> >>> a 54 This must mean when it is imported it changes the globals() under Reset and not __main__. How can I fix this?

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  • Extra NotifyIcon shown in system tray

    - by Kettch19
    I'm having an issue with an app where my NotifyIcon displays an extra icon. The steps to reproduce it are easy, but the problem is that the extra icon shows up after any of the actual codebehind we've added fires. Put simply, clicking a button triggers execution of method FooBar() which runs all the way through fine but its primary duty is to fire a backgroundworker to log into another of our apps. It only appears if this particular button is clicked. Strangely enough, we have a WndProc method override and if I step through until the extra NotifyIcon appears, it always appears during this method so something else beyond the codebehind must be triggering the behavior. Our WndProc method is currently (although I don't think it's caused by the WndProc): Protected Overrides Sub WndProc(ByRef m As System.Windows.Forms.Message) 'Check for WM_COPYDATA message from other app or drag/drop action and handle message If m.Msg = NativeMethods.WM_COPYDATA Then ' get the standard message structure from lparam Dim CD As NativeMethods.COPYDATASTRUCT = m.GetLParam(GetType(NativeMethods.COPYDATASTRUCT)) 'setup byte array Dim B(CD.cbData) As Byte 'copy data from memory into array Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.Copy(New IntPtr(CD.lpData), B, 0, CD.cbData) 'Get message as string and process ProcessWMCopyData(System.Text.Encoding.Default.GetString(B)) 'empty array Erase B 'set message result to 'true', meaning message handled m.Result = New IntPtr(1) End If 'pass on result and all messages not handled by this app MyBase.WndProc(m) End Sub The only place in the code where the NotifyIcon in question is manipulated at all is in the following event handler (again, don't think this is the culprit, but just for more info): Private Sub TrayIcon_MouseDoubleClick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.MouseEventArgs) Handles TrayIcon.MouseDoubleClick If Me.Visible Then Me.Hide() Else PositionBottomRight() Me.Show() End If End Sub The backgroundworker's DoWork is as follows (just a class call to log in to our other app, but again just for info): Private Sub LoginBackgroundWorker_DoWork(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.ComponentModel.DoWorkEventArgs) Handles LoginBackgroundWorker.DoWork Settings.IsLoggedIn = _wdService.LogOn(Settings.UserName, Settings.Password) End Sub Does anyone else have ideas on what might be causing this or how to possibly further debug this? I've been banging my head on this without seeing a pattern so another set of eyes would be extremely appreciated. :) I've posted this on MSDN winforms forums as well and have had no luck there so far either.

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  • Design issue when having classes implement different interfaces to restrict client actions

    - by devoured elysium
    Let's say I'm defining a game class that implements two different views: interface IPlayerView { void play(); } interface IDealerView { void deal(); } The view that a game sees when playing the game, and a view that the dealer sees when dealing the game (this is, a player can't make dealer actions and a dealer can't make player actions). The game definition is as following: class Game : IPlayerView, IDealerView { void play() { ... } void deal() { ... } } Now assume I want to make it possible for the players to play the game, but not to deal it. My original idea was that instead of having public Game GetGame() { ... } I'd have something like public IPlayerView GetGame() { ... } But after some tests I realized that if I later try this code, it works: IDealerView dealerView = (IDealerView)GameClass.GetGame(); this works as lets the user act as the dealer. Am I worrying to much? How do you usually deal with this patterns? I could instead make two different classes, maybe a "main" class, the dealer class, that would act as factory of player classes. That way I could control exactly what I would like to pass on the the public. On the other hand, that turns everything a bit more complex than with this original design. Thanks

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  • Trouble accessing Mutable array

    - by Jared Gross
    Im having trouble with my for loop where I am trying to index user names. I am able to separate my original array into individual objects but am not able to send the value to a new array that I need to reference later on. The value and count for userNames in my self.userNamesArray = userNames; line is correct. But right after that when I log self.userNamesArray, I get (null). Any tips cause I'm not completely sure I'm cheers! .h @property (nonatomic, copy) NSMutableArray *userNamesArray; .m - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { self.friendsRelation = [[PFUser currentUser] objectForKey:@"friendsRelation"]; PFQuery *query = [self.friendsRelation query]; [query orderByAscending:@"username"]; [query findObjectsInBackgroundWithBlock:^(NSArray *objects, NSError *error) { if (error) { NSLog(@"Error: %@ %@", error, [error userInfo]); } else { self.friends = objects; NSArray *users = [self.friends valueForKey:@"username"]; NSLog(@"username:%@", users); //Create an array of name wrappers and pass to the root view controller. NSMutableArray *userNames = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:[self.friends count]]; for (NSString *user in users) { componentsSeparatedByCharactersInSet:charSet]; NSArray *nameComponents = [user componentsSeparatedByString:@" "]; UserNameWrapper *userNameWrapper = [[UserNameWrapper alloc] initWithUserName:nil nameComponents:nameComponents]; [userNames addObject:userNameWrapper]; } self.userNamesArray = userNames; NSLog(@"userNamesArray:%@",self.userNamesArray); [self.tableView reloadData]; } Here's the code where I need to reference the self.userNamesArray where again, it is comping up nil. - (void)setUserNamesArray:(NSMutableArray *)newDataArray { if (newDataArray != self.userNamesArray) { self.userNamesArray = [newDataArray mutableCopy]; if (self.userNamesArray == nil) { self.sectionsArray = nil; NSLog(@"user names empty"); } else { [self configureSections]; } } }

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