Search Results

Search found 13889 results on 556 pages for 'results'.

Page 514/556 | < Previous Page | 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520 521  | Next Page >

  • apply style to range of text with javascript in uiwebview

    - by drawnonward
    I am displaying some simple styled text as html in a UIWebView on iPhone. It is basically a series of paragraphs with the occasional strong or emphasized phrase. At runtime I need to apply styles to ranges of text. There are a few similar scenarios, one of which is highlighting search results. If the user has searched for "something" I would like to change the background color behind occurrences of the word, then later restore the original background. Is it possible to apply styles to ranges of text using javascript? A key part of this is also being able to unset the styles. There seem to be two likely paths to follow. One would be modifying some html in Objective-C and passing it through javascript as the new innerHTML of some container. The other would be to use javascript to directly manipulate DOM nodes. I could manipulate html, but that sounds tedious in Objective-C so I would rather manipulate the DOM if that is a reasonable approach. I am not that familiar with javascript and DOM so I do not know if it is a reasonable approach. I wrote some routines to translate between text ranges and node ranges with offsets. So if I start with text range 100-200 and that starts in one paragraph and ends in a third, I can get the text nodes and the offsets within the nodes that represent the given text range. I just need a way to split a text node at an offset in the text. Currently I just apply styles to the paragraphs containing the text range. A few notes: straight javascript please, no external frameworks like jquery. the changes never need to be written to disk. the changes should be undoable or at least removable. the styles to apply already exist in a css file. it needs to work in iPhone 3.0 and forward. all the source files are shipped with the app. please be verbose. Thanks for any suggestions.

    Read the article

  • can this code be broken?

    - by user105165
    Consider the below html string <p>This is a paragraph tag</p> <font>This is a font tag</font> <div>This is a div tag</div> <span>This is a span tag</span> This string is processed to tokanize the text found in it and we get 2 results as below 1) Token Array : $tokenArray == array( 'This is a paragraph tag', 'This is a div tag', '<font>This is a font tag</font>', '<span>This is a span tag</span>' ); 2) Tokenized template : $templateString == "<p>{0}</p>{2}<div>{1}</div>{3}"; If you observe, the sequence of the text strings segments from the original HTML strings is different from the tokenized template The PHP code below is used to order the tokenized template and accordingly the token array to match the original html string class CreateTemplates { public static $tokenArray = array(); public static $tokenArrayNew = array(); function foo($templateString,$tokenArray) { CreateTemplates::$tokenArray = $tokenArray; $ptn = "/{[0-9]*}*/"; // Search Pattern from the template string $templateString = preg_replace_callback($ptn,array(&$this, 'callbackhandler') ,$templateString); // function call return $templateString; } // Function defination private static function callbackhandler($matches) { static $newArr = array(); static $cnt; $tokenArray = CreateTemplates::$tokenArray; array_push($newArr, $matches[0]); CreateTemplates::$tokenArrayNew[count($newArr)] = $tokenArray[substr($matches[0],1,(strlen($matches[0])-2))]; $cnt = count($newArr)-1; return '{'.$cnt.'}'; } // function ends } // class ends Final output is (ordered template and token array) $tokenArray == array('This is a paragraph tag', '<font>This is a font tag</font>', 'This is a div tag', '<span>This is a span tag</span>' ); $templateString == "<p>{0}</p>{1}<div>{2}</div>{3}"; Which is the expected result. Now, I am not confident whether this is the right way to achieve this. I want to see how this code can be broken or not. Under what conditions will this code break? (important) Is there any other way to achieve this? (less important)

    Read the article

  • GCC problem with raw double type comparisons

    - by Monomer
    I have the following bit of code, however when compiling it with GCC 4.4 with various optimization flags I get some unexpected results when its run. #include <iostream> int main() { const unsigned int cnt = 10; double lst[cnt] = { 0.0 }; const double v[4] = { 131.313, 737.373, 979.797, 731.137 }; for(unsigned int i = 0; i < cnt; ++i) { lst[i] = v[i % 4] * i; } for(unsigned int i = 0; i < cnt; ++i) { double d = v[i % 4] * i; if(lst[i] != d) { std::cout << "error @ : " << i << std::endl; return 1; } } return 0; } when compiled with: "g++ -pedantic -Wall -Werror -O1 -o test test.cpp" I get the following output: "error @ : 3" when compiled with: "g++ -pedantic -Wall -Werror -O2 -o test test.cpp" I get the following output: "error @ : 3" when compiled with: "g++ -pedantic -Wall -Werror -O3 -o test test.cpp" I get no errors when compiled with: "g++ -pedantic -Wall -Werror -o test test.cpp" I get no errors I do not believe this to be an issue related to rounding, or epsilon difference in the comparison. I've tried this with Intel v10 and MSVC 9.0 and they all seem to work as expected. I believe this should be nothing more than a bitwise compare. If I replace the if-statement with the following: if (static_cast<long long int>(lst[i]) != static_cast<long long int>(d)), and add "-Wno-long-long" I get no errors in any of the optimization modes when run. If I add std::cout << d << std::endl; before the "return 1", I get no errors in any of the optimization modes when run. Is this a bug in my code, or is there something wrong with GCC and the way it handles the double type?

    Read the article

  • Problem Fetching JSON Result with jQuery in Firefox and Chrome (IE8 Works)

    - by senfo
    I'm attempting to parse JSON using jQuery and I'm running into issues. Using the code below, the data keeps coming back null: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <title>JSON Test</title> </head> <body> <div id="msg"></div> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-latest.js"></script> <script> $.ajax({ url: 'http://datawarehouse.hrsa.gov/ReleaseTest/HGDWDataWebService/HGDWDataService.aspx?service=HC&zip=20002&radius=10&filter=8357&format=JSON', type: 'GET', dataType: 'json', success: function(data) { $('#msg').html(data[0].title); // Always null in Firefox/Chrome. Works in IE8. }, error: function(data) { alert(data); } }); </script> </body> </html> The JSON results look like the following: {"title":"HEALTHPOINT TYEE CAMPUS","link":"http://www.healthpointchc.org","id":"tag:datawarehouse.hrsa.gov,2010-04-29:/8357","org":"HEALTHPOINT TYEE CAMPUS","address":{"street-address":"4424 S. 188TH St.","locality":"Seatac","region":"Washington","postal-code":"98188-5028"},"tel":"206-444-7746","category":"Service Delivery Site","location":"47.4344818181818 -122.277672727273","update":"2010-04-28T00:00:00-05:00"} If I replace my URL with the Flickr API URL (http://api.flickr.com/services/feeds/photos_public.gne?tags=cat&tagmode=any&format=json&jsoncallback=?), I get back a valid JSON result that I am able to make use of. I have successfully validated my JSON at JSONLint, so I've run out of ideas as to what I might be doing wrong. Any thoughts? Update: I had the client switch the content type to application/json. Unfortunately, I'm still experiencing the exact same problem. I also updated my HTML and included the live URL I've been working with. Update 2: I just gave this a try in IE8 and it works fine. For some reason, it doesn't work in either Firefox 3.6.3 or Chrome 4.1.249.1064 (45376). I did notice a mistake with the data being returned (the developer is returning a collection of data, even for queries that will always return a single record), but it still baffles me why it doesn't work in other browsers. It might be important to note that I am working from an HTML file on my local file system. I thought it might be a XSS issue, but that doesn't explain why Flickr works.

    Read the article

  • Using drawAtPoint with my CIImage not doing anything on screen

    - by Adam
    Stuck again. :( I have the following code crammed into a procedure invoked when I click on a button on my application main window. I'm just trying to tweak a CIIMage and then display the results. At this point I'm not even worried about exactly where / how to display it. I'm just trying to slam it up on the window to make sure my Transform worked. This code seems to work down through the drawAtPoint message. But I never see anything on the screen. What's wrong? Thanks. Also, as far as displaying it in a particular location on the window ... is the best technique to put a frame of some sort on the window, then get the coordinates of that frame and "draw into" that rectangle? Or use a specific control from IB? Or what? Thanks again. // earlier I initialize a NSImage from JPG file on disk. // then create NSBitmapImageRep from the NSImage. This all works fine. // then ... CIImage * inputCIimage = [[CIImage alloc] initWithBitmapImageRep:inputBitmap]; if (inputCIimage == Nil) NSLog(@"could not create CI Image"); else { NSLog (@"CI Image created. working on transform"); CIFilter *transform = [CIFilter filterWithName:@"CIAffineTransform"]; [transform setDefaults]; [transform setValue:inputCIimage forKey:@"inputImage"]; NSAffineTransform *affineTransform = [NSAffineTransform transform]; [affineTransform rotateByDegrees:3]; [transform setValue:affineTransform forKey:@"inputTransform"]; CIImage * myResult = [transform valueForKey:@"outputImage"]; if (myResult == Nil) NSLog(@"Transformation failed"); else { NSLog(@"Created transformation successfully ... now render it"); [myResult drawAtPoint: NSMakePoint ( 0,0 ) fromRect: NSMakeRect ( 0,0,128,128 ) operation: NSCompositeSourceOver fraction: 1.0]; //100% opaque [inputCIimage release]; } }

    Read the article

  • Nested Transaction issues within custom Windows Service

    - by pdwetz
    I have a custom Windows Service I recently upgraded to use TransactionScope for nested transactions. It worked fine locally on my old dev machine (XP sp3) and on a test server (Server 2003). However, it fails on my new Windows 7 machine as well as on 2008 Server. It was targeting 2.0 framework; I tried targeting 3.5 instead, but it still fails. The strange part is really in how it fails; no exception is thrown. The service itself merely times out. I added tracing code, and it fails when opening the connection for Database lookup #2 below. I also enabled tracing for System.Transactions; it literally cuts out partway while writing the block for the failed connection. We ran a SQL trace, but only the first lookup shows up. I put in code traces, and it gets to the trace the line before the second lookup, but nothing after. I've had the same experience hitting two different SQL servers (both are SQL 2005 running on Server 2003). The connection string is utilizing a SQL account (not Windows integration). All connections are against the same database in this case, but given the nature of the code it is being escalated to MSDTC. Here's the basic code structure: TransactionOptions options = new TransactionOptions(); options.IsolationLevel = System.Transactions.IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted; using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope(TransactionScopeOption.RequiresNew, options)) { // Database lookup #1 TransactionOptions options = new TransactionOptions(); options.IsolationLevel = Transaction.Current != null ? Transaction.Current.IsolationLevel : System.Transactions.IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted; using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope(TransactionScopeOption.Required, options)) { // Database lookup #2; fails on connection.Open() // Database save (never reached) scope.Complete();<br/> } scope.Complete();<br/> } My local firewall is disabled. The service normally runs using Network Service, but I also tried my user account (same results). The short of it is that I use the same general technique widely in my web applications and haven't had any issues. I pulled out the code and ran it fine within a local Windows Form application. If anyone has any additional debugging ideas (or, even better, solutions) I'd love to hear them.

    Read the article

  • Getting access to a binary response byte-by-byte in classic asp/JScript

    - by user89691
    I asked this question a few days ago but it seems to have gone cold fairly quickly. What I want to do is pretty simple and I can't believe someone hasn't figured it out. Solution needs to be JScript classic ASP. I am reading a file from a remote server and I want to process that (binary) file on my server and spit the results back to the client as XML. Here's a simplified version of what I am trying to do. This code runs, or will if the URL is filled in for your site. This test file is readbin.asp. It reads a file called test.bin, and writes the result to a stream. I used a stream because that makes it easier to read the file and parse the contents. Basically I want to: while not end of stream read byte from stream process byte here is readbin.asp: <%@ LANGUAGE = JScript %> <% var url = "http:// (... your URL to the file test.bin goes here...) " ; var xmlhttp = Server.CreateObject ("MSXML2.ServerXMLHTTP") ; xmlhttp.open ("GET", url, false) ; xmlhttp.send () ; var BinaryInputStream = Server.CreateObject ("ADODB.Stream") ; BinaryInputStream.Type = 1 ; // binary BinaryInputStream.Open ; BinaryInputStream.Write (xmlhttp.responseBody) ; BinaryInputStream.Position = 0 ; Response.Write ("BinaryInputStream.size = " + BinaryInputStream.size + "<br>") ; Response.Write ("BinaryInputStream = " + BinaryInputStream + "<br>") ; var ByteValue = BinaryInputStream.read (1) ; Response.Write ("ByteValue = " + ByteValue + "<br>") ; Response.Write ("typeof (ByteValue) = " + typeof (ByteValue) + "<br>") ; %> My problem is: how do I get ByteValue as a number 0..255? typeof (ByteValue) is "unknown". Ord?? Byte()?? Asc?? Chr??

    Read the article

  • Finding the most frequent subtrees in a collection of (parse) trees

    - by peter.murray.rust
    I have a collection of trees whose nodes are labelled (but not uniquely). Specifically the trees are from a collection of parsed sentences (see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Treebank). I wish to extract the most common subtrees from the collection - performance is not (yet) an issue. I'd be grateful for algorithms (ideally Java) or pointers to tools which do this for treebanks. Note that order of child nodes is important. EDIT @mjv. We are working in a limited domain (chemistry) which has a stylised language so the varirty of the trees is not huge - probably similar to children's readers. Simple tree for "the cat sat on the mat". <sentence> <nounPhrase> <article/> <noun/> </nounPhrase> <verbPhrase> <verb/> <prepositionPhrase> <preposition/> <nounPhrase> <article/> <noun/> </nounPhrase> </prepositionPhrase> </verbPhrase> </sentence> Here the sentence contains two identical part-of-speech subtrees (the actual tokens "cat". "mat" are not important in matching). So the algorithm would need to detect this. Note that not all nounPhrases are identical - "the big black cat" could be: <nounPhrase> <article/> <adjective/> <adjective/> <noun/> </nounPhrase> The length of sentences will be longer - between 15 to 30 nodes. I would expect to get useful results from 1000 trees. If this does not take more than a day or so that's acceptable. Obviously the shorter the tree the more frequent, so nounPhrase will be very common. EDIT If this is to be solved by flattening the tree then I think it would be related to Longest Common Substring, not Longest Common Sequence. But note that I don't necessarily just want the longest - I want a list of all those long enough to be "interesting" (criterion yet to be decided).

    Read the article

  • Help With LINQ: Mixed Joins and Specifying Default Values

    - by Corey O.
    I am trying to figure out how to do a mixed-join in LINQ with specific access to 2 LINQ objects. Here is an example of how the actual TSQL query might look: SELECT * FROM [User] AS [a] INNER JOIN [GroupUser] AS [b] ON [a].[UserID] = [b].[UserID] INNER JOIN [Group] AS [c] ON [b].[GroupID] = [c].[GroupID] LEFT JOIN [GroupEntries] AS [d] ON [a].[GroupID] = [d].[GroupID] WHERE [a].[UserID] = @UserID At the end, basically what I would like is an enumerable object full of GroupEntry objects. What am interested is the last two tables/objects in this query. I will be displaying Groups as a group header, and all of the Entries underneath their group heading. If there are no entries for a group, I still want to see that group as a header without any entries. Here's what I have so far: So from that I'd like to make a function: public void DisplayEntriesByUser(int user_id) { MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); IEnumberable<GroupEntries> entries = ( from user in db.Users where user.UserID == user_id join group_user in db.GroupUsers on user.UserID = group_user.UserID into a from join1 in a join group in db.Groups on join1.GroupID equals group.GroupID into b from join2 in b join entry in db.Entries.DefaultIfEmpty() on join2.GroupID equals entry.GroupID select entry ); Group last_group_id = 0; foreach(GroupEntry entry in entries) { if (last_group_id == 0 || entry.GroupID != last_group_id) { last_group_id = entry.GroupID; System.Console.WriteLine("---{0}---", entry.Group.GroupName.ToString().ToUpper()); } if (entry.EntryID) { System.Console.WriteLine(" {0}: {1}", entry.Title, entry.Text); } } } The example above does not work quite as expected. There are 2 problems that I have not been able to solve: I still seem to be getting an INNER JOIN instead of a LEFT JOIN on the last join. I am not getting any empty results, so groups without entries do not appear. I need to figure out a way so that I can fill in the default values for blank sets of entries. That is, if there is a group without an entry, I would like to have a mostly blank entry returned, except that I'd want the EntryID to be null or 0, the GroupID to be that of of the empty group that it represents, and I'd need a handle on the entry.Group object (i.e. it's parent, empty Group object). Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Note: Table names and real-world representation were derived purely for this example, but their relations simplify what I'm trying to do.

    Read the article

  • .Net Remote Log Querying

    - by jlafay
    I have a Win Service that I'm working on that consists of the service, WF Service (using WorkflowServiceHost), a Workflow (WorkflowApplication) that queries/processes data from a SQL Server DB, and a Comm Marshall class that handles data flow between the service and the WF. The WF does a lot of heavy data processing and the original app (early VB6) logged all the processing and displayed the results on the screen of the host machine. Critical events will be committed to eventlog because I strongly believe that should be common practice because admins naturally will look there and because it already has support for remote viewing. The workflow will also need to write logging events as it processes and iterates according to our business logic. Such as: records queried, records returned, processed records, etc. The data is very critical and we need to log actions as they occur. The logs are currently kept as text files on disk and I think that is ok. Ideally I would like to record log events in XML so it's easier to query and because it is less costly than a DB, especially since our DB servers do a lot of heavy processing anyways. Since we are replacing essentially a VB6 application with a robust windows service (taking advantage of WF 4.0), it has been requested that a remote client also be created. It receives callbacks from the service after subscribing to it and being added to a collection of subscribers. Basic statistics and summaries are updated client side after receiving basic monitoring data of what is going on with the service. We would like to also provide a way to provide details when we need to examine what is going on further because this is a long running data processing service and issues need to be addressed immediately. What is the best way to implement some type of query from the client that is sent to the service and returned to the client? Would it be efficient to implement another method to expose on the service and then have that pass that off to some querying class/object to examine the XML files by whichever specification and then return it to the client? That's the main concern. I don't want the service to processing to bottleneck much while this occurs. It seems that WF already auto-magically threads well for the most part but I want to make sure this is the right way to go about it. Any suggestions/recommendations on how to architect and implement a small log querying framework for a remote service would be awesome.

    Read the article

  • PHP Regex: How to match anything except a pattern between two tags

    - by Ryan
    Hello, I am attempting to match a string which is composed of HTML. Basically it is an image gallery so there is a lot of similarity in the string. There are a lot of <dl> tags in the string, but I am looking to match the last <dl>(.?)+</dl> combo that comes before a </div>. The way I've devised to do this is to make sure that there aren't any <dl's inside the <dl></dl> combo I'm matching. I don't care what else is there, including other tags and line breaks. I decided I had to do it with regular expressions because I can't predict how long this substring will be or anything that's inside it. Here is my current regex that only returns me an array with two NULL indicies: preg_match_all('/<dl((?!<dl).)+<\/dl>(?=<\/div>)/', $foo, $bar) As you can see I use negative lookahead to try and see if there is another <dl> within this one. I've also tried negative lookbehind here with the same results. I've also tried using +? instead of just + to no avail. Keep in mind that there's no pattern <dl><dl></dl> or anything, but that my regex is either matching the first <dl> and the last </dl> or nothing at all. Now I realize . won't match line breaks but I've tried anything I could imagine there and it still either provides me with the NULL indicies or nearly the whole string (from the very first occurance of <dl to </dl></div>, which includes several other occurances of <dl>, exactly what I didn't want). I honestly don't know what I'm doing incorrectly. Thanks for your help! I've spent over an hour just trying to straighten out this one problem and it's about driven me to pulling my hair out.

    Read the article

  • Using events in threads between processes - C

    - by Jamie Keeling
    Hello all! I have an application consisting of two windows, one communicates to the other and sends it a struct constaining two integers (In this case two rolls of a dice). I will be using events for the following circumstances: Process a sends data to process b, process b displays data Process a closes, in turn closing process b Process b closes a, in turn closing process a I have noticed that if the second process is constantly waiting for the first process to send data then the program will be just sat waiting, which is where the idea of implementing threads on each process occurred and I have started to implement this already. The problem i'm having is that I don't exactly have a lot of experience with threads and events so I'm not sure of the best way to actually implement what I want to do. Following is a small snippet of what I have so far in the producer application; Create thread: case IDM_FILE_ROLLDICE: { hDiceRoll = CreateThread( NULL, // lpThreadAttributes (default) 0, // dwStackSize (default) ThreadFunc(hMainWindow), // lpStartAddress NULL, // lpParameter 0, // dwCreationFlags &hDiceID // lpThreadId (returned by function) ); } break; The data being sent to the other process: DWORD WINAPI ThreadFunc(LPVOID passedHandle) { HANDLE hMainHandle = *((HANDLE*)passedHandle); WCHAR buffer[256]; LPCTSTR pBuf; LPVOID lpMsgBuf; LPVOID lpDisplayBuf; struct diceData storage; HANDLE hMapFile; DWORD dw; //Roll dice and store results in variable storage = RollDice(); hMapFile = CreateFileMapping( (HANDLE)0xFFFFFFFF, // use paging file NULL, // default security PAGE_READWRITE, // read/write access 0, // maximum object size (high-order DWORD) BUF_SIZE, // maximum object size (low-order DWORD) szName); // name of mapping object if (hMapFile == NULL) { dw = GetLastError(); MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Could not create file mapping object",L"Error",MB_OK); return 1; } pBuf = (LPTSTR) MapViewOfFile(hMapFile, // handle to map object FILE_MAP_ALL_ACCESS, // read/write permission 0, 0, BUF_SIZE); if (pBuf == NULL) { MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Could not map view of file",L"Error",MB_OK); CloseHandle(hMapFile); return 1; } CopyMemory((PVOID)pBuf, &storage, (_tcslen(szMsg) * sizeof(TCHAR))); //_getch(); MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Completed!",L"Success",MB_OK); UnmapViewOfFile(pBuf); return 0; } I'm trying to find out how I would integrate an event with the threaded code to signify to the other process that something has happened, I've seen an MSDN article on using events but it's just confused me if anything, I'm coming up on empty whilst searching on the internet too. Thanks for any help Edit: I can only use the Create/Set/Open methods for events, sorry for not mentioning it earlier.

    Read the article

  • Help with listView in Android

    - by jul
    Hi, I'm just starting with Android and can't find how to display a list in my activity. I get some restaurant data from a web service and I'd like to show the results in a list. The activity, the restaurant class and the layout main.xml are shown below. How can I display, for instance, the list of the restaurant names in the ListView 'list' of my layout? thank you Jul public class Atable extends ListActivity { RestaurantList restaurantList; public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); //Here I set restaurantList //Now how can I display, for example, the list of the names of the restaurants } main.xml <LinearLayout android:orientation="horizontal" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content"> <TextView android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@string/search" /> <EditText android:id="@+id/search" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_weight="1"/> </LinearLayout> <LinearLayout android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content"> <ListView android:id="@+id/android:list" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content"/> <TextView android:id="@+id/android:empty" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@string/noresults"/> </LinearLayout> </LinearLayout> Restaurant list class package org.digitalfarm.atable; import java.util.List; public class RestaurantList { private List<Restaurant> restaurants; public List<Restaurant> getRestaurants() { return restaurants; } public void setRestaurants(List<Restaurant> restaurants) { this.restaurants = restaurants; } } Restaurant class package org.digitalfarm.atable; public class Restaurant { private String name; private float latitude; private float longitude; public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } public float getLatitude() { return latitude; } public void setLatitude(float latitude) { this.latitude = latitude; } public float getLongitude() { return longitude; } public void setLongitude(float longitude) { this.longitude = longitude; } }

    Read the article

  • Java Best Practice for type resolution at runtime.

    - by Brian
    I'm trying to define a class (or set of classes which implement the same interface) that will behave as a loosely typed object (like JavaScript). They can hold any sort of data and operations on them depend on the underlying type. I have it working in three different ways but none seem ideal. These test versions only allow strings and integers and the only operation is add. Adding integers results in the sum of the integer values, adding strings concatenates the strings and adding an integer to a string converts the integer to a string and concatenates it with the string. The final version will have more types (Doubles, Arrays, JavaScript-like objects where new properties can be added dynamically) and more operations. Way 1: public interface DynObject1 { @Override public String toString(); public DynObject1 add(DynObject1 d); public DynObject1 addTo(DynInteger1 d); public DynObject1 addTo(DynString1 d); } public class DynInteger1 implements DynObject1 { private int value; public DynInteger1(int v) { value = v; } @Override public String toString() { return Integer.toString(value); } public DynObject1 add(DynObject1 d) { return d.addTo(this); } public DynObject1 addTo(DynInteger1 d) { return new DynInteger1(d.value + value); } public DynObject1 addTo(DynString1 d) { return new DynString1(d.toString()+Integer.toString(value)); } } ...and similar for DynString1 Way 2: public interface DynObject2 { @Override public String toString(); public DynObject2 add(DynObject2 d); } public class DynInteger2 implements DynObject2 { private int value; public DynInteger2(int v) { value = v; } @Override public String toString() { return Integer.toString(value); } public DynObject2 add(DynObject2 d) { Class c = d.getClass(); if(c==DynInteger2.class) { return new DynInteger2(value + ((DynInteger2)d).value); } else { return new DynString2(toString() + d.toString()); } } } ...and similar for DynString2 Way 3: public class DynObject3 { private enum ObjectType { Integer, String }; Object value; ObjectType type; public DynObject3(Integer v) { value = v; type = ObjectType.Integer; } public DynObject3(String v) { value = v; type = ObjectType.String; } @Override public String toString() { return value.toString(); } public DynObject3 add(DynObject3 d) { if(type==ObjectType.Integer && d.type==ObjectType.Integer) { return new DynObject3(Integer.valueOf(((Integer)value).intValue()+((Integer)value).intValue())); } else { return new DynObject3(value.toString()+d.value.toString()); } } } With the if-else logic I could use value.getClass()==Integer.class instead of storing the type but with more types I'd change this to use a switch statement and Java doesn't allow switch to use Classes. Anyway... My question is what is the best way to go about something thike this?

    Read the article

  • ActionResult - Service

    - by cem
    I bored, writing same code for service and ui. Then i tried to write a converter for simple actions. This converter, converting Service Results to MVC result, seems like good solution for me but anyway i think this gonna opposite MVC pattern. So here, I need help, what you think about algorithm - is this good or not? Thanks ServiceResult - Base: public abstract class ServiceResult { public static NoPermissionResult Permission() { return new NoPermissionResult(); } public static SuccessResult Success() { return new SuccessResult(); } public static SuccessResult<T> Success<T>(T result) { return new SuccessResult<T>(result); } protected ServiceResult(ServiceResultType serviceResultType) { _resultType = serviceResultType; } private readonly ServiceResultType _resultType; public ServiceResultType ResultType { get { return _resultType; } } } public class SuccessResult<T> : ServiceResult { public SuccessResult(T result) : base(ServiceResultType.Success) { _result = result; } private readonly T _result; public T Result { get { return _result; } } } public class SuccessResult : SuccessResult<object> { public SuccessResult() : this(null) { } public SuccessResult(object o) : base(o) { } } Service - eg. ForumService: public ServiceResult Delete(IVUser user, int id) { Forum forum = Repository.GetDelete(id); if (!Permission.CanDelete(user, forum)) { return ServiceResult.Permission(); } Repository.Delete(forum); return ServiceResult.Success(); } Controller: public class BaseController { public ActionResult GetResult(ServiceResult result) { switch (result.ResultType) { case ServiceResultType.Success: var successResult = (SuccessResult)result; return View(successResult.Result); break; case ServiceResultType.NoPermission: return View("Error"); break; default: return View(); break; } } } [HandleError] public class ForumsController : BaseController { [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] [Transaction] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Delete(int id) { ServiceResult result = ForumService.Delete(WebUser.Current, id); /* Custom result */ if (result.ResultType == ServiceResultType.Success) { TempData[ControllerEnums.GlobalViewDataProperty.PageMessage.ToString()] = "The forum was successfully deleted."; return this.RedirectToAction(ec => Index()); } /* Custom result */ /* Execute Permission result etc. */ TempData[ControllerEnums.GlobalViewDataProperty.PageMessage.ToString()] = "A problem was encountered preventing the forum from being deleted. " + "Another item likely depends on this forum."; return GetResult(result); } }

    Read the article

  • HTTP Post requests using HttpClient take 2 seconds, why?

    - by pableu
    Update: You might better hold off this for a bit, I just noticed I could be my fault after all. Working on this all afternoon, and then I find a flaw ten minutes after posting here, ts. Hi, I'am currently coding an android app that submits stuff in the background using HTTP Post and AsyncTask. I use the org.apache.http.client Package for this. I based my code on this example. Basically, my code looks like this: public void postData() { // Create a new HttpClient and Post Header HttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost httppost = new HttpPost("http://192.168.1.137:8880/form"); try { List<NameValuePair> nameValuePairs = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(2); nameValuePairs.add(new BasicNameValuePair("id", "12345")); nameValuePairs.add(new BasicNameValuePair("stringdata", "AndDev is Cool!")); httppost.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(nameValuePairs)); // Execute HTTP Post Request HttpResponse response = httpclient.execute(httppost); } catch (ClientProtocolException e) { Log.e(TAG,e.toString()); } catch (IOException e) { Log.e(TAG,e.toString()); } } The problem is that the httpclient.execute(..) line takes around 1.5 to 3 seconds, and I do not understand why. Just requesting a page with HTTP Get takes around 80 ms or so, so the problem doesn't seem to be the network latency itself. The problem doesn't seem to be on the server side either, I have also tried POSTing data to http://www.disney.com/ with similarly slow results. And Firebug shows 1 ms response time when POSTing data to my server locally. This happens on the Emulator and with my Nexus One (both with Android 2.2). If you want to look at the complete code, I've put it on GitHub. It's just a dummy program to do HTTP Post in the background using AsyncTask on the push of a button. It's my first Android app, and my first java code for a long time. And incidentially, also my first question on Stackoverflow ;-) Any ideas why httpclient.execute(httppost) takes so long?

    Read the article

  • Rails send mail with GMail

    - by Danny McClelland
    Hi Everyone, I am on rails 2.3.5 and have the latest Ruby installed and my application is running well, except, GMail emails. I am trying to setup my gmail imap connection which has worked previously but now doesnt want to know. This is my code: # Be sure to restart your server when you modify this file # Uncomment below to force Rails into production mode when # you don't control web/app server and can't set it the proper way # ENV['RAILS_ENV'] ||= 'production' # Specifies gem version of Rails to use when vendor/rails is not present RAILS_GEM_VERSION = '2.3.5' unless defined? RAILS_GEM_VERSION # Bootstrap the Rails environment, frameworks, and default configuration require File.join(File.dirname(__FILE__), 'boot') Rails::Initializer.run do |config| # Gems config.gem "capistrano-ext", :lib => "capistrano" config.gem "configatron" # Make Time.zone default to the specified zone, and make Active Record store time values # in the database in UTC, and return them converted to the specified local zone. config.time_zone = "London" # The internationalization framework can be changed to have another default locale (standard is :en) or more load paths. # All files from config/locales/*.rb,yml are added automatically. # config.i18n.load_path << Dir[File.join(RAILS_ROOT, 'my', 'locales', '*.{rb,yml}')] #config.i18n.default_locale = :de # Your secret key for verifying cookie session data integrity. # If you change this key, all old sessions will become invalid! # Make sure the secret is at least 30 characters and all random, # no regular words or you'll be exposed to dictionary attacks. config.action_controller.session = { :session_key => '_base_session', :secret => '7389ea9180b15f1495a5e73a69a893311f859ccff1ffd0fa2d7ea25fdf1fa324f280e6ba06e3e5ba612e71298d8fbe7f15fd7da2929c45a9c87fe226d2f77347' } config.active_record.observers = :user_observer end ActiveSupport::CoreExtensions::Date::Conversions::DATE_FORMATS.merge!(:default => '%d/%m/%Y') ActiveSupport::CoreExtensions::Time::Conversions::DATE_FORMATS.merge!(:default => '%d/%m/%Y') require "will_paginate" ActionMailer::Base.delivery_method = :smtp ActionMailer::Base.smtp_settings = { :enable_starttls_auto => true, :address => "smtp.gmail.com", :port => 587, :domain => "XXXXXXXX.XXX", :authentication => :plain, :user_name => "XXXXXXXXXX.XXXXXXXXXX.XXX", :password => "XXXXX" } But the above just results in an SMTP auth error in the production log. I have read varied reports of this not working in Rails 2.2.2 but nothing for 2.3.5, anyone got any ideas? Thanks, Danny

    Read the article

  • Finding contained bordered regions from Excel imports.

    - by dmaruca
    I am importing massive amounts of data from Excel that have various table layouts. I have good enough table detection routines and merge cell handling, but I am running into a problem when it comes to dealing with borders. Namely performance. The bordered regions in some of these files have meaning. Data Setup: I am importing directly from Office Open XML using VB6 and MSXML. The data is parsed from the XML into a dictionary of cell data. This wonks wonderfully and is just as fast as using docmd.transferspreadsheet in Access, but returns much better results. Each cell contains a pointer to a style element which contains a pointer to a border element that defines the visibility and weight of each border (this is how the data is structured inside OpenXML, also). Challenge: What I'm trying to do is find every region that is enclosed inside borders, and create a list of cells that are inside that region. What I have done: I initially created a BFS(breadth first search) fill routine to find these areas. This works wonderfully and fast for "normal" sized spreadsheets, but gets way too slow for imports into the thousands of rows. One problem is that a border in Excel could be stored in the cell you are checking or the opposing border in the adjacent cell. That's ok, I can consolidate that data on import to reduce the number of checks needed. One thing I thought about doing is to create a separate graph that outlines the cells using the borders as my edges and using a graph algorithm to find regions that way, but I'm having trouble figuring out how to implement the algorithm. I've used Dijkstra in the past and thought I could do similar with this. So I can span out using no endpoint to search the entire graph, and if I encounter a closed node I know that I just found an enclosed region, but how can I know if the route I've found is the optimal one? I guess I could flag that to run a separate check for the found closed node to the previous node ignoring that one edge. This could work, but wouldn't be much better performance wise on dense graphs. Can anyone else suggest a better method? Thanks for taking the time to read this.

    Read the article

  • (mySQL) Unable to query 2 tables properly for data

    - by Devner
    I have 2 tables. One is 'page_links' and the other is 'rpp'. Table page_links is the superset of table rpp. The following is the schema of my tables: -- Table structure for table `page_links` -- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `page_links` ( `page` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `page_link` varchar(100) NOT NULL, `heading_id` tinyint(3) unsigned NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`page`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; -- -- Dumping data for table `page_links` -- INSERT INTO `page_links` (`page`, `page_link`, `heading_id`) VALUES ('a1.php', 'A1', 8), ('b1.php', 'B1', 8), ('c1.php', 'C1', 5), ('d1.php', 'D1', 5), ('e1.php', 'E1', 8), ('f1.php', 'F1', 8), ('g1.php', 'G1', 8), ('h1.php', 'H1', 1), ('i1.php', 'I1', 1), ('j1.php', 'J1', 8), ('k1.php', 'K1', 8), ('l1.php', 'L1', 8), ('m1.php', 'M1', 8), ('n1.php', 'N1', 8), ('o1.php', 'O1', 8), ('p1.php', 'P1', 4), ('q1.php', 'Q1', 5), ('r1.php', 'R1', 4); -- Table structure for table `rpp` -- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `rpp` ( `role_id` tinyint(3) unsigned NOT NULL, `page` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `is_allowed` tinyint(1) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`role_id`,`page`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; -- -- Dumping data for table `rpp` -- INSERT INTO `rpp` (`role_id`, `page`, `is_allowed`) VALUES (3, 'a1.php', 1), (3, 'b1.php', 1), (3, 'c1.php', 1), (3, 'd1.php', 1), (3, 'e1.php', 1), (3, 'f1.php', 1), (3, 'h1.php', 1), (3, 'i1.php', 1), (3, 'l1.php', 1), (3, 'm1.php', 1), (3, 'n1.php', 1), (4, 'a1.php', 1), (4, 'b1.php', 1), (4, 'q1.php', 1), (5, 'r1.php', 1); WHAT I AM TRYING TO DO: I am trying to query both the above tables (in a single query) in such a way that all the pages from page_links are displayed along with the is_allowed value from rpp for a particular role. For example, I want to get the is_allowed value of all the pages from rpp for role_id = 3 and at the same time, list all the available pages from page_links. A clear example of my expected result would be: page is_allowed role_id ---------------------------------------- a1.php 1 3 b1.php 1 3 c1.php 1 3 d1.php 1 3 e1.php 1 3 f1.php 1 3 g1.php NULL NULL h1.php 1 3 i1.php 1 3 j1.php NULL NULL k1.php NULL NULL l1.php 1 3 m1.php 1 3 n1.php 1 3 o1.php NULL NULL p1.php NULL NULL q1.php NULL NULL r1.php NULL NULL One more example of my desired result could be achieved by doing a LEFT JOIN rpp ON page_links.page = rpp.page but we need to omit using role_id = 3 (or any value) to be able to get that. But I do want to specify the role_id as well and get the results. I need the query to be able to get this result. I would appreciate any replies that could help me with this. If you can suggest me any changes as well to the table(s) design to be able to achieve the desired result, that's good as well. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Using Core Data Concurrently and Reliably

    - by John Topley
    I'm building my first iOS app, which in theory should be pretty straightforward but I'm having difficulty making it sufficiently bulletproof for me to feel confident submitting it to the App Store. Briefly, the main screen has a table view, upon selecting a row it segues to another table view that displays information relevant for the selected row in a master-detail fashion. The underlying data is retrieved as JSON data from a web service once a day and then cached in a Core Data store. The data previous to that day is deleted to stop the SQLite database file from growing indefinitely. All data persistence operations are performed using Core Data, with an NSFetchedResultsController underpinning the detail table view. The problem I am seeing is that if you switch quickly between the master and detail screens several times whilst fresh data is being retrieved, parsed and saved, the app freezes or crashes completely. There seems to be some sort of race condition, maybe due to Core Data importing data in the background whilst the main thread is trying to perform a fetch, but I'm speculating. I've had trouble capturing any meaningful crash information, usually it's a SIGSEGV deep in the Core Data stack. The table below shows the actual order of events that happen when the detail table view controller is loaded: Main Thread Background Thread viewDidLoad Get JSON data (using AFNetworking) Create child NSManagedObjectContext (MOC) Parse JSON data Insert managed objects in child MOC Save child MOC Post import completion notification Receive import completion notification Save parent MOC Perform fetch and reload table view Delete old managed objects in child MOC Save child MOC Post deletion completion notification Receive deletion completion notification Save parent MOC Once the AFNetworking completion block is triggered when the JSON data has arrived, a nested NSManagedObjectContext is created and passed to an "importer" object that parses the JSON data and saves the objects to the Core Data store. The importer executes using the new performBlock method introduced in iOS 5: NSManagedObjectContext *child = [[NSManagedObjectContext alloc] initWithConcurrencyType:NSPrivateQueueConcurrencyType]; [child setParentContext:self.managedObjectContext]; [child performBlock:^{ // Create importer instance, passing it the child MOC... }]; The importer object observes its own MOC's NSManagedObjectContextDidSaveNotification and then posts its own notification which is observed by the detail table view controller. When this notification is posted the table view controller performs a save on its own (parent) MOC. I use the same basic pattern with a "deleter" object for deleting the old data after the new data for the day has been imported. This occurs asynchronously after the new data has been fetched by the fetched results controller and the detail table view has been reloaded. One thing I am not doing is observing any merge notifications or locking any of the managed object contexts or the persistent store coordinator. Is this something I should be doing? I'm a bit unsure how to architect this all correctly so would appreciate any advice.

    Read the article

  • Unlimited SMS API/Gateway (Sending and Receiving)

    - by Naif
    I am creating a chat application which requires that users be able to send and receive sms messages through a web interface. It would be somewhat similar to the text messaging service available in yahoo mail or in aol instant messenger. The situation is this: Given the high quantity of messages that would be sent and received, paying on a per message basis is not economically feasible. How is it that sites such as yahoo, aim, and twitter can send and receive unlimited sms messages? Essentially, I am looking for a way to send and receive unlimited sms from my computer. Below is a list of some approaches I've come up with but have run into problems with as well. If just one of the approaches can be utilized effectively, then I am fine. As a note on the nature of my application: I will only be sending messages to users that explicitly sign up for the service and permit the receiving of messages. They can unsubscribe at any time. This is to prevent spam. I am aware of software such as Kannel which allows one to connect to a providers smsc gateway. However, this adds the risk of not being approved by the provider which would be unacceptable. Is there any way to significantly mitigate this risk? Utilizing a gateway provider eliminates this risk, but adds the issue of per message pricing. I am also aware of email to sms. However, I have done some testing with that and it appears that this method results in many messages being undelivered or delivered VERY late. If it weren't for that, this approach would have been ideal. Is there any way to negotiate with carriers to remove me from their filters (considering the nature of my service as stated before)? I could use a gsm modem, but even with an "unilimited" plan on a sim card, there are still limits (around 100,000 messages or so). Furthermore, from my understanding, gsm modems are capable of only sending out around a dozen messages per minute. I need to be able to send out as much as several hundred messages per second. During the first 2 months, around 10 messages per second would suffice. There are ways to send out ads with messages to cover the per message costs. However, this is a deal-breaker since it has a high chance of tarnishing the quality of service. Furthermore, I know it is possible to do it without such ads since yahoo, aim, and twitter do not send ads with their messages.

    Read the article

  • Blending pixels from Two Bitmaps

    - by MarkPowell
    I'm beating my head against a wall here, and I'm fairly certain I'm doing something stupid, so time to make my stupidity public. I'm trying to take two images, blend them together into a third image using standard blending algorithms (Hardlight, softlight, overlay, multiply, etc). Because Android does not have such blend properties build in, I've gone down the path of taking each pixel and combine them using an algorithm. However, the results are garbage. Any help would be appreciated. Below is the code, which I've tried to strip out all the "junk", but some may have made it through. I'll clean it up if something isn't clear. Bitmap src = BitmapFactory.decodeResource(getResources(), R.drawable.base, options); Bitmap mutableBitmap = src.copy(Bitmap.Config.RGB_565, true); int imageId = getResources().getIdentifier("drawable/" + filter, null, getPackageName()); Bitmap filterBitmap = BitmapFactory.decodeResource(getResources(), imageId, options); float scaleWidth = ((float) mutableBitmap.getWidth()) / filterBitmap.getWidth(); float scaleHeight = ((float) mutableBitmap.getHeight()) / filterBitmap.getHeight(); IntBuffer buffSrc = IntBuffer.allocate(src.getWidth() * src.getHeight()); mutableBitmap.copyPixelsToBuffer(buffSrc); buffSrc.rewind(); IntBuffer buffFilter = IntBuffer.allocate(resizedFilterBitmap.getWidth() * resizedFilterBitmap.getHeight()); resizedFilterBitmap.copyPixelsToBuffer(buffFilter); buffFilter.rewind(); IntBuffer buffOut = IntBuffer.allocate(src.getWidth() * src.getHeight()); buffOut.rewind(); while (buffOut.position() < buffOut.limit()) { int filterInt = buffFilter.get(); int srcInt = buffSrc.get(); int alphaValueFilter = Color.alpha(filterInt); int redValueFilter = Color.red(filterInt); int greenValueFilter = Color.green(filterInt); int blueValueFilter = Color.blue(filterInt); int alphaValueSrc = Color.alpha(srcInt); int redValueSrc = Color.red(srcInt); int greenValueSrc = Color.green(srcInt); int blueValueSrc = Color.blue(srcInt); int alphaValueFinal = convert(alphaValueFilter, alphaValueSrc); int redValueFinal = convert(redValueFilter, redValueSrc); int greenValueFinal = convert(greenValueFilter, greenValueSrc); int blueValueFinal = convert(blueValueFilter, blueValueSrc); int pixel = Color.argb(alphaValueFinal, redValueFinal, greenValueFinal, blueValueFinal); buffOut.put(pixel); } buffOut.rewind(); mutableBitmap.copyPixelsFromBuffer(buffOut); BitmapDrawable drawable = new BitmapDrawable(getResources(), mutableBitmap); imageView.setImageDrawable(drawable); } int convert (int in1, int in2) { //simple multiply for example return in1 * in2 / 255; }

    Read the article

  • What (tf) are the secrets behind PDF memory allocation (CGPDFDocumentRef)

    - by Kai
    For a PDF reader I want to prepare a document by taking 'screenshots' of each page and save them to disc. First approach is CGPDFDocumentRef document = CGPDFDocumentCreateWithURL((CFURLRef) someURL); for (int i = 1; i<=pageCount; i++) { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc]init]; CGPDFPageRef page = CGPDFDocumentGetPage(document, i); ...//getting + manipulating graphics context etc. ... CGContextDrawPDFPage(context, page); ... UIImage *resultingImage = UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); ...//saving the image to disc [pool drain]; } CGPDFDocumentRelease(document); This results in a lot of memory which seems not to be released after the first run of the loop (preparing the 1st document), but no more unreleased memory in additional runs: MEMORY BEFORE: 6 MB MEMORY DURING 1ST DOC: 40 MB MEMORY AFTER 1ST DOC: 25 MB MEMORY DURING 2ND DOC: 40 MB MEMORY AFTER 2ND DOC: 25 MB .... Changing the code to for (int i = 1; i<=pageCount; i++) { CGPDFDocumentRef document = CGPDFDocumentCreateWithURL((CFURLRef) someURL); NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc]init]; CGPDFPageRef page = CGPDFDocumentGetPage(document, i); ...//getting + manipulating graphics context etc. ... CGContextDrawPDFPage(context, page); ... UIImage *resultingImage = UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); ...//saving the image to disc CGPDFDocumentRelease(document); [pool drain]; } changes the memory usage to MEMORY BEFORE: 6 MB MEMORY DURING 1ST DOC: 9 MB MEMORY AFTER 1ST DOC: 7 MB MEMORY DURING 2ND DOC: 9 MB MEMORY AFTER 2ND DOC: 7 MB .... but is obviously a step backwards in performance. When I start reading a PDF (later in time, different thread) in the first case no more memory is allocated (staying at 25 MB), while in the second case memory goes up to 20 MB (from 7). In both cases, when I remove the CGContextDrawPDFPage(context, page); line memory is (nearly) constant at 6 MB during and after all preparations of documents. Can anybody explain whats going on there?

    Read the article

  • WPF ClickOnce Bootstrap Dection Failure on One Machine

    - by Dexter Morgan
    Hello Friend, I've decided to use ClickOnce technology to deploy my new WPF application. By and large, ClickOnce works as advertised but I've hit a minor glitch regarding Bootstrapping and framework detection. Some background: - I'm using the standard Visual Studio-generated publish.htm page as my launch page. - The only prerequisite is the .NET Framework 4.0 Client Profile. - All clients using IE 8. - All clients already have the .NET 4.0 Client Profile installed. ClickOnce works as advertised on the vast majority of machines. The VS-generated JScript correctly detects that the framework is installed and presents the user with a Run button. The app launches just fine. I'm getting odd results on one of the machines, however. On the offending machine, the VS-generated JScript tells the user that the prereqs may not be installed -- or rather, it FAILS to detect that the framework is already installed. The "launch" link successfully launches the application but the Run link points to the bootstrapper setup.exe. Why is it failing to detect the framework on this one machine? It occurred to me that framework detection is largely a matter of examining the useragent string that's submitted by the browser. So, what you see below are two UserAgent strings. The first is from a machine where things are working properly. The second is from the offending machine. THIS ONE WORKS: 2011-01-11 15:14:14 W3SVC1 192.168.0.36 GET /publish.htm - 80 - 72.130.187.100 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+8.0;+Windows+NT+6.0;+Trident/4.0;+SLCC1;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727;+Media+Center+PC+5.0;+.NET+CLR+3.5.21022;+.NET+CLR+3.5.30729;+.NET+CLR+3.0.30729;+.NET4.0C) 304 0 0 THIS ONE DOESN'T: 2011-01-11 18:49:12 W3SVC1 192.168.0.36 GET /publish.htm - 80 - 76.212.204.169 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+8.0;+Windows+NT+6.1;+WOW64;+Trident/4.0;+GTB6.6;+SLCC2;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727;+.NET+CLR+3.5.30729;+.NET+CLR+3.0.30729;+Media+Center+PC+6.0;+.NET4.0C) 200 0 0 The useragent string of both machines clearly states, "hey the .NET 4.0 client profile is installed here" -- yet the second machine seems unable to detect it. I don't know enough about useragent strings to understand why the former works and the latter fails. The only difference as far as I can tell is that the offending machine is running 64bit. But that shouldn't make a difference. Should it? Any ideas? Dexter Morgan

    Read the article

  • itertools.product eliminating repeated reversed tuples

    - by genclik27
    I asked a question yesterday and thanks to Tim Peters, it is solved. The question is here; itertools.product eliminating repeated elements The new question is further version of this. This time I will generate tuples inside of tuples. Here is an example; lis = [[(1,2), (3,4)], [(5,2), (1,2)], [(2,1), (1,2)]] When I use it in itertools.product function this is what I get, ((1, 2), (5, 2), (2, 1)) ((1, 2), (5, 2), (1, 2)) ((1, 2), (1, 2), (2, 1)) ((1, 2), (1, 2), (1, 2)) ((3, 4), (5, 2), (2, 1)) ((3, 4), (5, 2), (1, 2)) ((3, 4), (1, 2), (2, 1)) ((3, 4), (1, 2), (1, 2)) I want to change it in a way that if a sequence has (a,b) inside of it, then it can not have (b,a). In this example if you look at this sequence ((3, 4), (1, 2), (2, 1)) it has (1,2) and (2,1) inside of it. So, this sequence ((3, 4), (1, 2), (2, 1)) should not be considered in the results. As I said, I asked similar question before, in that case it was not considering duplicate elements. I try to adapt it to my problem. Here is modified code. Changed parts in old version are taken in comments. def reverse_seq(seq): s = [] for i in range(len(seq)): s.append(seq[-i-1]) return tuple(s) def uprod(*seqs): def inner(i): if i == n: yield tuple(result) return for elt in sets[i] - reverse: #seen.add(elt) rvrs = reverse_seq(elt) reverse.add(rvrs) result[i] = elt for t in inner(i+1): yield t #seen.remove(elt) reverse.remove(rvrs) sets = [set(seq) for seq in seqs] n = len(sets) #seen = set() reverse = set() result = [None] * n for t in inner(0): yield t In my opinion this code should work but I am getting error for the input lis = [[(1,2), (3,4)], [(5,2), (1,2)], [(2,1), (1,2)]]. I could not understand where I am wrong. for i in uprod(*lis): print i Output is, ((1, 2), (1, 2), (1, 2)) Traceback (most recent call last): File "D:\Users\SUUSER\workspace tree\sequence_covering _array\denemeler_buraya.py", line 39, in <module> for i in uprod(*lis): File "D:\Users\SUUSER\workspace tree\sequence_covering _array\denemeler_buraya.py", line 32, in uprod for t in inner(0): File "D:\Users\SUUSER\workspace tree\sequence_covering _array\denemeler_buraya.py", line 22, in inner for t in inner(i+1): File "D:\Users\SUUSER\workspace tree\sequence_covering _array\denemeler_buraya.py", line 25, in inner reverse.remove(rvrs) KeyError: (2, 1) Thanks,

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520 521  | Next Page >