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  • C# AES returns wrong Test Vectors

    - by ralu
    I need to implement some crypto protocol on C# and want to say that this is my first project in C#. After spending some time to get used on C# I found out that I am unable to get compliant AES vectors. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Security.Cryptography; using System.IO; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { public static void Main() { try { //test vectors from "ecb_vk.txt" byte[] key = { 0x80, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00 }; byte[] data = { 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00, 0x00 }; byte[] encTest = { 0x0e, 0xdd, 0x33, 0xd3, 0xc6, 0x21, 0xe5, 0x46, 0x45, 0x5b, 0xd8, 0xba, 0x14, 0x18, 0xbe, 0xc8 }; AesManaged aesAlg = new AesManaged(); aesAlg.BlockSize = 128; aesAlg.Key = key; aesAlg.Mode = CipherMode.ECB; ICryptoTransform encryptor = aesAlg.CreateEncryptor(); MemoryStream msEncrypt = new MemoryStream(); CryptoStream csEncrypt = new CryptoStream(msEncrypt, encryptor, CryptoStreamMode.Write); StreamWriter swEncrypt = new StreamWriter(csEncrypt); swEncrypt.Write(data); swEncrypt.Close(); csEncrypt.Close(); msEncrypt.Close(); aesAlg.Clear(); byte[] encr; encr = msEncrypt.ToArray(); string datastr = BitConverter.ToString(data); string encrstr = BitConverter.ToString(encr); string encTestStr = BitConverter.ToString(encTest); Console.WriteLine("data: {0}", datastr); Console.WriteLine("encr: {0}", encrstr); Console.WriteLine("should: {0}", encTestStr); Console.ReadKey(); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine("Error: {0}", e.Message); } } } } Output is wrong: data: 00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00 encr: A0-3C-C2-22-A4-32-F7-C9-BA-36-AE-73-66-BD-BB-A3 should: 0E-DD-33-D3-C6-21-E5-46-45-5B-D8-BA-14-18-BE-C8 I am sure that there is correct AES implementation in C#, so I need some advice from C# wizard to help whit this. Thanks

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  • Multiple Timers with setTimeInterval

    - by visibleinvisibly
    I am facing a problem with setInterval being used in a loop. I have a function subscribeFeed( ) which takes an array of urls as input. It loops through the url array and subscribes each url to getFeedAutomatically() using a setInterval function. so if three URL's are there in the array, then 3 setInterval's will be called. The problem is 1)how to distinguish which setInterval is called for which URL. 2)it is causing Runtime exception in setInterval( i guess because of closure problem in javascript) //constructor function myfeed(){ this.feedArray = []; } myfeed.prototype.constructor= myfeed; myfeed.prototype.subscribeFeed =function(feedUrl){ var i=0; var url; var count = 0; var _this = this; var feedInfo = { url : [], status : "" }; var urlinfo = []; feedUrl = (feedUrl instanceof Array) ? feedUrl : [feedUrl]; //notifyInterval = (notifyInterval instanceof Array) ? notifyInterval: [notifyInterval]; for (i = 0; i < feedUrl.length; i++) { urlinfo[i] = { url:'', notifyInterval:5000,// Default Notify/Refresh interval for the feed isenable:true, // true allows the feed to be fetched from the URL timerID: null, //default ID is null called : false, position : 0, getFeedAutomatically : function(url){ _this.getFeedUpdate(url); }, }; urlinfo[i].url = feedUrl[i].URL; //overide the default notify interval if(feedUrl[i].NotifyInterval /*&& (feedUrl[i] !=undefined)*/){ urlinfo[i].notifyInterval = feedUrl[i].NotifyInterval; } // Trigger the Feed registered event with the info about URL and status feedInfo.url[i] = feedUrl[i].URL; //Set the interval to get the feed. urlinfo[i].timerID = setInterval(function(){ urlinfo[i].getFeedAutomatically(urlinfo[i].url); }, urlinfo[i].notifyInterval); this.feedArray.push(urlinfo[i]); } } // The getFeedUpate function will make an Ajax request and coninue myfeed.prototype.getFeedUpdate = function( ){ } I am posting the same on jsfiddle http://jsfiddle.net/visibleinvisibly/S37Rj/ Thanking you in advance

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  • Programmatically triggering events in Javascript for IE using jQuery

    - by Dan Herbert
    When an Event is triggered by a user in IE, it is set to the window.event object. The only way to see what triggered the event is by accessing the window.event object (as far as I know) This causes a problem in ASP.NET validators if an event is triggered programmatically, like when triggering an event through jQuery. In this case, the window.event object stores the last user-triggered event. When the onchange event is fired programmatically for a text box that has an ASP.NET validator attached to it, the validation breaks because it is looking at the element that fired last event, which is not the element the validator is for. Does anyone know a way around this? It seems like a problem that is solvable, but from looking online, most people just find ways to ignore the problem instead of solving it. To explain what I'm doing specifically: I'm using a jQuery time picker plugin on a text box that also has 2 ASP.NET validators associated with it. When the time is changed, I'm using an update panel to post back to the server to do some things dynamically, so I need the onchange event to fire in order to trigger the postback for that text box. The jQuery time picker operates by creating a hidden unordered list that is made visible when the text box is clicked. When one of the list items is clicked, the "change" event is fired programmatically for the text box through jQuery's change() method. Because the trigger for the event was a list item, IE sees the list item as the source of the event, not the text box, like it should. I'm not too concerned with this ASP.NET validator working as soon as the text box is changed, I just need the "change" event to be processed so my postback event is called for the text box. The problem is that the validator throws an exception in IE which stops any event from being triggered. Firefox (and I assume other browsers) don't have this issue. Only IE due to the different event model. Has anyone encountered this and seen how to fix it? I've found this problem reported several other places, but they offer no solutions: jQuery's forum, with the jQuery UI Datepicker and an ASP.NET Validator ASP.NET forums, bug with ValidatorOnChange() function

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  • Force deletion of slot in boost::signals2

    - by villintehaspam
    Hi! I have found that boost::signals2 uses sort of a lazy deletion of connected slots, which makes it difficult to use connections as something that manages lifetimes of objects. I am looking for a way to force slots to be deleted directly when disconnected. Any ideas on how to work around the problem by designing my code differently are also appreciated! This is my scenario: I have a Command class responsible for doing something that takes time asynchronously, looking something like this (simplified): class ActualWorker { public: boost::signals2<void ()> OnWorkComplete; }; class Command : boost::enable_shared_from_this<Command> { public: ... void Execute() { m_WorkerConnection = m_MyWorker.OnWorkDone.connect(boost::bind(&Command::Handle_OnWorkComplete, shared_from_this()); // launch asynchronous work here and return } boost::signals2<void ()> OnComplete; private: void Handle_OnWorkComplete() { // get a shared_ptr to ourselves to make sure that we live through // this function but don't keep ourselves alive if an exception occurs. shared_ptr<Command> me = shared_from_this(); // Disconnect from the signal, ideally deleting the slot object m_WorkerConnection.disconnect(); OnComplete(); // the shared_ptr now goes out of scope, ideally deleting this } ActualWorker m_MyWorker; boost::signals2::connection m_WorkerConnection; }; The class is invoked about like this: ... boost::shared_ptr<Command> cmd(new Command); cmd->OnComplete.connect( foo ); cmd->Execute(); // now go do something else, forget all about the cmd variable etcetera. the Command class keeps itself alive by getting a shared_ptr to itself which is bound to the ActualWorker signal using boost::bind. When the worker completes, the handler in Command is invoked. Now, since I would like the Command object to be destroyed, I disconnect from the signal as can be seen in the code above. The problem is that the actual slot object is not deleted when disconnected, it is only marked as invalid and then deleted at a later time. This in turn appears to depend on the signal to fire again, which it doesn't do in my case, leading to the slot never expiring. The boost::bind object thus never goes out of scope, holding a shared_ptr to my object that will never get deleted. I can work around this by binding using the this pointer instead of a shared_ptr and then keeping my object alive using a member shared_ptr which I then release in the handler function, but it kind of makes the design feel a bit overcomplicated. Is there a way to force signals2 to delete the slot when disconnecting? Or is there something else I could do to simplify the design? Any comments are appreciated!

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  • How do I properly register the Type Library of A VB.NET COM+ Component?

    - by k_Dank
    I am looking to upgrade legacy VB6 COM+ components to VB.NET components. I have seemingly upgraded one already, called EventPackage, which has one class, IEventListener. Another, TradeOrders, Implements EventPackage.IEventListener. When attempting to build TradeOrders, I get the following Errors/Warnings; Cannot load type library for reference "EventPackage". Library not registered. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8002801D (TYPE_E_LIBNOTREGISTERED)) The referenced component 'EventPackage' could not be found. Type 'EventPackage.IEventListener' is not defined. In the .vbproj, I notice this reference <COMReference Include="EventPackage"> <Guid>{0D76C094-21A6-4E04-802B-6E539F7102D7}</Guid> <Lcid>0</Lcid> <VersionMajor>2</VersionMajor> <VersionMinor>0</VersionMinor> <WrapperTool>tlbimp</WrapperTool> </COMReference> When I search the registry for this Guid, I find nothing. When using GUIDs for similar COM+ objects, I find them in HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT\CLSID\{...}\TypeLib ("..." being the GUID of the other component). When I go to the registry key name corresponding to EventPackage.IEventListener, I find that there is no \TypeLib subkey. As you might suspect, searching the reg for "0D76C094-21A6-4E04-802B-6E539F7102D7" yields no results. So I know this must be a registry problem, But I have tried seemingly every google result I have found. I have tried Regasm and regsvcs .exe's to no avail. Many pages just tell me that dragging the dll to the COM+ manager should automatically register the component. So how do I register the Type library? Details on how I made EventPackage COM+ component Ran the VB6-VB.NET wizard Then I added some lines to the assemblyinfo.vb file added Imports System.EnterpriseServices added Imports System.EnterpriseServices Imports System.Data.SqlClient <Assembly: CLSCompliant(True)> <Assembly: AssemblyKeyFileAttribute("...")> for a strong name <Assembly: Guid("...")> (Where "..." is the COM+ CLSID of the old component) I added the following to the class file IEventListener.VB Imports System.EnterpriseServices <ComClass("...")> _ (Where ... is the proper COM+ CLSID, that is the only argument) Inherits ServicedComponent changed the ID made by the Conversion wizard to the proper value (from <System.Runtime.InteropServices.ProgId("IEventListener_NET.IEventListener)> to <System.Runtime.InteropServices.ProgId("EventPackage.IEventListener")> _ Then I dragged the DLL into the COM+ manager in the proper COM+ application (although, the "Path" is not specified and only says mscoree.dll)

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  • How to fix OpenGL/SDL runtime error which is probobly caused by adding textures [closed]

    - by Arturs Lapins
    Hello I've recently worked with OpenGL and SDL and I was adding textures to my GL_QUADS and when I ran my program I came across with a runtime error. I've searched all over the internet for a fix but I couldn't find anything so I guess I had one more option. Asking here. So here is some of my code. int loadTexture(std::string fileName){ SDL_Surface *image=IMG_Load(fileName.c_str()); SDL_DisplayFormatAlpha(image); unsigned int id; glGenTextures(1,&id); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D,&id); glTexParameterf(GL_TEXTURE_2D,GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER,GL_NEAREST); glTexParameterf(GL_TEXTURE_2D,GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER,GL_NEAREST); glTexParameterf(GL_TEXTURE_2D,GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S,GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); glTexParameterf(GL_TEXTURE_2D,GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T,GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); glTexImage2D(GL_TEXTURE_2D,0,GL_RGBA,image->w,image >h,0,GL_RGBA,GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE,image->pixels); SDL_FreeSurface(image); return id; } That's my loadTexture function. void init() { glClearColor(0.0, 0.0, 0.0, 1.0); glMatrixMode(GL_PROJECTION); glLoadIdentity(); gluPerspective(45.0, 800.0 / 600.0, 1.0, 500.0); glMatrixMode(GL_MODELVIEW); glEnable(GL_DEPTH_TEST); glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); tex=loadTexture("test.png"); } That's my init function for OpenGL. Btw I have declared my tex variable. void render() { glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT | GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT); glLoadIdentity(); glTranslatef(0.0, 0.0, -10.0); glRotatef(rotation, 1.0, 1.0, 1.0); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, tex); glBegin(GL_QUADS); glTexCoord2f(1.0, 0.0); glVertex3f(-2.0, 2.0, 0.0); glTexCoord2f(1.0, 1.0); glVertex3f(2.0, 2.0, 0.0); glTexCoord2f(1.0, 0.0); glVertex3f(2.0, -2.0, 0.0); glTexCoord2f(0.0, 0.0); glVertex3f(-2.0, -2.0, 0.0); glEnd(); } That's my render function for all my OpenGL render stuff... The render function is called in the main function which contains a game loop. Here is the runtime error when I run it with Visual C++ Unhandled exception at 0x004ffee9 in OpenGL Crap.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x05c90000. So I have only had this error when I added textures... ... So I found where the error occured it was at this line glTexImage2D(GL_TEXTURE_2D,0,GL_RGBA,image->w,image->h,0,GL_RGBA,GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE,image->pixels); but I have totally no Idea what could it be. Update Only thanks to zero298

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  • EJB / JSF java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.ericsantanna.jobFC.dao.DAOFactoryRemote from [Module "com.sun.jsf-impl:main" from local module loader

    - by Eric Sant'Anna
    I'm in my first time using EJB and JSF, and I can't resolve this: 20:23:12,457 Grave [javax.enterprise.resource.webcontainer.jsf.application] (http-localhost-127.0.0.1-8081-2) com.ericsantanna.jobFC.dao.DAOFactoryRemote from [Module "com.sun.jsf-impl:main" from local module loader @439db2b2 (roots: C:\jboss-as-7.1.1.Final\modules)]: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.ericsantanna.jobFC.dao.DAOFactoryRemote from [Module "com.sun.jsf-impl:main" from local module loader @439db2b2 (roots: C:\jboss-as-7.1.1.Final\modules)] I'm getting this when I do an action like a selectOneMenu or a commandButton click. DAOFactory.class @Singleton @Remote(DAOFactoryRemote.class) public class DAOFactory implements DAOFactoryRemote { private static final long serialVersionUID = 6030538139815885895L; @PersistenceContext private EntityManager entityManager; @EJB private JobDAORemote jobDAORemote; /** * Default constructor. */ public DAOFactory() { // TODO Auto-generated constructor stub } @Override public JobDAORemote getJobDAO() { JobDAO jobDAO = (JobDAO) jobDAORemote; jobDAO.setEntityManager(entityManager); return jobDAO; } JobDAO.class @Stateless @Remote(JobDAORemote.class) public class JobDAO implements JobDAORemote { private static final long serialVersionUID = -5483992924812255349L; private EntityManager entityManager; /** * Default constructor. */ public JobDAO() { // TODO Auto-generated constructor stub } @Override public void insert(Job t) { entityManager.persist(t); } @Override public Job findById(Class<Job> classe, Long id) { return entityManager.getReference(classe, id); } @Override public Job findByName(Class<Job> clazz, String name) { return entityManager .createQuery("SELECT job FROM " + clazz.getName() + " job WHERE job.nome = :nome" , Job.class) .setParameter("name", name) .getSingleResult(); } ... TriggerFormBean.class @ManagedBean @ViewScoped @Stateless public class TriggerFormBean implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = -3293560384606586480L; @EJB private DAOFactoryRemote daoFactory; @EJB private TriggerManagerRemote triggerManagerRemote; ... triggerForm.xhtml (a portion with problem) </p:layoutUnit> <p:layoutUnit id="eastConditionPanel" position="center" size="50%"> <p:panel header="Conditions to Release" style="width:97%;height:97%;"> <h:panelGrid columns="2" cellpadding="3"> <h:outputLabel value="Condition Name:" for="conditionName" /> <p:inputText id="conditionName" value="#{triggerFormBean.newCondition.name}" /> </h:panelGrid> <p:commandButton value="Add Condition" update="conditionsToReleaseList" id="addConditionToRelease" actionListener="#{triggerFormBean.addNewCondition}" /> <p:orderList id="conditionsToReleaseList" value="#{triggerFormBean.trigger.conditionsToRelease}" var="condition" controlsLocation="none" itemLabel="#{condition.name}" itemValue="#{condition}" iconOnly="true" style="width:97%;heigth:97%;"/> </p:panel> </p:layoutUnit> In TriggerFormBean.class if comments daoFactory we get the same exception with triggerManagerRemote, both annotated with @EJB. I'm don't understand the relationship between my DAOFactory and the "Module com.sun.jsf-impl:main"... Thanks.

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  • Hibernate Persistence problems with Bean Mapping (Dozer)

    - by BuffaloBuffalo
    I am using Hibernate 3, and having a particular issue when persisting a new Entity which has an association with an existing detached entity. Easiest way to explain this is via code samples. I have two entities, FooEntity and BarEntity, of which a BarEntity can be associated with many FooEntity: @Entity public class FooEntity implements Foo{ @Id private Long id; @ManyToOne(targetEntity = BarEntity.class) @JoinColumn(name = "bar_id", referencedColumnName = "id") @Cascade(value={CascadeType.ALL}) private Bar bar; } @Entity public class BarEntity implements Bar{ @Id private Long id; @OneToMany(mappedBy = "bar", targetEntity = FooEntity.class) private Set<Foo> foos; } Foo and Bar are interfaces that loosely define getters for the various fields. There are corresponding FooImpl and BarImpl classes that are essentially just the entity objects without the annotations. What I am trying to do is construct a new instance of FooImpl, and persist it after setting a number of fields. The new Foo instance will have its 'bar' member set to an existing Bar (runtime being a BarEntity) from the database (retrieved via session.get(..)). After the FooImpl has all of its properties set, Apache Dozer is used to map between the 'domain' object FooImpl and the Entity FooEntity. What Dozer is doing in the background is instantiating a new FooEntity and setting all of the matching fields. BarEntity is cloned as well via instantiation and set the FooEntity's 'bar' member. After this occurs, passing the new FooEntity object to persist. This throws the exception: org.hibernate.PersistentObjectException: detached entity passed to persist: com.company.entity.BarEntity Below is in code the steps that are occurring FooImpl foo = new FooImpl(); //returns at runtime a persistent BarEntity through session.get() Bar bar = BarService.getBar(1L); foo.setBar(bar); ... //This constructs a new instance of FooEntity, with a member 'bar' which itself is a new instance that is detached) FooEntity entityToPersist = dozerMapper.map(foo, FooEntity.class); ... session.persist(entityToPersist); I have been able to resolve this issue by either removing or changing the @Cascade annotation, but that limits future use for say adding a new Foo with a new Bar attached to it already. Is there some solution here I am missing? I would be surprised if this issue hasn't been solved somewhere before, either by altering how Dozer Maps the children of Foo or how Hibernate reacts to a detached Child Entity.

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  • C++ include statement required if defining a map in a headerfile.

    - by Justin
    I was doing a project for computer course on programming concepts. This project was to be completed in C++ using Object Oriented designs we learned throughout the course. Anyhow, I have two files symboltable.h and symboltable.cpp. I want to use a map as the data structure so I define it in the private section of the header file. I #include <map> in the cpp file before I #include "symboltable.h". I get several errors from the compiler (MS VS 2008 Pro) when I go to debug/run the program the first of which is: Error 1 error C2146: syntax error : missing ';' before identifier 'table' c:\users\jsmith\documents\visual studio 2008\projects\project2\project2\symboltable.h 22 Project2 To fix this I had to #include <map> in the header file, which to me seems strange. Here are the relevant code files: // symboltable.h #include <map> class SymbolTable { public: SymbolTable() {} void insert(string variable, double value); double lookUp(string variable); void init(); // Added as part of the spec given in the conference area. private: map<string, double> table; // Our container for variables and their values. }; and // symboltable.cpp #include <map> #include <string> #include <iostream> using namespace std; #include "symboltable.h" void SymbolTable::insert(string variable, double value) { table[variable] = value; // Creates a new map entry, if variable name already exist it overwrites last value. } double SymbolTable::lookUp(string variable) { if(table.find(variable) == table.end()) // Search for the variable, find() returns a position, if thats the end then we didnt find it. throw exception("Error: Uninitialized variable"); else return table[variable]; } void SymbolTable::init() { table.clear(); // Clears the map, removes all elements. }

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  • When may I ask a question to fellow developers? (Rules before asking questions).

    - by Zwei Steinen
    I assigned a quite simple task to one junior developer today, and he kept pinging me EVERY 5 minutes for HOURS, asking STEP BY STEP, what to do. Whenever something went wrong, he simply copy&pasted the log and basically wrote, "An exception occurred. What should I do?" So I finally had to tell him, "If you want to be a developer, please start thinking a little bit. Read the error message. That's what they are for!". I also however, tell junior developers to ask questions before spending too much time trying to solve it themselves. This might sound contradictory, but I feel there is some kind of an implicit rule that distinguishes questions that should be asked fairly quickly and that should not (and I try to follow those rules when I ask questions..) So my question is, do you have any rules that you follow, or expect others to follow on asking questions? If so, what are they? Let me start with my own. If you have struggled for more than 90 min, you may ask that question (exceptions exists). If you haven't struggled for more than 15 min, you may not ask that question (if you are sure that the answer can not be found within 15 min, this rule does not have to apply). If it is completely out of your domain and you do not plan to learn that domain, you may ask that question after 15 min (e.g. if I am a java programmer and need to back up the DB, I may ask the DBA what procedure to follow after googling for 15 min). If it is a "local" question, whose answer is difficult to derive or for which resources is difficult to get (e.g. asking an colleague "what method xxx does" etc.), you may ask that question after 15 min. If the answer for it is difficult to derive, and you know that the other person knows the answer, you may ask the question after 15 min (e.g. asking a hibernate expert "What do I need to change else to make this work?". If the process to derive the answer is interesting and is a good learning opportunity, you may ask for hints but you may not ask for answers! What are your rules?

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  • Creating and Saving an Excel File

    - by Kris
    I have the following code that creates a new Excel file in my C# code behind. When I attempt to save the file I would like the user to select the location of the save. In Method #1, I can save the file my using the workbook SaveCopyAs without prompting the user for a location. This saves one file to the C:\Temp directory. Method #2 will save the file in my Users\Documents folder, then prompt the user to select the location and save a second copy. How can I eliminate the first copy from saving in the Users\Documents folder? Excel.Application oXL; Excel._Workbook oWB; Excel._Worksheet oSheet; Excel.Range oRng; try { //Start Excel and get Application object. oXL = new Excel.Application(); oXL.Visible = false; //Get a new workbook. oWB = (Excel._Workbook)(oXL.Workbooks.Add(Missing.Value)); oSheet = (Excel._Worksheet)oWB.ActiveSheet; // ***** oSheet.Cells[2, 6] = "Ship To:"; oSheet.get_Range("F2", "F2").Font.Bold = true; oSheet.Cells[2, 7] = sShipToName; oSheet.Cells[3, 7] = sAddress; oSheet.Cells[4, 7] = sCityStateZip; oSheet.Cells[5, 7] = sContactName; oSheet.Cells[6, 7] = sContactPhone; oSheet.Cells[9, 1] = "Shipment No:"; oSheet.get_Range("A9", "A9").Font.Bold = true; oSheet.Cells[9, 2] = sJobNumber; oSheet.Cells[9, 6] = "Courier:"; oSheet.get_Range("F9", "F9").Font.Bold = true; oSheet.Cells[9, 7] = sCarrierName; oSheet.Cells[11, 1] = "Requested Delivery Date:"; oSheet.get_Range("A11", "A11").Font.Bold = true; oSheet.Cells[11, 2] = sRequestDeliveryDate; oSheet.Cells[11, 6] = "Courier Acct No:"; oSheet.get_Range("F11", "F11").Font.Bold = true; oSheet.Cells[11, 7] = sCarrierAcctNum; // ***** Method #1 //oWB.SaveCopyAs(@"C:\Temp\" + sJobNumber +".xls"); Method #2 oXL.SaveWorkspace(sJobNumber + ".xls"); } catch (Exception theException) { String errorMessage; errorMessage = "Error: "; errorMessage = String.Concat(errorMessage, theException.Message); errorMessage = String.Concat(errorMessage, " Line: "); errorMessage = String.Concat(errorMessage, theException.Source); }

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  • how to use method in AsyncTask in android?

    - by J.R.P
    In my application use JASON webservice to get data from Google Navigarion api. I use the Code is below. i got Exception android.os.NetworkOnMainThreadException. how to use AsyncTask? here is my code. Thanks.`public class MainActivity extends MapActivity { MapView mapView ; public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); System.out.println("*************1**************1"); setContentView(R.layout.activity_main); System.out.println("*************2**************"); mapView = (MapView) findViewById(R.id.mapv); System.out.println("*************3**************"); Route route = directions(new GeoPoint((int)(26.2*1E6),(int)(50.6*1E6)), new GeoPoint((int)(26.3*1E6),(int)(50.7*1E6))); RouteOverlay routeOverlay = new RouteOverlay(route, Color.BLUE); mapView.getOverlays().add(routeOverlay); mapView.invalidate(); System.out.println("*************4**************"); } @SuppressLint("ParserError") private Route directions(final GeoPoint start, final GeoPoint dest) { //https://developers.google.com/maps/documentation/directions/#JSON <- get api String jsonURL = "http://maps.googleapis.com/maps/api/directions/json?"; final StringBuffer sBuf = new StringBuffer(jsonURL); sBuf.append("origin="); sBuf.append(start.getLatitudeE6()/1E6); sBuf.append(','); sBuf.append(start.getLongitudeE6()/1E6); sBuf.append("&destination="); sBuf.append(dest.getLatitudeE6()/1E6); sBuf.append(','); sBuf.append(dest.getLongitudeE6()/1E6); sBuf.append("&sensor=true&mode=driving"); Parser parser = new GoogleParser(sBuf.toString()); Route r = parser.parse(); System.out.println("********r in thread*****" +r); return r; } @Override public boolean onCreateOptionsMenu(Menu menu) { getMenuInflater().inflate(R.menu.activity_main, menu); return true; } @Override protected boolean isRouteDisplayed() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return false; } } `

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  • Getting HIERARCHY_REQUEST_ERR when using Javascript to recursively generate a nested list

    - by Mark
    I have a method that is trying to take in a list. This list can contain data and other lists. The end goal is to try to convert something like this ["a", "b", ["c", "d"]] into <ol> <li> <b>a</a> </li> <li> <b>b</a> </li> <ol> <li> <b>c</a> </li> <li> <b>d</a> </li> </ol> </ol> The code is: function $(tagName) { return document.createElement(tagName); } //returns an html element representing data //data should be an array or some sort of value function tagMaker(data) { tag = null; if(data instanceof Array) { //data is an array, represent using <ol> tag = $("ol"); for(i=0; i<data.length; i++) { //construct one <li> for each item in the array listItem = $("li"); //get the html element representing this particular item in the array child = tagMaker(data[i]); //<li>*html for child*</li> listItem.appendChild(child); //add this item to the list tag.appendChild(listItem); } } else { //data is not an array, represent using <b>data</b> tag = $("b"); tag.innerHTML = data.toString(); } return tag; } Calling tagMaker throws HIERARCHY_REQUEST_ERR: DOM Exception 3, rather than generating a helpful HTML element object which I was planning to append to document.body.

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  • NullPointerException on TextView

    - by Stephen Adipradhana
    i get a null pointer exception and the program crash on each time i want to update the highscore text using setText(). what causes this problem? this code is when i set my layout, the layout is a part of the gameView using opengl, and i put the highscore textview on the upper left corner public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { SFEngine.display = ((WindowManager)getSystemService(Context.WINDOW_SERVICE)).getDefaultDisplay();//ambl ukuran width height layar super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); gameView = new SFGameView(this); gameView.setLayoutParams(new RelativeLayout.LayoutParams(LayoutParams.MATCH_PARENT, LayoutParams.MATCH_PARENT)); RelativeLayout layout = new RelativeLayout(this); layout.setLayoutParams(new FrameLayout.LayoutParams(LayoutParams.MATCH_PARENT, LayoutParams.MATCH_PARENT)); TextView textBox = new TextView(this); textBox.setId(1); textBox.setText("HIGH SCORE"); textBox.setBackgroundColor(Color.BLUE); textBox.setWidth(SFEngine.display.getWidth()/2); textBox.setHeight(50); Button pauseButton = new Button(this); pauseButton.setText("PAUSE"); pauseButton.setHeight(50); pauseButton.setWidth(SFEngine.display.getWidth()/2); pauseButton.setOnTouchListener(new OnTouchListener(){ public boolean onTouch(View v, MotionEvent e) { //pause game SFEngine.isPlaying = false; Intent i1 = new Intent(SFGames.this, pause.class); gameView.onPause(); startActivityForResult(i1,0);//hrs pk result soalny mw blk lg return true; } }); RelativeLayout.LayoutParams lp_pause = new RelativeLayout.LayoutParams(RelativeLayout.LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT, RelativeLayout.LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT); RelativeLayout.LayoutParams lp_hs = new RelativeLayout.LayoutParams(RelativeLayout.LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT, RelativeLayout.LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT); lp_hs.addRule(RelativeLayout.ALIGN_PARENT_LEFT); lp_pause.addRule(RelativeLayout.ALIGN_PARENT_TOP); lp_pause.addRule(RelativeLayout.ALIGN_PARENT_RIGHT); textBox.setLayoutParams(lp_hs); pauseButton.setLayoutParams(lp_pause); layout.addView(gameView); layout.addView(textBox); layout.addView(pauseButton); setContentView(layout); and here is the setText code public boolean onTouchEvent (MotionEvent event){//buat nerima input user if(!SFEngine.isPlaying){ finish(); } textBox.setText("High Score :" + SFEngine.score);//here is the source of the prob .....

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  • Command Not working in separate thread in J2me.

    - by RishiPatel
    I am creating a bluetooth application. I created a simple midlet with a exit command and i create a thread for finding the service and discovering the device. While doing so it displays a animated screen on which i added the parent commandListener for exit command. After successful connection both user is represented with greetings(Current screen calls the parent Display method setCurrent for displaying itself). This screen also have CommandListener set to the parent. Now i want to add few more commands. I Implemented the CommandLIstener Interface in this class, added few commands but the commands are not working. I dont whats wen wrong. I am giving u Code snippets to fully describle my issue : - package name Imports here public class MyMidlet extends MIDlet implements CommandListener { public CommandListener theListener; public Display theDisplay; public Command exitCommand; public MyMidlet() { // Retrieve the display for this MIDlet //Create the initial screen } public void startApp() throws MIDletStateChangeException { } public void pauseApp() { } public void destroyApp(boolean unconditional) { } public void commandAction(Command c, Displayable d) { // Determine if the exit command was selected if (c == exitCommand) { //End application here notifyDestroyed(); } else { //Start the new thread here } } } Now here is the code for the class which is invoked by the above midlet in a separate thread; package here; imports here public class MyService implements Runnable, CommandListener { private MyMidlet parent; private StreamConnection conn; private OutputStream output; private InputStream input; public Command sendCommand; private TextField messageToSend Form form; public BChatService(boolean isServer, BChatMidlet parent) { //some stuff here this.parent = parent; } public void run() { //functino for showing animation here try { input = conn.openInputStream(); output = conn.openOutputStream(); } catch (IOException e) { displayError("IO Error", "An error occurred while opening " + "the input and output streams" + "(IOException: " + e.getMessage() + ")"); try { conn.close(); } catch (Exception ex) { } return; } // Create the Form here when service is discoverd and greets the users Command sendCommand = new Command("Send", Command.ITEM, 2); exitCommand = new Command("Exit", Command.EXIT, 1); form.addCommand(exitCommand); form.addCommand(sendCommand); parent.theDisplay.setCurrent(form); form.setCommandListener(this); public void commandAction(Command c, Displayable d) { if (c == exitCommand) { // End the game parent.destroyApp(true); parent.notifyDestroyed(); } if(c == sendCommand) { form.append("SOme text here"); } } } When i select the Send command, the string doesnt append in form neither exit command works. What can be the possible cause for it?? I need to implement this functionality...Is there any other way to achieve this??

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  • ASP.NET MVC Inheriting from ProfileBase

    - by Glen
    I have 2 related issues. I inherited from ProfileBase and I have a couple of properites as such public SomeType PropertyName { get { return (SomeType)base["PropertyName"]; } set { base["PropertyName"] = value; Save(); } } I also have a User class (UserId, UserName, Profile, LastActivityDate) that has 2 additional properties out of the profile that I retrieve in my View to show a list of Users (i.e. @Model.Profile.PropertyName). However, everytime I access a property (from my View) it seems to update the LastActivityDate in the aspnet_Users table because when I show the LastActivityDate as well as the profile properties on my screen the LastActivtyDate is out of sync with the database. Also there is a LastActivityDate property available in my profile which unfortunately is not available and is in fact set to null and throws an exception when accessing it saying the property UserName is null. So the static Create method provided by ProfileBase seems to retrieve the correct profile properties but does not set the base's UserName property even though you pass in a UserName parameter to the Create method. Is this a internal bug? I was kind of hoping if by accessing the property because the LastActivityDate is updated then I could store that value to update my LastActivityDate in my User class before it is rendered to the page. The only way I can think of doing it is: public SomeType PropertyName { get { SomeType result = (SomeType)base["PropertyName"]; OnLastActivityDateChanged(); return result; } set { base["PropertyName"] = value; } } then in my User class: ... public MyProfile() { Profile.LastActivityDateChanged += Profile_LastActivityDateChanged(); } ~MyProfile() { Profile.LastActivityDateChanged -= Profile_LastActivityDateChanged(); } ... void Profile_LastActivityDateChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Run a query to get the latest LastActivityDate this.LastActivityDate = ... } It seems I have to make 1 call to retrieve the full list to my aspnet_Users table then another call for each row just to get the latest activity date. ARGGGGHHH!!! Am I going about this the wrong way! I put an ajax refresh hyperlink next to each User row and when I click it, immediately after loading the page, the value changes. Therefore my suspision is valid that calling a property via the inherited profilebase class updates the value. Is there a workaround? It is a bit miss leading when my page says User Smith has no activity for 4 days then I click my ajax refresh link (or refresh the whole page for that matter) and now it says Smith was active but it was just me meally showing the page that indirectly caused an activity read event.

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  • How can I store large amount of data from a database to XML (speed problem, part three)?

    - by Andrija
    After getting some responses, the current situation is that I'm using this tip: http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/xml/library/x-tipbigdoc5.html (Listing 1. Turning ResultSets into XML), and XMLWriter for Java from http://www.megginson.com/downloads/ . Basically, it reads date from the database and writes them to a file as characters, using column names to create opening and closing tags. While doing so, I need to make two changes to the input stream, namely to the dates and numbers. // Iterate over the set while (rs.next()) { w.startElement("row"); for (int i = 0; i < count; i++) { Object ob = rs.getObject(i + 1); if (rs.wasNull()) { ob = null; } String colName = meta.getColumnLabel(i + 1); if (ob != null ) { if (ob instanceof Timestamp) { w.dataElement(colName, Util.formatDate((Timestamp)ob, dateFormat)); } else if (ob instanceof BigDecimal){ w.dataElement(colName, Util.transformToHTML(new Integer(((BigDecimal)ob).intValue()))); } else { w.dataElement(colName, ob.toString()); } } else { w.emptyElement(colName); } } w.endElement("row"); } The SQL that gets the results has the to_number command (e.g. to_number(sif.ID) ID ) and the to_date command (e.g. TO_DATE (sif.datum_do, 'DD.MM.RRRR') datum_do). The problems are that the returning date is a timestamp, meaning I don't get 14.02.2010 but rather 14.02.2010 00:00:000 so I have to format it to the dd.mm.yyyy format. The second problem are the numbers; for some reason, they are in database as varchar2 and can have leading zeroes that need to be stripped; I'm guessing I could do that in my SQL with the trim function so the Util.transformToHTML is unnecessary (for clarification, here's the method): public static String transformToHTML(Integer number) { String result = ""; try { result = number.toString(); } catch (Exception e) {} return result; } What I'd like to know is a) Can I get the date in the format I want and skip additional processing thus shortening the processing time? b) Is there a better way to do this? We're talking about XML files that are in the 50 MB - 250 MB filesize category.

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  • JPanel's child components paint/layout problem

    - by Tom Brito
    I'm having a problem that when my frame is shown (after a login dialog) the buttons are not on correct position, then in some miliseconds they go to the right position (the center of the panel with border layout). When I make a SSCCE, it works correct, but when I run my whole code I have this fast-miliseconds delay to the buttons to go to the correct place. Unfortunately, I can't post the whole code, but the method that shows the frame is: public void login(JComponent userView) { centerPanel.removeAll(); centerPanel.add(userView); centerPanel.revalidate(); centerPanel.repaint(); frame.setVisible(true); } What would cause this delay to the panel layout? (I'm running everything in the EDT) -- update In my machine, this SSCCE shows the layout problem in 2 of 10 times I run it: import java.awt.BorderLayout; import javax.swing.JButton; import javax.swing.JFrame; import javax.swing.JPanel; import javax.swing.SwingUtilities; public class TEST { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { System.out.println("Debug test..."); JPanel btnPnl = new JPanel(); btnPnl.add(new JButton("TEST")); JFrame f = new JFrame("TEST"); f.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); f.getContentPane().setLayout(new BorderLayout()); f.getContentPane().add(btnPnl); f.pack(); f.setSize(800, 600); f.setVisible(true); System.out.println("End debug test!"); } }); } } The button first appers in the up-left, and then it goes to the center. Please, note that I'm understand, not just correct. Is it a java bug? --update OK, so the SSCCE don't show the problem with you that tried till now. Maybe it's my computer performance problem. But this don't answer the question, I still think Java Swing is creating new threads for make the layout behind the scenes.

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  • DBConcurrencyException happening on second delete

    - by Malfist
    My code keeps throwing a DBConcurrencyException ("Concurrency violation: the DeleteCommand affected 0 of the expected 1 records.) when I make a second update to the data table. The problem actually happens on a table that is linked to a parent table. The two tables, CashReceipts and CashReceiptsApplyTo are displayed on the same winform, and when I delete two cash receipts the update on cash receipt apply to's table fails with the dbconcurrencyexception (the table is updated everytime the binding source [linked to a binding navigator] changes position). Here is my code: protected override void saveToDatabase() { tblCashReceiptsBindingSource.EndEdit(); tblCashReceiptsTableAdapter.Update(rentalEaseDataSet.tblCashReceipts); //update the datatable foreach (DataGridViewRow viewRow in viewApplications.Rows) { if (viewRow.Cells[colAppID.Index].Value == null || viewRow.Cells[colApplyTo.Index].Value == null) { continue; } else if ((int)viewRow.Cells[colAppID.Index].Value == -1) { insertNewRow(viewRow); } else { updateRow(viewRow); } } try { tblCashReceiptsApplyToTableAdapter.Update(rentalEaseDataSet.tblCashReceiptsApplyTo); //tblCashReceiptsApplyToTableAdapter.Fill(rentalEaseDataSet.tblCashReceiptsApplyTo); ); } catch (Exception e) { Bitmap bitmap = new Bitmap(this.Width, this.Height); this.DrawToBitmap(bitmap, new Rectangle(0, 0, this.Width, this.Height)); saveScreenshot(this.GetType().FullName, e.Message, bitmap); MessageBox.Show("There was an error saving your changes. This means that you should close the form, and re-enter the last Receipt you entered.\n\nPlease report this."); } } The insertNewRow, and updateRow are simple: private void updateRow(DataGridViewRow viewRow) { //be forgiving if ((int)viewRow.Cells[colAppID.Index].Value == -1) { insertNewRow(viewRow); return; } //find row in table, if it's not there, crash and burn RentalEaseDataSet.tblCashReceiptsApplyToRow updateRow = rentalEaseDataSet.tblCashReceiptsApplyTo.Select("ID = " + viewRow.Cells[colAppID.Index].Value.ToString())[0] as RentalEaseDataSet.tblCashReceiptsApplyToRow; updateRow.BeginEdit(); updateRow.CashReceiptsID = (int)viewRow.Cells[colCashReceipt.Index].Value; updateRow.ApplyTo = (int)viewRow.Cells[colApplyTo.Index].Value; updateRow.Paid = CurrencyToDecimal(viewRow.Cells[colPaid.Index].Value); if (viewRow.Cells[colMemo.Index].Value != null) { updateRow.Memo = viewRow.Cells[colMemo.Index].Value.ToString(); } else { updateRow.SetMemoNull(); } updateRow.EndEdit(); } private void insertNewRow(DataGridViewRow viewRow) { //be forgiving if ((int)viewRow.Cells[colAppID.Index].Value != -1) { updateRow(viewRow); return; } RentalEaseDataSet.tblCashReceiptsApplyToRow newRow = rentalEaseDataSet.tblCashReceiptsApplyTo.NewRow() as RentalEaseDataSet.tblCashReceiptsApplyToRow; newRow.CashReceiptsID = (int) viewRow.Cells[colCashReceipt.Index].Value; newRow.ApplyTo = (int) viewRow.Cells[colApplyTo.Index].Value; newRow.Paid = CurrencyToDecimal(viewRow.Cells[colPaid.Index].Value); if (viewRow.Cells[colMemo.Index].Value != null) { newRow.Memo = viewRow.Cells[colMemo.Index].Value.ToString(); } rentalEaseDataSet.tblCashReceiptsApplyTo.Rows.Add(newRow); //update the ID viewRow.Cells[colAppID.Index].Value = newRow.ID; } Any idea why it would throw that error on the second delete?

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  • NSMutableDictionary confused over how to use keys with certain code ?

    - by Jules
    I'm getting data from a database and I need to add the string field value and the record id. However, I need this to work with some existing code... I'm replacing this (see code below) and getting data from my database. NSDictionary *dict = [[NSDictionary alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:path]; self.allCategories = dict; [dict release]; But needs to work with these key and value search functions. - (void)resetSearch { NSMutableDictionary *allCategoriesCopy = [self.allCategories mutableDeepCopy]; self.Categories = allCategoriesCopy; [allCategoriesCopy release]; NSMutableArray *keyArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; [keyArray addObject:UITableViewIndexSearch]; [keyArray addObjectsFromArray:[[self.allCategories allKeys] sortedArrayUsingSelector:@selector(compare:)]]; self.keys = keyArray; [keyArray release]; } . - (void)handleSearchForTerm:(NSString *)searchTerm { NSMutableArray *sectionsToRemove = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; [self resetSearch]; for (NSString *key in self.keys) { NSMutableArray *array = [Categories valueForKey:key]; NSMutableArray *toRemove = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; for (NSString *name in array) { if ([name rangeOfString:searchTerm options:NSCaseInsensitiveSearch].location == NSNotFound) [toRemove addObject:name]; } if ([array count] == [toRemove count]) [sectionsToRemove addObject:key]; [array removeObjectsInArray:toRemove]; [toRemove release]; } [self.keys removeObjectsInArray:sectionsToRemove]; [sectionsToRemove release]; [table reloadData]; } Keep getting an error from this code... NSDictionary *arrayTmp= [[NSDictionary alloc] init]; ... loop records int cid = sqlite3_column_int(statementTMP, 0); NSString *category = [[NSString alloc] initWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(statementTMP, 1)]; [arrayTmp setObject:category forKey:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%i", cid]]; Error caused by line above * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '-[NSCFString count]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x4d4c500' * Call stack at first throw * ... end loop self.allCategories = arrayTmp; [arrayTmp release];

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  • Java: Is there a way to efficiently insert or remove many elements from the middle of a LinkedList?

    - by allyourcode
    I was expecting to find this in Java's LinkedList, since the point of linked lists is to be able to efficiently insert (and remove) anywhere (assuming you have some kind of pointer to the location where you want to insert or remove). I'm not finding anything in the API though. Am I overlooking something? The closest thing I can find to this are the add and remove method in ListIterator. This has some limitations though. In particular, other iterators become invalid as soon as the underlying LinkedList is modified via remove, according to the API. This is born out in my tests as well; the following program results in a IllegalStateException: import java.util.*; public class RemoveFromLinkedList { public static void main(String[] args) { LinkedList<Integer> myList= new LinkedList<Integer>(); for (int i = 0; i < 10; ++i) { myList.add(i); } ListIterator<Integer> i1 = myList.listIterator(); ListIterator<Integer> i2 = myList.listIterator(); for (int i = 0; i < 3; ++i) { i1.next(); i2.next(); } System.out.println("i1.next() should be 3: " + i1.next()); i1.remove(); i1.remove(); // Exception! System.out.println("i2.next() should be 5: " + i2.next()); } } Ideally, what I'm expecting is something like this: // In my imagination only. This is the way Java actually works, afaict. // Construct two insertion/deletion points in LinkedList myLinkedList. myIterator = myLinkedList.iterator(); for (...) { myIterator.next(); } start = myIterator.clone(); for (...) { myIterator.next(); } // Later... after = myLinkedList.spliceAfter(myIterator, someOtherLinkedList); // start, myIterator, and after are still all valid; thus, I can do this: // Removes everything I just spliced in, as well as some other stuff before that. myLinkedList.remove(start, after); // Now, myIterator is invalid, but not start, nor after. C++ has something like this for its list class (template). Only iterators pointing to moved elements become invalidated, not ALL iterators.

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  • Swing: How do I run a job from AWT thread, but after a window was layed out?

    - by java.is.for.desktop
    My complete GUI runs inside the AWT thread, because I start the main window using SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait(...). Now I have a JDialog which has just to display a JLabel, which indicates that a certain job is in progress, and close that dialog after the job was finished. The problem is: the label is not displayed. That job seems to be started before JDialog was fully layed-out. When I just let the dialog open without waiting for a job and closing, the label is displayed. The last thing the dialog does in its ctor is setVisible(true). Things such as revalidate(), repaint(), ... don't help either. Even when I start a thread for the monitored job, and wait for it using someThread.join() it doesn't help, because the current thread (which is the AWT thread) is blocked by join, I guess. Replacing JDialog with JFrame doesn't help either. So, is the concept wrong in general? Or can I manage it to do certain job after it is ensured that a JDialog (or JFrame) is fully layed-out? Simplified algorithm of what I'm trying to achieve: Create a subclass of JDialog Ensure that it and its contents are fully layed-out Start a process and wait for it to finish (threaded or not, doesn't matter) Close the dialog I managed to write a reproducible test case: EDIT Problem from an answer is now addressed: This use case does display the label, but it fails to close after the "simulated process", because of dialog's modality. import java.awt.*; import javax.swing.*; public class _DialogTest2 { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait(new Runnable() { final JLabel jLabel = new JLabel("Please wait..."); @Override public void run() { JFrame myFrame = new JFrame("Main frame"); myFrame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); myFrame.setSize(750, 500); myFrame.setLocationRelativeTo(null); myFrame.setVisible(true); JDialog d = new JDialog(myFrame, "I'm waiting"); d.setModalityType(Dialog.ModalityType.APPLICATION_MODAL); d.add(jLabel); d.setSize(300, 200); d.setLocationRelativeTo(null); d.setVisible(true); SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { try { Thread.sleep(3000); // simulate process jLabel.setText("Done"); } catch (InterruptedException ex) { } } }); d.setVisible(false); d.dispose(); myFrame.setVisible(false); myFrame.dispose(); } }); } }

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  • SINGLE SIGN ON SECURITY THREAT! FACEBOOK access_token broadcast in the open/clear

    - by MOKANA
    Subsequent to my posting there was a remark made that this was not really a question but I thought I did indeed postulate one. So that there is no ambiquity here is the question with a lead in: Since there is no data sent from Facebook during the Canvas Load process that is not at some point divulged, including the access_token, session and other data that could uniquely identify a user, does any one see any other way other than adding one more layer, i.e., a password, sent over the wire via HTTPS along with the access_toekn, that will insure unique untampered with security by the user? Using Wireshark I captured the local broadcast while loading my Canvas Application page. I was hugely surprised to see the access_token broadcast in the open, viewable for any one to see. This access_token is appended to any https call to the Facebook OpenGraph API. Using facebook as a single click log on has now raised huge concerns for me. It is stored in a session object in memory and the cookie is cleared upon app termination and after reviewing the FB.Init calls I saw a lot of HTTPS calls so I assumed the access_token was always encrypted. But last night I saw in the status bar a call from what was simply an http call that included the App ID so I felt I should sniff the Application Canvas load sequence. Today I did sniff the broadcast and in the attached image you can see that there are http calls with the access_token being broadcast in the open and clear for anyone to gain access to. Am I missing something, is what I am seeing and my interpretation really correct. If any one can sniff and get the access_token they can theorically make calls to the Graph API via https, even though the call back would still need to be the site established in Facebook's application set up. But what is truly a security threat is anyone using the access_token for access to their own site. I do not see the value of a single sign on via Facebook if the only thing that was established as secure was the access_token - becuase for what I can see it clearly is not secure. Access tokens that never have an expire date do not change. Access_tokens are different for every user, to access to another site could be held tight to just a single user, but compromising even a single user's data is unacceptable. http://www.creatingstory.com/images/InTheOpen.png Went back and did more research on this: FINDINGS: Went back an re ran the canvas application to verify that it was not any of my code that was not broadcasting. In this call: HTTP GET /connect.php/en_US/js/CacheData HTTP/1.1 The USER ID is clearly visible in the cookie. So USER_ID's are fully visible, but they are already. Anyone can go to pretty much any ones page and hover over the image and see the USER ID. So no big threat. APP_ID are also easily obtainable - but . . . http://www.creatingstory.com/images/InTheOpen2.png The above file clearly shows the FULL ACCESS TOKEN clearly in the OPEN via a Facebook initiated call. Am I wrong. TELL ME I AM WRONG because I want to be wrong about this. I have since reset my app secret so I am showing the real sniff of the Canvas Page being loaded. Additional data 02/20/2011: @ifaour - I appreciate the time you took to compile your response. I am pretty familiar with the OAuth process and have a pretty solid understanding of the signed_request unpacking and utilization of the access_token. I perform a substantial amount of my processing on the server and my Facebook server side flows are all complete and function without any flaw that I know of. The application secret is secure and never passed to the front end application and is also changed regularly. I am being as fanatical about security as I can be, knowing there is so much I don’t know that could come back and bite me. Two huge access_token issues: The issues concern the possible utilization of the access_token from the USER AGENT (browser). During the FB.INIT() process of the Facebook JavaScript SDK, a cookie is created as well as an object in memory called a session object. This object, along with the cookie contain the access_token, session, a secret, and uid and status of the connection. The session object is structured such that is supports both the new OAuth and the legacy flows. With OAuth, the access_token and status are pretty much al that is used in the session object. The first issue is that the access_token is used to make HTTPS calls to the GRAPH API. If you had the access_token, you could do this from any browser: https://graph.facebook.com/220439?access_token=... and it will return a ton of information about the user. So any one with the access token can gain access to a Facebook account. You can also make additional calls to any info the user has granted access to the application tied to the access_token. At first I thought that a call into the GRAPH had to have a Callback to the URL established in the App Setup, but I tested it as mentioned below and it will return info back right into the browser. Adding that callback feature would be a good idea I think, tightens things up a bit. The second issue is utilization of some unique private secured data that identifies the user to the third party data base, i.e., like in my case, I would use a single sign on to populate user information into my database using this unique secured data item (i.e., access_token which contains the APP ID, the USER ID, and a hashed with secret sequence). None of this is a problem on the server side. You get a signed_request, you unpack it with secret, make HTTPS calls, get HTTPS responses back. When a user has information entered via the USER AGENT(browser) that must be stored via a POST, this unique secured data element would be sent via HTTPS such that they are validated prior to data base insertion. However, If there is NO secured piece of unique data that is supplied via the single sign on process, then there is no way to guarantee unauthorized access. The access_token is the one piece of data that is utilized by Facebook to make the HTTPS calls into the GRAPH API. it is considered unique in regards to BOTH the USER and the APPLICATION and is initially secure via the signed_request packaging. If however, it is subsequently transmitted in the clear and if I can sniff the wire and obtain the access_token, then I can pretend to be the application and gain the information they have authorized the application to see. I tried the above example from a Safari and IE browser and it returned all of my information to me in the browser. In conclusion, the access_token is part of the signed_request and that is how the application initially obtains it. After OAuth authentication and authorization, i.e., the USER has logged into Facebook and then runs your app, the access_token is stored as mentioned above and I have sniffed it such that I see it stored in a Cookie that is transmitted over the wire, resulting in there being NO UNIQUE SECURED IDENTIFIABLE piece of information that can be used to support interaction with the database, or in other words, unless there were one more piece of secure data sent along with the access_token to my database, i.e., a password, I would not be able to discern if it is a legitimate call. Luckily I utilized secure AJAX via POST and the call has to come from the same domain, but I am sure there is a way to hijack that. I am totally open to any ideas on this topic on how to uniquely identify my USERS other than adding another layer (password) via this single sign on process or if someone would just share with me that I read and analyzed my data incorrectly and that the access_token is always secure over the wire. Mahalo nui loa in advance.

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  • How can I change the TreeView Icon into a folder icon?

    - by KDP
    I'm trying to change the icon of my TreeView in a folder icon. Also when it collapses it needs to have an opened folder icon. My treeview has databound items in it and the code is: <TreeView x:Name="TreeViewCategories" Grid.Row="0" Grid.Column="1" Height="610" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="29,111,0,0" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="315" BorderThickness="0" Background="Transparent" > <TreeView.ItemTemplate> <HierarchicalDataTemplate ItemsSource="{Binding Items}"> <TextBlock FontSize="20" Text="{Binding Name}" PreviewMouseDown="TextBlock_PreviewMouseDown"/> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> </TreeView.ItemTemplate> </TreeView> Also this is how I fill the treeview with items from XML (It's a snipped out of alot of code: private void LoadHospitalXML() { try { FileStream fs = new FileStream("ConfigOrgHospital.xml", FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read); var xml = XmlReader.Create(fs); rootElement = ConvertHospitalData(xml); this.TreeViewCategories.ItemsSource = null; List<HospitalWrapper> li = new List<HospitalWrapper>(); var hosp = rootElement.Items.FirstOrDefault(); if (hosp != null) { foreach (var i in hosp.Hospital) { li.AddIfNotNull(CreateHospList(i)); } } this.TreeViewCategories.ItemsSource = li; } catch (Exception e) { MessageBox.Show(e.Message); } } private HospitalWrapper CreateHospList(object obj) { var newItem = new HospitalWrapper(); newItem.Context = obj; //Hospital Names// if (obj is HospitalDataHospitalsHospital) { var hosp = (HospitalDataHospitalsHospital)obj; //newItem.Title = "Hospitals"; newItem.Name = hosp.DefaultName; var tmp = new HospitalWrapper(); tmp.Name = "Sites"; tmp.IsTitle = true; if (hosp.Sites != null) foreach (var i in hosp.Sites) { tmp.Items.AddIfNotNull(CreateHospList(i)); } newItem.Items.Add(tmp); tmp = new HospitalWrapper(); tmp.Name = "Specialties"; tmp.IsTitle = true; if (hosp.Deps != null) foreach (var j in hosp.Deps) { tmp.Items.AddIfNotNull(CreateHospList(j)); } newItem.Items.Add(tmp); } }

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  • sed multiline pygmentize

    - by dasickis
    I would like to take the html piece and pass it to pygmentize to colorize it accordingly. I'm wondering how I could use sed or some other cli tool to get that accomplished. I tried a bunch of sed one-liners and tried to use the following SO questions: Sed multiline replacement question Using or in multiline sed replacement sed or awk multiline replace I have the following log: 2012-03-26 18:04:27,385 9372 [main] ERROR web.commons.exception.ServiceInvocationException - Response from server cannot be decoded to JSON, responsePayload = <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1"/> <title>Error 404 Not Found</title> </head> <body><h2>HTTP ERROR 404</h2> <p>Problem accessing jetty-url. Reason: <pre> Not Found</pre></p><hr /><i><small>Powered by Jetty://</small></i><br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> </body> </html> org.codehaus.jackson.JsonParseException: Unexpected character ('<' (code 60)): expected a valid value (number, String, array, object, 'true', 'false' or 'null') at [Source: java.io.StringReader@369133f6; line: 1, column: 2] UPDATE I'm adding this to a longer command: mvn -U test | (while read line; do echo ${line} | sed -e "s/.*ERROR.*/`echo -e '\e[91m&\e[0m'`/g" -e "s/.*\(WARN|INFO\).*/`echo -e '\e[93m&\e[0m'`/g"; done)

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