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  • How to get the value of an XML element using Linq even when empty.

    - by Yeodave
    Please excuse my stupidity, I tend to find the traversing XML overly complicated. I am using ASP.NET in VB. I have an XML document which contains all the details of staff in my company... <staff> <staffName>Test Staff</staffName> <staffTitle>Slave</staffTitle> <staffDepartmentName>Finance</staffDepartmentName> <staffOffice>London</staffOffice> <staffEmail>[email protected]</staffEmail> <staffPhone>0207 123 456</staffPhone> <staffNotes>Working hours Mon to Thurs 9.15 - 5.15</staffNotes> <staffBio></staffBio> </staff> As you can see, some nodes do not always contain data for ever member of staff; only Directors have biographies. I access the values like this... For Each staff In ( _ From matches In myXMLFile.Descendants("staff").Descendants("staffName") _ Where matches.Nodes(0).ToString.ToLower.Contains(LCase(search)) _ Order By matches.Value _ Select matches) staffName = staff.Descendants("staffName").Nodes(0).ToString) staffTitle = staff.Descendants("staffTitle").Nodes(0).ToString) staffOffice = staff.Descendants("staffOffice").Nodes(0).ToString) staffEmail = staff.Descendants("staffEmail").Nodes(0).ToString) staffPhone = staff.Descendants("staffPhone").Nodes(0).ToString) staffNotes = staff.Descendants("staffNotes").Nodes(0).ToString) staffBio = staff.Descendants("staffBio").Nodes(0).ToString) ' Do something with that data... Next Once it gets to staffBio I get an error saying "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." obviously because that node does not exist. My question is how can I assign the value to a variable even when it is empty without having to do a conditional check before each assignment?

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  • How to speed up drawing of scaled image? Audio playback chokes during window resize.

    - by Paperflyer
    I am writing an audio player for OSX. One view is a custom view that displays a waveform. The waveform is stored as a instance variable of type NSImage with an NSBitmapImageRep. The view also displays a progress indicator (a thick red line). Therefore, it is updated/redrawn every 30 milliseconds. Since it takes a rather long time to recalculate the image, I do that in a background thread after every window resize and update the displayed image once the new image is ready. In the meantime, the original image is scaled to fit the view like this: // The drawing rectangle is slightly smaller than the view, defined by // the two margins. NSRect drawingRect; drawingRect.origin = NSMakePoint(sideEdgeMarginWidth, topEdgeMarginHeight); drawingRect.size = NSMakeSize([self bounds].size.width-2*sideEdgeMarginWidth, [self bounds].size.height-2*topEdgeMarginHeight); [waveform drawInRect:drawingRect fromRect:NSZeroRect operation:NSCompositeSourceOver fraction:1]; The view makes up the biggest part of the window. During live resize, audio starts choking. Selecting the "big" graphic card on my Macbook Pro makes it less bad, but not by much. CPU utilization is somewhere around 20-40% during live resizes. Instruments suggests that rescaling/redrawing of the image is the problem. Once I stop resizing the window, CPU utilization goes down and audio stops glitching. I already tried to disable image interpolation to speed up the drawing like this: [[NSGraphicsContext currentContext] setImageInterpolation:NSImageInterpolationNone]; That helps, but audio still chokes during live resizes. Do you have an idea how to improve this? The main thing is to prevent the audio from choking.

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  • What happens to exinsting workspaces after upgrading to TFS 2010

    - by user351671
    Hi, I was looking for some insight about what happens to existing workspaces and files that are already checked-out on people, after an upgrade to TFS2010. Surprisingly enough I can not find any satisfactory information on this. (I am talking about upgrading on new hardware by the way. Fresh TFS instance, upgraded databases) I've checked TFS Installation guide, I searched through the web, all I could find is upgrade scenarios for the server side. Nobody even mentions what happens to source control clients. I've created a virtual machine to test the upgrade process, The upgrade was successful and all my files and workspaces exist in the new server too. The problem is: The new TFS installation has a new instanceID. When I redirected on the clients to the new server, the client seemed unable to match files and file states in the workspace with the ones on the new server. This makes me wonder if it will be possible to keep working after the production upgrade. As I mentioned above I can not find anything on this, it would be great if anyone could point me to some paper or blog post about this. Thanks in advance...

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  • How to bind Assisted Injected class to interface?

    - by eric2323223
    Here is the problem I met: Class SimpleCommand implements Executable{ private final ConfigManager config; private String name; @Inject public SimpleCommand(ConfigManager config, @Assisted String name){ this.config = config; this.name = name; } } Class MyModule extends AbstractModule{ @Override protected void configure() { bind(CommandFactory.class).toProvider(FactoryProvider.newFactory(CommandFactory.class, SimpleCommand.class)); bind(Executable.class).to(SimpleCommand.class); } } When I try to get instance of SimpleCommand using: Guice.createInjector(new MyModule()).getInstance(CommandFactory.class).create("sample command"); I got this error: 1) No implementation for java.lang.String annotated with @com.google.inject.assistedinject.Assisted(value=) was bound. while locating java.lang.String annotated with @com.google.inject.assistedinject.Assisted(value=) for parameter 2 at model.Command.<init>(SimpleCommand.java:58) at module.MyModule.configure(MyModule.java:34) So my problem is how can I bind SimpleCommand to Executable when SimpleCommand has Assisted Injected parameter? Here is the CommandFactory and its implementation: public interface CommandFactory{ public Command create(String name); } public class GuiceCommandFactory implements CommandFactory{ private Provider<ConfigManager> configManager ; @Inject public GuiceCommandFactory(Provider<ConfigManager> configManager){ this.configManager = configManager; } public Command create(String cmd){ return new Command(configManager.get(), cmd); } }

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  • How do I pass references as method parameters across AppDomains?

    - by Thiado de Arruda
    I have been trying to get the following code to work(everything is defined in the same assembly) : namespace SomeApp{ public class A : MarshalByRefObject { public byte[] GetSomeData() { // } } public class B : MarshalByRefObject { private A remoteObj; public void SetA(A remoteObj) { this.remoteObj = remoteObj; } } public class C { A someA = new A(); public void Init() { AppDomain domain = AppDomain.CreateDomain("ChildDomain"); string currentAssemblyPath = Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().Location; B remoteB = domain.domain.CreateInstanceFromAndUnwrap(currentAssemblyPath,"SomeApp.B") as B; remoteB.SetA(someA); // this throws an ArgumentException "Object type cannot be converted to target type." } } } What I'm trying to do is pass a reference of an 'A' instance created in the first AppDomain to the child domain and have the child domain execute a method on the first domain. In some point on 'B' code I'm going to call 'remoteObj.GetSomeData()'. This has to be done because the 'byte[]' from 'GetSomeData' method must be 'calculated' on the first appdomain. What should I do to avoid the exception, or what can I do to achieve the same result?

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  • Passing null child object from parent object to a partial view

    - by Mike
    I have an object which contains models for my ASP.NET MVC web app. The Model that is being passed into the view has sub models for "gadgets" on that particular view. Each of these sub models gets passed to a partial view (gadget). The problem is when I have a null model in the view model. See example below. View Model: public class FooBarHolder() { public FooBar1 FooBar1 { get; set; } public FooBar2 FooBar2 { get; set; } } We pass FooBarHolder into the view and inside the view we make calls such as <% Html.RenderPartial("Foo", Model.FooBar1); %> <% Html.RenderPartial("Foo2", Model.FooBar2); %> Now say for instance that Model.FooBar2 was null. What I am experiencing from the strongly typed partial view is an error that says "This view expected a model of type FooBar2 but got a model of type FooBarHolder." Why is this happening instead of just passing in a null?

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  • Extensions methods and forward compatibilty of source code.

    - by TcKs
    Hi, I would like solve the problem (now hypothetical but propably real in future) of using extension methods and maginification of class interface in future development. Example: /* the code written in 17. March 2010 */ public class MySpecialList : IList<MySpecialClass> { // ... implementation } // ... somewhere elsewhere ... MySpecialList list = GetMySpecialList(); // returns list of special classes var reversedList = list.Reverse().ToList(); // .Reverse() is extension method /* now the "list" is unchanged and "reveresedList" has same items in reversed order */ /* --- in future the interface of MySpecialList will be changed because of reason XYZ*/ /* the code written in some future */ public class MySpecialList : IList<MySpecialClass> { // ... implementation public MySpecialList Reverse() { // reverse order of items in this collection return this; } } // ... somewhere elsewhere ... MySpecialList list = GetMySpecialList(); // returns list of special classes var reversedList = list.Reverse().ToList(); // .Reverse() was extension method but now is instance method and do something else ! /* now the "list" is reversed order of items and "reveresedList" has same items lake in "list" */ My question is: Is there some way how to prevent this case (I didn't find them)? If is now way how to prevent it, is there some way how to find possible issues like this? If is now way how to find possible issues, should I forbid usage of extension methods? Thanks.

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  • Design pattern for loading multiple message types

    - by lukem00
    As I was looking through SO I came across a question about handling multiple message types. My concern is - how do I load such a message in a neat way? I decided to have a separate class with a method which loads one message each time it's invoked. This method should create a new instance of a concrete message type (say AlphaMessage, BetaMessage, GammaMessage, etc.) and return it as a Message. class MessageLoader { public Message Load() { // ... } } The code inside the method is something which looks really awful to me and I would very much like to refactor it/get rid of it: Message msg = Message.Load(...); // load yourself from whatever source if (msg.Type == MessageType.Alpha) return new AlphaMessage(msg); if (msg.Type == MessageType.Beta) return new BetaMessage(msg); // ... In fact, if the whole design looks just too messy and you guys have a better solution, I'm ready to restructure the whole thing. If my description is too chaotic, please let me know what it's missing and I shall edit the question. Thank you all.

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  • Call 32-bit or 64-bit program from bootloader

    - by user1002358
    There seems to be quite a lot of identical information on the Internet about writing the following 3 bootloaders: Infinite loop jmp $ Print a single character Print "Hello World". This is fantastic, and I've gone through these 3 variations with very little trouble. I'd like to write some 32- or 64-bit code in C and compile it, and call that code from the bootloader... basically a bootloader that, for example, sets the computer up to run some simple numerical simulation. I'll start by listing primes, for example, and then maybe some input/output from the user to maybe compute a Fourier transform. I don't know. I haven't found any information on how to do this, but I can already foresee some problems before I even begin. First of all, compiling a C program compiles it into one of several different files, depending on the target. For Windows, it's a PE file. For Linux, it's a .out file. These files are both quite different. In my instance, the target isn't Windows or Linux, it's just whatever I have written in the bootloader. Secondly, where would the actual code reside? The bootloader is exactly 512 bytes, but the program I write in C will certainly compile to something much larger. It will need to sit on my (virtual) hard disk, probably in some sort of file system (which I haven't even defined!) and I will need to load the information from this file into memory before I can even think about executing it. But from my understanding, all this is many, many orders of magnitude more complex than a 12-line "Hello World" bootloader. So my question is: How do I call a large 32- or 64-bit program (written in C/C++) from my 16-bit bootloader.

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  • PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer works from Maven command line, but not from Eclipse?

    - by HDave
    I have Eclipse configured to use an external maven instance. Nonetheless I have an integration test that runs fine from the command line, but fails from within Eclipse. The error is a class Spring application context bean error: Cannot convert value of type [java.lang.String] to required type The culprit it a bean that sets property values using a PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer. <!-- property settings for non-JNDI database connections --> <bean id="placeholderConfigUuid" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer"> <property name="systemPropertiesModeName" value="SYSTEM_PROPERTIES_MODE_OVERRIDE" /> <property name="location" value="classpath:database.properties" /> <property name="placeholderPrefix" value="$DS{" /> </bean> I know which bean is failing because it appears in the stack trace and because when I replace the $DS{hibernate.dialect} with a static value it works. I have two questions: 1) Since M2Eclipse is using the same Maven setup as the command line, why does one work and the other fail? 2) How to fix this? I really like the ability to run a single jUnit test from within Eclipse on demand.

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  • XML Reader threw Object Null exception, but node exists(?!)

    - by Capt.Morgan
    I am hoping someone could enlighten me as to why I am getting the annoying - "xml object reference not set to an instance .." error. The elements (nodes?) I am looking for seem to exist and I have not misspelled it either :[ I might be doing something stupid here, but any help at all would be greatly appreciated. My Code: private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { XmlDocument reader = new XmlDocument(); reader.Load("Kotaku - powered by FeedBurner.xml"); XmlNodeList titles = reader.GetElementsByTagName("title"); XmlNodeList dates = reader.GetElementsByTagName("pubDate"); XmlNodeList descriptions = reader.GetElementsByTagName("description"); XmlNodeList links = reader.GetElementsByTagName("link"); for (int i = 0; i < titles.Count; i++) { textBox1.AppendText(Environment.NewLine + titles[i].InnerText); textBox1.AppendText(Environment.NewLine + descriptions[i].InnerText); //<<-- Throws Object Ref Null Exception textBox1.AppendText(Environment.NewLine + links[i].InnerText); textBox1.AppendText(Environment.NewLine + dates[i].InnerText); //<<-- Throws Object Ref Null Exception } } The XML I am using is a saved XML page from: http://feeds.gawker.com/kotaku/full The way I am working on it now is as follows: I have saved the page from the above link (which is an XML page) and put it next to my EXE for easier access. Then I run the code.

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  • Sys. engineer has decided to dynamically transform all XSLs into DLLs on website build process. DLL

    - by John Sullivan
    Hello, OS: Win XP. Here is my situation. I have a browser based application. It is "wrapped" in a Visual Basic application. Our "Systems Engineer Senior" has decided to spawn DLL files from all of our XSL pages (many of which have duplicate names) upon building a new instance of the website and have the active server pages (ASPX) use the DLL instead. This has created a "known issue" in which ~200 DLL naming conflicts occur and, thus, half of our application is broken. I think a solution to this problem is that, thankfully, we're generating the names of the DLLs and linking them up with our application dynamically. Therefore we can do something kludgy like generate a hash and append it to the end of the DLL file name when we build our website, then always reference the DLL that had some kind of random string / hash appended to its name. Aside from outright renaming the DLLs, is there another way to have multiple DLLs with the same name register for one application? I think the answer is "No, only between different applications using a special technique." Please confirm. Another question I have on my mind is whether this whole idea is a good practice -- converting our XSL pages (which we use in mass -- every time a response from our web app occurs) into DLL functions that call a "function" to do what the XSL page did via an active server page (ASPX), when we were before just sending an XML response to an XSL page via aspx.

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  • Migrating Ajax web application to web socket

    - by Bastan
    Hi, I think i'm just missing a little detail that is preventing me from seeing the whole picture. I have a web application which use ajax request every x time to update client with new information or tasks. I also have a long running process on the server which is a java computation engine. I would like this engine to send update to the client. I am wondering how to migrate my web app to using websocket. Probably phpwebsocket or similar. Can my server 'decide' to send information to a specific client? It seems possible looking at the php-websocket. Can my java backend long process use the websocket server to send notification to a specific client. How? well I can say that my java app could use a class that could send over websocket instead of http. But how the websocket server knows to which client to send the 'info'. I am puzzle by all this. Any document that explain this in more details? It seems that the websocket could create an instance of my web application. Thanks

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  • Showing a MKAnnotation for custom object

    - by Chamanhm
    I have a list of objects and each of those has a title, name, description, latitude, longitude and address. Is it possible to show this objects as MKAnnotations? I've been stuck with this for hours now. When I tried to make the objects have a CLLocationCoordinate2D I kept getting the error about latitude or longitude not being assignable. #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import <MapKit/MapKit.h> @interface Oficina : NSObject <MKMapViewDelegate> @property (nonatomic, readwrite) CLLocationCoordinate2D oficinaCoordinate; @property (nonatomic, strong) NSString *oficinaCiudad; @property (nonatomic, strong) NSString *oficinaEstado; @property (nonatomic, strong) NSString *oficinaTitulo; @property (nonatomic, strong) NSString *oficinaTelefono; @property (nonatomic, strong) NSString *oficinaLatitud; @property (nonatomic, strong) NSString *oficinaLongitud; @property (nonatomic, strong) NSString *oficinaID; @property (nonatomic, strong) NSString *oficinaDireccion; @property (nonatomic, strong) NSString *oficinaHorario; @property (nonatomic, strong) NSString *oficinaTipoDeOficina; @property (nonatomic, strong) NSString *oficinaServicios; @property (nonatomic, strong) NSString *oficinaTipoDeModulo; @end So after consuming an internet service I get around 70 of these objects. Now I want to be able to turn each of those into a map annotation. This is one of the ways I've tried to assign the latitude but I get the error "Expression not assignable".. currentOffice.oficinaCoordinate.latitude = [parseCharacters floatValue]; Where currentOffice is an instance of my custom object.

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  • jquery an div tags used in a ordered list

    - by shan2on
    hello everyone, i'm not sure where my errors are lying but here is my scenario... i have an un-ordered list in html that handles my main link bar... <ul id="navlist"> <li><a href="/" id="current">home</a></li> <li><a href="#" id="search">search</a></li> <li><a href="#" id="users">login</a></li> </ul> and what i want done is to call each id and have jQuery handle each and dislpay it where specified in my css file... for now, lets just ignore my "home" link... here is a snippet of my inline jquery $(document).ready(function() { $("a").click(function () { $("div#login").slideToggle("fast"); }); }) Now, whichever div i specify, it calls that ... however it will only call one div, using either from the un-orderd list, as mentioned above in the html. My Goal is to call a search bar when search is clicked, and to call a login box when login is clicked. to my knowledge (noob), i believe use an as a class, however that is what brings me here. i believe my error is in my jquery and not my css, as stated above, either instance will be displayed when the jquery function calls either tag. any help is greatly appreciated. thanks in advance shan2on

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  • select nodes from a line of xml code with sql

    - by wondergoat77
    I have a table that stores a huge line/entire document of xml like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-16"?> <RealQuestResponse xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org /2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <Success>true</Success> <Subject> <AmbiguousMatches /> <Assessment> <LandValue>0</LandValue> <ImprovementsValue>0</ImprovementsValue> <TotalValue>0</TotalValue> </Assessment> <RecentSales /> <Warnings> <Score>0</Score> <TrusteesDeedRatio>0</Tr........etc Is there a way to pull any of these fields out of the xml? it is stored in a column in a table called AutomatedRequests That table looks like this: requestid Provider Date Success Response 1 test 1/2/2012 Y <?xml version..... <---this is the xml code stored> Ive seen a couple ways but nothing like this Id basically like something like select xmlnode1, xmlnode2, xmlnode3 from automatedrequests have tried this but not working: select xml.query('RealQuestResponse/Bedrooms/*') from automatedRequests where orderid = 1266162

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  • Detecting what the target object is when NullReferenceException is thrown.

    - by StingyJack
    I'm sure we all have received the wonderfully vague "Object reference not set to instance of an Object" exception at some time or another. Identifying the object that is the problem is often a tedious task of setting breakpoints and inspecting all members in each statement. Does anyone have any tricks to easily and efficiently identify the object that causes the exception, either via programmatical means or otherwise? --edit It seems I was vague like the exception =). The point is to _not have to debug the app to find the errant object. The compiler/runtime does know that the object has been allocated, and that the object has not yet been instantiated. Is there a way to extract / identify those details in a caught exception @ W. Craig Trader Your explanation that it is a result of a design problem is probably the best answer I could get. I am fairly compulsive with defensive coding and have managed to get rid of most of these errors after fixing my habits over time. The remaining ones just tweak me to no end, and lead me to posting this question to the community. Thanks for everyone's suggestions.

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  • Has inheritance become bad?

    - by mafutrct
    Personally, I think inheritance is a great tool, that, when applied reasonably, can greatly simplify code. However, I seems to me that many modern tools dislike inheritance. Let's take a simple example: Serialize a class to XML. As soon as inheritance is involved, this can easily turn into a mess. Especially if you're trying to serialize a derived class using the base class serializer. Sure, we can work around that. Something like a KnownType attribute and stuff. Besides being an itch in your code that you have to remember to update every time you add a derived class, that fails, too, if you receive a class from outside your scope that was not known at compile time. (Okay, in some cases you can still work around that, for instance using the NetDataContract serializer in .NET. Surely a certain advancement.) In any case, the basic principle still exists: Serialization and inheritance don't mix well. Considering the huge list of programming strategies that became possible and even common in the past decade, I feel tempted to say that inheritance should be avoided in areas that relate to serialization (in particular remoting and databases). Does that make sense? Or am messing things up? How do you handle inheritance and serialization?

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  • Error In VB.Net code

    - by Michael
    I am getting the error "Format Exception was unhandled at "Do While objectReader.Peek < -1 " and after. any help would be wonderful. 'Date: Class 03/20/2010 'Program Purpose: When code is executed data will be pulled from a text file 'that contains the named storms to find the average number of storms during the time 'period chosen by the user and to find the most active year. between the range of 'years 1990 and 2008 Option Strict On Public Class frmHurricane Private _intNumberOfHuricanes As Integer = 5 Public Shared _intSizeOfArray As Integer = 7 Public Shared _strHuricaneList(_intSizeOfArray) As String Private _strID(_intSizeOfArray) As String Private _decYears(_intSizeOfArray) As Decimal Private _decFinal(_intSizeOfArray) As Decimal Private _intNumber(_intSizeOfArray) As Integer Private Sub Form1_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load 'The frmHurricane load event reads the Hurricane text file and 'fill the combotBox object with the data. 'Initialize an instance of the StreamReader Object and declare variable page 675 on the book Dim objectReader As IO.StreamReader Dim strLocationAndNameOfFile As String = "C:\huricanes.txt" Dim intCount As Integer = 0 Dim intFill As Integer Dim strFileError As String = "The file is not available. Please restart application when available" 'This is where we code the file if it exist. If IO.File.Exists(strLocationAndNameOfFile) Then objectReader = IO.File.OpenText(strLocationAndNameOfFile) 'Read the file line by line until the file is complete Do While objectReader.Peek <> -1 **_strHuricaneList(intCount) = objectReader.ReadLine() _strID(intCount) = objectReader.ReadLine() _decYears(intCount) = Convert.ToDecimal(objectReader.ReadLine()) _intNumber(intCount) = Convert.ToInt32(objectReader.ReadLine()) intCount += 1** Loop objectReader.Close() 'With any luck the data will go to the Data Box For intFill = 0 To (_strID.Length - 1) Me.cboByYear.Items.Add(_strID(intFill)) Next Else MsgBox(strFileError, , "Error") Me.Close() End If End Sub

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  • C++: Static variable inside a constructor, are there any drawbacks or side effects?

    - by doc
    What I want to do: run some prerequisite code whenever instance of the class is going to be used inside a program. This code will check for requiremts etc. and should be run only once. I found that this can be achieved using another object as static variable inside a constructor. Here's an example for a better picture: class Prerequisites { public: Prerequisites() { std::cout << "checking requirements of C, "; std::cout << "registering C in dictionary, etc." << std::endl; } }; class C { public: C() { static Prerequisites prerequisites; std::cout << "normal initialization of C object" << std::endl; } }; What bothers me is that I haven't seen similar use of static variables so far. Are there any drawbacks or side-effects or am I missing something? Or maybe there is a better solution? Any suggestions are welcome.

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  • WCF - Return object without serializing?

    - by Mayo
    One of my WCF functions returns an object that has a member variable of a type from another library that is beyond my control. I cannot decorate that library's classes. In fact, I cannot even use DataContractSurrogate because the library's classes have private member variables that are essential to operation (i.e. if I return the object without those private member variables, the public properties throw exceptions). If I say that interoperability for this particular method is not needed (at least until the owners of this library can revise to make their objects serializable), is it possible for me to use WCF to return this object such that it can at least be consumed by a .NET client? How do I go about doing that? Update: I am adding pseudo code below... // My code, I have control [DataContract] public class MyObject { private TheirObject theirObject; [DataMember] public int SomeNumber { get { return theirObject.SomeNumber; } // public property exposed private set { } } } // Their code, I have no control public class TheirObject { private TheirOtherObject theirOtherObject; public int SomeNumber { get { return theirOtherObject.SomeOtherProperty; } set { // ... } } } I've tried adding DataMember to my instance of their object, making it public, using a DataContractSurrogate, and even manually streaming the object. In all cases, I get some error that eventually leads back to their object not being explicitly serializable.

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  • How to override "inherited" z-indexes?

    - by Earlz
    I am needing to override the notion of inherited z-indexes. For instance in this code <style> div{ background-color:white; top: 0px; bottom: 0px; left: 0px; right: 0px; } </style> <div style="position: fixed; z-index: 2;"> div 1 <div style="position: fixed; z-index: 3;"> div 2 </div> </div> <div style="position: fixed; z-index: 2;"> div 3 </div> http://jsbin.com/epoqo3/3 I want for div 2 to be displayed, but instead div 3 is displayed. How can I change this behavior without changing my structure.

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  • Learning Python else syntax error

    - by user1441016
    Hi I am learning python by doing the practice problems for Open course at MIT 6.00 Intro to Computer Science. I am Trying to do practice problem 1 part 2 create a recursive function to count the instance of key in target. My code so far... from string import * def countSubStringMatchRecursive (target, key,x,s): if (find(target,key)==find(target,key,s)) and (find(target,key)==find(target,key,(find(target,key)))):#if first and last return (1) elif (find(target,key)==find(target,key,s))and (find(target,key)!=find(target,key,(find(target,key)))):#if first but not last x=1 s= find(target,key) return (countSubStringMatchRecursive(target,key,s,x) elif (find(target,key,s))==-1 and (find(target,key)!=find(target,key,s)):#if last but not first return (x+1) elif:(find(target,key,s))!=-1 and (find(target,key)!=find(target,key,s)):#if not last and not first x=x+1 s= find(target,key,s) return (countSubStringMatchRecursive(target,key,s,x) I getting a syntax error at line 8. I would just like to know what I did wrong there. Dont worry about the other mistakes I should be able to get those sorted out. I just Stuck on this. Thanks.

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  • Prevent coersion to a single type in unlist() or c(); passing arguments to wrapper functions

    - by Leo Alekseyev
    Is there a simple way to flatten a list while retaining the original types of list constituents?.. Is there a way to programmatically construct a heterogeneous list?.. For instance, I want to create a simple wrapper for functions like png(filename,width,height) that would take device name, file name, and a list of options. The naive approach would be something like my.wrapper <- function(dev,name,opts) { do.call(dev,c(filename=name,opts)) } or similar code with unlist(list(...)). This doesn't work because opts gets coerced to character, and the resulting call is e.g. png(filename,width="500",height="500"). If there's no straightforward way to create heterogeneous lists like that, is there a standard idiomatic way to splice arguments into functions without naming them explicitly (e.g. do.call(dev,list(filename=name,width=opts["width"]))? -- Edit -- Gavin Simpson answered both questions below in his discussion about constructing wrapper functions. Let me give a summary of the answer to the title question: It is possible to construct a heterogeneous list with c() provided the arguments to c() are lists. To wit: > foo <- c("a","b"); bar <- 1:3 > c(foo,bar) [1] "a" "b" "1" "2" "3" > c(list(foo),list(bar)) [[1]] [1] "a" "b" [[2]] [1] 1 2 3 > c(as.list(foo),as.list(bar)) ## this creates a flattened heterogeneous list [[1]] [1] "a" [[2]] [1] "b" [[3]] [1] 1 [[4]] [1] 2 [[5]] [1] 3

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  • Generics in a bidirectional association

    - by Verhoevenv
    Let's say I have two classes A and B, with B a subtype of A. This is only part of a richer type hierarchy, obviously, but I don't think that's relevant. Assume A is the root of the hierarchy. There is a collection class C that keeps track of a list of A's. However, I want to make C generic, so that it is possible to make an instance that only keeps B's and won't accept A's. class A(val c: C[A]) { c.addEntry(this) } class B(c: C[A]) extends A(c) class C[T <: A]{ val entries = new ArrayBuffer[T]() def addEntry(e: T) { entries += e } } object Generic { def main(args : Array[String]) { val c = new C[B]() new B(c) } } The code above obviously give the error 'type mismatch: found C[B], required C[A]' on the new B(c) line. I'm not sure how this can be fixed. It's not possible to make C covariant in T (like C[+T <: A]) because the ArrayBuffer is non-variantly typed in T. It's not possible to make the constructor of B require a C[B] because C can't be covariant. Am I barking up the wrong tree here? I'm a complete Scala newbie, so any ideas and tips might be helpful. Thank you! EDIT: Basically, what I'd like to have is that the compiler accepts both val c = new C[B]() new B(c) and val c = new C[A]() new B(c) but would reject val c = new C[B]() new A(c) It's probably possible to relax the typing of the ArrayBuffer in C to be A instead of T, and thus in the addEntry method as well, if that helps.

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