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• How to re-enable the idle timer in ios once it has been disabled (to allow the display to sleep again)?

  - by lindon fox

  I have figured out how to stop an iOS device from going to sleep (see below), but I am having troubles undoing that setting. According to the Apple Documentation, it should just be changing the value of the idleTimerDisabled property. But when I test this, it does not work. This is how I am initially stopping the device from going to sleep: //need to switch off and on for it to work initially [UIApplication sharedApplication].idleTimerDisabled = NO; [UIApplication sharedApplication].idleTimerDisabled = YES; I would have thought that the following would do the trick: [UIApplication sharedApplication].idleTimerDisabled = NO; From the Apple Documentation: The default value of this property is NO. When most applications have no touches as user input for a short period, the system puts the device into a "sleep” state where the screen dims. This is done for the purposes of conserving power. However, applications that don't have user input except for the accelerometer—games, for instance—can, by setting this property to YES, disable the “idle timer” to avert system sleep. Important: You should set this property only if necessary and should be sure to reset it to NO when the need no longer exists. Most applications should let the system turn off the screen when the idle timer elapses. This includes audio applications. With appropriate use of Audio Session Services, playback and recording proceed uninterrupted when the screen turns off. The only applications that should disable the idle timer are mapping applications, games, or similar programs with sporadic user interaction. Has anyone come across this problem? I am testing on iOS6 and iOS5. Thanks in advance.

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• OpenSceneGraph C++ Access Violation reading location 0x00421000

  - by Kobojunkie

  Working with OpenSceneGraph, and I keep running into this violation issue that I would appreciate some help with. The problem is with the particular line below which happens to be the first in my main function. osg::ref_ptr<osg::Node> bench = osgDB::readNodeFile("Models/test.IVE"); I have my models folder right in my directory. The error is as below. Unhandled exception at 0x68630A6C (msvcr100.dll) in OSG3D.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x00421000. And this is where the problem seems to be coming up. /** Read an osg::Node from file. * Return valid osg::Node on success, * return NULL on failure. * The osgDB::Registry is used to load the appropriate ReaderWriter plugin * for the filename extension, and this plugin then handles the request * to read the specified file.*/ inline osg::Node* readNodeFile(const std::string& filename) { return readNodeFile(filename,Registry::instance()->getOptions()); } I would appreciate details on how best to tackle this kind of exception message in the future. Are there tools that make this easy to debug or are there ways to capture the exact issues and fix them? I would appreciate any help with this. My ultimate goal is to learn how to better debug C++ related issues please. With this, it means reading through the compiler error list http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/850cstw1(v=vs.71).aspx is not enough

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• Session scoped bean as class attribute of Spring MVC Controller

  - by Sotirios Delimanolis

  I have a User class: @Component @Scope("session") public class User { private String username; } And a Controller class: @Controller public class UserManager { @Autowired private User user; @ModelAttribute("user") private User createUser() { return user; } @RequestMapping(value = "/user") public String getUser(HttpServletRequest request) { Random r = new Random(); user.setUsername(new Double(r.nextDouble()).toString()); request.getSession().invalidate(); request.getSession(true); return "user"; } } I invalidate the session so that the next time i got to /users, I get another user. I'm expecting a different user because of user's session scope, but I get the same user. I checked in debug mode and it is the same object id in memory. My bean is declared as so: <bean id="user" class="org.synchronica.domain.User"> <aop:scoped-proxy/> </bean> I'm new to spring, so I'm obviously doing something wrong. I want one instance of User for each session. How?

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• Error compiling basic java code

  - by Michael Younani

  New to java. Practicing coding by following a book. Heres my code: class Motorcycle { //Three instance variables - make and color are strings. while a boolean refers to TRUE OR FLASE(in this case off or on) String make; String color; boolean engineState; void startEngine() { if (engineState == true) System.out.print("The engine is already on."); else { engineState = true; System.out.print("The engine is now on."); } void showAtts() { System.out.print("This motorcycle is a " + color + " " + make); if (engineState ==true) System.out.print("The engine is on."); else System.out.print("The engine is off."); } } } When I compile I get 2 errors: 1) illegal start of expression 2) ; expected I can't pin point the problem. If anyone can direct me or hint me please do.

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• C# generics with MVVM, pulling the T out of <T>

  - by bufferz

  My Model is a generic class that contains a (for example) Value property which can be int, float, string, bool, etc. So naturally this class is represented something like Model<T>. For the sake of collections Model<T> implements the interface IModel, although IModel is itself empty of any content. My ViewModel contains and instance of Model<T> and it is passed in through ViewModel's constructor. I still want to know what T is in ViewModel, so when I expose Model to the View I know the datatype of Model's buried Value property. The class for ViewModel ends up looking like the following: class ViewModel<T> { private Model<T> _model; public ViewModel(Model<T> model) { ....blah.... } public T ModelsValue {get; set; } } This works fine, but is limited. So now I need to expose a collection of IModels with varying Ts to my View, so I'm trying to set up an ObservableCollection of new ViewModel<T>s to a changing list of IModels. The problem is, I can't figure out how to get T from Model<T> from IModel to construct ViewModel<T>(Model<T>) at runtime. In the VS2010 debugger I can mouseover any IModel object and see its full Model<int> for example at runtime so I know the data is in there. Any ideas?

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• Which are the most useful techniques for faster Bluetooth?

  - by Mike Howard

  Hi. I'm adding peer-to-peer bluetooth using GameKit to an iPhone shoot-em-up, so speed is vital. I'm sending about 40 messages a second each way, most of them with the faster GKSendDataUnreliable, all serializing with NSCoding. In testing between a 3G and 3GS, this is slowing the 3G down a lot more than I'd like. I'm wondering where I should concentrate my efforts to speed it up. How much slower is GKSendDataReliable? For the few packets that have to get there, would it be faster to send a GKSendDataUnreliable and have the peer send an acknowledgement so I can send again if I don't get the Ack within, say, 100ms? How much faster would it be to create the NSData instance using a regular C array rather than archiving with the NSCoding protocol? Is this serialization process (for about a dozen floats) just as slow as you'd expect from an object creation/deallocation overhead, or is something particularly slow happening? I heard that (for example) sending four seperate sets of data is much, much slower, than sending one piece of data four times the size. Would I make a significant saving by sending separate packets of data that wouldn't always go together in the same packet when they happen at the same time? Are there any other bluetooth performance secrets I've missed? Thanks for your help.

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• Declaring an object of a conditional type with a System.Type

  - by Chapso

  I am attempting to launch a specific form depending on the selected node of a treeview on the doubleclick event. The code I need to use to launch the form is a little bulky becuase I have to ensure that the form is not disposed, and that the form is not already open, before launching a new instance. I'd like to have all of this checking happen in one place at the end of the function, which means that I have to be able to pass the right form type to the code at the end. I'm trying to do this with a System.Type, but that doesn't seem to be working. Could someone point me in the right direction, please? With TreeView.SelectedNode Dim formType As Type Select Case .Text Case "Email to VPs" formType = EmailForm.GetType() Case "Revise Replacers" formType = DedicatedReplacerForm.GetType() Case "Start Email" formType = EmailForm.GetType() End Select Dim form As formType Dim form As formType Try form = CType(.Tag, formType) If Not form.IsDisposed Then form.Activate() Exit Sub End If Catch ex As NullReferenceException 'This will error out the first time it is run as the form has not yet ' been defined. End Try form = New formType form.MdiParent = Me .Tag = form CType(TreeView.SelectedNode.Tag, Form).Show() End With

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• Problem with using Jquery.ajax over .load on Zend

  - by Matthew

  Right now, what i'm trying to do is to replace a label on the front page with a block of html. Right now, the page basically has: <label id="replace"></label> the js currently has: $(document).ready(function(){ $("#replace").load('/test'); }); the Zend class function has: public function indexAction(){ $this->_helper->layout()->disableLayout(); $this->_view->message = "This is from TestController index"; } and finally the index.phtml template simply has: <?php echo $this->message;?> Right now, I want to change the code around so that instead of just replacing that label with the same message, it would do a POST where the function will pull out a parameter, do something (like for instance, go to the database and pull something out with the POST parameter) and then return the message. I've tried editing the js so that it would look like: $.post('/test', {param : "test_param"}, function(data) {$("#replace").html(data);}); or $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: '/test', data: "{param:test_param}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(data) {$("#replace").html(data);} }); and neither worked. I took a step back and tried to replicate the .load functionality and do: $.ajax({ url: '/test', success: function(data) { $('#replace').html(data); alert('Load was performed.'); } }); and it doesn't work either. Anyone have any tips on how to go about doing this?

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• Creating mock Objects in PHP unit

  - by Mike

  Hi, I've searched but can't quite find what I'm looking for and the manual isn't much help in this respect. I'm fairly new to unit testing, so not sure if I'm on the right track at all. Anyway, onto the question. I have a class: <?php class testClass { public function doSomething($array_of_stuff) { return AnotherClass::returnRandomElement($array_of_stuff); } } ?> Now, clearly I want the AnotherClass::returnRandomElement($array_of_stuff); to return the same thing every time. My question is, in my unit test, how do I mockup this object? I've tried adding the AnotherClass to the top of the test file, but when I want to test AnotherClass I get the "Cannot redeclare class" error. I think I understand factory classes, but I'm not sure how I would apply that in this instance. Would I need to write an entirely seperate AnotherClass class which contained test data and then use the Factory class to load that instead of the real AnotherClass? Or is using the Factory pattern just a red herring. I tried this: $RedirectUtils_stub = $this->getMockForAbstractClass('RedirectUtils'); $o1 = new stdClass(); $o1->id = 2; $o1->test_id = 2; $o1->weight = 60; $o1->data = "http://www.google.com/?ffdfd=fdfdfdfd?route=1"; $RedirectUtils_stub->expects($this->any()) ->method('chooseRandomRoot') ->will($this->returnValue($o1)); $RedirectUtils_stub->expects($this->any()) ->method('decodeQueryString') ->will($this->returnValue(array())); in the setUp() function, but these stubs are ignored and I can't work out whether it's something I'm doing wrong, or the way I'm accessing the AnotherClass methods. Help! This is driving me nuts.

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• Read in double type from txt file - C++

  - by Greenhouse Gases

  Hi there I'm in the midst of a university project and have decided to implement a method that can accept information from a text file (in this instance called "locations.txt"). input from the text file will look like this: London 345 456 Madrid 234 345 Beinjing 345 456 Frankfurt 456 567 The function looks like this currently (and you will notice I am missing the While condition to finish adding input when reaches end of text in locations.txt, i tried using eof but this didnt work?!). Also get function expects a char and so cant accept input thats a double which is what the latitude and longitude are defined as... void populateList(){ ifstream inputFile; inputFile.open ("locations.txt"); temp = new locationNode; // declare the space for a pointer item and assign a temporary pointer to it while(HASNT REACHED END OF TEXT FILE!!) { inputFile.getline(temp-nodeCityName, MAX_LENGTH); // inputFile.get(temp-nodeLati, MAX_LENGTH); // inputFile.get(temp-nodeLongi, MAX_LENGTH); temp-Next = NULL; //set to NULL as when one is added it is currently the last in the list and so can not point to the next if(start_ptr == NULL){ // if list is currently empty, start_ptr will point to this node start_ptr = temp; } else { temp2 = start_ptr; // We know this is not NULL - list not empty! while (temp2-Next != NULL) { temp2 = temp2-Next; // Move to next link in chain until reach end of list } temp2->Next = temp; } } inputFile.close(); } Any help you can provide would be most useful. If I need to provide anymore detail I will do, I'm in a bustling canteen atm and concentrating is hard!!

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• Collect all fields in form to an array

  - by Industrial

  Hi everyone, Each div with the class "row" is added upon request from the user, to be able to add multiple items at once. So now is the question how I'll collect all the forms in to an array that PHP can read (like JSON for instance). I'll guess that there's already some easy and effective way of doing this? <div class="container"> <div class="row"> <input type="text" name="value1" id="textfield" /> <input type="text" name="value2" id="textfield" /> <input type="text" name="value3" id="textfield" /> </div> </div> Here's what I would like to achieve out of the shown example: array( array ('value1' => '', 'value2' => '', 'value3' => '') ); Thanks! Update: The form will be handled with PHP and it would be super to be able to do something like a foreach loop on the specific container-div content.

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• Algorithm to determine if array contains n...n+m?

  - by Kyle Cronin

  I saw this question on Reddit, and there were no positive solutions presented, and I thought it would be a perfect question to ask here. This was in a thread about interview questions: Write a method that takes an int array of size m, and returns (True/False) if the array consists of the numbers n...n+m-1, all numbers in that range and only numbers in that range. The array is not guaranteed to be sorted. (For instance, {2,3,4} would return true. {1,3,1} would return false, {1,2,4} would return false. The problem I had with this one is that my interviewer kept asking me to optimize (faster O(n), less memory, etc), to the point where he claimed you could do it in one pass of the array using a constant amount of memory. Never figured that one out. Along with your solutions please indicate if they assume that the array contains unique items. Also indicate if your solution assumes the sequence starts at 1. (I've modified the question slightly to allow cases where it goes 2, 3, 4...) edit: I am now of the opinion that there does not exist a linear in time and constant in space algorithm that handles duplicates. Can anyone verify this? The duplicate problem boils down to testing to see if the array contains duplicates in O(n) time, O(1) space. If this can be done you can simply test first and if there are no duplicates run the algorithms posted. So can you test for dupes in O(n) time O(1) space?

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• xml parameter for soap webservice request in iphone

  - by Jayshree

  Hello everybody. I want to send a soap request to a webservice method. Now i want to send the parameter as an xml input for that request. so plz can anybody give me an idea of how to do it in iphone? Right now i am sending the request in following way : NSString *soapMessage = @"<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"utf-8\"?>\n" "<soap:Envelope xmlns:xsi=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance\" xmlns:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\" xmlns:soap=\"http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope\">\n" "<soap:Body>\n" "<GetCustomerInfoXML xmlns=\"http://qa2.alliancetek.com/phpwebservice\">\n" "<id><customer><id>1</id></customer></id>" "</GetCustomerInfoXML>" "</soap:Body>\n" "</soap:Envelope>"; NSLog(@"%@",soapMessage); NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://qa2.alliancetek.com/phpwebservice/index.php"]; NSMutableURLRequest *theRequest = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; NSString *msgLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [soapMessage length]]; [theRequest addValue: @"text/xml; charset=utf-8" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [theRequest addValue: @"http://qa2.alliancetek.com/phpwebservice/index.php//GetCustomerInfoXML" forHTTPHeaderField:@"SOAPAction"]; [theRequest addValue: msgLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [theRequest setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [theRequest setHTTPBody: [soapMessage dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; But i want to send the parameters in xml format. so how do i do it????

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• Creating 1 page PDF of iPad Screen view - How?

  - by user314695

  Hi All, I've asked this question on a couple other forums and have had zero response, so I'm hoping someone here can help point me in the right direction. I have a pretty simple one screen application for my work. It's basically just a recreation of a 1 page paper report that has a company logo, some labels, a few text boxes and a scroll text box for the report. I need to be able to fill out the report then click a button to save it in a graphical form so I can fax, print or email it later. Currently, I'm just programmatically taking a screen capture and saving it to the photo's library (default for screen capture). Then I can just email it from photo's. This works ok, but is kind of hacky, at best. I've read through the new iPad 3.2 guide for creating PDF's (apparently it's supposed to be much easier than before) but I can not get it to work and I've spent countless hours on it now. I'm hoping someone has the answer for me. Alternatively, if anyone knows how I can redirect where the screen capture is stored (default is in the photo album) then maybe I can make that function work. If I could redirect the screen capture to store in my applications document folder, then I can use MFMailCompose to attach it to an email. Lastly, on a side note, does anyone know of a good way to capture a digital signature via touch. For instance, I'd love to have my users be able to just sign their name via touch at the bottom of the document before I convert to PDF or take a screen capture. Thanks in advance for your help. -Ray

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• Is Storing Cookies in a Database Safe?

  - by viatropos

  If I use mechanize, I can, for instance, create a new google analytics profile for a website. I do this by programmatically filling out the login form and storing the cookies in the database. Then, for at least until the cookie expires, I can access my analytics admin panel without having to enter my username and password again. Assuming you can't create a new analytics profile any other way (with OpenAuth or any of that, I don't think it works for actually creating a new Google Analytics profile, the Analytics API is for viewing the data, but I need to create an new analytics profile), is storing the cookie in the database a bad thing? If I do store the cookie in the database, it makes it super easy to programatically login to Google Analytics without the user ever having to go to the browser (maybe the app has functionality that says "user, you can schedule a hook that creates a new anaytics profile for each new domain you create, just enter your credentials once and we'll keep you logged in and safe"). Otherwise I have to keep transferring around emails and passwords which seems worse. So is storing cookies in the database safe?

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• Method returns an IDisposable - Should I dispose of the result, even if it's not assigned to anythin

  - by mjd79

  This seems like a fairly straightforward question, but I couldn't find this particular use-case after some searching around. Suppose I have a simple method that, say, determines if a file is opened by some process. I can do this (not 100% correctly, but fairly well) with this: public bool IsOpen(string fileName) { try { File.Open(fileName, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.None); } catch { // if an exception is thrown, the file must be opened by some other process return true; } } (obviously this isn't the best or even correct way to determine this - File.Open throws a number of different exceptions, all with different meanings, but it works for this example) Now the File.Open call returns a FileStream, and FileStream implements IDisposable. Normally we'd want to wrap the usage of any FileStream instantiations in a using block to make sure they're disposed of properly. But what happens in the case where we don't actually assign the return value to anything? Is it still necessary to dispose of the FileStream, like so: try { using (File.Open(fileName, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.None)); { /* nop */ } } catch { return true; } Should I create a FileStream instance and dispose of that? try { using (FileStream fs = File.Open(fileName, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.None)); } ... Or are these totally unnecessary? Can we simply call File.Open and not assign it to anything (first code example), and let the GC dispose of it right away?

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• Building a J2EE dev/test setup on a single PC

  - by John

  It's been a while since I did Java work, and even then I was never responsible for starting a large project from the very start... there were test/staging/production systems already running, etc, etc. Now I am looking to start a J2EE project from scratch on my trusty workstation, which has never been used for Java development and runs Windows 7 64bit. First of all, I'll be getting Eclipse. As far as writing the code goes I'm pretty happy. And running it through Eclipse is OK, but what I'd really want is to have a VM running MySQL and TomCat on which I can properly deploy my project and run/debug it 'remotely' from my dev PC. And I guess this should be done using Ant instead of letting Eclipse build the WAR for me, so that I don't end up with a dependence on Eclipse. I'm certain Eclipse can do this, so you hit a button and it runs Ant scripts, deploys and debugs for instance, but very hazy on it. Are there any good guides on this? I don't want to be taught Java, or even Ant, but rather the 'glue' parts like getting my test VM up and running under Windows, getting a build/test/deploy/run pipeline running through Eclipse, etc. One point, I only plan to use Windows... hosting a Windows VM on my Windwos desktop. And while I can use command-line tools like ant/svn, I'm much more a GUI person who loves IDE integration... I'd rather this didn't end up an argument about Linux or Vi, etc! I am looking for free, but am a MAPS subscriber, and run Win7 Ultimate in case that makes a difference as far as free VM solutions.

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• JAXM soap message parsing

  - by Dean

  I am getting the following XML back from a .net service: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <soap:Envelope xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <soap:Body> <validateCredentialsResponse xmlns="http://www.paragon.com/positionmonitor/PositionMonitor"> <validateCredentialsResult> <ResultData xsi:type="ValidateCredentialsResultData"> <validated>true</validated> <alreadyLoggedIn>false</alreadyLoggedIn> </ResultData> <Status> <Condition xmlns="">SUCCESS</Condition> <ErrorCode xmlns="">BO.00000</ErrorCode> <ErrorDesc xmlns="">OK</ErrorDesc> </Status> </validateCredentialsResult> </validateCredentialsResponse> </soap:Body> </soap:Envelope> ...and I'm trying to parse it using JAXM, however the following always evaluates to null: SOAPEnvelope env = reply.getSOAPPart().getEnvelope(); Can anyone help me out here?

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• Migrating Ajax web application to web socket

  - by Bastan

  Hi, I think i'm just missing a little detail that is preventing me from seeing the whole picture. I have a web application which use ajax request every x time to update client with new information or tasks. I also have a long running process on the server which is a java computation engine. I would like this engine to send update to the client. I am wondering how to migrate my web app to using websocket. Probably phpwebsocket or similar. Can my server 'decide' to send information to a specific client? It seems possible looking at the php-websocket. Can my java backend long process use the websocket server to send notification to a specific client. How? well I can say that my java app could use a class that could send over websocket instead of http. But how the websocket server knows to which client to send the 'info'. I am puzzle by all this. Any document that explain this in more details? It seems that the websocket could create an instance of my web application. Thanks

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• Sys. engineer has decided to dynamically transform all XSLs into DLLs on website build process. DLL

  - by John Sullivan

  Hello, OS: Win XP. Here is my situation. I have a browser based application. It is "wrapped" in a Visual Basic application. Our "Systems Engineer Senior" has decided to spawn DLL files from all of our XSL pages (many of which have duplicate names) upon building a new instance of the website and have the active server pages (ASPX) use the DLL instead. This has created a "known issue" in which ~200 DLL naming conflicts occur and, thus, half of our application is broken. I think a solution to this problem is that, thankfully, we're generating the names of the DLLs and linking them up with our application dynamically. Therefore we can do something kludgy like generate a hash and append it to the end of the DLL file name when we build our website, then always reference the DLL that had some kind of random string / hash appended to its name. Aside from outright renaming the DLLs, is there another way to have multiple DLLs with the same name register for one application? I think the answer is "No, only between different applications using a special technique." Please confirm. Another question I have on my mind is whether this whole idea is a good practice -- converting our XSL pages (which we use in mass -- every time a response from our web app occurs) into DLL functions that call a "function" to do what the XSL page did via an active server page (ASPX), when we were before just sending an XML response to an XSL page via aspx.

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• Is it possible to create multi-tiered WHERE statements in mySQL

  - by Brendan

  I'm currently developing a program that will generate reports based upon lead data. My issue is that I'm running 3 queries for something that I would like to only have to run one query for. For instance, I want to gather data for leads generated in the past day submission_date > (NOW() - INTERVAL 1 DAY) and I would like to find out how many total leads there were, and how many sold leads there were in that timeframe. (sold=1 / sold=0). The issue comes with the fact that this query is currently being done with 2 queries, one with WHEREsold= 1 and one with WHEREsold= 0. This is all well and good, but when I want to generate this data for the past day,week,month,year,and all time I will have to run 10 queries to obtain this data. I feel like there HAS to be a more efficient way of doing this. I know I can create a mySQL function for this, but I don't see how this could solve the problem. Thanks!!

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• Risky Business with LINQ to SQL and OR Designer?

  - by Toadmyster

  I have two tables with a one to many relationship in SQL 2008. The first table (BBD) PK | BBDataID | int       | Floor_Qty | tinyint       | Construct_Year | char(4)       | etc, etc describes the data common to all buildings and the second (BBDCerts) PK | BBDCertsID | int       | BBDataID | int       | Certification_Type | varchar(20)       | etc, etc is a collection of certifications for a particular building. Thus, the primary key in BBD (BBDataID) is mapped to the corresponding field in BBDCerts via an FK relationship, but BBDCertsID is the second table's primary key and BBDataID is not because it will not be unique. My problem is that I want to be able to use the OR generated data context to get at the list of certs when I access a particular record in the BBD table. For instance: Dim vals = (From q in db.BBD Where q.BBDataID = x Select q.Floor_Qty, q.Construct_Year, q.BBDCerts).SingleOrDefault and later be able to access a particular certification like this: vals.BBDCerts.Certification_Type.First Now, the automatic associations created when the SQL tables are dropped on the design surface don't generate the EntityRef associations that are needed to access the other table using the dot notation. So, I have to use the OR designer to make the BBDCerts BBDataID a primary key (this doesn't affect the actual database), and then manually change the association properties to the appropriate OneToMany settings. There might be a better way to approach this solution but my question is, is the way I've done it safe? I've done a barrage of tests and the correct cert is referenced or updated every time. Frankly, the whole thing makes me nervous.

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• Call 32-bit or 64-bit program from bootloader

  - by user1002358

  There seems to be quite a lot of identical information on the Internet about writing the following 3 bootloaders: Infinite loop jmp $ Print a single character Print "Hello World". This is fantastic, and I've gone through these 3 variations with very little trouble. I'd like to write some 32- or 64-bit code in C and compile it, and call that code from the bootloader... basically a bootloader that, for example, sets the computer up to run some simple numerical simulation. I'll start by listing primes, for example, and then maybe some input/output from the user to maybe compute a Fourier transform. I don't know. I haven't found any information on how to do this, but I can already foresee some problems before I even begin. First of all, compiling a C program compiles it into one of several different files, depending on the target. For Windows, it's a PE file. For Linux, it's a .out file. These files are both quite different. In my instance, the target isn't Windows or Linux, it's just whatever I have written in the bootloader. Secondly, where would the actual code reside? The bootloader is exactly 512 bytes, but the program I write in C will certainly compile to something much larger. It will need to sit on my (virtual) hard disk, probably in some sort of file system (which I haven't even defined!) and I will need to load the information from this file into memory before I can even think about executing it. But from my understanding, all this is many, many orders of magnitude more complex than a 12-line "Hello World" bootloader. So my question is: How do I call a large 32- or 64-bit program (written in C/C++) from my 16-bit bootloader.

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• Converting a soap message to a document using wssj

  - by ellander

  I have been supplied with a jar file that should enable me to connect to a 3rd party system. When I run the necessary class I get an error which states that the namespace for the prefix "SOAPENV" has not been declared. Using jad I have decompiled the class files to try suss out what is going on and the error seems to occur when a soap message is being converted to a document. Unfortunately I don't know much about wssj. Can anyone suggest what the problem might be? I'm wondering if it's an incompatibility issue as it's not a recently created jar file and the decompiled code looks different to all the examples I can find. For example, in this section the examples have addNamesSpaceDeclaration rather than addAttribute... MessageFactory factory = MessageFactory.newInstance(); SOAPFactory sf = SOAPFactory.newInstance(); SOAPMessage msg = factory.createMessage(); MimeHeaders headers = msg.getMimeHeaders(); headers.addHeader("Content-Type", "text/xml"); SOAPEnvelope env = msg.getSOAPPart().getEnvelope(); env.addAttribute(sf.createName("xmlns:xsi"), "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance");

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• How to differentiate between method and function in a decorator?

  - by defnull

  I want to write a decorator that acts differently depending on whether it is applied to a function or to a method. def some_decorator(func): if the_magic_happens_here(func): # <---- Point of interest print 'Yay, found a method ^_^ (unbound jet)' else: print 'Meh, just an ordinary function :/' return func class MyClass(object): @some_decorator def method(self): pass @some_decorator def function(): pass I tried inspect.ismethod(), inspect.ismethoddescriptor() and inspect.isfunction() but no luck. The problem is that a method actually is neither a bound nor an unbound method but an ordinary function as long as it is accessed from within the class body. What I really want to do is to delay the actions of the decorator to the point the class is actually instantiated because I need the methods to be callable in their instance scope. For this, I want to mark methods with an attribute and later search for these attributes when the .__new__() method of MyClass is called. The classes for which this decorator should work are required to inherit from a class that is under my control. You can use that fact for your solution. In the case of a normal function the delay is not necessary and the decorator should take action immediately. That is why I wand to differentiate these two cases.

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