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  • calling startActivity() inside of a instance method - causing a NullPointerException

    - by Cole
    Heya - I'm trying to call startActivity() from a class that extends AsyncTask in the onPostExecute(). Here's the flow: Class that extends AsyncTask: protected void onPostExecute() { Login login = new Login(); login.pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(); } Class that extends Activity: public void pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity() { // start the CreateNewOrChooseExistingForm Activity Intent intent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); **ERROR_HERE*** intent.setClassName(this, CreateNewOrChooseExistingForm.class.getName()); startActivity(intent); } And I get this error… every time: 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): FATAL EXCEPTION: main 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): java.lang.NullPointerException 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.ContextWrapper.getPackageName(ContextWrapper.java:120) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.ComponentName.(ComponentName.java:62) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.Intent.setClassName(Intent.java:4850) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at com.att.AppName.Login.pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(Login.java:47) For iOS developers - I'm just trying to push a new view controller on to a navigational controller's stack a la pushViewController:animated:. Which apparently - is hard to do on this platform. Any ideas? Thanks in advance! UPDATE - FIXED: per @Falmarri advice, i managed to resolve this issue. first of all, i'm no longer calling Login login = new Login(); to create a new login object. bad. bad. bad. no cookie. instead, when preparing to call .execute(), this tutorial suggests passing the applicationContext to the class the executes the AsyncTask, for my purposes, as shown below: CallWebServiceTask task = new CallWebServiceTask(); // pass the login object to the task task.applicationContext = login; // execute the task in the background, passing the required params task.execute(login); now, in onPostExecute(), i can get to my Login objects methods like so: ((Login) applicationContext).pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(); ((Login) applicationContext).showLoginFailedAlert(result.get("httpResponseCode").toString()); ... hope this helps someone else out there! especially iOS developers transistioning over to Android...

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  • jquery ui is not scaling text properly!

    - by Stephen Belanger
    I'm trying use jquery ui to scale a div that I'm dragging around to make it easier to see what's behind it, but any text inside it is scaling strangely. The text itself becomes smaller, but it seems to have a bunch of padding around it and is floating now. The text extends past the bottom of the div even though it should be contained properly by the div. I put a red border around the lines of text and the borders are the same size as the original text. I'm not really sure what to do to get this to work... HTML: <div class="item draggable" id="item-1'"> <div class="image-block"> <a class="delete-button" title="delete me!" href="/remove/1" onclick="return $(this).confirm(\'Really remove this image?\');">X</a> <a class="image" href="/edit/1"><img src="/someimage.jpg" /></a> <div class="clear-block"></div> </div> <h3>Some title</h3> </div> CSS: div.image-list div.item { float:left; background:#fff; width:150px; padding:5px; margin:4px; border:1px solid #d3d5d6; } div.image-list div.item h3 { margin:0; padding:0; border:solid 1px #F00; } div.image-list div.item div.image-block a.delete-button { float:right; position:relative; background:#fff; display:none; top:0.8em; margin-bottom:-20.0em; width:3em; height:1.8em; padding:0.2em 1em; } div.image-list div.item div.image-block a.image { float:left; display:block; } .clear-block { clear:both; } jquery: $(".draggable").draggable({ helper: 'clone', start: function(ev, ui) { $(ui.helper).effect( "scale", { percent: 50 }, 200 ); } });

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  • Java: file write on finalize method

    - by sowrov
    In my understanding a singleton object will destroy only when the application is about to terminate. So in C++ I write a Singleton class to log my application and in that Singleton logger's destructor I log the time when my application was terminated. Things worked perfectly in C++. Now I want to have that same logger in Java, as in java there is no destructor so I implemented the finalize method for that singleton logger. But it seem that finalize method actually never get called. So, I add that System.runFinalizersOnExit(true); line, somewhere in my code (though I know it is deprecated) and that finalize method get called every time before termination of the app. But still there is a problem! If I try to write anything on file in that finalize method, It does not work, though System.out work without any problem! :( Can you guys help me on this problem? Here is a sample code of what I am try to do: Singleton Logger Class: public class MyLogger { FileWriter writer; private MyLogger() { try { this.writer = new FileWriter("log.txt"); } catch (IOException ex) { } } public static MyLogger getInstance() { return MyLoggerHolder.INSTANCE; } private static class MyLoggerHolder { private static final MyLogger INSTANCE = new MyLogger(); } @Override protected void finalize () { try { super.finalize(); System.out.println("Here"); //worked correctly. this.writer.write(new Date().toString()+System.getProperty("line.separator")); this.writer.write("End"); this.writer.flush(); //does not work! this.writer.close(); } catch (Throwable ex) { } } public synchronized void log(String str) { try { this.writer.write(new Date().toString()+System.getProperty("line.separator")); this.writer.write(str+"\n"); this.writer.flush(); } catch (IOException ex) { } } } Main: public class Main { public static void main(String[] args) { System.runFinalizersOnExit(true); MyLogger logger = MyLogger.getInstance(); logger.log("test"); } }

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  • Using ImageMagick to create an image from a PDF...efficiently

    - by bigsweater
    I'm using ImageMagick to create a tiny JPG thumbnail image of an already-uploaded PDF. The code works fine. It's a WordPress widget, though this isn't necessarily WordPress specific. I'm unfamiliar with ImageMagick, so I was hoping somebody could tell me if this looks terrible or isn't following some best practices of some sort, or if I'm risking crashing the server. My questions, specifically, are: Is that image cached, or does the server have to re-generate the image every time somebody views the page? If it isn't cached, what's the best way to make sure the server doesn't have to regenerate the thumbnail? I tried to create a separate folder (/thumbs) for ImageMagick to put all the images in, instead of cluttering up the WP upload folders with images of PDFs. It kept throwing a permission error, despite 777 permissions on the folder in my testing environment. Why? Do the source/destination directories have to be the same? Am I doing anything incorrectly/inefficiently here that needs to be improved? The whole widget is on Pastebin: http://pastebin.com/WnSTEDm7 Relevant code: <?php if ( $url ) { $pdf = $url; $info = pathinfo($pdf); $filename = basename($pdf,'.'.$info['extension']); $uploads = wp_upload_dir(); $file_path = str_replace( $uploads['baseurl'], $uploads['basedir'], $url ); $dest_path = str_replace( '.pdf', '.jpg', $file_path ); $dest_url = str_replace( '.pdf', '.jpg', $pdf ); exec("convert \"{$file_path}[0]\" -colorspace RGB -geometry 60 $dest_path"); ?> <div class="entry"> <div class="widgetImg"> <p><a href="<?php echo $url; ?>" title="<?php echo $filename; ?>"><?php echo "<img src='".$dest_url."' alt='".$filename."' class='blueBorder' />"; ?></a></p> </div> <div class="widgetText"> <?php echo wpautop( $desc ); ?> <p><a class="downloadLink" href="<?php echo $url; ?>" title="<?php echo $filename; ?>">Download</a></p> </div> </div> <?php } ?> As you can see, the widget grabs whatever PDF is attached to the current page being viewed, creates an image of the first page of the PDF, stores it, then links to it in HTML. Thanks for any and all help!

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  • problem with struts actions and redirections

    - by Casey
    I am trying to update a simple web app that was built with struts2, jsp and standard servlets. I am trying to redirect a url to a specific action but can't seem to get it to work right. For example, the url that is correct is: http://localhost:8080/theapp/lookup/search.action Here is my web.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <!DOCTYPE web-app PUBLIC "-//Sun Microsystems, Inc.//DTD Web Application 2.3//EN" "http://java.sun.com/dtd/web-app_2_3.dtd"><web-app> <display-name>theapp</display-name> <filter> <filter-name>struts2</filter-name> <filter-class> org.apache.struts2.dispatcher.FilterDispatcher </filter-class> </filter> <filter-mapping> <filter-name>struts2</filter-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </filter-mapping> <listener> <listener-class> org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener </listener-class> </listener> And here is my struts.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <!DOCTYPE struts PUBLIC "-//Apache Software Foundation//DTD Struts Configuration 2.0//EN" "http://struts.apache.org/dtds/struts-2.0.dtd"> <default-action-ref name="search" /> <action name="search" method="search" class="com.theapp.SearchAction" > <result>index.jsp</result> <result name="input" >index.jsp</result> <result name="error" type="redirect">site_locator_mobile/error.action</result> </action> The problem here is that if I don't specify the correct url as above, I just get the index.jsp file, but without any properties in index.jsp being processed because the information is contained in the servlet. What I would like to is if someone just entered: http://localhost:8080/theapp/lookup/ than they would be taken to: http://localhost:8080/theapp/lookup/search.action Thanks

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  • NHibernateUnitOfWork + ASP.Net MVC

    - by Felipe
    Hi Guys, hows it going? I'm in my first time with DDD, so I'm begginer! So, let's take it's very simple :D I developed an application using asp.net mvc 2 , ddd and nhibernate. I have a domain model in a class library, my repositories in another class library, and an asp.net mvc 2 application. My Repository base class, I have a construct that I inject and dependency (my unique ISessionFactory object started in global.asax), the code is: public class Repository<T> : IRepository<T> where T : Entidade { protected ISessionFactory SessionFactory { get; private set; } protected ISession Session { get { return SessionFactory.GetCurrentSession(); } } protected Repository(ISessionFactory sessionFactory) { SessionFactory = sessionFactory; } public void Save(T entity) { Session.SaveOrUpdate(entity); } public void Delete(T entity) { Session.Delete(entity); } public T Get(long key) { return Session.Get<T>(key); } public IList<T> FindAll() { return Session.CreateCriteria(typeof(T)).SetCacheable(true).List<T>(); } } And After I have the spefic repositories, like this: public class DocumentRepository : Repository<Domain.Document>, IDocumentRepository { // constructor public DocumentRepository (ISessionFactory sessionFactory) : base(sessionFactory) { } public IList<Domain.Document> GetByType(int idType) { var result = Session.CreateQuery("from Document d where d.Type.Id = :IdType") .SetParameter("IdType", idType) .List<Domain.Document>(); return result; } } there is not control of transaction in this code, and it's working fine, but, I would like to make something to control this repositories in my controller of asp.net mvc, something simple, like this: using (var tx = /* what can I put here ? */) { try { _repositoryA.Save(objA); _repositoryB.Save(objB); _repositotyC.Delete(objC); /* ... others tasks ... */ tx.Commit(); } catch { tx.RollBack(); } } I've heared about NHibernateUnitOfWork, but i don't know :(, How Can I configure NHibernateUnitOfWork to work with my repositories ? Should I change the my simple repository ? Sugestions are welcome! So, thanks if somebody read to here! If can help me, I appretiate! PS: Sorry for my english! bye =D

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  • Why doesn't TextBlock databinding call ToString() on a property whose compile-time type is an interf

    - by Jay
    This started with weird behaviour that I thought was tied to my implementation of ToString(), and I asked this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2916068/why-wont-wpf-databindings-show-text-when-tostring-has-a-collaborating-object It turns out to have nothing to do with collaborators and is reproducible. When I bind Label.Content to a property of the DataContext that is declared as an interface type, ToString() is called on the runtime object and the label displays the result. When I bind TextBlock.Text to the same property, ToString() is never called and nothing is displayed. But, if I change the declared property to a concrete implementation of the interface, it works as expected. Is this somehow by design? If so, any idea why? To reproduce: Create a new WPF Application (.NET 3.5 SP1) Add the following classes: public interface IFoo { string foo_part1 { get; set; } string foo_part2 { get; set; } } public class Foo : IFoo { public string foo_part1 { get; set; } public string foo_part2 { get; set; } public override string ToString() { return foo_part1 + " - " + foo_part2; } } public class Bar { public IFoo foo { get { return new Foo {foo_part1 = "first", foo_part2 = "second"}; } } } Set the XAML of Window1 to: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <StackPanel> <Label Content="{Binding foo, Mode=Default}"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding foo, Mode=Default}"/> </StackPanel> </Window> in Window1.xaml.cs: public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); DataContext = new Bar(); } } When you run this application, you'll see the text only once (at the top, in the label). If you change the type of foo property on Bar class to Foo (instead of IFoo) and run the application again, you'll see the text in both controls.

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  • HTML Aligning Text

    - by nevillejones
    I want to display text on a page like in the following way: My Text: Text Here My Text: More Text Here......................................................... Text from line above continued here. I have the following markup just to test: <html> <head> <style type="text/css"> body { font-family: arial; } form div { padding: 3px; } form .label { float: left; text-align: right; width: 150px; margin-right: 8px; } </style> </head> <body> <form> <div class="label">My Text:</div> <div>Aenean tellus diam, pharetra sed posuere sed, ullamcorper eget enim. Suspendisse quis posuere nisi. Integer sodales neque id erat luctus suscipit. Curabitur in nisi arcu. Curabitur suscipit tellus non lectus blandit non mollis risus aliquet. Proin et felis nulla. Integer ut felis nibh, eu condimentum elit. Sed tincidunt fermentum lorem, convallis ornare ipsum mattis sed. Vestibulum vel quam sed velit condimentum volutpat eu sed enim. Duis tincidunt, turpis id suscipit molestie, erat tortor tincidunt augue, eu venenatis erat neque nec nisi. Nunc malesuada bibendum elit eu bibendum.</div> <div class="label">My Text 2:</div> <div>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Nulla suscipit arcu ut risus dapibus tincidunt et ut orci. Vestibulum vitae urna in ligula fringilla facilisis aliquet vel nisl. Quisque placerat risus eget arcu fermentum at consectetur arcu lobortis. In hac habitasse platea dictumst. In in libero non justo pellentesque cursus quis non nisi. Donec sit amet pharetra ipsum. Class aptent taciti sociosqu ad litora torquent per conubia nostra, per inceptos himenaeos. Nulla enim enim, fringilla vitae sodales id, ultrices non lacus. Etiam id augue ut dui convallis hendrerit. Vivamus urna justo, dignissim in suscipit eu, facilisis a libero. Class aptent taciti sociosqu ad litora torquent per conubia nostra, per inceptos himenaeos. .</div> </form> </body> When this is rendered about half the text is displayed underneath the corresponding "label" class div. I would like all the text to be appear to the right of the "label" div.

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  • Simple Form validation failing Backbone

    - by Corey Buchillon
    Im not exactly adept at coding so Im probably missing something, but my view here is failing to refuse submission when one or both of the fields are empty. I have a feeling something isnt connected right to my template for the row and the view of the form Form = Backbone.View.extend({ //form vie el: '.item-form', initialize: function(){ }, events: { 'click #additem': 'addModel' }, addModel: function(itemName, price){ // simple validation before adding to collection if (itemName !="" && price !="" ){ var item = new Item({ itemName: this.$("#item").val(), price: this.$("#price").val()}); items.add(item); $("#message").html("Please wait; the task is being added."); item.save(null, {success: function (item, response,options) { item.id= item.attributes._id.$id; item.attributes.id = item.attributes._id.$id; new ItemsView({collection: items}); $("#message").html(""); } }); this.$("#item").val(''); this.$("#price").val(''); } else { alert('Please fill in both fields'); } } }); and HTML <table class="itemTable"> <thead> <tr> <th>Item</th> <th>Price</th> <th></th> </tr> </thead> <tbody class="tableBody"> <script type="text/template" id="table-row"> <td><%= itemName %></td> <td><%= price %></td> <td><button class="complete">Complete</button> <button class="remove">Remove</button></td> </script> </tbody> </table> <form class="item-form"> <input type="text" name="item" id="item" placeholder="Item"/> <!-- goes to itemName in the template for the body --> <input type="text" name="price" id="price" placeholder="Price" /><!--goes to price in the template for the body --> <button type="button" id="additem">Add</button> </form> <div id="message"></div>

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  • Struts2 form elements UI too rigid

    - by jscoot
    Hello, i found a similar problem like this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2314296/struts2-form-elements but no answer is given until now. So here i post my difficulties with a vengeance. I am using Struts2 with version 2.1.6. When I leave the input elements such as <s:textfield>, <s:textarea>, etc. of a <s:form> with the default theme, the elements are rendered as: <tr> <td class="tdLabel"><label for="firstname" class="label">Firstname:</label></td> <td><input type="text" name="firstname" id="firstname"/></td> </tr> <tr> <td class="tdLabel"><label for="lastname" class="label">Lastname:</label></td> <td><input type="text" name="lastname" id="lastname"/></td> </tr> Now if i want to add something, say an html label, between the two elements, the result gets messed up as described in the related question above. Another problem is: for the <s:checkbox> item, it is just not possible to add an extra title. For example, this tag <s:checkbox id="defaultprinter" name="defaultprinter" key="lbl.defaultprinter"/> is rendered as: <tr> <td valign="top" align="right"></td> <td valign="top" align="left"> <input type="checkbox" name="defaultprinter" value="true" checked="checked" id="defaultprinter"/> <label for="defaultprinter" class="checkboxLabel">Default Printer</label> </td> </tr> By only setting the attributes of <s:checkbox>, i can't add any text to the first <td> shown above (here it is empty!). I don't know if the above rigid UI problems can be solved or there is any workarounds somewhere. Thanks in advance.

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  • sub menu border calls onmouseout event

    - by insanepaul
    I've created a simple menu and submenu with tags(not allowed to use ul elements). To access the submenu the user hovers their mouse over the menu item. I use the onmouseover and onmouseout events to either show or hide the sub menu depending on which item is selected. A pipe (|) is used to seperate each submenu item and this is what is causing me problems. When a user hovers their mouse above the pipe character the subMenu div calls the onmouseout event which is not what I want. So I added padding around the pipe character and a minus margin so that there were no gaps between the pipe character and the other elements. This worked for all browsers including IE8. But in IE7 (I haven't tested IE6 yet) the submenu div calls the onmouseout event when I touch the top bit of either the left or right border of the pipe character span element. <div id="subMenu" onmouseout="hideSubMenu()" > <div id="opinionSubMenu" onmouseover="showOpinionSubMenu()"> <a id="Blogs" href="HTMLNew.htm">BLOGS</a> <span class="SubMenuDelimiter">|</span> <a id="Comments" href="HTMLNew.htm">COMMENTS</a> <span class="SubMenuDelimiter">|</span> <a id="Views" href="HTMLNew.htm">VIEWS</a> </div> <div id="learningSubMenu" onmouseover="showLearningSubMenu()"> <a id="Articles" href="HTMLNew.htm">ARTICLES</a> <span class="SubMenuDelimiter">|</span> <a id="CoursesCases" href="HTMLNew.htm">COURSES & CASES</a> <span class="SubMenuDelimiter">|</span> <a id="PracticeImpact" href="HTMLNew.htm">PRACTICE IMPACT</a> </div> </div> This is my css class #subMenu{ padding:10px 0px; background-color:#F58F2D; font-weight:normal; text-decoration:none; font-family:Lucida Sans Unicode; font-size:14px; float:left; width:100%; display:none;} #Blogs, #Comments, #Views, #Articles { padding:10px 5px; background:none repeat scroll 0 0 transparent; color:#000000; font-weight:normal; text-decoration:none; border:solid 1px black;} #Blogs:hover, #Comments:hover, #Views:hover, #Articles:hover{ color:#ffffff; text-decoration:none;} .SubMenuDelimiter{ padding:10px 5px; margin:10px -5px;}

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  • send data from one table to another page

    - by user91599
    I have this table I want when I click on a link in a table row that do a redirect to another page the data will be sent to the new page that can help me I have not found how to start I'm really stuck code table <table cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" border="0" class="display" id="example"> <thead> <tr> <th>Date</th> <th>provider</th> <th>CI</th> <th>CELL</th> <th>BSC</th> <th>Commentaire</th> <th>nbr</th> <th>Type</th> <th><img src="{{ asset('image/Modify.png') }}" ALIGN="CENTER"/></th> <th><img src="{{ asset('image/Info.png') }}" ALIGN="CENTER"/></th> <th><img src="{{ asset('image/Male.png') }}" ALIGN="CENTER"/></th> <th>type_alertes</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <div class="textbox"> <h2> Information KPI dégradées</h2> <div class="textbox_content" id="kpi_dégrades"> {% for liste in listes %} <tr class="gradeU"> <td>{{ liste.DAT }} </td> <td>{{ liste.PROVIDER}} </td> <td>{{ liste.CI}} </td> <td>{{ liste.CELL}} </td> <td>{{ liste.BSC}}</td> <td>{{ liste.Cmts}}</td> <td >{{ liste.nbr}}</td> <td>{{ liste.TYPE}}</td> <td><a class="edit" href="">Edit</a></td> <td onclick="getInfo('{{ liste.CELL}}')">Information KPI dégradés</td> <td>{{ liste.user_name}}</td> <td>{{ liste.type_alertes}}</td> </tr> {% endfor %} </div> </div> </tbody>

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  • KnockoutJS showing a sorted list by item category

    - by Darksbane
    I just started learning knockout this week and everything has gone well except for this one issue. I have a list of items that I sort multiple ways but one of the ways I want to sort needs to have a different display than the standard list. As an example lets say I have this code var BetterListModel = function () { var self = this; food = [ { "name":"Apple", "quantity":"3", "category":"Fruit", "cost":"$1", },{ "name":"Ice Cream", "quantity":"1", "category":"Dairy", "cost":"$6", },{ "name":"Pear", "quantity":"2", "category":"Fruit", "cost":"$2", },{ "name":"Beef", "quantity":"1", "category":"Meat", "cost":"$3", },{ "name":"Milk", "quantity":"5", "category":"Dairy", "cost":"$4", }]; self.allItems = ko.observableArray(food); // Initial items // Initial sort self.sortMe = ko.observable("name"); ko.utils.compareItems = function (l, r) { if (self.sortMe() =="cost"){ return l.cost > r.cost ? 1 : -1 } else if (self.sortMe() =="category"){ return l.category > r.category ? 1 : -1 } else if (self.sortMe() =="quantity"){ return l.quantity > r.quantity ? 1 : -1 }else { return l.name > r.name ? 1 : -1 } }; }; ko.applyBindings(new BetterListModel()); and the HTML <p>Your values:</p> <ul class="deckContents" data-bind="foreach:allItems().sort(ko.utils.compareItems)"> <li><div style="width:100%"><div class="left" style="width:30px" data-bind="text:quantity"></div><div class="left fixedWidth" data-bind="text:name"></div> <div class="left fixedWidth" data-bind="text:cost"></div> <div class="left fixedWidth" data-bind="text:category"></div><div style="clear:both"></div></div></li> </ul> <select data-bind="value:sortMe"> <option selected="selected" value="name">Name</option> <option value="cost">Cost</option> <option value="category">Category</option> <option value="quantity">Quantity</option> </select> </div> So I can sort these just fine by any field I might sort them by name and it will display something like this 3 Apple $1 Fruit 1 Beef $3 Meat 1 Ice Cream $6 Dairy 5 Milk $4 Dairy 2 Pear $2 Fruit Here is a fiddle of what I have so far http://jsfiddle.net/Darksbane/X7KvB/ This display is fine for all the sorts except the category sort. What I want is when I sort them by category to display it like this Fruit 3 Apple $1 Fruit 2 Pear $2 Fruit Meat 1 Beef $3 Meat Dairy 1 Ice Cream $6 Dairy 5 Milk $4 Dairy Does anyone have any idea how I might be able to display this so differently for that one sort?

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  • Is typeid of type name always evaluated at compile time in c++ ?

    - by cyril42e
    I wanted to check that typeid is evaluated at compile time when used with a type name (ie typeid(int), typeid(std::string)...). To do so, I repeated in a loop the comparison of two typeid calls, and compiled it with optimizations enabled, in order to see if the compiler simplified the loop (by looking at the execution time which is 1us when it simplifies instead of 160ms when it does not). And I get strange results, because sometimes the compiler simplifies the code, and sometimes it does not. I use g++ (I tried different 4.x versions), and here is the program: #include <iostream> #include <typeinfo> #include <time.h> class DisplayData {}; class RobotDisplay: public DisplayData {}; class SensorDisplay: public DisplayData {}; class RobotQt {}; class SensorQt {}; timespec tp1, tp2; const int n = 1000000000; int main() { int avg = 0; clock_gettime(CLOCK_REALTIME, &tp1); for(int i = 0; i < n; ++i) { // if (typeid(RobotQt) == typeid(RobotDisplay)) // (1) compile time // if (typeid(SensorQt) == typeid(SensorDisplay)) // (2) compile time if (typeid(RobotQt) == typeid(RobotDisplay) || typeid(SensorQt) == typeid(SensorDisplay)) // (3) not compile time ???!!! avg++; else avg--; } clock_gettime(CLOCK_REALTIME, &tp2); std::cout << "time (" << avg << "): " << (tp2.tv_sec-tp1.tv_sec)*1000000000+(tp2.tv_nsec-tp1.tv_nsec) << " ns" << std::endl; } The conditions in which this problem appear are not clear, but: - if there is no inheritance involved, no problem (always compile time) - if I do only one comparison, no problem - the problem only appears only with a disjunction of comparisons if all the terms are false So is there something I didn't get with how typeid works (is it always supposed to be evaluated at compilation time when used with type names?) or may this be a gcc bug in evaluation or optimization? About the context, I tracked down the problem to this very simplified example, but my goal is to use typeid with template types (as partial function template specialization is not possible). Thanks for your help!

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  • Another Spring + Hibernate + JPA question

    - by Albinoswordfish
    I'm still struggling with changing my Spring Application to use Hibernate with JPA to do database activities. Well apparently from a previous post I need an persistence.xml file. However do I need to make changes to my current DAO class? public class JdbcProductDao extends Dao implements ProductDao { /** Logger for this class and subclasses */ protected final Log logger = LogFactory.getLog(getClass()); public List<Product> getProductList() { logger.info("Getting products!"); List<Product> products = getSimpleJdbcTemplate().query( "select id, description, price from products", new ProductMapper()); return products; } public void saveProduct(Product prod) { logger.info("Saving product: " + prod.getDescription()); int count = getSimpleJdbcTemplate().update( "update products set description = :description, price = :price where id = :id", new MapSqlParameterSource().addValue("description", prod.getDescription()) .addValue("price", prod.getPrice()) .addValue("id", prod.getId())); logger.info("Rows affected: " + count); } private static class ProductMapper implements ParameterizedRowMapper<Product> { public Product mapRow(ResultSet rs, int rowNum) throws SQLException { Product prod = new Product(); prod.setId(rs.getInt("id")); prod.setDescription(rs.getString("description")); prod.setPrice(new Double(rs.getDouble("price"))); return prod; } } } Also my Product.Java is below public class Product implements Serializable { private int id; private String description; private Double price; public void setId(int i) { id = i; } public int getId() { return id; } public String getDescription() { return description; } public void setDescription(String description) { this.description = description; } public Double getPrice() { return price; } public void setPrice(Double price) { this.price = price; } public String toString() { StringBuffer buffer = new StringBuffer(); buffer.append("Description: " + description + ";"); buffer.append("Price: " + price); return buffer.toString(); } } I guess my question would be, How would my current classes change after using Hibernate + JPA with an Entity Manager

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  • Persistence scheme & state data for low memory situations (iphone)

    - by Robin Jamieson
    What happens to state information held by a class's variable after coming back from a low memory situation? I know that views will get unloaded and then reloaded later but what about some ancillary classes & data held in them that's used by the controller that launched the view? Sample scenario in question: @interface MyCustomController: UIViewController { ServiceAuthenticator *authenticator; } -(id)initWithAuthenticator:(ServiceAuthenticator *)auth; // the user may press a button that will cause the authenticator // to post some data to the service. -(IBAction)doStuffButtonPressed:(id)sender; @end @interface ServiceAuthenticator { BOOL hasValidCredentials; // YES if user's credentials have been validated NSString *username; NSString *password; // password is not stored in plain text } -(id)initWithUserCredentials:(NSString *)username password:(NSString *)aPassword; -(void)postData:(NSString *)data; @end The app delegate creates the ServiceAuthenticator class with some user data (read from plist file) and the class logs the user with the remote service. inside MyAppDelegate's applicationDidFinishLaunching: - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { ServiceAuthenticator *auth = [[ServiceAuthenticator alloc] initWithUserCredentials:username password:userPassword]; MyCustomController *controller = [[MyCustomController alloc] initWithNibName:...]; controller.authenticator = auth; // Configure and show the window [window addSubview:..]; // make everything visible [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } Then whenever the user presses a certain button, 'MyCustomController's doStuffButtonPressed' is invoked. -(IBAction)doStuffButtonPressed:(id)sender { [authenticator postData:someDataFromSender]; } The authenticator in-turn checks to if the user is logged in (BOOL variable indicates login state) and if so, exchanges data with the remote service. The ServiceAuthenticator is the kind of class that validates the user's credentials only once and all subsequent calls to the object will be to postData. Once a low memory scenario occurs and the associated nib & MyCustomController will get unloaded -- when it's reloaded, what's the process for resetting up the 'ServiceAuthenticator' class & its former state? I'm periodically persisting all of the data in my actual model classes. Should I consider also persisting the state data in these utility style classes? Is that the pattern to follow?

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  • Force deletion of slot in boost::signals2

    - by villintehaspam
    Hi! I have found that boost::signals2 uses sort of a lazy deletion of connected slots, which makes it difficult to use connections as something that manages lifetimes of objects. I am looking for a way to force slots to be deleted directly when disconnected. Any ideas on how to work around the problem by designing my code differently are also appreciated! This is my scenario: I have a Command class responsible for doing something that takes time asynchronously, looking something like this (simplified): class ActualWorker { public: boost::signals2<void ()> OnWorkComplete; }; class Command : boost::enable_shared_from_this<Command> { public: ... void Execute() { m_WorkerConnection = m_MyWorker.OnWorkDone.connect(boost::bind(&Command::Handle_OnWorkComplete, shared_from_this()); // launch asynchronous work here and return } boost::signals2<void ()> OnComplete; private: void Handle_OnWorkComplete() { // get a shared_ptr to ourselves to make sure that we live through // this function but don't keep ourselves alive if an exception occurs. shared_ptr<Command> me = shared_from_this(); // Disconnect from the signal, ideally deleting the slot object m_WorkerConnection.disconnect(); OnComplete(); // the shared_ptr now goes out of scope, ideally deleting this } ActualWorker m_MyWorker; boost::signals2::connection m_WorkerConnection; }; The class is invoked about like this: ... boost::shared_ptr<Command> cmd(new Command); cmd->OnComplete.connect( foo ); cmd->Execute(); // now go do something else, forget all about the cmd variable etcetera. the Command class keeps itself alive by getting a shared_ptr to itself which is bound to the ActualWorker signal using boost::bind. When the worker completes, the handler in Command is invoked. Now, since I would like the Command object to be destroyed, I disconnect from the signal as can be seen in the code above. The problem is that the actual slot object is not deleted when disconnected, it is only marked as invalid and then deleted at a later time. This in turn appears to depend on the signal to fire again, which it doesn't do in my case, leading to the slot never expiring. The boost::bind object thus never goes out of scope, holding a shared_ptr to my object that will never get deleted. I can work around this by binding using the this pointer instead of a shared_ptr and then keeping my object alive using a member shared_ptr which I then release in the handler function, but it kind of makes the design feel a bit overcomplicated. Is there a way to force signals2 to delete the slot when disconnecting? Or is there something else I could do to simplify the design? Any comments are appreciated!

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  • -[CCScene setOffsetx:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance

    - by Alexander Sharunov
    please help me, i'm very new in objective-c i've got 2 simplest classes (bellow first, second) i would like to set the offsetx properties of self.rolypoly object in second class like a self.rolypoly.offsetx=1 or run use [self.rolypoly setOffx]; to do somethings, but i always have the errors: trying [self.rolypoly setOffx]; in second class -[CCScene setOffx:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x91d0b70' or trying self.rolypoly.offsetx=1; in second class -[CCScene setOffsetx:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x808bfc0' first class //************************************************************ #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "cocos2d.h" @interface RolyPoly : CCLayer { CCAction *_walkAction; CCSprite *_rolypoly; int offsetx; int offsety; } @property (nonatomic, retain) CCSprite *rolypoly; @property (nonatomic, retain) CCAction *walkAction; @property (nonatomic, assign) int offsetx; @property (nonatomic, assign) int offsety; +(id) scene; -(void) setOffx; @end //************************************************************ #import "GameLayer.h" #import "RolyPoly.h" @implementation RolyPoly @synthesize rolypoly = _rolypoly; @synthesize walkAction = _walkAction; @synthesize offsetx = _offsetx; @synthesize offsety = _offsety; +(id) scene { CCScene *scene = [CCScene node]; RolyPoly *layer = [RolyPoly node]; [scene addChild: layer]; return scene; } -(id) init { if ((self = [super init])) { [self scheduleUpdate]; } return self; } -(void) setOffx { NSLog(@"setOffx"); } -(void) update:(ccTime)delta { } - (void) dealloc { self.rolypoly = nil; self.walkAction = nil; [super dealloc]; } @end second class //************************************************************ #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "cocos2d.h" #import "RolyPoly.h" @interface GameLayer : CCLayer { RolyPoly *_rolypoly; } // returns a CCScene that contains the HelloWorldLayer as the only child +(CCScene *) scene; @property (nonatomic, assign) RolyPoly * rolypoly; @end //************************************************************ #import "GameLayer.h" #import "RolyPoly.h" // HelloWorldLayer implementation @implementation GameLayer @synthesize rolypoly = _rolypoly; +(CCScene *) scene { CCScene *scene = [CCScene node]; GameLayer *layer = [GameLayer node]; [scene addChild: layer]; return scene; } -(id) init { if( (self=[super init])) { CGSize screenSize = [[CCDirector sharedDirector] winSize]; self.rolypoly = [RolyPoly scene]; [self addChild:self.rolypoly z:1]; [self.rolypoly setOffx]; [self scheduleUpdate]; } return self; } - (void)update:(ccTime)dt { } - (void) dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end

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  • Wordpress post query php custom field conditional

    - by Andy
    Here's the situation: In wordpress I'm trying to reset a post WP_Query so that I can rewrite the post link based on whether or not a custom field exists in the post. I'm trying to give the post a NEW link in the custom field. All I've managed to do here is kill the link entirely. Any and all help is greatly appreciated, I'm pretty green to php. Here's my WP_Query: <?php $recentPosts = new WP_Query(); $recentPosts->query('showposts=3'); ?> <?php while ($recentPosts->have_posts()) : $recentPosts->the_post(); ?> <div <?php post_class() ?> id="post-<?php the_ID(); ?>"> <?php $attribute = the_title_attribute(); $title = the_title(); $key = 'NewPostLink'; $newLink = get_post_meta( $post->ID, $key, TRUE ); if ($newLink != '') { $theLink = get_permalink ($post->ID ); if (has_post_thumbnail()) { $image = get_the_post_thumbnail( $post->ID ); echo '<div class="thumbnailbox"><div class="thumbnail"><a href="'.$theLink.'">'.$image.'</a></div></div>'; echo '<h2><a href="'.$theLink.'" rel="bookmark" title="Permanent Link to '.$attribute.'">'.$title.'</a></h2>'; } else { echo '<h2><a href="'.$theLink.'" rel="bookmark" title="Permanent Link to '.$attribute.'">'.$title.'</a></h2>'; } } else { $theLink = $newLink; if (has_post_thumbnail()) { $image = get_the_post_thumbnail( $post->ID ); echo '<div class="thumbnailbox"><div class="thumbnail"><a href="'.$theLink.'">'.$image.'</a></div></div>'; echo '<h2><a href="'.$theLink.'" rel="bookmark" title="Permanent Link to '.$attribute.'">'.$title.'</a></h2>'; } else { echo '<h2><a href="'.$theLink.'" rel="bookmark" title="Permanent Link to '.$attribute.'">'.$title.'</a></h2>'; } } ?> <small><?php the_time('F jS, Y') ?></small> <div class="entry"> <?php the_excerpt(); ?> </div> </div> <?php endwhile; ?>

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  • IE7 and IE8: Float clearing without adding empty elements

    - by tk-421
    Hello, I'm having a problem similar to the one described here (without a resolution): http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2467745/ie7-float-and-clear-on-the-same-element The following HTML renders as intended in Firefox but not in (both) IE7 and IE8: <html> <head> <style> ul { list-style-type: none; } li { clear: both; padding: 5px; } .left { clear: left; float: left; } .middle { clear: none; float: left; } .right { clear: right; float: left; } </style> </head> <body> <ul> <li>1</li> <li class="left">2</li> <li class="right">3</li> <li class="left">4</li> <li class="middle">5</li> <li class="right">6</li> <li>7</li> </ul> </body> </html> This is a form layout, and in Firefox the results appear like: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 That's what I'm going for. In IE7 and IE8 however, the results are: 1 2 3 5 6 4 7 [Note: I don't want to float anything to the right because I want the fields on my form to left-align correctly, without a giant space in-between the floated fields to account for the parent container's width.] Apparently I need a full clear, and can probably add an empty list-item element to the list to force clearing, but that seems like a dumb solution and sort of defeats the purpose. Any ideas? I've spent a few hours reading and trying different options without success.

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  • Inheritance of jQuery's prototype partially fails

    - by user1065745
    I want to use Coffeescript to create an UIObject class. This class should inherit from jQuery, so that instances of UIObject can be used as if they where created with jQuery. class UIObject isObject: (val) -> typeof val is "object" constructor: (tag, attributes) -> @merge jQuery(tag, attributes), this @UIObjectProperties = {} merge: (source, destination) -> for key of source if destination[key] is undefined destination[key] = source[key] else if @isObject(source[key]) @merge(source[key], destination[key]) return It partially works. Consider the Foobar class below: class Foobar extends UIObject constructor: -> super("<h1/>", html: "Foobar") $("body").append(new Foobar) works fine. BUT: (new Foobar).appendTo("body") places the tag, but also raises RangeError: Maximum call stack size exceeded. Was it just a bad idea to inherit from jQuery? Or is there a solurion? For those who don't know CoffeeScript, the JavaScript source is: var Foobar, UIObject; var __hasProp = Object.prototype.hasOwnProperty, __extends = function(child, parent) { for (var key in parent) { if (__hasProp.call(parent, key)) child[key] = parent[key]; } function ctor() { this.constructor = child; } ctor.prototype = parent.prototype; child.prototype = new ctor; child.__super__ = parent.prototype; return child; }; UIObject = (function () { UIObject.prototype.isObject = function (val) { return typeof val === "object"; }; function UIObject(tag, attributes) { this.merge(jQuery(tag, attributes), this); this.UIObjectProperties = {}; } UIObject.prototype.merge = function (source, destination) { var key; for (key in source) { if (destination[key] === void 0) { destination[key] = source[key]; } else if (this.isObject(source[key])) { this.merge(source[key], destination[key]); } } }; return UIObject; })(); Foobar = (function () { __extends(Foobar, UIObject); function Foobar() { Foobar.__super__.constructor.call(this, "<h1/>", { html: "Foobar" }); } return Foobar; })();

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  • Hibernate Persistence problems with Bean Mapping (Dozer)

    - by BuffaloBuffalo
    I am using Hibernate 3, and having a particular issue when persisting a new Entity which has an association with an existing detached entity. Easiest way to explain this is via code samples. I have two entities, FooEntity and BarEntity, of which a BarEntity can be associated with many FooEntity: @Entity public class FooEntity implements Foo{ @Id private Long id; @ManyToOne(targetEntity = BarEntity.class) @JoinColumn(name = "bar_id", referencedColumnName = "id") @Cascade(value={CascadeType.ALL}) private Bar bar; } @Entity public class BarEntity implements Bar{ @Id private Long id; @OneToMany(mappedBy = "bar", targetEntity = FooEntity.class) private Set<Foo> foos; } Foo and Bar are interfaces that loosely define getters for the various fields. There are corresponding FooImpl and BarImpl classes that are essentially just the entity objects without the annotations. What I am trying to do is construct a new instance of FooImpl, and persist it after setting a number of fields. The new Foo instance will have its 'bar' member set to an existing Bar (runtime being a BarEntity) from the database (retrieved via session.get(..)). After the FooImpl has all of its properties set, Apache Dozer is used to map between the 'domain' object FooImpl and the Entity FooEntity. What Dozer is doing in the background is instantiating a new FooEntity and setting all of the matching fields. BarEntity is cloned as well via instantiation and set the FooEntity's 'bar' member. After this occurs, passing the new FooEntity object to persist. This throws the exception: org.hibernate.PersistentObjectException: detached entity passed to persist: com.company.entity.BarEntity Below is in code the steps that are occurring FooImpl foo = new FooImpl(); //returns at runtime a persistent BarEntity through session.get() Bar bar = BarService.getBar(1L); foo.setBar(bar); ... //This constructs a new instance of FooEntity, with a member 'bar' which itself is a new instance that is detached) FooEntity entityToPersist = dozerMapper.map(foo, FooEntity.class); ... session.persist(entityToPersist); I have been able to resolve this issue by either removing or changing the @Cascade annotation, but that limits future use for say adding a new Foo with a new Bar attached to it already. Is there some solution here I am missing? I would be surprised if this issue hasn't been solved somewhere before, either by altering how Dozer Maps the children of Foo or how Hibernate reacts to a detached Child Entity.

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  • Use HTTP PUT to create new cache (ehCache) running on the same Tomcat?

    - by socal_javaguy
    I am trying to send a HTTP PUT (in order to create a new cache and populate it with my generated JSON) to ehCache using my webservice which is on the same local tomcat instance. Am new to RESTful Web Services and am using JDK 1.6, Tomcat 7, ehCache, and JSON. I have my POJOs defined like this: Person POJO: import javax.xml.bind.annotation.XmlRootElement; @XmlRootElement public class Person { private String firstName; private String lastName; private List<House> houses; // Getters & Setters } House POJO: import javax.xml.bind.annotation.XmlRootElement; @XmlRootElement public class House { private String address; private String city; private String state; // Getters & Setters } Using a PersonUtil class, I hardcoded the POJOs as follows: public class PersonUtil { public static Person getPerson() { Person person = new Person(); person.setFirstName("John"); person.setLastName("Doe"); List<House> houses = new ArrayList<House>(); House house = new House(); house.setAddress("1234 Elm Street"); house.setCity("Anytown"); house.setState("Maine"); houses.add(house); person.setHouses(houses); return person; } } Am able to create a JSON response per a GET request: @Path("") public class MyWebService{ @GET @Produces(MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON) public Person getPerson() { return PersonUtil.getPerson(); } } When deploying the war to tomcat and pointing the browser to http://localhost:8080/personservice/ Generated JSON: { "firstName" : "John", "lastName" : "Doe", "houses": [ { "address" : "1234 Elmstreet", "city" : "Anytown", "state" : "Maine" } ] } So far, so good, however, I have a different app which is running on the same tomcat instance (and has support for REST): http://localhost:8080/ehcache/rest/ While tomcat is running, I can issue a PUT like this: echo "Hello World" | curl -S -T - http://localhost:8080/ehcache/rest/hello/1 When I "GET" it like this: curl http://localhost:8080/ehcache/rest/hello/1 Will yield: Hello World What I need to do is create a POST which will put my entire Person generated JSON and create a new cache: http://localhost:8080/ehcache/rest/person And when I do a "GET" on this previous URL, it should look like this: { "firstName" : "John", "lastName" : "Doe", "houses": [ { "address" : "1234 Elmstreet", "city" : "Anytown", "state" : "Maine" } ] } So, far, this is what my PUT looks like: @PUT @Path("/ehcache/rest/person") @Produces(MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON) @Consumes(MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON) public Response createCache() { ResponseBuilder response = Response.ok(PersonUtil.getPerson(), MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON); return response.build(); } Question(s): (1) Is this the correct way to write the PUT? (2) What should I write inside the createCache() method to have it PUT my generated JSON into: http://localhost:8080/ehcache/rest/person (3) What would the command line CURL comment look like to use the PUT? Thanks for taking the time to read this...

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  • Is there anything wrong with having a few private methods exposing IQueryable<T> and all public meth

    - by Nate Bross
    I'm wondering if there is a better way to approach this problem. The objective is to reuse code. Let’s say that I have a Linq-To-SQL datacontext and I've written a "repository style" class that wraps up a lot of the methods I need and exposes IQueryables. (so far, no problem). Now, I'm building a service layer to sit on top of this repository, many of the service methods will be 1<-1 with repository methods, but some will not. I think a code sample will illustrate this better than words. public class ServiceLayer { MyClassDataContext context; IMyRepository rpo; public ServiceLayer(MyClassDataContext ctx) { context = ctx; rpo = new MyRepository(context); } private IQueryable<MyClass> ReadAllMyClass() { // pretend there is some complex business logic here // and maybe some filtering of the current users access to "all" // that I don't want to repeat in all of the public methods that access // MyClass objects. return rpo.ReadAllMyClass(); } public IEnumerable<MyClass> GetAllMyClass() { // call private IQueryable so we can do attional "in-database" processing return this.ReadAllMyClass(); } public IEnumerable<MyClass> GetActiveMyClass() { // call private IQueryable so we can do attional "in-database" processing // in this case a .Where() clause return this.ReadAllMyClass().Where(mc => mc.IsActive.Equals(true)); } #region "Something my class MAY need to do in the future" private IQueryable<MyOtherTable> ReadAllMyOtherTable() { // there could be additional constrains which define // "all" for the current user return context.MyOtherTable; } public IEnumerable<MyOtherTable> GetAllMyOtherTable() { return this.ReadAllMyOtherTable(); } public IEnumerable<MyOtherTable> GetInactiveOtherTable() { return this.ReadAllMyOtherTable.Where(ot => ot.IsActive.Equals(false)); } #endregion } This particular case is not the best illustration, since I could just call the repository directly in the GetActiveMyClass method, but let’s presume that my private IQueryable does some extra processing and business logic that I don't want to replicate in both of my public methods. Is that a bad way to attack an issue like this? I don't see it being so complex that it really warrants building a third class to sit between the repository and the service class, but I'd like to get your thoughts. For the sake of argument, lets presume two additional things. This service is going to be exposed through WCF and that each of these public IEnumerable methods will be calling a .Select(m => m.ToViewModel()) on each returned collection which will convert it to a POCO for serialization. The service will eventually need to expose some context.SomeOtherTable which wont be wrapped into the repository.

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  • What is the proper way to wrap this php loop around the javascript

    - by zac
    Hi, I am mashing together the Google Maps 2 script with a Wordpress loop so there is a CMS platform for the map data. I have this working fine : var point = new GLatLng(48.5139,-123.150531); var marker = createMarker(point,"Lime Kiln State Park", '<?php $post_id = 182; $my_post = get_post($post_id); $mapTitle = $my_post->post_title; $mapIMG = get_post_meta($post_id, 'mapImage', true); $snip = get_post_meta($post_id, 'mapExcerpt', true); echo "<div class=\"span-12\">"; echo "<div class=\"mapTitle\">"; echo $mapTitle; echo "</div>"; echo "<img class=\"mapImage\" src=\""; echo bloginfo('url'); echo "/wp-content/files_mf/"; echo $mapIMG; echo "\" /> "; echo "<div class=\"mapContent\">"; echo $snip; echo "</div>"; echo "<div class=\"moreLink\">"; echo "<a href=\""; echo $permalink = get_permalink( $post_id ); echo "\">Find out more &raquo; </a>"; echo "</div>"; echo "</div>"; ?>') map.addOverlay(marker); However I am hoping to also be able to include the two variables at the start within the php loop so that both of those can also be generated by custom fields. Can someone please show me that the proper way to write this would be so that all of the data can be pulled in from fields within that post id? So the lat/long and title could also be set from within the post 182 fields.

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