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  • iPhone: Calling dealloc on parentViewController causes an exception

    - by arielcamus
    Hi, I'm dealing with viewDidUnload and dealloc methods and I've founded a problem when calling [super dealloc]; in parent view controller. I have a lot of view controllers with custom code which I have putted outside on a parent view controller. So, when defining my view controllers I set a reference to the super class: @interface LoginViewController : AbstractViewController Then, at the dealloc method I call the AbstractViewController dealloc method: //(Login View Controller code) - (void)dealloc { [user release]; [passwd release]; [super dealloc]; } [super dealloc] execute the following code: //(Abstract View Controller code) - (void)dealloc { [dbUtils release]; [loadingView release]; [super dealloc]; } If I simulate a memory warning on iPhone Simulator, the following exception is thrown: 2010-03-03 11:27:45.805 MyApp[71563:40b] Received simulated memory warning. 2010-03-03 11:27:45.808 MyApp[71563:40b] *** -[LoginViewController isViewLoaded]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x13b51b0 kill quit However, if I comment the [super dealloc] line in AbstractViewController the exception is not thrown and my app still running. Thank you for your help once again!

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  • CCNet exception during build of vs2010 project

    - by sonee
    We have two build machines. Lately, we've migrated our projects to vs2010 from vs2005. But the problem is that one of the machines occurs error during build. Another machine works well, but just one machine shows error. The differences between the machines are os and computer spec. The machine which is working well is installed windows server 2003 and the other is windows7. the error message is unhandled exception: System.NullReferenceException: Microsoft.VisualStudio.Shell.ThreadHelper.InvokeOnUIThread(InvokableBase invokable) Microsoft.VisualStudio.Shell.ThreadHelper.Invoke(Action action)Microsoft.VisualStudio.Project.VS.Implementation.VSShellServices.InvokeOnUIThread(Action method) Microsoft.VisualStudio.Project.VisualC.VCProjectEngine.ApartmentMarshaler.Invoke(Action method) Microsoft.VisualStudio.Project.VisualC.VCProjectEngine.VCConfigBuildJob.BuildCompleted(BuildSubmission ar) Microsoft.VisualStudio.Project.Contracts.Implementation.BuildProjectBase.BuildCompletedCallbackManager.BuildCompleted(BuildSubmission buildSubmission) Microsoft.Build.Execution.BuildSubmission.<CheckForCompletion>b__0(Object state) System.Threading.QueueUserWorkItemCallback.WaitCallback_Context(Object state) System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state, Boolean ignoreSyncCtx) System.Threading.QueueUserWorkItemCallback.System.Threading.IThreadPoolWorkItem.ExecuteWorkItem() System.Threading.ThreadPoolWorkQueue.Dispatch() System.Threading._ThreadPoolWaitCallback.PerformWaitCallback() Curiously enough, when I run building project in command line on the machine which occurs error, it works well. The machine just shows error when launched by ccnet. I've installed latest version of ccnet to all machines. Is there anybody who faced like this problem?

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  • Fast serarch of 2 dimensional array

    - by Tim
    I need a method of quickly searching a large 2 dimensional array. I extract the array from Excel, so 1 dimension represents the rows and the second the columns. I wish to obtain a list of the rows where the columns match certain criteria. I need to know the row number (or index of the array). For example, if I extract a range from excel. I may need to find all rows where column A =”dog” and column B = 7 and column J “a”. I only know which columns and which value to find at run time, so I can’t hard code the column index. I could use a simple loop, but is this efficient ? I need to run it several thousand times, searching for different criteria each time. For r As Integer = 0 To UBound(myArray, 0) - 1 match = True For c = 0 To UBound(myArray, 1) - 1 If not doesValueMeetCriteria(myarray(r,c) then match = False Exit For End If Next If match Then addRowToMatchedRows(r) Next The doesValueMeetCriteria function is a simple function that checks the value of the array element against the query requirement. e.g. Column A = dog etc. Is it more effiecent to create a datatable from the array and use the .select method ? Can I use Linq in some way ? Perhaps some form of dictionary or hashtable ? Or is the simple loop the most effiecent ? Your suggestions are most welcome.

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  • When are predicates appropriate and what is the best pattern for usage

    - by Maxim Gershkovich
    When are predicates appropriate and what is the best pattern for usage? What are the advantages of predicates? It seems to me like most cases where a predicate can be employed a tight loop would accomplish the same functionality? I don’t see a reusability argument given you will probably only implement a predicate in one method right? They look and feel nice but besides that they seem like you would only employ them when you need a quick hack on the collection classes? UPDATE But why would you be rewriting the tight loop again and again? In my mind/code when it comes to collections I always end up with something like Class Person End Class Class PersonList Inherits List(Of Person) Function FindByName(Name) as Person tight loop.... End Function End Class @Ani By that same logic I could implement the method as such Class PersonList Inherits List(Of Person) Function FindByName(Name) as PersonList End Function Function FindByAge(Age) as PersonList End Function Function FindBySocialSecurityNumber(SocialSecurityNumber) as PersonList End Function End Class And call it as such Dim res as PersonList = MyList.FindByName("Max").FindByAge(25).FindBySocialSecurityNumber(1234) and the result along with the amount of code and its reusability is largely the same, no? I am not arguing just trying to understand.

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  • WPF - How do I use the UserControl with a dependency property and view model?

    - by user320849
    Hello, My goal is to have a user select a year and a month. Translate the selection into a date and have the user control send the date back to my view model. That part works for me....However, I cannot get the ViewModel's initial date to set those drop downs. public static readonly DependencyProperty Date = DependencyProperty.Register("ReturnDate", typeof(DateTime), typeof(DatePicker), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata{BindsTwoWayByDefault = true,}); public DateTime ReturnDate { get { return Convert.ToDateTime(GetValue(Date)); } set { SetDropDowns(value); SetValue(Date, value); } } The SetDropDowns(value) just sets the selected items on the combo boxes, however, the program never makes it to that method. On the view I am using: <cc1:DatePicker ReturnDate="{Binding Path=StartDate, Mode=TwoWay}" IsStart="True" /> If this has been answered, then my bad. I looked around and didn't see anything that worked for me. Thus, when the program loads how do I get the value from the view model to a method in order to set the combo boxes? Thanks, -Scott

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  • How to prepare data for display on a silverlight chart using WCF RIA Services + Entity Framework

    - by Banford
    I've used WCF RIA services with Entity Framework to build a simple application which can display and updates data about school courses. This was done by following the Microsoft tutorials. Now I would like to have a chart which shows a count for how many courses are on a key stage. Example: Key Stage 3 - 20 courses Key Stage 4 - 32 courses Key Stage 5 - 12 courses Displayed on any form of chart. I have no problem binding data to the chart in XAML. My problem is that I do not know how to correct way of getting the data into that format. The generated CRUD methods are basic. I have a few thoughts about possible ways, but don't know which is correct, they are: Create a View in SQL server and map this to a separate Entity in the Entity Data Model. Generating new CRUD methods for this automatically. Customise the read method in the existing DomainService using .Select() .Distinct() etc. Don't know this syntax very well labda expressions/LINQ??? what is it? Any good quickstarts on it? Create a new class to store only the data required and create a read method for it. Tried this but didn't know how to make it work without a matching entity in the entity model. Something I am not aware of. I'm very new to this and struggling with the concepts so if there are useful blogs or documentation I've missed feel free to point me towards them. But I'm unsure of the terminology to use in my searches at the moment.

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  • Five unique, random numbers from a subset

    - by tau
    I know similar questions come up a lot and there's probably no definitive answer, but I want to generate five unique random numbers from a subset of numbers that is potentially infinite (maybe 0-20, or 0-1,000,000). The only catch is that I don't want to have to run while loops or fill an array. My current method is to simply generate five random numbers from a subset minus the last five numbers. If any of the numbers match each other, then they go to their respective place at the end of the subset. So if the fourth number matches any other number, it will bet set to the 4th from the last number. Does anyone have a method that is "random enough" and doesn't involve costly loops or arrays? Please keep in mind this a curiosity, not some mission-critical problem. I would appreciate it if everyone didn't post "why are you having this problem?" answers. I am just looking for ideas. Thanks a lot!

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  • Refactoring - Speed increase

    - by Michael G
    How can I make this function more efficient. It's currently running at 6 - 45 seconds. I've ran dotTrace profiler on this specific method, and it's total time is anywhere between 6,000ms to 45,000ms. The majority of the time is spent on the "MoveNext" and "GetEnumerator" calls. and example of the times are 71.55% CreateTableFromReportDataColumns - 18, 533* ms - 190 calls -- 55.71% MoveNext - 14,422ms - 10,775 calls What can I do to speed this method up? it gets called a lot, and the seconds add up: private static DataTable CreateTableFromReportDataColumns(Report report) { DataTable table = new DataTable(); HashSet<String> colsToAdd = new HashSet<String> { "DataStream" }; foreach (ReportData reportData in report.ReportDatas) { IEnumerable<string> cols = reportData.ReportDataColumns.Where(c => !String.IsNullOrEmpty(c.Name)).Select(x => x.Name).Distinct(); foreach (var s in cols) { if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(s)) colsToAdd.Add(s); } } foreach (string col in colsToAdd) { table.Columns.Add(col); } return table; }

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  • How should rules for Aggregate Roots be enforced?

    - by MylesRip
    While searching the web, I came across a list of rules from Eric Evans' book that should be enforced for aggregates: The root Entity has global identity and is ultimately responsible for checking invariants Root Entities have global identity. Entities inside the boundary have local identity, unique only within the Aggregate. Nothing outside the Aggregate boundary can hold a reference to anything inside, except to the root Entity. The root Entity can hand references to the internal Entities to other objects, but they can only use them transiently (within a single method or block). Only Aggregate Roots can be obtained directly with database queries. Everything else must be done through traversal. Objects within the Aggregate can hold references to other Aggregate roots. A delete operation must remove everything within the Aggregate boundary all at once When a change to any object within the Aggregate boundary is committed, all invariants of the whole Aggregate must be satisfied. This all seems fine in theory, but I don't see how these rules would be enforced in the real world. Take rule 3 for example. Once the root entity has given an exteral object a reference to an internal entity, what's to keep that external object from holding on to the reference beyond the single method or block? (If the enforcement of this is platform-specific, I would be interested in knowing how this would be enforced within a C#/.NET/NHibernate environment.)

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  • Having some fun - what is a good way to include a secret key functionality and fire the KeyDown event?

    - by Sisyphus
    To keep myself interested, I try to put little Easter Eggs in my projects (mostly to amuse myself). I've seen some websites where you can type a series of letters "aswzaswz" and you get a "secret function" - how would I achieve this in C#? I've assigned a "secret function" in the past by using modifier keys bool showFunThing = (Control.ModifierKeys & Keys.Control) == Keys.Control; but wanted to get a bit more secretive (without the modifier keys) I just wanted the form to detect a certain word typed without any input ... I've built a method that I think should do it: private StringBuilder _pressedKeys = new StringBuilder(); protected override void OnKeyDown(KeyEventArgs e) { const string kWord = "fun"; char letter = (char)e.KeyValue; if (!char.IsLetterOrDigit(letter)) { return; } _pressedKeys.Append(letter); if (_pressedKeys.Length == kWord.Length) { if (_pressedKeys.ToString().ToLower() == kWord) { MessageBox.Show("Fun"); _pressedKeys.Clear(); } } base.OnKeyDown(e); } Now I need to wire it up but I can't figure out how I'm supposed to raise the event in the form designer ... I've tried this: this.KeyDown +=new System.Windows.Forms.KeyEventHandler(OnKeyDown); and a couple of variations on this but I'm missing something because it won't fire (or compile). It tells me that the OnKeyDown method is expecting a certain signature but I've got other methods like this where I haven't specified arguments. I fear that I may have got myself confused so I am turning to SO for help ... anyone?

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  • rails delete_all exception

    - by Sergei
    Hello, guys! I have some User model, Role model and Assignment model to manage role-based user system. Just like here . So, here some kind of code, to include roles into users form: <% for role in Role.all %> <%= check_box_tag "user[role_ids][]", role.id, @user.roles.include?(role) %> <%=h role.name %><br /> <% end %> And all's working fine for new records and for editing records. But I just want to make possible to restrict deleting Assigment with id=1, cause this Assignment for default root user from migration, who must be admin anyway. Otherwise, I can lose my last admin. So I've tryed to add before_destroy to Assignment.rb model, but it doesn't work. I've noticed, that when I'm editing user and trying to remove his admin role(assignment), the server makes a delete_all method, not destroy method. So, does anybody know how to catch the deleting of Assignment with id=1 through this kind of code? Thanks in advance!

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  • How should I pass the translated text to my object in my multilingual application?

    - by boatingcow
    Up until now, I have maintained a 'dictionary' table in my database, for example: +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ | phrase | en | fr | etc... | +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ | generated | Generated in %1$01.2f seconds at %2$s | Créée en %1$01.2f secondes à %2$s aujourd'hui | ... | | submit | Submit... | Envoyer... | ... | +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ I'll then select all rows from the database for the column that matches the locale we're interested in (or read the cache from a file to speed db lookup) and dump the dictionary into an array called $lng. Then I'll have HTML helper objects like this in my view: $html->input(array('type' => 'submit', 'value' => $lng['submit'], etc...)); ... $html->div(array('value' => sprintf($lng['generated'], $generated, date('H:i')), etc...)); The translations can appear in PDF, XLS and AJAX responses too. The problem with my approach so far is that I now have loads of global $lng; in every class where there is a function that spits out UI code.. How do other people get the translation into the object? Is it one scenario where globals aren't actually that bad? Would it be madness to create a class with accessors when the dictionary terms are all static?

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  • Entity Framework 4 + POCO with custom classes and WCF contracts (serialization problem)

    - by eman
    Yesterday I worked on a project where I upgraded to Entity Framework 4 with the Repository pattern. In one post, I have read that it is necessary to turn off the custom tool generator classes and then write classes (same like entites) by hand. That I can do it, I used the POCO Entity Generator and then deleted the new generated files .tt and all subordinate .cs classes. Then I wrote the "entity classes" by myself. I added the repository pattern and implemented it in the business layer and then implemented a WCF layer, which should call the methods from the business layer. By calling an Insert (Add) method from the presentation layer and everything is OK. But if I call any method that should return some class, then I get an error like (the connection was interrupted by the server). I suppose there is a problem with the serialization or am I wrong? How can by this problem solved? I'm using Visual Studio S2010, Entity Framework 4, C#. UPDATE: I have uploaded the project and hope somebody can help me! link text UPDATE 2: My questions: Why is POCO good (pros/cons)? When should POCO be used? Is POCO + the repository pattern a good choice? Should POCO classes by written by myself or could I use auto generated POCO classes?

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  • C++, function pointer to the template function pointer

    - by Ian
    I am having a pointer to the common static method class MyClass { private: static double ( *pfunction ) ( const Object *, const Object *); ... }; pointing to the static method class SomeClass { public: static double getA ( const Object *o1, const Object *o2); ... }; Initialization: double ( *MyClass::pfunction ) ( const Object *o1, const Object *o2 ) = &SomeClass::getA; I would like to convert this pointer to the static template function pointer: template <class T> static T ( *pfunction ) ( const Object <T> *, const Object <T> *); //Compile error where: class SomeClass { public: template <class T> static double getA ( const Object <T> *o1, const Object <T> *o2); ... }; But there is some error... Thanks for your help...

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  • Permission issue when webservice deployed as virtual directory.Works in VS IDE

    - by Shyju
    I have an ASP.NET web service which will create a text file in a path which is being passed as a parameter to the method. private void CreateFile(string path) { string strFileName = path; StreamWriter sw = new StreamWriter(strFileName, true); sw.WriteLine(""); sw.Write("Created at " + DateTime.Now.ToString()); sw.Close(); } Now I am passing a folder in the network as the parameter and calling the method CreateFile(@"\\192.168.0.40\\labels\\test.txt"); When running the code from the Visual studio IDE,the file is getting created in the path.But when i published this and deployed as a virtual directoty,Its throwing me some error like "System.UnauthorizedAccessException: Access to the path '\\192.168.0.40\labels\test.txt' is denied. at System.IO.__Error.WinIOError(Int32 errorCode, String maybeFullPath) at System.IO.FileStream.Init(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, Int32 rights, Boolean useRights, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize, FileOptions options, SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES secAttrs, String msgPath, Boolean bFromProxy) at System.IO.FileStream..ctor(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize, FileOptions options) at System.IO.StreamWriter.CreateFile(String path, Boolean append) at System.IO.StreamWriter..ctor(String path, Boolean append, Encoding encoding, Int32 bufferSize) at System.IO.StreamWriter..ctor(String path, Boolean append) I have in my web.config.My machine is running in XP and the other is in Windows Server 2003 Any idea to solve this ?? Thanks in advance

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  • jQuery: Trouble with draggable across cloned elements

    - by Rosarch
    I'm trying to implement: User drags a draggable li to a droppable li. The original li is no longer draggable A new li is cloned from the original li, and is appended to the droppable li. I can't get it to work. function moveToTerm(original_course, helper, term) { var cloned_course = original_course.clone(true); original_course.addClass('already-scheduled'); original_course.draggable('disable'); cloned_course.draggable(); cloned_course.appendTo(term).hide().fadeIn('slow'); } This works fine, except now the cloned_course is not draggable. A droppable li: <li class="term ui-droppable"> <strong>Fall 2010</strong> <li class="course">Computing Cultures</li> <!-- this course was just dropped. I want it to be draggable but it's not --> <li class="course ui-draggable" style="display: list-item;">New Media and Society</li> </li> What am I doing wrong?

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  • How can my facebook application post message to a wall?

    - by Thomas Dekiere
    i already found out how to post something to a wall with the graph api on behalf of the facebook user. But now i want to post something in the name of my application. Here is how i'm trying to do this: protected void btn_submit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Dictionary<string, string> data = new Dictionary<string, string>(); data.Add("message", "Testing"); // i'll add more data later here (picture, link, ...) data.Add("access_token", FbGraphApi.getAppToken()); FbGraphApi.postOnWall(ConfigSettings.getFbPageId(), data); } FbGraphApi.getAppToken() // ... private static string graphUrl = "https://graph.facebook.com"; //... public static string getAppToken() { MyWebRequest req = new MyWebRequest(graphUrl + "/" + "oauth/access_token?type=client_cred&client_id=" + ConfigSettings.getAppID() + "&client_secret=" + ConfigSettings.getAppSecret(), "GET"); return req.GetResponse().Split('=')[1]; } FbGraphApi.postOnWall() public static void postOnWall(string id, Dictionary<string,string> args) { call(id, "feed", args); } FbGraphApi.call() private static void call(string id, string method, Dictionary<string,string> args ) { string data = ""; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, string> arg in args) { data += arg.Key + "=" + arg.Value + "&"; } MyWebRequest req = new MyWebRequest(graphUrl +"/" + id + "/" + method, "POST", data.Substring(0, data.Length - 1)); req.GetResponse(); // here i get: "The remote server returned an error: (403) Forbidden." } Does anyone see where this i going wrong? I'm really stuck on this. Thanks!

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  • Why Enumerable.Range is faster than a direct yield loop?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    Below code is checking performance of three different ways to do same solution. public static void Main(string[] args) { // for loop { Stopwatch sw = Stopwatch.StartNew(); int accumulator = 0; for (int i = 1; i <= 100000000; ++i) { accumulator += i; } sw.Stop(); Console.WriteLine("time = {0}; result = {1}", sw.ElapsedMilliseconds, accumulator); } //Enumerable.Range { Stopwatch sw = Stopwatch.StartNew(); var ret = Enumerable.Range(1, 100000000).Aggregate(0, (accumulator, n) => accumulator + n); sw.Stop(); Console.WriteLine("time = {0}; result = {1}", sw.ElapsedMilliseconds, ret); } //self-made IEnumerable<int> { Stopwatch sw = Stopwatch.StartNew(); var ret = GetIntRange(1, 100000000).Aggregate(0, (accumulator, n) => accumulator + n); sw.Stop(); Console.WriteLine("time = {0}; result = {1}", sw.ElapsedMilliseconds, ret); } } private static IEnumerable<int> GetIntRange(int start, int count) { int end = start + count; for (int i = start; i < end; ++i) { yield return i; } } } The result is like this: time = 306; result = 987459712 time = 1301; result = 987459712 time = 2860; result = 987459712 It is not surprising that "for loop" is faster than the other two solutions, because Enumerable.Aggregate takes more method invocations. However, it really surprises that "Enumerable.Range" is faster than the "self-made IEnumerable". I thought that Enumerable.Range will take more overhead than the simple GetIntRange method. What is the possible reason for this?

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  • How to specify allowed exceptions in WCF's configuration file?

    - by tucaz
    Hello! I´m building a set of WCF services for internal use through all our applications. For exception handling I created a default fault class so I can return treated message to the caller if its the case or a generic one when I have no clue what happened. Fault contract: [DataContract(Name = "DefaultFault", Namespace = "http://fnac.com.br/api/2010/03")] public class DefaultFault { public DefaultFault(DefaultFaultItem[] items) { if (items == null || items.Length== 0) { throw new ArgumentNullException("items"); } StringBuilder sbItems = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i Specifying that my method can throw this exception so the consuming client will be aware of it: [OperationContract(Name = "PlaceOrder")] [FaultContract(typeof(DefaultFault))] [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "/orders", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, Method = "POST")] string PlaceOrder(Order newOrder); Most of time we will use just .NET to .NET communication with usual binds and everything works fine since we are talking the same language. However, as you can see in the service contract declaration I have a WebInvoke attribute (and a webHttp binding) in order to be able to also talk JSON since one of our apps will be built for iPhone and this guy will talk JSON. My problem is that whenever I throw a FaultException and have includeExceptionDetails="false" in the config file the calling client will get a generic HTTP error instead of my custom message. I understand that this is the correct behavior when includeExceptionDetails is turned off, but I think I saw some configuration a long time ago to allow some exceptions/faults to pass through the service boundaries. Is there such thing like this? If not, what do u suggest for my case? Thanks a LOT!

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  • Trying to use jquery ui in google chrome extension in the content level

    - by user135697
    The problem is that the scope of the content script is on the web page that your plugin is suppose to be used at. So the css background:url(images/ui-bg_inset-hard_100_fcfdfd_1x100.png) becomes url('http://webpageforplugin/images/ui-bg_inset-hard_100_fcfdfd_1x100.png') in order for this to work as far as i understood i need to have it to point to: url('chrome-extension://extensionId/images/ui-bg_inset-hard_100_fcfdfd_1x100.png') So i tried to haxorz the document.styleSheets var ss = document.styleSheets; for (var i=0; i<ss.length; i++) { var found=-1, x,i; var rules = ss[i].cssRules || ss[i].rules; for (var j=0; j<rules.length; j++) { if ('.ui-helper-hidden'==rules[j].selectorText){ found=i; break; } } if (found>-1){ for (var j=0; j<rules.length; j++) { if (x=rules[j].style.background){ if ((i=x.indexOf('url'))!=-1) rules[j].style.background = x.replace('http://page/images/','chrome-extension://extensionId/images/'); } } break; } }; I feel that i'm missing the obvious. That there must be an easier way. Even if i manage to change this how will i get the extension id to build the string. Btw this doesn't work, the icons are not properly fetched. (I hardcoded the extension id) Any ideas?

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  • Boost Asio UDP retrieve last packet in socket buffer

    - by Alberto Toglia
    I have been messing around Boost Asio for some days now but I got stuck with this weird behavior. Please let me explain. Computer A is sending continuos udp packets every 500 ms to computer B, computer B desires to read A's packets with it own velocity but only wants A's last packet, obviously the most updated one. It has come to my attention that when I do a: mSocket.receive_from(boost::asio::buffer(mBuffer), mEndPoint); I can get OLD packets that were not processed (almost everytime). Does this make any sense? A friend of mine told me that sockets maintain a buffer of packets and therefore If I read with a lower frequency than the sender this could happen. ¡? So, the first question is how is it possible to receive the last packet and discard the ones I missed? Later I tried using the async example of the Boost documentation but found it did not do what I wanted. http://www.boost.org/doc/libs/1_36_0/doc/html/boost_asio/tutorial/tutdaytime6.html From what I could tell the async_receive_from should call the method "handle_receive" when a packet arrives, and that works for the first packet after the service was "run". If I wanted to keep listening the port I should call the async_receive_from again in the handle code. right? BUT what I found is that I start an infinite loop, it doesn't wait till the next packet, it just enters "handle_receive" again and again. I'm not doing a server application, a lot of things are going on (its a game), so my second question is, do I have to use threads to use the async receive method properly, is there some example with threads and async receive? Thanks for you attention.

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  • Can't get jQuery to wokr with Prototype - tried everything....

    - by thinkfuture
    Ok so here is the situation. Been pulling my hair out on this one. I'm a noob at this. Only been using rails for about 6 weeks. I'm using the standard setup package, and my code leverages prototype helpers heavily. Like I said, noob ;) So I'm trying to put in some jQuery effects, like PrettyPhoto. But what happens is that when the page is first loaded, PrettyPhoto works great. However, once someone uses a Prototype helper, like a link created with link_to_remote, Prettyphoto stops working. I've tried jRails, all of the fixes proposed on the JQuery site to stop conflicts... http://docs.jquery.com/Using_jQuery_with_Other_Libraries ...even done some crazy things likes renaming all of the $ in prototype.js to $$$ to no avail. Either the prototype helpers break, or jQuery breaks. Seems nothing I do can get these to work together. Any ideas? Here is part of my application.html.erb <%= javascript_include_tag 'application' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'tooltip' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'jquery' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'jquery-ui' %> <%= javascript_include_tag "jquery.prettyPhoto" %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'prototype' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'scriptalicious' %> </head> <body> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> jQuery(document).ready( function() { jQuery("a[rel^='prettyPhoto']").prettyPhoto(); }); </script> If I put prototype before jquery, the prototype helpers don't work If I put the noconflict clause in, neither works. Thanks in advance! Chris

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  • Linq generic Expression in query on "element" or on IQueryable (multiple use)

    - by Bogdan Maxim
    Hi, I have the following expression public static Expression<Func<T, bool>> JoinByDateCheck<T>(T entity, DateTime dateToCheck) where T : IDateInterval { return (entityToJoin) => entityToJoin.FromDate.Date <= dateToCheck.Date && (entityToJoin.ToDate == null || entityToJoin.ToDate.Value.Date >= dateToCheck.Date); } IDateInterval interface is defined like this: interface IDateInterval { DateTime FromDate {get;} DateTime? ToDate {get;} } and i need to apply it in a few ways: (1) Query on Linq2Sql Table: var q1 = from e in intervalTable where FunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(e, constantDateTime) select e; or something like this: intervalTable.Where(FunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(e, constantDateTime)) (2) I need to use it in some table joins (as linq2sql doesn't provide comparative join): var q2 = from e1 in t1 join e2 in t2 on e1.FK == e2.PK where OtherFunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(e2, e1.FromDate) or var q2 = from e1 in t1 from e2 in t2 where e1.FK == e2.PK && OtherFunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(e2, e1.FromDate) (3) I need to use it in some queries like this: var q3 = from e in intervalTable.FilterFunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(constantDate); Dynamic linq is not something that I can use, so I have to stick to plain linq. Thank you Clarification: Initially I had just the last method (FilterFunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(this IQueryable<IDateInterval> entities, DateTime dateConstant) ) that contained the code from the expression. The problem is that I get a SQL Translate exception if I write the code in a method and call it like that. All I want is to extend the use of this function to the where clause (see the second query in point 2)

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  • Do I really ned bindParam?

    - by sandelius
    Hi there! I'm trying to do a little PDO CRUD to learn some PDO. I have a question about bindParam. Here's my update method right now: public static function update($conditions = array(), $data = array(), $table = '') { self::instance(); // Late static bindings (PHP 5.3) $table = ($table === '') ? self::table() : $table; // Check which data array we want to use $values = (empty($data)) ? self::$_fields : $data; $sql = "UPDATE $table SET "; foreach ($values as $f => $v) { $sql .= "$f = ?, "; } // let's build the conditions self::build_conditions($conditions); // fix our WHERE, AND, OR, LIKE conditions $extra = self::$condition_string; // querystring $sql = rtrim($sql, ', ') . $extra; // let's merge the arrays into on $v_val = array_values($values); $c_val = array_values($conditions); $array = array_merge($v_val, self::$condition_array); $stmt = self::$db->prepare($sql); return $stmt->execute($array); } in my "self::$condition_array" I get all the right values from the ?. SO the query looks like this: UPDATE table SET this = ?, another = ? WHERE title = ? AND time = ? as you can see I dont use bindParams instead I pass the right values in the right order ($array) directly into the execute($array) method. This works like a charm BUT is it safe not use use bindParam here? If not then how can I do it? Thanks from Sweden Tobias

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  • Is it possible to recreate User Gestures in iPhone?

    - by MadhavanRP
    I am developing an app and I have encountered a problem that comes down to this scenario: Consider a superview with two buttons(button1,button2) and a text view, all as its subviews. When I click on one button, I display the text view. When I tap on anywhere outside the textview, but in the super view, I need to dismiss the text view. I have added a UITapGestureRecognizer to the super view and it calls a method tap:. In tap:, I get the point of the tap and if it is outside the text view, I dismiss the text view and remove the GestureRecognizer. Now the problem occurs when I tap on button 2. I need to dismiss the text view as well as execute the action for button 2. But it enters tap: and I do not wish to call the button 2's method from there. What I want to know is if it would be possible to emulate the same tap at the same co ordinates after the gesture recognizer is removed? If not what is the way I proceed to solve this issue?

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