Search Results

Search found 33344 results on 1334 pages for 'helper method'.

Page 521/1334 | < Previous Page | 517 518 519 520 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528  | Next Page >

  • Hibernate Envers : How to delete entries from my audit table?

    - by Laurent T
    Hi everyone, I am currently working with Hibernate Envers. My problem is the following : How to delete entries in the audit table related to the entity I want to delete? My entity has no relation with other entities. I figured out that I have to do that in onPostDelete method of my custom listener : import org.hibernate.envers.event.AuditEventListener; import org.hibernate.event.PostCollectionRecreateEvent; import org.hibernate.event.PostDeleteEvent; import org.hibernate.event.PostInsertEvent; import org.hibernate.event.PostUpdateEvent; import org.hibernate.event.PreCollectionRemoveEvent; import org.hibernate.event.PreCollectionUpdateEvent; public class MyListener extends AuditEventListener { ... @Override public void onPostDelete(PostDeleteEvent arg0) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onPostDelete(arg0); } ... } I've read the documentation, forums, many things but I can't figure it out. May be it's not possible, I don't know. Has someone ever done this before? Thank you :)

    Read the article

  • Surely a foolish error, but I can't see it

    - by dnagirl
    I have a form (greatly simplified): <form action='http://example.com/' method='post' name='event_form'> <input type='text' name='foo' value='3'/> <input type='submit' name='event_submit' value='Edit'/> </form> And I have a class "EventForm" to process the form. The main method, process() looks like this: public function process($submitname=false){ $success=false; if ($submitname && isset($_POST[$submitname])){ //PROBLEM: isset($_POST[$submitname] is always FALSE for some reason if($success=$this->ruler->validate()){//check that dependancies are honoured and data types are correct if($success=$this->map_fields()){//divide input data into Event, Schedule_Element and Temporal_Expression(s) $success=$this->eventholder->save(); } } } else {//get the record from the db based on event_id or schedule_element_id foreach($this->gets as $var){//list of acceptable $_GET keys if(isset($_GET[$var])){ if($success= $this->__set($var,$_GET[$var])) break; } } } $this->action=(empty($this->eventholder->event_id))? ADD : EDIT; return $success; } When the form is submitted, this happens: $form->process('event_submit'); For some reason though, isset($_POST['event_submit']) always evaluates to FALSE. Can anyone see why?

    Read the article

  • Not delete params in URL, when sorting [ RAILS 3 ]

    - by kamil
    I have sortable table columns, made like that http://asciicasts.com/episodes/228-sortable-table-columns And I have simply filter options for two columns in table, made at select_tag (GET method). This two function don't work together. When I change filter, the sort parameter disappear and inversely. <th><%= sortable "Id" %></th> <th> Status<br/> <form method="get"> <%= select_tag(:status, options_for_select([['All', 'all']]+@statuses, params[:status]),{:onchange => 'this.form.submit()'}) %> </th> <th><%= sortable "Operation" %></th> <th> Processor<br/> <%= select_tag(:processor, options_for_select([['All', 'all']]+@processor_names, params[:processor]),{:onchange => 'this.form.submit()'}) %> </form> </th>

    Read the article

  • How to mock a String using mockito?

    - by Alceu Costa
    I need to simulate a test scenario in which I call the getBytes() method of a String object and I get an UnsupportedEncodingException. I have tried to achieve that using the following code: String nonEncodedString = mock(String.class); when(nonEncodedString.getBytes(anyString())).thenThrow(new UnsupportedEncodingException("Parsing error.")); The problem is that when I run my test case I get a MockitoException that says that I can't mock a java.lang.String class. Is there a way to mock a String object using mockito or, alternatively, a way to make my String object throw an UnsupportedEncodingException when I call the getBytes method? Here are more details to illustrate the problem: This is the class that I want to test: public final class A{ public static String f(String str){ try{ return new String(str.getBytes("UTF-8")); } catch (UnsupportedEncodingException e) { // This is the catch block that I want to exercise. ... } } } This is my testing class (I'm using JUnit 4 and mockito): public class TestA { @Test(expected=UnsupportedEncodingException.class) public void test(){ String aString = mock(String.class); when(nonEncodedString.getBytes(anyString())).thenThrow(new UnsupportedEncodingException("Parsing error.")); A.f(aString); } }

    Read the article

  • Matching innermost braces with regex or strpos?

    - by rich97
    I have a sort of mini parsing syntax I made up to help me streamline my view code in cakephp. Basically I have created a table helper which, when given a dataset and (optionally) a set of options for how to format the data will render out a table, as opposed to me looping though the data and editing it manually. It allows the user to be as complex or as simple as they like, it can get pretty powerful. However, In order to achieve this I had to make a simple parsing syntax. As a quick example the user would do something like so: $this->Table->data = $userData; $this->Table->elements['td']['data'] = array( '{:User.username:}', '{:User.created:}' => array('Time::nice') ); echo $this->Table->render(); And when rendering the table would then generate: <table> <tbody> <tr><td>rich97</td><td>Sun 21st 02:30pm</td></tr> </tbody> </table> The problem occurs then I try to nest the braces like so: {:User.levels.iconClasses.{:User.access:}:} Is there anyway I can only get the inner most brackets on the first time round and loop though until there are no matches? Or even do it in one go? Or even better use strpos? Here is my regex as it stands: '/\{\:([^}]+)\:\}/'

    Read the article

  • Host WCF in MVC2 Site

    - by Basiclife
    Hi, We've got a very large, complex MVC2 website. We want to add an API for some internal tools and decided to use WCF. Ideally, we want MVC itself to host the WCF service. Reasons include: Although there's multiple tiers to the application, some functionality we'd like in the API requires the website itself (e.g. formatting emails). We use TFS to auto-build (continuous integration) and deploy - The less we need to modify the build and release mechanism the better We use the Unity container and Inversion of Control throughout the application. Being part of the Website would allow us to re-use configuration classes and other helper methods. I've written a custom ServiceBehavior which in turn has a custom InstanceProvider - This allows me to instantiate and configure a container which is then used to service all requests for class instances from WCF. So my question is; Is it possible to host a WCF service from within MVC itself? I've only had experience in Services / Standard Asp.Net websites before and didn't realise MVC2 might be different until I actually tried to wire it into the config and nothing happened. After some googling, there don't seem to be many references to doing this - so thought I'd ask here.

    Read the article

  • Ruby on Rails + Jquery: Saving data from draggable lists

    - by sjsc
    Hello. I'm trying to save data to the MySQL database in Rails when the user drags items from different lists. I'm using the below Jquery script and HTML: <script> $(document).ready(function() { $("#draggable").draggable( { connectToSortable: 'ul#myList', helper:'clone' } ); $("#myList").sortable(); }); </script> HTML: <ul> <li id="draggable">Drag me to myList</li> </ul> <ul id="myList"> <li id="item-1">item 1</li> <li id="item-2">item 2</li> </ul> I know I probably have to use something like this: $.post({ url: 'lists/update', data: $('#myList').sortable("serialize") }); I've been Googling for the last few hours but can't seem to find how to save data between multiple lists using Rails. Any idea?

    Read the article

  • Reference to the Main Form whilst trying to Serialize objects in C#

    - by Paul Matthews
    I have a button on my main form which calls a method to serialize some objects to disk. I am trying to add these objects to an ArrayList and then serialize them using a BinaryFormatter and a FileStream. public void SerializeGAToDisk(string GenAlgName) { // Let's make a list that includes all the objects we // need to store a GA instance ArrayList GAContents = new ArrayList(); GAContents.Add(GenAlgInstances[GenAlgName]); // Structure and info for a GA GAContents.Add(RunningGAs[GenAlgName]); // There may be several running GA's using (FileStream fStream = new FileStream(GenAlgName + ".ga", FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write, FileShare.None)) { BinaryFormatter binFormat = new BinaryFormatter(); binFormat.Serialize(fStream, GAContents); } } When running the above code I get the following exception: System.Runtime.Serialization.SerializationException was unhandled Message=Type 'WindowsFormsApplication1.Form1' in Assembly 'GeneticAlgApp, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' is not marked as serializable. So that means that somewhere in the objects I'm trying to save there must be a reference to the main form. The only possible references I can see are 3 delegates which all point to methods in the main form code. Do delegates get serialized as well? I can't seem to apply the [NonSerialized] attribute to them. Is there anything else I might be missing? Even better, is there a quick method to find the reference(s) that are causing the problem?

    Read the article

  • Should I pass a SqlDataReader by reference or not when passing it out to multiple threads.

    - by deroby
    Hi all, being new to c# I've run into this 'conundrum' when passing around a SqlDataReader between different threads. Without going into too much detail, the idea is to have a main thread fetching data from the database (a large recordset) and then have a helper-task run through this record by record and doing some stuff based upon the contents of this. There is no feedback to the recordset, it simply wades through until no records are left. This works fine, but given the nature of the job at hand it should be possible to have this job spread over different threads (CPUs) to maximize throughput (the order of execution is of no significance). The question then becomes, when I pass this recordset in a SqlDataReader, do I have to use ref or not ? It kind of boils down to the question : if I pass the object around without specifying ref, won't it create new copies in memory and have records processed n times ? Or, don't I risk having the record-position being moved forward while not all fields have been fully read yet ? The latter seems more like a 'data racing' issue and probably is covered by the lock()ing mechanism (or not?). My initial take on the problem was that it doesn't really hurt passing the variable using ref, yet as a colleague put it : "you only need ref when you're doing something wrong" =) Additionally using ref restricts me from applying a Using() construction too which isn't very nice either. I thus create a "basic" project that tackles the same approach but without the ref notation. Tests so far show that it works flawlessly on a Core2Duo (2cpu) using any number of threads, yet I'm still a bit wary... What do you experts think about this ? Use ref or not ? You can find the test-project here as it seems I can't upload it to this question directly ?!? ps: it's just a test-project and I'm new to c#, so please be gentle on me when breaking down the code =P

    Read the article

  • How to round-off hours based on Minutes(hours+0 if min<30, hours+1 otherwise) ?

    - by infant programmer
    I need to round-off the hours based on the minutes in a DateTime variable. The condition is: if minutes are less than 30, then minutes must be set to zero and no changes to hours, else if minutes =30, then hours must be set to hours+1 and minutes are again set to zero. Seconds are ignored. example: 11/08/2008 04:30:49 should become 11/08/2008 05:00:00 and 11/08/2008 04:29:49 should become 11/08/2008 04:00:00 I have written code which works perfectly fine, but just wanted to know a better method if could be written and also would appreciate alternative method(s). string date1 = "11/08/2008 04:30:49"; DateTime startTime; DateTime.TryParseExact(date1, "MM/dd/yyyy HH:mm:ss", null, System.Globalization.DateTimeStyles.None, out startTime); if (Convert.ToInt32((startTime.Minute.ToString())) > 29) { startTime = DateTime.Parse(string.Format("{0}/{1}/{2} {3}:{4}:{5}", startTime.Month.ToString(), startTime.Day.ToString(), startTime.Year.ToString(), startTime.Hour.ToString(), "00", "00")); startTime = startTime.Add(TimeSpan.Parse("01:00:00")); Console.WriteLine("startTime is :: {0}", startTime.ToString("MM/dd/yyyy HH:mm:ss")); } else { startTime = DateTime.Parse(string.Format("{0}/{1}/{2} {3}:{4}:{5}", startTime.Month.ToString(), startTime.Day.ToString(), startTime.Year.ToString(), startTime.Hour.ToString(), "00", "00")); Console.WriteLine("startTime is :: {0}", startTime.ToString("MM/dd/yyyy HH:mm:ss")); }

    Read the article

  • Custom UIButton Memory Management in dealloc

    - by ddawber
    I am hoping to clarify the processes going on here. I have created a subclass of UIButton whose init method looks like this: - (id)initWithTitle:(NSString *)title frame:(CGRect)btnFrame { self = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; [self setTitle:title forState:UIControlStateNormal]; self.frame = btnFrame; return self; } In my view controller I am creating one of these buttons and adding it as a subview: myButton = [[CustomButton alloc] initWithTitle:@"Title" frame:someFrame]; [self.view addSubview:myButton]; In the view controller's dealloc method I log the retain count of my button: - (void)dealloc { NSLog(@"RC: %d", [myButton retainCount]); //RC = 2 [super dealloc]; NSLog(@"RC: %d", [myButton retainCount]); //RC = 1 } The way I understand it, myButton is not actually retained, even though I invoked it using alloc, because in my subclass I created an autorelease button (using buttonWithType:). In dealloc, does this mean that, when dealloc is called the superview releases the button and its retain count goes down to 1? The button has not yet been autoreleased? Or do I need to get that retain count down to zero after calling [super dealloc]? Cheers.

    Read the article

  • How to find which file is open in eclipse editor without using IEditorPart?

    - by Destructor
    I want to know which file (or even project is enough) is opened in eclipse editor? I know we can do this once we get IEditorPart from doSetInput method, IFile file = ((IFileEditorInput) iEditorPart).getFile(); But I want the name of file without using IEditorPart, how can I do the same? Checking which is the selected file in project explorer is not of much help because, user can select multiple files at once and open all simultaneously and I did not way to distinguish which file opened at what time. Adding more info: I have an editor specified for a particular type of file, now every time it opens, during intializing editor I have some operation to do based on project properties. While initializing editor, I need the file handle (of the one which user opened/double clicked) or the corresponding project handle. I have my editor something this way: public class MyEditor extends TextEditor{ @Override protected void initializeEditor() { setSourceViewerConfiguration(new MySourceViewerConfiguration( CDTUITools.getColorManager(), store, "MyPartitions", this)); } //other required methods @Override protected void doSetInput(IEditorInput input) throws CoreException { if(input instanceof IFileEditorInput) { IFile file = ((IFileEditorInput) input).getFile(); } } } as I have done in the doSetInput() method , I want the file handle(even project handle is sufficient). But the problem is in initializeEditor() function there is no reference to editorInput, hence I am unable to get the file handle. In the source viewer configuration file, I set the code scanners and this needs some project specific information that will set the corresponding rules.

    Read the article

  • Phonegap jqm mixing local and server html files

    - by DavidVdd
    I would like to add some online pages to an application keep them up to date without releasing a new store version. For this I taught I could use jqm ajax navigation to load the external page. (I'm aware that might not be allowed for all platforms.) I have set: $.mobile.allowCrossDomainPages = true; $.mobile.pushStateEnabled = false; This seems to work but the problem is that all my href's and $.mobile.ChangePages would have to be changed to <a href='http://mydomain.com/mypage.html'>link</a> $.mobile.changePage('http://mydomain.com/mypage.html'); in stead of <a href='mypage.html'>link</a> $.mobile.changePage('http://mydomain.com/mypage.html'); I was thinking about overriding the changepage method(found this somewhere) to add a domain when the user is online, but the problem is that this method get's called more then once. var originalChangePage = $.mobile.changePage; $.mobile.changePage = function(to, options) { var o = JSON.stringify(o); try { to = to.replace('file:///android_asset/www/', 'http://mydomain.com/'); } catch (err) { //to isn't always filled in. } originalChangePage(to, options); }; Is there a better way to load html pages locally and online using jqm ajax navigation? Extra info: Phonegap/Cordova version 3.5.0 jqm 1.3.2

    Read the article

  • How to Implement an Interface that Requires Duplicate Member Names?

    - by Will Marcouiller
    I often have to implement some interfaces such as IEnumerable<T> in my code. Each time, when implementing automatically, I encounter the following: public IEnumerator<T> GetEnumerator() { // Code here... } public IEnumerator GetEnumerator1() { // Code here... } Though I have to implement both GetEnumerator() methods, they impossibly can have the same name, even if we understand that they do the same, somehow. The compiler can't treat them as one being the overload of the other, because only the return type differs. When doing so, I manage to set the GetEnumerator1() accessor to private. This way, the compiler doesn't complaint about not implementing the interface member, and I simply throw a NotImplementedException within the method's body. However, I wonder whether it is a good practice, or if I shall proceed differently, as perhaps a method alias or something like so. What is the best approach while implementing an interface such as IEnumerable<T> that requires the implementation of two different methods with the same name? EDIT #1 Does VB.NET reacts differently from C# while implementing interfaces, since in VB.NET it is explicitly implemented, thus forcing the GetEnumerator1(). Here's the code: Public Function GetEnumerator() As System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerator(Of T) Implements System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable(Of T).GetEnumerator // Code here... End Function Public Function GetEnumerator1() As System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerator Implements System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable.GetEnumerator // Code here... End Function Both GetEnumerator() methods are explicitly implemented, and the compile will refuse them to have the same name. Why?

    Read the article

  • Retrieving license type (linux/windows/windows+sqlserver) for an Amazon EC2 instance via the API?

    - by Geir
    I need to calculate the hourly running costs for my Amazon EC2 instances. This varies even between instances with same hardware configs (instance types) because I use different amazon images (AMIs): some plain windows server and some windows server with sql server (both of them have additional costs compared with plain linux instances) The EC2 Java API has a describeInstances() method which returns Instance objects with metadata such as instance id, instance type (m1.small/large...), state (running,stopped..) public ip, etc. This Instance object also has a .getLicense().getPool() which according to the Java API should return "The license pool from which this license was used (ex: 'windows')." I thought this is were it may also give 'windows+sqlserver' or something to that effect. The getLicense() method does however return null.. I've navigated around the EC2 web console, not being able to find this information, but I'm hoping that it is possible - otherwise it would mean that you cannot identify the true hourly cost of an particular instance unless you know which AMI was used to create it in the first place (plain windows server or windows server with sql server). Anyone? Thanks :) /Geir

    Read the article

  • Initialize child models at model creation

    - by Antoine
    I have a model Entree which belongs to a model Vin, which itself belongs to a model Producteur. On the form for Entree creation/edition, I want to allow the user to define the attributes for parent Vin and Producteur to create them, or retrieve them if they exist (retrieval based on user input). For now I do the following in Entree new and edit actions: @entree = Entree.new @entree.vin = Vin.new @entree.vin.producteur = Producteur.new and use fields_for helper in the form,and that works. But I intend to have much more dependencies with more models, so I want to keep it DRY. I defined a after_initialize callback in Vin model which does the producteur initialization: class Vin < ActiveRecord::Base after_initialize :vin_setup def vin_setup producteur = Producteur.new end end and remove the producteur.new from the controller. However, get an error on new action: undefined method `model_name' for NilClass:Class for the line in the form that says <%= fields_for @entree.vin.producteur do |producteur| %> I guess that means the after_initialize callback doesn't act as I expect it. Is there something I'm missing? Also, I get the same error if I define a after_initialize method in the Vin model instead of definiing a callback.

    Read the article

  • Code Contracts: Do we have to specify Contract.Requires(...) statements redundantly in delegating me

    - by herzmeister der welten
    I'm intending to use the new .NET 4 Code Contracts feature for future development. This made me wonder if we have to specify equivalent Contract.Requires(...) statements redundantly in a chain of methods. I think a code example is worth a thousand words: public bool CrushGodzilla(string weapon, int velocity) { Contract.Requires(weapon != null); // long code return false; } public bool CrushGodzilla(string weapon) { Contract.Requires(weapon != null); // specify contract requirement here // as well??? return this.CrushGodzilla(weapon, int.MaxValue); } For runtime checking it doesn't matter much, as we will eventually always hit the requirement check, and we will get an error if it fails. However, is it considered bad practice when we don't specify the contract requirement here in the second overload again? Also, there will be the feature of compile time checking, and possibly also design time checking of code contracts. It seems it's not yet available for C# in Visual Studio 2010, but I think there are some languages like Spec# that already do. These engines will probably give us hints when we write code to call such a method and our argument currently can or will be null. So I wonder if these engines will always analyze a call stack until they find a method with a contract that is currently not satisfied? Furthermore, here I learned about the difference between Contract.Requires(...) and Contract.Assume(...). I suppose that difference is also to consider in the context of this question then?

    Read the article

  • What's the correct place to share application logic in CakePHP?

    - by Pichan
    I guess simple answer to the question would be a component. Although I agree, I feel weird having to write a component for something so specific. For example, let's say I have a table of users. When a user is created, it should form a chain reaction of events, initiating different kinds of data related to the user all around the database. I figured it would be best to avoid directly manipulating the database from different controllers and instead pack all that neatly in a method. However since some logic needs to be accesed separately, I really can't have the whole package in a single method. Instead I thought it would be logical to break it up to smaller pieces(like $userModelOrController->createNew() and $candyStorageModelOrController->createNew()) that only interact with their respective database table. Now, if the logic is put to the model, it works great until I need to use other models. Of course it's possible, but when compared to loading models in a controller, it's not that simple. It's like a Cake developer telling me "Sure, it's possible if you want to do it that way but that's not how I would do it". Then, if the logic is put to the controller, I can access other models really easy through $this->loadModel(), but that brings me back to the previously explained situation since I need to be able to continue the chain reaction indefinitely. Accessing other controllers from a controller is possible, but again there doesn't seem to be any direct way of doing so, so I'm guessing I'm still not doing it right. By using a component this problem could be solved easily, since components are available to every controller I want. But like I wrote at the beginning, it feels awkward to create a component specifically for this one task. To me, components seem more like packages of extra functionality(like the core components) and not something to share controller-specific logic. Since I'm new to this whole MVC thing, I could've completely misunderstood the concept. Once again, I would be thankful if someone pointed me to the right direction :)

    Read the article

  • new Stateful session bean instance without calling lookup

    - by kislo_metal
    Scenario: I have @Singleton UserFactory (@Stateless could be) , its method createSession() generating @Stateful UserSession bean by manual lookup. If I am injecting by DI @EJB - i will get same instance during calling fromFactory() method(as it should be) What I want - is to get new instance of UserSession without preforming lookup. Q1: how could I call new instance of @Stateful session bean? Code: @Singleton @Startup @LocalBean public class UserFactory { @EJB private UserSession session; public UserFactory() { } @Schedule(second = "*/1", minute = "*", hour = "*") public void creatingInstances(){ try { InitialContext ctx = new InitialContext(); UserSession session2 = (UserSession) ctx.lookup("java:global/inferno/lic/UserSession"); System.out.println("in singleton UUID " +session2.getSessionUUID()); } catch (NamingException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } @Schedule(second = "*/1", minute = "*", hour = "*") public void fromFactory(){ System.out.println("in singleton UUID " +session.getSessionUUID()); } public UserSession creatSession(){ UserSession session2 = null; try { InitialContext ctx = new InitialContext(); session2 = (UserSession) ctx.lookup("java:global/inferno/lic/UserSession"); System.out.println("in singleton UUID " +session2.getSessionUUID()); } catch (NamingException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } return session2; } } As I understand, calling of session.getClass().newInstance(); is not a best idea Q2 : is it true? I am using glassfish v3, ejb 3.1.

    Read the article

  • Java - problems iterating through an ArrayList

    - by cc0
    Ok so I have an ArrayList (arrBok), which is full of book objects (the code is in Norwegian, so pay no attention to that please). I want to make a public method which iterates through all the objects in the arraylist. When I execute the code, it just seems to run in an infinite loop, not producing any return values. Here is the relevant (I hope, because there are a couple of other classes involved) part of the code; public String listAll() { itr = arrBok.iterator(); while (itr.hasNext()) { i++; } return "lol"; } This code does nothing useful, but I just want to see if it can iterate through it successfully. What I have tried so far; Tested if the bokArr (arraylist) is empty, which it's not. It has 4 objects inside of it. Return the toString() method of the itr, with the following result; java.util.AbstractList$Itr@173a10f // <-- not sure if this would be relevant to anything return itr.next().toString(); <-- // which seems to return the first object in the array, does that make sense?

    Read the article

  • How to decide between using PLINQ and LINQ at runtime?

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    Or decide between a parallel and a sequential operation in general. It is hard to know without testing whether parallel or sequential implementation is best due to overhead. Obviously it will take some time to train "the decider" which method to use. I would say that this method cannot be perfect, so it is probabilistic in nature. The x,y,z do influence "the decider". I think a very naive implementation would be to give both 1/2 chance at the beginning and then start favoring them according to past performance. This disregards x,y,z, however. I suspect that this question would be better answered by academics than practitioners. Anyhow, please share your heuristic, your experience if any, your tips on this. Sample code: public interface IComputer { decimal Compute(decimal x, decimal y, decimal z); } public class SequentialComputer : IComputer { public decimal Compute( ... // sequential implementation } public class ParallelComputer : IComputer { public decimal Compute( ... // parallel implementation } public class HybridComputer : IComputer { private SequentialComputer sc; private ParallelComputer pc; private TheDecider td; // Helps to decide between the two. public HybridComputer() { sc = new SequentialComputer(); pc = new ParallelComputer(); td = TheDecider(); } public decimal Compute(decimal x, decimal y, decimal z) { decimal result; decimal time; if (td.PickOneOfTwo() == 0) { // Time this and save result into time. result = sc.Compute(...); } else { // Time this and save result into time. result = pc.Compute(); } td.Train(time); return result; } }

    Read the article

  • Accents in uploaded file being replaced with '?'

    - by Katfish
    I am building a data import tool for the admin section of a website I am working on. The data is in both French and English, and contains many accented characters. Whenever I attempt to upload a file, parse the data, and store it in my MySQL database, the accents are replaced with '?'. I have text files containing data (charset is iso-8859-1) which I upload to my server using CodeIgniter's file upload library. I then read the file in PHP. My code is similar to this: $this->upload->do_upload() $data = array('upload_data' => $this->upload->data()); $fileHandle = fopen($data['upload_data']['full_path'], "r"); while (($line = fgets($fileHandle)) !== false) { echo $line; } This produces lines with accents replaced with '?'. Everything else is correct. If I download my uploaded file from my server over FTP, the charset is still iso-8850-1, but a diff reveals that the file has changed. However, if I open the file in TextEdit, it displays properly. I attempted to use PHP's stream_encoding method to explicitly set my file stream to iso-8859-1, but my build of PHP does not have the method. After running out of ideas, I tried wrapping my strings in both utf8_encode and utf8_decode. Neither worked. If anyone has any suggestions about things I could try, I would be extremely grateful.

    Read the article

  • Unsort: remembering a permutation and undoing it.

    - by dreeves
    Suppose I have a function f that takes a vector v and returns a new vector with the elements transformed in some way. It does that by calling function g that assumes the vector is sorted. So I want f to be defined like so: f[v_] := Module[{s, r}, s = Sort[v]; (* remember the permutation applied in order to sort v *) r = g[s]; Unsort[r] (* apply the inverse of that permutation *) ] What's the best way to do the "Unsort"? Or could we get really fancy and have this somehow work: answer = Unsort[g[Sort[v]]]; ADDED: Let's make this concrete with a toy example. Suppose we want a function f that takes a vector and transforms it by adding to each element the next smallest element, if any. That's easy to write if we assume the vector is sorted, so let's write a helper function g that makes that assumption: g[v_] := v + Prepend[Most@v, 0] Now for the function we really want, f, that works whether or not v is sorted: f[v_] := (* remember the order; sort it; call g on it; put it back in the original order; return it *)

    Read the article

  • Searching For A Record After A LINQ query

    - by Justin
    I'm confused to why this is happening. I'm new to LINQ so I'm clearly missing something here, that is probably pretty easy. I've looked up help on the topic, but I don't really know what to ask so I haven't found any answers that really address my question. This doesn't work It throws an EntityCommandExecutionException when the FirstOrDefault method is executed. var query = from band in context.BandsEntitySet where band.ID == 12345 select band; string venueName = "Willis Park"; foreach (var item in query) { var venue = context.VenueEntitySet.FirstOrDefault(r => r.Venue.Equals(venueName)); } This works var query = from band in context.BandsEntitySet where band.ID == 12345 select band; var bandList = query.toList(); string venueName = "Willis Park"; foreach (var item in bandList) { var venue = context.VenueEntitySet.FirstOrDefault(r => r.Venue.Equals(venueName)); } My question is simple: Why is the exception being thrown? And why does creating a list from the query allow me to use the FirstOrDefault method? Exception Message: A first chance exception of type 'System.Data.EntityCommandExecutionException' occurred in System.Data.Entity.dll I guess I am wrong in my assumption that query is a list? Then what is it exactly? I'm confused because this doesn't throw an exception: foreach (var item in query) { var area = item.VenueArea; } I'd appreciate any help on this issue. thanks, Justin

    Read the article

  • C#: Need one of my classes to trigger an event in another class to update a text box

    - by Matt
    Total n00b to C# and events although I have been programming for a while. I have a class containing a text box. This class creates an instance of a communication manager class that is receiving frames from the Serial Port. I have this all working fine. Every time a frame is received and its data extracted, I want a method to run in my class with the text box in order to append this frame data to the text box. So, without posting all of my code I have my form class... public partial class Form1 : Form { CommManager comm; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); comm = new CommManager(); } private void updateTextBox() { //get new values and update textbox } . . . and I have my CommManager class class CommManager { //here we manage the comms, recieve the data and parse the frame } SO... essentially, when I parse that frame, I need the updateTextBox method from the form class to run. I'm guessing this is possible with events but I can't seem to get it to work. I tried adding an event handler in the form class after creating the instance of CommManager as below... comm = new CommManager(); comm.framePopulated += new EventHandler(updateTextBox); ...but I must be doing this wrong as the compiler doesn't like it... Any ideas?!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 517 518 519 520 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528  | Next Page >