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• SQL deadlock on delete then bulk insert

  - by StarLite

  I have an issue with a deadlock in SQL Server that I haven't been able to resolve. Basically I have a large number of concurrent connections (from many machines) that are executing transactions where they first delete a range of entries and then re-insert entries within the same range with a bulk insert. Essentially, the transaction looks like this BEGIN TRANSACTION T1 DELETE FROM [TableName] WITH( XLOCK HOLDLOCK ) WHERE [Id]=@Id AND [SubId]=@SubId INSERT BULK [TableName] ( [Id] Int , [SubId] Int , [Text] VarChar(max) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS ) WITH(CHECK_CONSTRAINTS, FIRE_TRIGGERS) COMMIT TRANSACTION T1 The bulk insert only inserts items matching the Id and SubId of the deletion in the same transaction. Furthermore, these Id and SubId entries should never overlap. When I have enough concurrent transaction of this form, I start to see a significant number of deadlocks between these statements. I added the locking hints XLOCK HOLDLOCK to attempt to deal with the issue, but they don't seem to be helpling. The canonical deadlock graph for this error shows: Connection 1: Holds RangeX-X on PK_TableName Holds IX Page lock on the table Requesting X Page lock on the table Connection 2: Holds IX Page lock on the table Requests RangeX-X lock on the table What do I need to do in order to ensure that these deadlocks don't occur. I have been doing some reading on the RangeX-X locks and I'm not sure I fully understand what is going on with these. Do I have any options short of locking the entire table here?

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• Mimic.js handle fault response

  - by nikolas

  i use mimic.js regarding a project that i m developing.. the issue that i face, is if there is a fault response from the webservice, mimic, doesn't handle it, and the browser remains "awaiting" for a response, that has actually been back, but hasn't been handled by mimic.. to be more specific, one typical fault response is the following.. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <methodResponse> <fault> <value> <struct> <member> <name>faultCode</name><value><int>104</int></value> </member> <member> <name>faultString</name><value><string>Invalid Input Parameters</string></value> </member> </struct></value></fault></methodResponse> and chrome console get me the error mimic.js:11 Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'childNodes' of null any suggestions on how to handle "fault" responses? mimic.js hasn't been altered at all.. also tried to bypass the fact that mimic can't handle the fault, by trying to use the isFault flag, in the if statement, with no success either.. isFault is supposed to get a boolean value, i guess true/false?

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• SQL Server 2008 alternative for SQL-DMO

  - by alexdelpiero

  Hi! I previously was using SQL-DMO to automatically generate scripts from the database. Now I upgraded to SQL Server 2008 and I don’t want to use this feature anymore since Microsoft will be dropping this feature off. Is there any other alternative I can use to connect to a server and generate scripts automatically from a database? Any answer is welcome. Thanks in advance. This is the procedure i was previously using: CREATE PROC GenerateSP ( @server varchar(30) = null, @uname varchar(30) = null, @pwd varchar(30) = null, @dbname varchar(30) = null, @filename varchar(200) = 'c:\script.sql' ) AS DECLARE @object int DECLARE @hr int DECLARE @return varchar(200) DECLARE @exec_str varchar(2000) DECLARE @spname sysname SET NOCOUNT ON -- Sets the server to the local server IF @server is NULL SELECT @server = @@servername -- Sets the database to the current database IF @dbname is NULL SELECT @dbname = db_name() -- Sets the username to the current user name IF @uname is NULL SELECT @uname = SYSTEM_USER -- Create an object that points to the SQL Server EXEC @hr = sp_OACreate 'SQLDMO.SQLServer', @object OUT IF @hr <> 0 BEGIN PRINT 'error create SQLOLE.SQLServer' RETURN END -- Connect to the SQL Server IF @pwd is NULL BEGIN EXEC @hr = sp_OAMethod @object, 'Connect', NULL, @server, @uname IF @hr <> 0 BEGIN PRINT 'error Connect' RETURN END END ELSE BEGIN EXEC @hr = sp_OAMethod @object, 'Connect', NULL, @server, @uname, @pwd IF @hr <> 0 BEGIN PRINT 'error Connect' RETURN END END --Verify the connection EXEC @hr = sp_OAMethod @object, 'VerifyConnection', @return OUT IF @hr <> 0 BEGIN PRINT 'error VerifyConnection' RETURN END SET @exec_str = 'DECLARE script_cursor CURSOR FOR SELECT name FROM ' + @dbname + '..sysobjects WHERE type = ''P'' ORDER BY Name' EXEC (@exec_str) OPEN script_cursor FETCH NEXT FROM script_cursor INTO @spname WHILE (@@fetch_status <> -1) BEGIN SET @exec_str = 'Databases("'+ @dbname +'").StoredProcedures("'+RTRIM(UPPER(@spname))+'").Script(74077,"'+ @filename +'")' EXEC @hr = sp_OAMethod @object, @exec_str, @return OUT IF @hr <> 0 BEGIN PRINT 'error Script' RETURN END FETCH NEXT FROM script_cursor INTO @spname END CLOSE script_cursor DEALLOCATE script_cursor -- Destroy the object EXEC @hr = sp_OADestroy @object IF @hr <> 0 BEGIN PRINT 'error destroy object' RETURN END GO

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• Just introducing myself to TMPing, and came across a quirk

  - by Justen

  I was just trying to learn the syntax of the beginner things, and how it worked when I was making this short bit of code. The code below works in adding numbers 1 to 499, but if I add 1 to 500, the compiler bugs out giving me: fatal error C1001: An internal error has occurred in the compiler. And I was just wondering why that is. Is there some limit to how much code the compiler can generate or something and it just happened to be a nice round number of 500 for me? #include <iostream> using namespace std; template < int b > struct loop { enum { sum = loop< b - 1 >::sum + b }; }; template <> struct loop< 0 > { enum { sum = 0 }; }; int main() { cout << "Adding the numbers from 1 to 499 = " << loop< 499 >::sum << endl; return 0; }

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• SQL Query - group by more than one column, but distinct

  - by Ranhiru

  I have a bidding table, as follows: SellID INT FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES SellItem(SellID), CusID INT FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES Customer(CusID), Amount FLOAT NOT NULL, BidTime DATETIME DEFAULT getdate() Now in my website I need to show the user the current bids; only the highest bid but without repeating the same user. SELECT CusID, Max(Amount) FROM Bid WHERE SellID = 10 GROUP BY CusID ORDER BY Max(Amount) DESC This is the best I have achieved so far. This gives the CusID of each user with the maximum bid and it is ordered ascending. But I need to get the BidTime for each result as well. When I try to put the BidTime in to the query: SELECT CusID, Max(Amount), BidTime FROM Bid WHERE SellID = 10 GROUP BY CusID ORDER BY Max(Amount) DESC I am told that "Column 'Bid.BidTime' is invalid in the select list because it is not contained in either an aggregate function or the GROUP BY clause." Thus I tried: SELECT CusID, Max(Amount), BidTime FROM Bid WHERE SellID = 10 GROUP BY CusID, BidTime ORDER BY Max(Amount) DESC But this returns all the rows. No distinction. Any suggestions on solving this issue?

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• Update one-to-many EntityKey using Foreign Key

  - by User.Anonymous

  To use by the easiest way Entity Framework, I use partial class to add Foreign Key on most important Entities Model. For example, I have an Entity "CONTACT" which have "TITLE", "FUNCTION" and others. When I update a CONTACT, with this code, Foreign Key are automatically updated : public int? TitId { get { if (this.TITLE_TIT != null) return TITLE_TIT.TIT_ID; return new Nullable<int>(); } set { this.TITLE_TITReference.EntityKey = new System.Data.EntityKey("Entities.TITLE_TIT", "TIT_ID", value); } } But I have a join with ACTIVITY, that can have many CONTACT, and I don't know how to update EntityKey on setters. public IEnumerable<EntityKeyMember> ActId { get { List<EntityKeyMember> lst = new List<EntityKeyMember>(); if (this.ACT_CON2 != null) { foreach (ACT_CON2 id in this.ACT_CON2.ToList()) { EntityKeyMember key = new EntityKeyMember(id.CON_ID.ToString(),id.ACT_ID); lst.Add(key); } } return lst; } set { this.ACT_CON2.EntityKey = new System.Data.EntityKey("Entities.ACT_CON2", value); } } How set many EntityKey ? Thank you.

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• Unable to upload large files on FTP using Apache commons-net-3.1

  - by Nitin

  I am trying to upload the one large file ( more than 8 MB) using storeFile(remote, local) method of FTPClient but it results false.It get uploaded with some extra bytes.Following is the code with Output: public class Main { public static void main(String[] args) { FTPClient client = new FTPClient(); FileInputStream fis = null; try { client.connect("208.106.181.143"); client.setFileTransferMode(client.BINARY_FILE_TYPE); client.login("abc", "java"); int reply = client.getReplyCode(); System.out.println("Received Reply from FTP Connection:" + reply); if(FTPReply.isPositiveCompletion(reply)){ System.out.println("Connected Success"); } client.changeWorkingDirectory("/"+"Everbest"+"/"); client.makeDirectory("ETPSupplyChain5.3-EvbstSP3"); client.changeWorkingDirectory("/"+"Everbest"+"/"+"ETPSupplyChain5.3-EvbstSP3"+"/"); FTPFile[] names = client.listFiles(); String filename = "E:\\Nitin\\D-Drive\\Installer.rar"; fis = new FileInputStream(filename); boolean result = client.storeFile("Installer.rar", fis); int replyAfterupload = client.getReplyCode(); System.out.println("Received Reply from FTP Connection replyAfterupload:" + replyAfterupload); System.out.println("result:"+result); for (FTPFile name : names) { System.out.println("Name = " + name); } client.logout(); fis.close(); client.disconnect(); } catch (SocketException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } } o/p: Received Reply from FTP Connection:230 Connected Success 32 /Everbest/ETPSupplyChain5.3-EvbstSP3 Received Reply from FTP Connection replyAfterupload:150 result:false

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• .net mvc pass dictionary data from view to controller

  - by Wei Ma

  A while ago, I was trying to pass a dictionary data from my view to my controller. And I was able to do so after googling on the net(remember it was one of scott hanselman's posts). The solution I had was something like <%for(int index=0; index<Model.Count(); index++){ var property= Model.ElementAt(index);%> <input type="hidden" name="<%="properties["+index+"].Key"%>"/> <input type="hidden" name="<%="properties["+index+"].Value"%>"/> <%}%> public ActionResult Process(IDictionary<string,string> properties) { doSomething(); return View(); } The code worked for awhile and then I did some refactoring and got rid of this chunk of code. Today, I ran into a situation in which I would like to pass a dictionary again. But no matter how hard I try, the properties parameter received by the action was always null. I tried the above code and <%for(int index=0; index<Model.Count(); index++){ var property= Model.ElementAt(index);%> <input type="hidden" name="<%="properties.Keys["+index+"]"%>"/> <input type="hidden" name="<%="properties.Values["+index+"]"%>"/> <%}%> Neither code worked. I googled again but couldn't find the post that helped me before. Can someone point out what I did wrong? thanks a million.

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• SQL Server: Is it possible to prevent SQL Agent from failing a step on error?

  - by Kenneth

  I have a stored procedure that runs custom backups for around 60 SQL servers (mixes 2000 through 2008R2). Occasionally, due to issues outside of my control (backup device inaccessible, network error, etc.) an individual backup on one or two databases will fail. This causes this entire step to fail, which means any subsequent backup commands are not executed and half of the databases on a given server may not be backed up. On the 2005+ boxes I am using TRY/CATCH blocks to manage these problems and continue backing up the remaining databases. On a 2000 server however, for example, I have no way to prevent this error from failing the entire step: Msg 3201, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot open backup device 'db-diff(\PATH\DB-DIFF-03-16-2010.DIF)'. Operating system error 5(Access is denied.). Msg 3013, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 BACKUP DATABASE is terminating abnormally. I am simply asking if anything like TRY/CATCH is possible in SQL 2000? I realize there are no built in methods for this, so I guess I am looking for some creativity. Even when wrapping each backup (or any failing statement) via sp_executesql the job fails instantly. Example: DECLARE @x INT, @iReturn INT PRINT 'Executing statement that will fail with 208.' EXEC @iReturn = Sp_executesql N'SELECT * from TABLETHATDOESNTEXIST;' PRINT Cast(@iReturn AS NVARCHAR) --In SSMS this return code prints. Executed as a job it fails and aborts before this statement.

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• How to include a child object's child object in Entity Framework 5

  - by Brendan Vogt

  I am using Entity Framework 5 code first and ASP.NET MVC 3. I am struggling to get a child object's child object to populate. Below are my classes.. Application class; public class Application { // Partial list of properties public virtual ICollection<Child> Children { get; set; } } Child class: public class Child { // Partial list of properties public int ChildRelationshipTypeId { get; set; } public virtual ChildRelationshipType ChildRelationshipType { get; set; } } ChildRelationshipType class: public class ChildRelationshipType { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } Part of GetAll method in the repository to return all the applications: return DatabaseContext.Applications .Include("Children"); The Child class contains a reference to the ChildRelationshipType class. To work with an application's children I would have something like this: foreach (Child child in application.Children) { string childName = child.ChildRelationshipType.Name; } I get an error here that the object context is already closed. How do I specify that each child object must include the ChildRelationshipType object like what I did above?

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• Memory leak problem. iPhone SDK

  - by user326375

  Hello, i've got a problem, i cannot solve it, just recieving error: Program received signal: “0”. The Debugger has exited due to signal 10 (SIGBUS).The Debugger has exited due to signal 10 (SIGBUS). Here is some method, if i comment it out, problem goes aways - (void)loadTexture { const int num_tex = 10; glGenTextures(num_tex, &textures[0]); //TEXTURE #1 textureImage[0] = [UIImage imageNamed:@"wonder.jpg"].CGImage; //TEXTURE #2 textureImage[1] = [UIImage imageNamed:@"wonder.jpg"].CGImage; //TEXTURE #3 textureImage[2] = [UIImage imageNamed:@"wall_eyes.jpg"].CGImage; //TEXTURE #4 textureImage[3] = [UIImage imageNamed:@"wall.jpg"].CGImage; //TEXTURE #5 textureImage[4] = [UIImage imageNamed:@"books.jpg"].CGImage; //TEXTURE #6 textureImage[5] = [UIImage imageNamed:@"bush.jpg"].CGImage; //TEXTURE #7 textureImage[6] = [UIImage imageNamed:@"mushroom.jpg"].CGImage; //TEXTURE #8 textureImage[7] = [UIImage imageNamed:@"roots.jpg"].CGImage; //TEXTURE #9 textureImage[8] = [UIImage imageNamed:@"roots.jpg"].CGImage; //TEXTURE #10 textureImage[9] = [UIImage imageNamed:@"clean.jpg"].CGImage; for(int i=0; i<num_tex; i++) { NSInteger texWidth = CGImageGetWidth(textureImage[i]); NSInteger texHeight = CGImageGetHeight(textureImage[i]); GLubyte *textureData = (GLubyte *)malloc(texWidth * texHeight * 4); CGContextRef textureContext = CGBitmapContextCreate(textureData, texWidth, texHeight, 8, texWidth * 4, CGImageGetColorSpace(textureImage[i]), kCGImageAlphaPremultipliedLast); CGContextDrawImage(textureContext, CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, (float)texWidth, (float)texHeight), textureImage[i]); CGContextRelease(textureContext); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, textures[i]); glTexImage2D(GL_TEXTURE_2D, 0, GL_RGBA, texWidth, texHeight, 0, GL_RGBA, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, textureData); glTexParameterf(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameterf(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); free(textureData); } } anyone can help me with releasing/deleting objects in this method? Thanks.

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• Why do properties behave this way?

  - by acidzombie24

  from http://csharpindepth.com/Articles/Chapter8/PropertiesMatter.aspx using System; struct MutableStruct { public int Value { get; set; } public void SetValue(int newValue) { Value = newValue; } } class MutableStructHolder { public MutableStruct Field; public MutableStruct Property { get; set; } } class Test { static void Main(string[] args) { MutableStructHolder holder = new MutableStructHolder(); // Affects the value of holder.Field holder.Field.SetValue(10); // Retrieves holder.Property as a copy and changes the copy holder.Property.SetValue(10); Console.WriteLine(holder.Field.Value); Console.WriteLine(holder.Property.Value); } } 1) Why is a copy (of Property?) being made? 2) When changing the code to holder.Field.value and holder.Property.value = 10 i get the error below. That just blew my mind Error 1 Cannot modify the return value of 'MutableStructHolder.Property' because it is not a variable Why would i ever not be allowed to assign a value inside of a property!?! both property are get/set! and finally WHY would you EVER want behavior mentioned in 1 and 2. (It never came up for me, i always used get only properties). Please explain well, i cant imagine ever wanting the 2nd much less then the first. It is just so weird to me.

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• How do I pass a const reference in C#?

  - by Maciek

  In C++, passing const references is a common practice - for instance : #include <iostream> using namespace std; class X { public : X() {m_x = 0; } X(const int & x) {m_x = x; } X(const X & other) { *this = other; } X & operator = (const X & other) { m_x = other.m_x; return *this; } void print() { cout << m_x << endl; } private : int m_x; }; void main() { X x1(5); X x2(4); X x3(x2); x2 = x1; x1.print(); x2.print(); x3.print(); } This very simple example illustrates how it's done - pretty much. However I've noticed that in C# this doesn't seem to be the case. Do I have to pass const references in C# ? what do I need the "ref" keyword for? Please note that I know and understand what C# reference and value types are.

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• calloc v/s malloc and time efficiency

  - by yCalleecharan

  Hi, I've read with interest the post "c difference between malloc and calloc". I'm using malloc in my code and would like to know what difference I'll have using calloc instead. My present (pseudo)code with malloc: Scenario 1 int main() { allocate large arrays with malloc INITIALIZE ALL ARRAY ELEMENTS TO ZERO for loop //say 1000 times do something and write results to arrays end for loop FREE ARRAYS with free command } //end main If I use calloc instead of malloc, then I'll have: Scenario2 int main() { for loop //say 1000 times ALLOCATION OF ARRAYS WITH CALLOC do something and write results to arrays FREE ARRAYS with free command end for loop } //end main I have three questions: Which of the scenarios is more efficient if the arrays are very large? Which of the scenarios will be more time efficient if the arrays are very large? In both scenarios,I'm just writing to arrays in the sense that for any given iteration in the for loop, I'm writing each array sequentially from the first element to the last element. The important question: If I'm using malloc as in scenario 1, then is it necessary that I initialize the elements to zero? Say with malloc I have array z = [garbage1, garbage2, garbage 3]. For each iteration, I'm writing elements sequentially i.e. in the first iteration I get z =[some_result, garbage2, garbage3], in the second iteration I get in the first iteration I get z =[some_result, another_result, garbage3] and so on, then do I need specifically to initialize my arrays after malloc?

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• WPF Designer has bug with parsing generic control with overrided property

  - by Ivan Laktyunkin

  I've created a generic lookless control with virtual property: public abstract class TestControlBase<TValue> : Control { public static readonly DependencyProperty ValueProperty; static TestControlBase() { ValueProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Value", typeof(TValue), typeof(TestControlBase<TValue>)); } protected TestControlBase() { Focusable = false; Value = default(TValue); } public virtual TValue Value { get { return (TValue)GetValue(ValueProperty); } set { SetValue(ValueProperty, value); } } } Then I've made a control derived from it and overrided Value property: public class TestControl : TestControlBase<int> { public override int Value { get { return base.Value; } set { base.Value = value; } } } So I use it in a Window XAML: <TestControls:TestControl /> When I open window in designer all is OK, but when I put mouse cursor to this line, or to this control in designer I receive exception: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation. at System.RuntimeMethodHandle._InvokeMethodFast(Object target, Object[] arguments, SignatureStruct& sig, MethodAttributes methodAttributes, RuntimeTypeHandle typeOwner) at System.RuntimeMethodHandle.InvokeMethodFast(Object target, Object[] arguments, Signature sig, MethodAttributes methodAttributes, RuntimeTypeHandle typeOwner) at System.Reflection.RuntimeMethodInfo.Invoke(Object obj, BindingFlags invokeAttr, Binder binder, Object[] parameters, CultureInfo culture, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks) at System.Delegate.DynamicInvokeImpl(Object[] args) at System.Windows.Threading.ExceptionWrapper.InternalRealCall(Delegate callback, Object args, Boolean isSingleParameter) at System.Windows.Threading.ExceptionWrapper.TryCatchWhen(Object source, Delegate callback, Object args, Boolean isSingleParameter, Delegate catchHandler) Ambiguous match found. at System.RuntimeType.GetPropertyImpl(String name, BindingFlags bindingAttr, Binder binder, Type returnType, Type[] types, ParameterModifier[] modifiers) at System.Type.GetProperty(String name) at MS.Internal.ComponentModel.DependencyPropertyKind.get_IsDirect() at MS.Internal.ComponentModel.DependencyPropertyKind.get_IsAttached() at MS.Internal.ComponentModel.APCustomTypeDescriptor.GetProperties(Attribute[] attributes) at MS.Internal.ComponentModel.APCustomTypeDescriptor.GetProperties() at System.ComponentModel.TypeDescriptor.TypeDescriptionNode.DefaultExtendedTypeDescriptor.System.ComponentModel.ICustomTypeDescriptor.GetProperties() at System.ComponentModel.TypeDescriptor.GetPropertiesImpl(Object component, Attribute[] attributes, Boolean noCustomTypeDesc, Boolean noAttributes) at System.ComponentModel.TypeDescriptor.GetProperties(Object component) at MS.Internal.Model.ModelPropertyCollectionImpl.GetProperties(String propertyNameHint) at MS.Internal.Model.ModelPropertyCollectionImpl.<GetEnumerator>d__0.MoveNext() at MS.Internal.Designer.PropertyEditing.Model.ModelPropertyMerger.<GetFirstProperties>d__0.MoveNext() at MS.Internal.Designer.PropertyEditing.PropertyInspector.UpdateCategories(Selection selection) at MS.Internal.Designer.PropertyEditing.PropertyInspector.OnSelectionChangedIdle() Who know this problem? Please explain :) I have no ideas except that WPF Designer doesn't like generics. If I replace generics by Object all is OK.

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• Cascading persist and existing object

  - by user322061

  Hello, I am working with JPA and I would like to persist an object (Action) composed of an object (Domain). There is the Action class code: @Entity(name="action") @Table(name="action") public class Action { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.IDENTITY) @Column(name="num") private int num; @OneToOne(cascade= { CascadeType.PERSIST, CascadeType.MERGE, CascadeType.REFRESH }) @JoinColumn(name="domain_num") private Domain domain; @Column(name="name") private String name; @Column(name="description") private String description; public Action() { } public Action(Domain domain, String name, String description) { super(); this.domain=domain; this.name=name; this.description=description; } public int getNum() { return num; } public Domain getDomain() { return domain; } public String getName() { return name; } public String getDescription() { return description; } } When I persist an action with a new Domain, it works. Action and Domain are persisted. But if I try to persist an Action with an existing Domain, I get this error: javax.persistence.EntityExistsException: Exception Description: Cannot persist detached object [isd.pacepersistence.common.Domain@1716286]. Class> isd.pacepersistence.common.Domain Primary Key> [8] How can I persist my Action and automatically persist a Domain if it does not exist? If it exists, how can I just persist the Action and link it with the existing Domain. Best Regards, FF

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• Auto-converting numbers to comma-fied versions

  - by Jeff Atwood

  Given the following text /feeds/tag/remote-desktop 1320 17007 22449240 /feeds/tag/terminal-server 1328 15805 20989040 /foo/23211/test 1490 11341 16898090 Let's say we want to convert those numbers to their comma-fied forms, like so /feeds/tag/remote-desktop 1,320 17,007 22,449,240 /feeds/tag/terminal-server 1,328 15,805 20,989,040 /foo/23211/test 1,490 11,341 16,898,090 (don't worry about fixing the fixed-width ASCII spacing, that's a problem for another day) This is the best regex I could come up with; it's based on this JavaScript regex solution from Regex Ninja Steven Levithan: return Regex.Replace(s, @"\b(?<!\/)\d{4,}\b(?<!\/)", delegate(Match match) { string output = ""; string m = match.Value; int len = match.Length; for (int i = len - 1; i >= 0 ; i--) { output = m[i] + output; if ((len - i) % 3 == 0) output = "," + output; } if (output.StartsWith(",")) output = output.Substring(1, output.Length-1); return output; }); In a related question, there is a very clever number comma insertion regex proposed: text = Regex.Replace(text, @"(?<=\d)(?=(\d{3})+$)", ",") However this requires an end anchor $ which, as you can see, I don't have in the above text -- the numbers are "floating" in the rest of the text. I suspect there is a cleaner way to do this than my solution? After writing this, I just realized I could combine them, and put one Regex inside the other, like so: return Regex.Replace(s, @"\b(?<!\/)\d{4,}\b(?<!\/)", delegate(Match match) { return Regex.Replace(match.Value, @"(?<=\d)(?=(\d{3})+$)", ","); });

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• How to create a console application that does not terminate?

  - by John

  Hello, In C++,a console application can have a message handler in its Winmain procedure.Like this: int WINAPI WinMain(HINSTANCE hInstance, HINSTANCE hPrevInstance, LPSTR lpCmdLine, int nCmdShow) { HWND hwnd; MSG msg; #ifdef _DEBUG CreateConsole("Title"); #endif hwnd = CreateDialog(hInstance, MAKEINTRESOURCE(IDD_DIALOG1), NULL, DlgProc); PeekMessage(&msg, NULL, 0, 0, PM_NOREMOVE); while(msg.message != WM_QUIT) { if(PeekMessage(&msg, NULL, 0, 0, PM_REMOVE)) { if(IsDialogMessage(hwnd, &msg)) continue; TranslateMessage(&msg); DispatchMessage(&msg); } } return 0; } This makes the process not close until the console window has received WM_QUIT message. I don't know how to do something similar in delphi. My need is not for exactly a message handler, but a lightweight "trick" to make the console application work like a GUI application using threads. So that, for example, two Indy TCP servers could be handled without the console application terminating the process. My question: How could this be accomplished?

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• C#/Java: Proper Implementation of CompareTo when Equals tests reference identity

  - by Paul A Jungwirth

  I believe this question applies equally well to C# as to Java, because both require that {c,C}ompareTo be consistent with {e,E}quals: Suppose I want my equals() method to be the same as a reference check, i.e.: public bool equals(Object o) { return this == o; } In that case, how do I implement compareTo(Object o) (or its generic equivalent)? Part of it is easy, but I'm not sure about the other part: public int compareTo(Object o) { if (! (o instanceof MyClass)) return false; MyClass other = (MyClass)o; if (this == other) { return 0; } else { int c = foo.CompareTo(other.foo) if (c == 0) { // what here? } else { return c; } } } I can't just blindly return 1 or -1, because the solution should adhere to the normal requirements of compareTo. I can check all the instance fields, but if they are all equal, I'd still like compareTo to return a value other than 0. It should be true that a.compareTo(b) == -(b.compareTo(a)), and the ordering should stay consistent as long as the objects' state doesn't change. I don't care about ordering across invocations of the virtual machine, however. This makes me think that I could use something like memory address, if I could get at it. Then again, maybe that won't work, because the Garbage Collector could decide to move my objects around. hashCode is another idea, but I'd like something that will be always unique, not just mostly unique. Any ideas?

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• objective-c 2.0 properties and 'retain'

  - by Adam

  Stupid question, but why do we need to use 'retain' when declaring a property? Doesn't it get retained anyway when it's assigned something? Looking at this example, it seems that an object is automatically retained when alloc'ed, so what's the point? #import "Fraction.h" #import <stdio.h> int main( int argc, const char *argv[] ) { Fraction *frac1 = [[Fraction alloc] init]; Fraction *frac2 = [[Fraction alloc] init]; // print current counts printf( "Fraction 1 retain count: %i\n", [frac1 retainCount] ); printf( "Fraction 2 retain count: %i\n", [frac2 retainCount] ); // increment them [frac1 retain]; // 2 [frac1 retain]; // 3 [frac2 retain]; // 2 // print current counts printf( "Fraction 1 retain count: %i\n", [frac1 retainCount] ); printf( "Fraction 2 retain count: %i\n", [frac2 retainCount] ); // decrement [frac1 release]; // 2 [frac2 release]; // 1 // print current counts printf( "Fraction 1 retain count: %i\n", [frac1 retainCount] ); printf( "Fraction 2 retain count: %i\n", [frac2 retainCount] ); // release them until they dealloc themselves [frac1 release]; // 1 [frac1 release]; // 0 [frac2 release]; // 0 ¦output Fraction 1 retain count: 1 Fraction 2 retain count: 1 Fraction 1 retain count: 3 Fraction 2 retain count: 2 Fraction 1 retain count: 2 Fraction 2 retain count: 1 Deallocing fraction Deallocing fraction This is driving me crazy!

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• Should I map a domain object to a view model using an optional constructor?

  - by Byron Sommardahl

  I'd like to be able to map a domain model to a view model by newing up a view model and passing in the contributing domain model as a parameter (like the code below). My motivation is to keep from re-using mapping code AND to provide a simple way to map (not using automapper yet). A friend says the view model should not know anything about the "payment" domain model that's being passed into the optional constructor. What do you think? public class LineItemsViewModel { public LineItemsViewModel() { } public LineItemsViewModel(IPayment payment) { LineItemColumnHeaders = payment.MerchantContext.Profile.UiPreferences.LineItemColumnHeaders; LineItems = LineItemDomainToViewModelMapper.MapToViewModel(payment.LineItems); ConvenienceFeeAmount = payment.ConvenienceFee.Fee; SubTotal = payment.PaymentAmount; Total = payment.PaymentAmount + payment.ConvenienceFee.Fee; } public IEnumerable<Dictionary<int, string>> LineItems { get; set; } public Dictionary<int, string> LineItemColumnHeaders { get; set; } public decimal SubTotal { get; set; } public decimal ConvenienceFeeAmount { get; set; } public decimal Total { get; set; } }

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• Partial template specialization on a class

  - by Jonathan Swinney

  I'm looking for a better way to this. I have a chunk of code that needs to handle several different objects that contain different types. The structure that I have looks like this: class Base { // some generic methods } template <typename T> class TypedBase : public Base { // common code with template specialization private: std::map<int,T> mapContainingSomeDataOfTypeT; } template <> class TypedBase<std::string> : public Base { // common code with template specialization public: void set( std::string ); // functions not needed for other types std::string get(); private: std::map<int,std::string> mapContainingSomeDataOfTypeT; // some data not needed for other types } Now I need to add some additional functionality that only applies to one of the derivative classes. Specifically the std::string derivation, but the type doesn't actually matter. The class is big enough that I would prefer not copy the whole thing simply to specialize a small part of it. I need to add a couple of functions (and accessor and modifier) and modify the body of several of the other functions. Is there a better way to accomplish this?

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• improving data extraction from text file in Java

  - by owca

  I have CSV file with sample data in this form : 220 30 255 0 0 Javascript 200 20 0 255 128 Thinking in java , where the first column is height, second thickness, next three are rgb values for color and last one is title. All need to be treated as separate variables. I have already written my own solution for this, but I'm wondering if there are no better/easier/shorter ways of doing this. Extracted data will then be used to create Book object, throw every Book into array of books and print it with swing. Here's the code : private static Book[] addBook(Book b, Book[] bookTab){ Book[] tmp = bookTab; bookTab = new Book[tmp.length+1]; for(int i = 0; i < tmp.length; i++){ bookTab[i] = tmp[i]; } bookTab[tmp.length] = b; return bookTab; } public static void main(String[] args) { Book[] books = new Book[0]; try { BufferedReader file = new BufferedReader(new FileReader("K:\\books.txt")); String s; while ((s = file.readLine()) != null) { int hei, thick, R, G, B; String tit; hei = Integer.parseInt(s.substring(0, 3).replaceAll(" ", "")); thick = Integer.parseInt(s.substring(4, 6).replaceAll(" ", "")); R = Integer.parseInt(s.substring(10, 13).replaceAll(" ", "")); G = Integer.parseInt(s.substring(14, 17).replaceAll(" ", "")); B = Integer.parseInt(s.substring(18, 21).replaceAll(" ", "")); tit = s.substring(26); System.out.println(tyt+wys+grb+R+G+B); books = addBook(new Book(wys, grb, R, G, B, tyt),books); } file.close(); } catch (IOException e) { //do nothing } }

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• When does invoking a member function on a null instance result in undefined behavior?

  - by GMan

  This question arose in the comments of a now-deleted answer to this other question. Our question was asked in the comments by STingRaySC as: Where exactly do we invoke UB? Is it calling a member function through an invalid pointer? Or is it calling a member function that accesses member data through an invalid pointer? With the answer deleted I figured we might as well make it it's own question. Consider the following code: #include <iostream> struct foo { void bar(void) { std::cout << "gman was here" << std::endl; } void baz(void) { x = 5; } int x; }; int main(void) { foo* f = 0; f->bar(); // (a) f->baz(); // (b) } We expect (b) to crash, because there is no corresponding member x for the null pointer. In practice, (a) doesn't crash because the this pointer is never used. Because (b) dereferences the this pointer (this->x = 5;), and this is null, the program enters undefined behavior. Does (a) result in undefined behavior? What about if both functions are static?

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• ASP.MVC 2 RTM + ModelState Error at Id property

  - by Zote

  I have this classes: public class GroupMetadata { [HiddenInput(DisplayValue = false)] public int Id { get; set; } [Required] public string Name { get; set; } } [MetadataType(typeof(GrupoMetadata))] public partial class Group { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } } And this action: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Group group) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { // Logic to save return RedirectToAction("Index"); } return View(group); } That's my view: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<Group>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <fieldset> <%= Html.EditorForModel() %> <p> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> <div> <%=Html.ActionLink("Back", "Index") %> </div> </asp:Content> But ModelState is always invalid! As I can see, for MVC validation 0 is invalid, but for me is valid. How can I fix it since, I didn't put any kind of validation in Id property? UPDATE: I don't know how or why, but renaming Id, in my case to PK, solves this problem. Do you know if this an issue in my logic/configuration or is an bug or expected behavior? Thank you

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