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Attach an entity that is not new, perhaps having been loaded from another DataContext. LINQ to SQL -

- by soldieraman

Alright How I got this error I got one application sitting on a server 2 users accessing this application - doing some bulk data processing . eg. entering values and then the application is working with another system to extract values for them and then saving. I can't recreate the error The error logs show: The error happend at the same time in both the application Both happend on a Attach/Submit (but two different functions) There is no way they are using the same DataContext object as I save the DataContext in the HttpContext.Items My hunch / guess is: One datacontext was not refreshed i.e. the an object was created for the same item twice as it was new in both the forms. eg. Customer Number - a customer was created (as one couldn't be found) by one datacontext - the other one couldn't find it either (i am using compiled queries to find it in the datacontext) so it created another object and on attaching failed. The HttpContext.Items lost its value somehow (i am using a virtual pc as server - maybe something went wrong there) I am going more of the second as I can't recreate the error - but it just might be a timing (for attach/save) thing - also the error makes me think of the 2nd too.

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How to fetch populated associated models in CakePHP when calling read()

- by Code Commander

I have the following Models: class Site extends AppModel { public $name = "Site"; public $useTable = "site"; public $primaryKey = "id"; public $displayField = 'name'; public $hasMany = array('Item' => array('foreignKey' => 'siteId')); public function canView($userId, $isAdmin = false) { if($isAdmin) { return true; } return array_key_exists($this->id, $allowedSites); } } and class Item extends AppModel { public $name = "Item"; public $useTable = "item"; public $primaryKey = "id"; public $displayField = 'name'; public $belongsTo = array('Site' => array('foreignKey' => 'siteId')); public function canView($userId, $isAdmin = false) { // My problem appears to be the next line: return $this->Site->canView($userId, $isAdmin); } } In my controller I am doing something like this: $result = $this->Item->read(null, $this->request->id); // Verify permissions if(!$this->Item->canView($this->Session->read('userId'), $this->Session->read('isAdmin'))) { $this->httpCodes(403); die('Permission denied.'); } I notice that in Item->canView() $this->data['Site'] is populated with the column data from the site table. But it merely an array and not an object. On the other hand $this->Site is a Site object, but it has not been populated with the column data from the site table like $this->data. What is the proper way to have CakePHP get the associated model as the object and containing the data? Or am I going about this all wrong? Thanks!

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Newbie: Render RGB to GTK widget -- howto?

- by Billy Pilgrim

Hi All, Big picture: I want to render an RGB image via GTK on a linux box. I'm a frustrated GTK newbie, so please forgive me. I assume that I should create a Drawable_area in which to render the image -- correct? Do I then have to create a graphics context attached to that area? How? my simple app (which doesn't even address the rgb issue yet is this: int main(int argc, char** argv) { GdkGC * gc = NULL; GtkWidget * window = NULL; GtkDrawingArea * dpage = NULL; GtkWidget * page = NULL; gtk_init( &argc, & argv ); window = gtk_window_new( GTK_WINDOW_TOPLEVEL ); page = gtk_drawing_area_new( ); dpage = GTK_DRAWING_AREA( page ); gtk_widget_set_size_request( page, PAGE_WIDTH, PAGE_HEIGHT ); gc = gdk_gc_new( GTK_DRAWABLE( dpage ) ); gtk_widget_show( window ); gtk_main(); return (EXIT_SUCCESS); } my dpage is apparently not a 'drawable' (though it is a drawing area). I am confused as to a) how do I get/create the graphics context which is required in subsequent function calls? b) am I close to a solution, or am I so completely *#&@& wrong that there is no hope c) a baby steps tutorial. (I started with hello world as my base, so I got that far). any and all help appreciated. bp

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How can I get type information at runtime from a DMP file in a Windbg extension?

- by pj4533

This is related to my previous question, regarding pulling objects from a dmp file. As I mentioned in the previous question, I can successfully pull object out of the dmp file by creating wrapper 'remote' objects. I have implemented several of these so far, and it seems to be working well. However I have run into a snag. In one case, a pointer is stored in a class, say of type 'SomeBaseClass', but that object is actually of the type 'SomeDerivedClass' which derives from 'SomeBaseClass'. For example it would be something like this: MyApplication!SomeObject +0x000 field1 : Ptr32 SomeBaseClass +0x004 field2 : Ptr32 SomeOtherClass +0x008 field3 : Ptr32 SomeOtherClass I need someway to find out what the ACTUAL type of 'field1' is. To be more specific, using example addresses: MyApplication!SomeObject +0x000 field1 : 0cae2e24 SomeBaseClass +0x004 field2 : 0x262c8d3c SomeOtherClass +0x008 field3 : 0x262c8d3c SomeOtherClass 0:000> dt SomeBaseClass 0cae2e24 MyApplication!SomeBaseClass +0x000 __VFN_table : 0x02de89e4 +0x038 basefield1 : (null) +0x03c basefield2 : 3 0:000> dt SomeDerivedClass 0cae2e24 MyApplication!SomeDerivedClass +0x000 __VFN_table : 0x02de89e4 +0x038 basefield1 : (null) +0x03c basefield2 : 3 +0x040 derivedfield1 : 357 +0x044 derivedfield2 : timecode_t When I am in WinDbg, I can do this: dt 0x02de89e4 And it will show the type: 0:000> dt 0x02de89e4 SomeDerivedClass::`vftable' Symbol not found. But how do get that inside an extension? Can I use SearchMemory() to look for 'SomeDerivedClass::`vftable'? If you follow my other question, I need this type information so I know what type of wrapper remote classes to create. I figure it might end up being some sort of case-statement, where I have to match a string to a type? I am ok with that, but I still don't know where I can get that string that represents the type of the object in question (ie SomeObject-field1 in the above example).

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jquery script that used to work is not working with jquery 1.4.2

- by Zayatzz

... and i cant figure out why. The script is following: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://path/to/js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function openMediaPlayer() { $('#flashMovie').animate({'height':'333px'}); } function closeMediaPlayer() { $('#flashMovie').animate({'height':'80px'}); } jQuery(function($){ $('#videoholder').bind('mouseenter', function(){ openMediaPlayer(); }); $('#videoholder').bind('mouseleave', function(){ closeMediaPlayer(); }); }); </script> <div id="videoholder" style="height:80px;width:412px;"> <object width="412" height="80" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" id="flashMovie" name="flashMovie" style="height: 80px;" data="http://path/to/Player.swf"><param name="menu" value="false"><param name="bgcolor" value="#666666"><param name="allowFullscreen" value="true"><param name="flashvars" value="playlistURL=http://path/to/Player/data/playlist.xml"></object> </div> pure and simple resizing flash object. It worked with older(1.3.2) jquery verision. The animate just does not work. Can anyone tell me what i should change to get it working again? Alan.

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define a closure as method from class

- by user272839

Hi, i'm trying to play with php5.3 and closure. I see here (Listing 7. Closure inside an object : http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/opensource/library/os-php-5.3new2/index.html) that it's possible to use $this in the callback function, but it's not. So I try to give $this as use variable : $self = $this; $foo = function() use($self) { //do something with $self } So to use the same example : class Dog { private $_name; protected $_color; public function __construct($name, $color) { $this->_name = $name; $this->_color = $color; } public function greet($greeting) { $self = $this; return function() use ($greeting, $self) { echo "$greeting, I am a {$self->_color} dog named {$self->_name}."; }; } } $dog = new Dog("Rover","red"); $dog->greet("Hello"); Output: Hello, I am a red dog named Rover. First of all this example does not print the string but return the function, but that's not my problem. Secondly I can't access to private or protected, because the callback function is a global function and not in the context from the Dog object. Tha't my problem. It's the same as : function greet($greeting, $object) { echo "$greeting, I am a {$self->_color} dog named {$self->_name}."; } And I want : public function greet($greeting) { echo "$greeting, I am a {$self->_color} dog named {$self->_name}."; } Which is from Dog and not global. I hope that I am clear ...

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Entity framework generates values for NOT NULL columns which has default defined in db.

- by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem

Hi I have a table Customer. One of the columns in table is DateCreated. This column is NOT NULL but default values is defined for this column in db. When I add new Customer using EF4 from my code. var customer = new Customer(); customer.CustomerName = "Hello"; customer.Email = "[email protected]"; // Watch out commented out. //customer.DateCreated = DateTime.Now; context.AddToCustomers(customer); context.SaveChanges(); Above code generates following query. exec sp_executesql N'insert [dbo].[Customers]([CustomerName], [Email], [Phone], [DateCreated], [DateUpdated]) values (@0, @1, null, @2, null) select [CustomerId] from [dbo].[Customers] where @@ROWCOUNT > 0 and [CustomerId] = scope_identity() ',N'@0 varchar(100),@1 varchar(100),@2 datetime2(7) ',@0='Hello',@1='[email protected]',@2='0001-01-01 00:00:00' And throws following error The conversion of a datetime2 data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range value. The statement has been terminated. Can you please tell me how NOT NULL columns which has default values at db level should not have values generated by EF? DB: DateCreated DATETIME NOT NULL DateCreated Properties in EF: Nullable: False Getter/Setter: public Type: DateTime DefaultValue: None Thanks.

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Entity Framework - Many to Many Subquery

- by Jorin

I asked a question about this previously but my database structure has changed, and while it made other things simpler, now this part is more complicated. Here is the previous question. At the time, my EF Context had a UsersProjects object because there were other properties. Now that I've simplified that table, it is just the keys, so all my EF context knows about is Users and Projects and the M2M relationship between them. There is no more UsersProjects as far as EF knows. So my goal is to say "show me all the users who are working on projects with me." in SQL, this would go something like: SELECT * FROM Users INNER JOIN UsersProjects ON Users.ID=UsersProjects.UserID WHERE ProjectID IN (SELECT ProjectID FROM UsersProjects WHERE UserID=@UserID) and I started in EF with something like this: var myProjects = (from p in edmx.Projects where p.Users.Contains(edmx.Users.FirstOrDefault(u => u.Email == UserEmail)) orderby p.Name select p).ToList(); var associatedUsers = (from u in edmx.Users where myProjects.Contains(?????????) //where myProjects.Any(????????) select u); The trick is finding what to put in the ????????. Anyone help here?

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ADO.NET DataTable/DataRow Thread Safety

- by Allen E. Scharfenberg

Introduction A user reported to me this morning that he was having an issue with inconsistent results (namely, column values sometimes coming out null when they should not be) of some parallel execution code that we provide as part of an internal framework. This code has worked fine in the past and has not been tampered with lately, but it got me to thinking about the following snippet: Code Sample lock (ResultTable) { newRow = ResultTable.NewRow(); } newRow["Key"] = currentKey; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, object> output in outputs) { object resultValue = output.Value; newRow[output.Name] = resultValue != null ? resultValue : DBNull.Value; } lock (ResultTable) { ResultTable.Rows.Add(newRow); } (No guarantees that that compiles, hand-edited to mask proprietery information.) Explanation We have this cascading type of locking code other places in our system, and it works fine, but this is the first instance of cascading locking code that I have come across that interacts with ADO .NET. As we all know, members of framework objects are usually not thread safe (which is the case in this situation), but the cascading locking should ensure that we are not reading and writing to ResultTable.Rows concurrently. We are safe, right? Hypothesis Well, the cascading lock code does not ensure that we are not reading from or writing to ResultTable.Rows at the same time that we are assigning values to columns in the new row. What if ADO .NET uses some kind of buffer for assigning column values that is not thread safe--even when different object types are involved (DataTable vs. DataRow)? Has anyone run into anything like this before? I thought I would ask here at StackOverflow before beating my head against this for hours on end :) Conclusion Well, the consensus appears to be that changing the cascading lock to a full lock has resolved the issue. That is not the result that I expected, but the full lock version has not produced the issue after many, many, many tests. The lesson: be wary of cascading locks used on APIs that you do not control. Who knows what may be going on under the covers!

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Change Vimeo Video using JQuery

- by Abs

Hello all, How can I change the ID of the embedded vimeo video? Here is the embed code for example: <object width="578" height="325"> <param name="allowfullscreen" value="true" /> <param name="allowscriptaccess" value="always" /> <param name="movie" value="http://vimeo.com/moogaloop.swf?clip_id=11527784& server=vimeo.com&show_title=1&show_byline=0&show_portrait=0&color=00ADEF&fullscreen=1" /> <embed src="http://vimeo.com/moogaloop.swf?clip_id=11527784& server=vimeo.com&show_title=1&show_byline=0&show_portrait=0& color=00ADEF&fullscreen=1" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" allowfullscreen="true" allowscriptaccess="always" width="578" height="325"></embed></object> How can I change the clip_id in both the object value and the embed source using JQuery or just pure javascript? The effect this has is that it changes the video. I have tested this on Firefox, if this won't work on all browsers please let me know! Thanks all for any help

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Obtaining FontMetrics before getting a Graphics instance

- by Tom Castle

Typically, I'd obtain a graphics instance something like this: BufferedImage img = new BufferedImage(width, height, BufferedImage.TYPE_INT_ARGB); Graphics2D g = img.createGraphics(); However, in the current project I'm working on, the width and height variables above are dependent upon the size of a number of text fragments that will later be drawn onto the graphics instance. But, to obtain the dimensions of the font being used I would usually use the FontMetrics that I get from the graphics object. FontMetrics metrics = g.getFontMetrics(); So, I have a nasty little dependency cycle. I cannot create the graphics object until I know the size of the text, and I cannot know the size of the text until I have a graphics object. One solution is just to create another BufferedImage/Graphics pair first in order to get the FontMetrics instance I need, but this seems unnecessary. So, is there a nicer way? Or is it the case that the width, height etc. properties for a Font are somehow dependent upon what (graphics, component...) the text is to be drawn on?

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problem with drag and drop for the winform using c#

- by karthik

I dont have the title bar in my winform, so i need to code drag and drop for the entire form. I am using the below code to do it, which works fine. I have two panels in my form, PanelA and PanelB. During the startup i show PanelA where the drag and drop works perfectly. Later when the user clicks the button in PannelA, i need to make PanelA visible false and show the PanelB My drag and drop is not working when the PanelB is loaded in form. Whats the problem here ? private void SerialPortScanner_MouseUp(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { this.drag = false; } private void SerialPortScanner_MouseDown(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { this.drag = true; this.start_point = new Point(e.X, e.Y); } private void SerialPortScanner_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (this.drag) { Point p1 = new Point(e.X, e.Y); Point p2 = this.PointToScreen(p1); Point p3 = new Point(p2.X - this.start_point.X, p2.Y - this.start_point.Y); this.Location = p3; } }

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Java downcasting dilemma

- by Shades88

please have a look at this code here. class Vehicle { public void printSound() { System.out.print("vehicle"); } } class Car extends Vehicle { public void printSound() { System.out.print("car"); } } class Bike extends Vehicle{ public void printSound() { System.out.print("bike"); } } public class Test { public static void main(String[] args) { Vehicle v = new Car(); Bike b = (Bike)v; v.printSound(); b.printSound(); Object myObj = new String[]{"one", "two", "three"}; for (String s : (String[])myObj) System.out.print(s + "."); } } Executing this code will give ClassCastException saying inheritance.Car cannot be cast to inheritance.Bike. Now look at the line Object myObj = new String[]{"one", "two", "three"};. This line is same as Vehicle v = new Car(); right? In both lines we are assigning sub class object to super class reference variable. But downcasting String[]myObj is allowed but (Bike)v is not. Please help me understand what is going on around here.

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Android ArrayList<Location> passing between activities

- by squixy

I have simple class Track, which stores information about route: import java.io.Serializable; import java.util.ArrayList; import java.util.Date; import android.location.Location; public class Track implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = -5317697499269650204L; private Date date; private String name; private int time; private double distance, speed; private ArrayList<Location> route; public Track(String name, int time, double distance, ArrayList<Location> route) { this.date = new Date(); this.name = name; this.time = time; this.distance = distance; this.speed = distance / (time / 3600.); this.route = route; } public String getDate() { return String.format("Date: %1$td-%1$tb-%1$tY%nTime: %1$tH:%1$tM:%1$tS", date); } public String getName() { return name; } public int getTime() { return time; } public double getDistance() { return distance; } public float getSpeed() { return (float) speed; } public ArrayList<Location> getRoute() { return route; } @Override public String toString() { return String.format("Name: %s%nDate: %2$td-%2$tb-%2$tY%nTime: %2$tH:%2$tM:%2$tS", name, date); } } And I'm passing it from one activity to another: Intent showTrackIntent = new Intent(TabSavedActivity.this, ShowTrackActivity.class); showTrackIntent.putExtra("track", adapter.getItem(position)); startActivity(showTrackIntent); Where (Track object is element on ListView). I get error during passing Track object: java.lang.RuntimeException: Parcelable encountered IOException writing serializable object (name = classes.Track) What is happening?

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adding a token onto a webservice or wcf call

- by duncanUK

I have an httphandler which I am using to log the http soap request and response for each webservice that is called from my application as a comms log. i would like to inject a token ont he 1st call (possibly the 1st call to invoke the service that is being logged) and then be able to track all subsequent webservice calls run in the same context with this token so i can tie the subsequent calls back up to the original call. so for example. main webservice -> 2nd web service -> another web service [token] [token] [token] -> nth web service [token] I would like to inject the token on the first call to the main webservice (http handler checks if no token, add it), I would like to use the same http handler to intercept each call to the subsequent webservices and pass on the token if it exists already (the job of the httphandler is to log the in/out soap with the token to reference with. I have managed to inject the first token, but my problem is how do I add the token on the subsequent calls.. can I make it stick on the same context or session? My worry is that when we call a new webservice, we create a whole new proxy/http request which will not inhrit the token... or will it?! Ideally I would like it to persist on the http header as I am setting the token as a header at the moment? has anyone got any ideas or a better way of doing this? I would be most greatful for you comments!

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How can I intercept an exception occurred during serialization in WCF?

- by bonomo

I have a legit data object with all data contract / data member attributes. For some reason the WCF service crashes after the operation has completed and the result is passed as a return value. I believe it has something to do with WCF not being able to serialize that result properly. The test client doesn't say anything specific: The underlying connection was closed: The connection was closed unexpectedly. Server stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelUtilities.ProcessGetResponseWebException(WebException webException, HttpWebRequest request, HttpAbortReason abortReason) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelRequest.WaitForReply(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.RequestChannel.Request(Message message, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.RequestChannelBinder.Request(Message message, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.Call(String action, Boolean oneway, ProxyOperationRuntime operation, Object[] ins, Object[] outs, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.InvokeService(IMethodCallMessage methodCall, ProxyOperationRuntime operation) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.Invoke(IMessage message) Exception rethrown at [0]: at System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.HandleReturnMessage(IMessage reqMsg, IMessage retMsg) at System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.PrivateInvoke(MessageData& msgData, Int32 type) at IFacade.PickSecurities(String pattern, Int32 atMost) at FacadeClient.PickSecurities(String pattern, Int32 atMost) Inner Exception: The underlying connection was closed: The connection was closed unexpectedly. at System.Net.HttpWebRequest.GetResponse() at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelRequest.WaitForReply(TimeSpan timeout) I am in control of creating the instance of the service using a customized service host factory. I know I can set up trace listeners and check the logs, but it's a lot of hassle to do. So I would rather handle it explicitly on the server at the time it happens. So I how can I intercept that exception programmatically and return an appropriate fault meassage?

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ScaleTransform transforms non-linearly

- by Chris

I am using scale transform to allow a user to resize a control. What happens though is that when you start to move the mouse the control jumps to a new size, and then scales oddly. The further you move your mouse from the starting location the larger the increase in size becomes. I expect its the way I calculate the scale to be applied. Here is the code: private void ResizeGrip_MouseDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { ResizeHandle.CaptureMouse(); //Get the initial coordinate cursor location on the window initBtmX = e.GetPosition(this).X; bottomResize = true; } private void ResizeGrip_MouseUp(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { bottomResize = false; ResizeHandle.ReleaseMouseCapture(); } private void ResizeGrip_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if( bottomResize == true) { //Get the new Y coordinate cursor location double newBtmX = e.GetPosition(this).X; //Get the smallest change between the initial and new cursor location double diffX = initBtmX - newBtmX; // Let our rectangle capture the mouse ResizeHandle.CaptureMouse(); double newWidth = e.GetPosition(this).X - diffX; double scaler = newWidth / ResizeContainer.ActualWidth; Console.WriteLine("newWidth: {0}, scalar: {1}", newWidth, scaler); if (scaler < 0.75 || scaler > 3) return; ScaleTransform scale = new ScaleTransform(scaler, scaler); ResizeContainer.LayoutTransform = scale; } }

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How do actually castings work at the CLR level?

- by devoured elysium

When doing an upcast or downcast, what does really happen behind the scenes? I had the idea that when doing something as: string myString = "abc"; object myObject = myString; string myStringBack = (string)myObject; the cast in the last line would have as only purpose tell the compiler we are safe we are not doing anything wrong. So, I had the idea that actually no casting code would be embedded in the code itself. It seems I was wrong: .maxstack 1 .locals init ( [0] string myString, [1] object myObject, [2] string myStringBack) L_0000: nop L_0001: ldstr "abc" L_0006: stloc.0 L_0007: ldloc.0 L_0008: stloc.1 L_0009: ldloc.1 L_000a: castclass string L_000f: stloc.2 L_0010: ret Why does the CLR need something like castclass string? There are two possible implementations for a downcast: You require a castclass something. When you get to the line of code that does an castclass, the CLR tries to make the cast. But then, what would happen had I ommited the castclass string line and tried to run the code? You don't require a castclass. As all reference types have a similar internal structure, if you try to use a string on an Form instance, it will throw an exception of wrong usage (because it detects a Form is not a string or any of its subtypes). Also, is the following statamente from C# 4.0 in a Nutshell correct? Upcasting and downcasting between compatible reference types performs reference conversions: a new reference is created that points to the same object. Does it really create a new reference? I thought it'd be the same reference, only stored in a different type of variable. Thanks

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Custom button with property as StaticResource

- by alin

I am trying to achieve the following thing: use an svg image into a custom button. In order to do this I created a Custom button: public class MainButton : Button { static MainButton() { DefaultStyleKeyProperty.OverrideMetadata(typeof(MainButton), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(typeof(MainButton))); } public string Text { get { return (string)GetValue(TextProperty); } set { SetValue(TextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty TextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Text", typeof(string), typeof(MainButton), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); public object Image { get { return (object)GetValue(ImageProperty); } set { SetValue(ImageProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty ImageProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Image", typeof(object), typeof(MainButton), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); } I took a svg file, opened it in inkscape and saved it as xaml file. I opened Themes.xaml and added the created xaml image as a ControlTemplate And the button style is: Style TargetType="{x:Type local:MainButton}" <StackPanel Canvas.Top="12" Canvas.Left="0" Canvas.ZIndex="2" Width="80"> <ContentControl x:Name="Img" Template="{StaticResource Home}" /> </StackPanel> <StackPanel x:Name="spText" Canvas.Top="45" Canvas.Left="1" Canvas.ZIndex="1" Width="80"> <TextBlock x:Name="Txt" Text="{Binding Path=(local:MainButton.Text), RelativeSource ={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType ={x:Type Button}}}" VerticalAlignment="Center" HorizontalAlignment="Center" Foreground="White" FontSize="14"/> </StackPanel> ... As you can see I have hardcoded the StaticResource name I want to be able to have a binding with property Image on this Template, something like So that I can set the Image property of the button with the name of the StaticResource I want. For example, having beside "Home" image, another one "Back" I would have two buttons in MainWindow declared like this: Any advice is kindly taken. Thank you for your time.

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Is it possible to replace values in a queryset before sending it to your template?

- by Issy

Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

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Java abstract visitor - guarantueed to succeed? If so, why?

- by disown

I was dealing with hibernate, trying to figure out the run-time class behind proxied instances by using the visitor pattern. I then came up with an AbstractVisitable approach, but I wonder if it will always produce correct results. Consider the following code: interface Visitable { public void accept(Visitor v); } interface Visitor { public void visit(Visitable visitorHost); } abstract class AbstractVisitable implements Visitable { @Override public void accept(Visitor v) { v.visit(this); } } class ConcreteVisitable extends AbstractVisitable { public static void main(String[] args) { final Visitable visitable = new ConcreteVisitable(); final Visitable proxyVisitable = (Visitable) Proxy.newProxyInstance( Thread.currentThread().getContextClassLoader(), new Class<?>[] { Visitable.class }, new InvocationHandler() { @Override public Object invoke(Object proxy, Method method, Object[] args) throws Throwable { return method.invoke(visitable, args); } }); proxyVisitable.accept(new Visitor() { @Override public void visit(Visitable visitorHost) { System.out.println(visitorHost.getClass()); } }); } } This makes a ConcreteVisitable which inherits the accept method from AbstractVisitable. In c++, I would consider this risky, since this in AbstractVisitable could be referencing to AbstractVisitable::this, and not ConcreteVisitable::this. I was worried that the code under certain circumstances would print class AbstractVisible. Yet the code above outputs class ConcreteVisitable, even though I hid the real type behind a dynamic proxy (the most difficult case I could come up with). Is the abstract visitor approach above guaranteed to work, or are there some pitfalls with this approach? What guarantees are given in Java with respect to the this pointer?

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How to mock a String using mockito?

- by Alceu Costa

I need to simulate a test scenario in which I call the getBytes() method of a String object and I get an UnsupportedEncodingException. I have tried to achieve that using the following code: String nonEncodedString = mock(String.class); when(nonEncodedString.getBytes(anyString())).thenThrow(new UnsupportedEncodingException("Parsing error.")); The problem is that when I run my test case I get a MockitoException that says that I can't mock a java.lang.String class. Is there a way to mock a String object using mockito or, alternatively, a way to make my String object throw an UnsupportedEncodingException when I call the getBytes method? Here are more details to illustrate the problem: This is the class that I want to test: public final class A{ public static String f(String str){ try{ return new String(str.getBytes("UTF-8")); } catch (UnsupportedEncodingException e) { // This is the catch block that I want to exercise. ... } } } This is my testing class (I'm using JUnit 4 and mockito): public class TestA { @Test(expected=UnsupportedEncodingException.class) public void test(){ String aString = mock(String.class); when(nonEncodedString.getBytes(anyString())).thenThrow(new UnsupportedEncodingException("Parsing error.")); A.f(aString); } }

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java: retrieving the "canonical value" from a Set<T> where T has a custom equals()

- by Jason S

I have a class Foo which overrides equals() and hashCode() properly. I would like to also would like to use a HashSet<Foo> to keep track of "canonical values" e.g. I have a class that I would like to write like this, so that if I have two separate objects that are equivalent I can coalesce them into references to the same object: class Canonicalizer<T> { final private Set<T> values = new HashSet<T>(); public T findCanonicalValue(T value) { T canonical = this.values.get(value); if (canonical == null) { // not in the set, so put it there for the future this.values.add(value); return value; } else { return canonical; } } } except that Set doesn't have a "get" method that would return the actual value stored in the set, just the "contains" method that returns true or false. (I guess that it assumes that if you have an object that is equal to a separate object in the set, you don't need to retrieve the one in the set) Is there a convenient way to do this? The only other thing I can think of is to use a map and a list: class Canonicalizer<T> { // warning: neglects concurrency issues final private Map<T, Integer> valueIndex = new HashMap<T, Integer>(); final private List<T> values = new ArrayList<T>(); public T findCanonicalValue(T value) { Integer i = this.valueIndex.get(value); if (i == null) { // not in the set, so put it there for the future i = this.values.size(); this.values.add(value); this.valueIndex.put(value, i); return value; } else { // in the set return this.values.get(i); } } }

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No GPS Update retrieved? Problem in Code?

- by poeschlorn

Hello mates, I've got a serious problem with my GPS on my Nexus One: I wrote a kind of hello world with GPS, but the Toast that should be displayed isn't :( I don't know what I'm doing wrong...maybe you could help me getting this work. Here's my code: package gps.test; import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Context; import android.location.Location; import android.location.LocationListener; import android.location.LocationManager; import android.os.Bundle; import android.widget.Toast; public class GPS extends Activity { private LocationManager lm; private LocationListener locationListener; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); // ---use the LocationManager class to obtain GPS locations--- lm = (LocationManager) getSystemService(Context.LOCATION_SERVICE); locationListener = new MyLocationListener(); lm.requestLocationUpdates(LocationManager.GPS_PROVIDER, 100, 1, locationListener); } private class MyLocationListener implements LocationListener { @Override public void onLocationChanged(Location loc) { if (loc != null) { Toast.makeText( getBaseContext(), "Location changed : Lat: " + loc.getLatitude() + " Lng: " + loc.getLongitude(), Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } } @Override public void onProviderDisabled(String provider) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void onProviderEnabled(String provider) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void onStatusChanged(String provider, int status, Bundle extras) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } } } Theoretically there should be a new toast every 100 milliseconds, shouldn't it? Or at least, when I change my position by one meter!? I've no idea why it doesn't. I must admit I'm new to the topic, maybe I've missed something? It would be great if you could give me a hint :) nice greetings, poeschlorn

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jquery script that used to work is not working with jquery 1.4.2

- by Zayatzz

... and i cant figure out why. The script is following: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://path/to/js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function openMediaPlayer() { $('#flashMovie').animate({'height':'333px'}); } function closeMediaPlayer() { $('#flashMovie').animate({'height':'80px'}); } jQuery(function($){ $('#videoholder').bind('mouseenter', function(){ openMediaPlayer(); }); $('#videoholder').bind('mouseleave', function(){ closeMediaPlayer(); }); }); </script> <div id="videoholder" style="height:80px;width:412px;"> <object width="412" height="80" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" id="flashMovie" name="flashMovie" style="height: 80px;" data="http://path/to/Player.swf"><param name="menu" value="false"><param name="bgcolor" value="#666666"><param name="allowFullscreen" value="true"><param name="flashvars" value="playlistURL=http://path/to/Player/data/playlist.xml"></object> </div> pure and simple resizing flash object. It worked with older(1.3.2) jquery verision. The animate just does not work. Can anyone tell me what i should change to get it working again? Alan.

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