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• systematizing error codes for a web app in php?

  - by user151841

  I'm working on a class-based php web app. I have some places where objects are interacting, and I have certain situations where I'm using error codes to communicate to the end user -- typically when form values are missing or invalid. These are situations where exceptions are unwarranted ( and I'm not sure I could avoid the situations with exceptions anyways). In one object, I have some 20 code numbers, each of which correspond to a user-facing message, and a admin/developer-facing message, so both parties know what's going on. Now that I've worked over the code several times, I find that it's difficult to quickly figure out what code numbers in the series I've already used, so I accidentally create conflicting code numbers. For instance, I just did that today with 12, 13, 14 and 15. How can I better organize this so I don't create conflicting error codes? Should I create one singleton class, errorCodes, that has a master list of all error codes for all classes, systematizing them across the whole web app? Or should each object have its own set of error codes, when appropriate, and I just keep a list in the commentary of the object, to use and update that as I go along?

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• Django: How can I identify the calling view from a template?

  - by bryan

  Short version: Is there a simple, built-in way to identify the calling view in a Django template, without passing extra context variables? Long (original) version: One of my Django apps has several different views, each with its own named URL pattern, that all render the same template. There's a very small amount of template code that needs to change depending on the called view, too small to be worth the overhead of setting up separate templates for each view, so ideally I need to find a way to identify the calling view in the template. I've tried setting up the views to pass in extra context variables (e.g. "view_name") to identify the calling view, and I've also tried using {% ifequal request.path "/some/path/" %} comparisons, but neither of these solutions seems particularly elegant. Is there a better way to identify the calling view from the template? Is there a way to access to the view's name, or the name of the URL pattern? Update 1: Regarding the comment that this is simply a case of me misunderstanding MVC, I understand MVC, but Django's not really an MVC framework. I believe the way my app is set up is consistent with Django's take on MVC: the views describe which data is presented, and the templates describe how the data is presented. It just happens that I have a number of views that prepare different data, but that all use the same template because the data is presented the same way for all the views. I'm just looking for a simple way to identify the calling view from the template, if this exists. Update 2: Thanks for all the answers. I think the question is being overthought -- as mentioned in my original question, I've already considered and tried all of the suggested solutions -- so I've distilled it down to a "short version" now at the top of the question. And right now it seems that if someone were to simply post "No", it'd be the most correct answer :) Update 3: Carl Meyer posted "No" :) Thanks again, everyone.

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• Checking instance of non-class constrained type parameter for null in generic method

  - by casperOne

  I currently have a generic method where I want to do some validation on the parameters before working on them. Specifically, if the instance of the type parameter T is a reference type, I want to check to see if it's null and throw an ArgumentNullException if it's null. Something along the lines of: // This can be a method on a generic class, it does not matter. public void DoSomething<T>(T instance) { if (instance == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("instance"); Note, I do not wish to constrain my type parameter using the class constraint. I thought I could use Marc Gravell's answer on "How do I compare a generic type to its default value?", and use the EqualityComparer<T> class like so: static void DoSomething<T>(T instance) { if (EqualityComparer<T>.Default.Equals(instance, null)) throw new ArgumentNullException("instance"); But it gives a very ambiguous error on the call to Equals: Member 'object.Equals(object, object)' cannot be accessed with an instance reference; qualify it with a type name instead How can I check an instance of T against null when T is not constrained on being a value or reference type?

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• C# IE Proxy Detection not working from a Windows Service

  - by mytwocents

  This is very odd. I've written a windows form tool in C# to return the default IE proxy. It works (See code snippets below). I've created a service to return the proxy using the same code, it works when I step into the debugger, BUT it doesn't work when the service is running as binary code. This must be some sort of permissions or context thing that I cannot recreate. Further, if I call the tool from the windows service, it still doesn't return the proxy information.... this seems isolated to the service somehow. I don't see any permission errors in the events log, it's as if a service has a totally different context than a regular windows form exe. I've tride both: WebRequest.GetSystemWebProxy() and Uri requestUri = new Uri(urlOfDomain); HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(requestUri); IWebProxy proxy = request.Proxy; if (!proxy.IsBypassed(requestUri)){ Uri uri2 = proxy.GetProxy(request.RequestUri); } Thanks for any help!

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• Inserting javascript with jQuery .html

  - by Andrew Appleby

  I'm experiencing an issue with a website I'm working on, where I originally believed I could simply replace $("main").html('THIS') which was originally code for a flash object, with a new and improved HTML5/Javascript version. The original code: $("#main").html('<div style="height: 100%; width: 100%; overflow: hidden;"><object width="100%" height="100%" codebase="http://fpdownload.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=8,0,0,0" classid="clsid:d27cdb6e-ae6d-11cf-96b8-444553540000">\ <param value="images/uploads/'+image_id+'.swf" name="movie">\ <param value="true" name="allowFullScreen">\ <param value="#737373" name="bgcolor">\ <param value="" name="FlashVars">\ <embed width="100%" height="100%" flashvars="" bgcolor="#737373" allowfullscreen="true" src="images/uploads/'+image_id+'.swf" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer">\ </object></div>\ '); }); And my (failed) attempt at inserting my new code: $("#main").html('<script type="text/javascript">pano=new pano2vrPlayer("container");skin=new pano2vrSkin(pano);pano.readConfigUrl("xml/tablet_'+image_id+'.xml");hideUrlBar();</script>'); It doesn't even work when I just put , so I know it's gotta be the javascript itself. I've looked at the solutions out there, but I can't make sense in how to properly implement them here in the most efficient way. Your help is much appreciated, thanks!

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• Visual Studio 2008 Unit test does not pick up code changes unless I build the entire solution

  - by Orion Edwards

  Here's the scenario: Change my code: Change my unit test for that code With the cursor inside the unit test class/method, invoke VS2008's "Run tests in current context" command The visual studio "Output" window indicates that the code dll and the test dll both successfully build (in that order) The problem is however, that the unit test does not use the latest version of the dll which it has just built. Instead, it uses the previously built dll (which doesn't have the updated code in it), so the test fails. When adding a new method, this results in a MethodNotImplementedException, and when adding a class, it results in a TypeLoadException, both because the unit test thinks the new code is there, and it isn't!. If I'm just updating an existing method, then the test just fails due to incorrect results. I can 'work around' the problem by doing this Change my code: Change my unit test for that code Invoke VS2008's 'Build Solution' command With the cursor inside the unit test class/method, invoke VS2008's "Run tests in current context" command The problem is that doing a full build solution (even though nothing has changed) takes upwards of 30 seconds, as I have approx 50 C# projects, and VS2008 is not smart enough to realize that only 2 of them need to be looked at. Having to wait 30 seconds just to change 1 line of code and re-run a unit test is abysmal. Is there anything I can do to fix this? None of my code is in the GAC or anything funny like that, it's just ordinary old dll's (buiding against .NET 3.5SP1 on a win7/64bit machine) Please help!

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• Javascript "Match" Function Not Returning Proper Results in Safari or IE (but yes in FF)

  - by Jascha

  Forgive me as this is a time sensitive issue and I will have to switch the site back in a few hours so the link will be bad... but: I am simply comparing two strings looking for a match with this function... I have an array of objects called linkArray and I need to match the .src of each object to a .src I send it (the src of the clicked image). if the the src of the image I clicked matches the src of an object in my array, I set a variable to the link string of that object and return true, letting my page know that the link is available. Now, this works great in FF. But not in any other browser and I can't figure out for the life of me why. I have set up a dialogue box to literally compare, by eye, the two strings that should at the very least throw the message "match". Can anyone see what I am missing here??? here is the link... http://7thart.com/Jewish-History-and-Culture/Jews-and-Baseball-An-American-Love-Story If you click any of the thumbnails on the left, you will activate the function. Again, I apologize as after a few hours I have to switch back to the original site and this link will be invalid. Thanks in advance for your help. (function below)... function matchLink(a){ for(var i=0;i<linkArray.length;i++){ var fixLink = '../' + linkArray[i]['src']; alert(fixLink + '\n = \n' + a); if(fixLink == a){ alert('match'); newLink = linkArray[i]['link']; return true; } } return false; } Note: The "match" will return on two of the images.. the initial image, and the first thumbnail on the left. The second thumbnail SHOULD match, and the third one SHOULD NOT match.

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• Handling form from different view and passing form validation through session in django

  - by Mo J. Mughrabi

  I have a requirement here to build a comment-like app in my django project, the app has a view to receive a submitted form process it and return the errors to where ever it came from. I finally managed to get it to work, but I have doubt for the way am using it might be wrong since am passing the entire validated form in the session. below is the code comment/templatetags/comment.py @register.inclusion_tag('comment/form.html', takes_context=True) def comment_form(context, model, object_id, next): """ comment_form() is responsible for rendering the comment form """ # clear sessions from variable incase it was found content_type = ContentType.objects.get_for_model(model) try: request = context['request'] if request.session.get('comment_form', False): form = CommentForm(request.session['comment_form']) form.fields['content_type'].initial = 15 form.fields['object_id'].initial = 2 form.fields['next'].initial = next else: form = CommentForm(initial={ 'content_type' : content_type.id, 'object_id' : object_id, 'next' : next }) except Exception as e: logging.error(str(e)) form = None return { 'form' : form } comment/view.py def save_comment(request): """ save_comment: """ if request.method == 'POST': # clear sessions from variable incase it was found if request.session.get('comment_form', False): del request.session['comment_form'] form = CommentForm(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): obj = form.save(commit=False) if request.user.is_authenticated(): obj.created_by = request.user obj.save() messages.info(request, _('Your comment has been posted.')) return redirect(form.data.get('next')) else: request.session['comment_form'] = request.POST return redirect(form.data.get('next')) else: raise Http404 the usage is by loading the template tag and firing {% comment_form article article.id article.get_absolute_url %} my doubt is if am doing the correct approach or not by passing the validated form to the session. Would that be a problem? security risk? performance issues? Please advise Update In response to Pol question. The reason why I went with this approach is because comment form is handled in a separate app. In my scenario, I render objects such as article and all I do is invoke the templatetag to render the form. What would be an alternative approach for my case? You also shared with me the django comment app, which am aware of but the client am working with requires a lot of complex work to be done in the comment app thats why am working on a new one.

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• Spring bean initialization in a web app

  - by EugeneP

  We work with a web application and autowire beans using WebApplicationContextUtils in the init method. Could you clarify some details about bean initialization? The question rises from the static factory method. Suppose there's a bean that is created in a static factory method. As we can see, when the web app is deployed, the ContextLoaderListener initializes all the beans present in Spring xml config file. Now happens such a thing. In the static factory method we run a timer that starts ticking. But in reality we wouldn't want it to start ticking unless the bean is injected into a property of the object ! That is question number one - all the beans are automatically initialized on deploy - correct? And after that when we need an injection, it simply feels the link with the address of the object created during initialization, though OBJECT WAS CREATED ON WEB APP DEPLOY, immediately ! (I assume the default singleton-creation Spring behavior) Second question: are all copies of a web app use the same beans, so all beans are WEB-APP wide, every Spring bean is shared between all the copies of this web app running?

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• How to fetch populated associated models in CakePHP when calling read()

  - by Code Commander

  I have the following Models: class Site extends AppModel { public $name = "Site"; public $useTable = "site"; public $primaryKey = "id"; public $displayField = 'name'; public $hasMany = array('Item' => array('foreignKey' => 'siteId')); public function canView($userId, $isAdmin = false) { if($isAdmin) { return true; } return array_key_exists($this->id, $allowedSites); } } and class Item extends AppModel { public $name = "Item"; public $useTable = "item"; public $primaryKey = "id"; public $displayField = 'name'; public $belongsTo = array('Site' => array('foreignKey' => 'siteId')); public function canView($userId, $isAdmin = false) { // My problem appears to be the next line: return $this->Site->canView($userId, $isAdmin); } } In my controller I am doing something like this: $result = $this->Item->read(null, $this->request->id); // Verify permissions if(!$this->Item->canView($this->Session->read('userId'), $this->Session->read('isAdmin'))) { $this->httpCodes(403); die('Permission denied.'); } I notice that in Item->canView() $this->data['Site'] is populated with the column data from the site table. But it merely an array and not an object. On the other hand $this->Site is a Site object, but it has not been populated with the column data from the site table like $this->data. What is the proper way to have CakePHP get the associated model as the object and containing the data? Or am I going about this all wrong? Thanks!

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• NetBeans Platform - how to refresh the property sheet view of a node?

  - by I82Much

  Hi all, I am using the PropertySheetView component to visualize and edit the properties of a node. This view should always reflect the most recent properties of the object; if there is a change to the object in another process, I want to somehow refresh the view and see the updated properties. The best way I was able to do this is something like the following (making use of EventBus library to publish and subscribe to changes in objects): public DomainObjectWrapperNode(DomainObject obj) { super (Children.LEAF, Lookups.singleton(obj)); EventBus.subscribe(DomainObject.class, this); } public void onEvent(DomainObject event) { // Do a check to determine if the updated object is the one wrapped by this node; // if so fire a property sets change firePropertySetsChange(null, this.getPropertySets()); } This works, but my place in the scrollpane is lost when the sheet refreshes; it resets the view to the top of the list and I have to scroll back down to where I was before the refresh action. So my question is, is there a better way to refresh the property sheet view of a node, specifically so my place in the property list is not lost upon refresh?

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• Is there any other way of using signed applets

  - by 640KB

  Hi There, If I want to deploy high privileged applets they need to be signed. For that a certificate is created and then a jar file is signed with a jarsigner. After that in the HTML code one has to specify code,codebase AND archive (jar) which we signed before. However I wrote a servlet which acts as two things: it sits at the URL pointed by the codebase and serves class bytecode to the applet. The same servlet also uses serialization to communicate with the applet whereby whenever the applet gets a class it does not know it goes to the codebase which ends up back at the servlet. Almost like a mini RMI setup but simpler. I hope you can see the power in this. Unfortunately for signed applets one needs the archive. Now the servlet is also able to load a Certificate object and can send it to the applet too. So here is the setup: At one point the applet receives class bytecode and it also has the Certificate. It would be nice if the applet could instantiate all received classes using that certificate (otherwise code from jar is signed and outside is not which prompts nasty messages to the user). So my question to you fine Java aficionados: Would there by any way for me to use the bytecode data and the Certificate to instantiate the class as a signed object so that the plugin pops the Security dialog, accepts teh certificate and elevates the object's privileges. What I could find is that the there is a class CodeSource that accepts codebase URL and certificate and is essential to the signing process. What I am not sure is how one could intercept the class loading inside applets to install additional certificates not obtained through a JAR file via archive. What do you say? Thanks a bunch.

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• ASP.NEt MVC 2 application error on IIS7 works fine on local machine

  - by aspCoolguy

  My ASP.NET MVC2 application is developed using 1. VS 2010 2. Linq To SQL for Models Here is Call controller code: namespace CallTrackMVC.Controllers { public class CallController : Controller { private CallTrackRepository repository; public CallController():this(new CallTrackRepository()) { } public CallController(CallTrackRepository newRepository) { repository = newRepository; } } } Error on IIS7 when browsing the Call Create page is NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] CallTrackMVC.Models.ExecOfficeDataContext..ctor() in C:\ClearCase\rartadi_view\STS_Dev_TEST\CallTrackMVC\Models\ExecOffice.designer.cs:71 CallTrackMVC.Controllers.CallController..ctor() in C:\ClearCase\rartadi_view\STS_Dev_TEST\CallTrackMVC\Controllers\CallController.cs:16 [TargetInvocationException: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation.] System.RuntimeTypeHandle.CreateInstance(RuntimeType type, Boolean publicOnly, Boolean noCheck, Boolean& canBeCached, RuntimeMethodHandleInternal& ctor, Boolean& bNeedSecurityCheck) +0 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceSlow(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +117 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceDefaultCtor(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +247 System.Activator.CreateInstance(Type type, Boolean nonPublic) +106 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +102 [InvalidOperationException: **An error occurred when trying to create a controller of type 'CallTrackMVC.Controllers.CallController'. Make sure that the controller has a parameterless public constructor.**] System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +541 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.CreateController(RequestContext requestContext, String controllerName) +85 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequestInit(HttpContextBase httpContext, IController& controller, IControllerFactory& factory) +165 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContextBase httpContext, AsyncCallback callback, Object state) +80 System.Web.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() +389 System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) +371 Code in Global.asax is protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } Any suggestion would be a great help.

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• How should rules for Aggregate Roots be enforced?

  - by MylesRip

  While searching the web, I came across a list of rules from Eric Evans' book that should be enforced for aggregates: The root Entity has global identity and is ultimately responsible for checking invariants Root Entities have global identity. Entities inside the boundary have local identity, unique only within the Aggregate. Nothing outside the Aggregate boundary can hold a reference to anything inside, except to the root Entity. The root Entity can hand references to the internal Entities to other objects, but they can only use them transiently (within a single method or block). Only Aggregate Roots can be obtained directly with database queries. Everything else must be done through traversal. Objects within the Aggregate can hold references to other Aggregate roots. A delete operation must remove everything within the Aggregate boundary all at once When a change to any object within the Aggregate boundary is committed, all invariants of the whole Aggregate must be satisfied. This all seems fine in theory, but I don't see how these rules would be enforced in the real world. Take rule 3 for example. Once the root entity has given an exteral object a reference to an internal entity, what's to keep that external object from holding on to the reference beyond the single method or block? (If the enforcement of this is platform-specific, I would be interested in knowing how this would be enforced within a C#/.NET/NHibernate environment.)

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• Can't use my form

  - by Alexandr

  I have class with my form in folder /application/forms/Auth.php it looks like class Form_Auth extends Zend_Form { public function __construct() { $this->setName(); parent::__construct(); $username = new Zend_Form_Element_Text('username'); $password = new Zend_Form_Element_Password('password'); $mail = new Zend_Form_Element_Text('mail'); $submit = new Zend_Form_Element_Submit('submit'); $this->addElements(array($username,$password,$mail,$submit)); } } When i try create object $this->view->form = new Form_Auth(); is see exeption Application error Exception information: Message: Invalid name provided; must contain only valid variable characters and be non-empty Stack trace: D:\WWW\zends\application\Forms\Auth.php(8): Zend_Form-setName() d:\WWW\zends\application\controllers\RegistrationController.php(49): Form_Auth-__construct() D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Controller\Action.php(513): RegistrationController-indexAction() D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Controller\Dispatcher\Standard.php(289): Zend_Controller_Action-dispatch('indexAction') D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Controller\Front.php(954): Zend_Controller_Dispatcher_Standard-dispatch(Object(Zend_Controller_Request_Http), Object(Zend_Controller_Response_Http)) D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Application\Bootstrap\Bootstrap.php(97): Zend_Controller_Front-dispatch() D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Application.php(366): Zend_Application_Bootstrap_Bootstrap-run() D:\WWW\zends\public\index.php(26): Zend_Application-run() {main} Request Parameters: array ( 'controller' = 'registration', 'action' = 'index', 'module' = 'default', ) the version zf is 1.10.3 what i do wrong ?

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• JavaScript Module Pattern - What about using "return this"?

  - by Rob

  After doing some reading about the Module Pattern, I've seen a few ways of returning the properties which you want to be public. One of the most common ways is to declare your public properties and methods right inside of the "return" statement, apart from your private properties and methods. A similar way (the "Revealing" pattern) is to provide simply references to the properties and methods which you want to be public. Lastly, a third technique I saw was to create a new object inside your module function, to which you assign your new properties before returning said object. This was an interesting idea, but requires the creation of a new object. So I was thinking, why not just use "this.propertyName" to assign your public properties and methods, and finally use "return this" at the end? This way seems much simpler to me, as you can create private properties and methods with the usual "var" or "function" syntax, or use the "this.propertyName" syntax to declare your public methods. Here's the method I'm suggesting: (function() { var privateMethod = function () { alert('This is a private method.'); } this.publicMethod = function () { alert('This is a public method.'); } return this; })(); Are there any pros/cons to using the method above? What about the others?

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• LINQ to SQL: Reusable expression for property?

  - by coenvdwel

  Pardon me for being unable to phrase the title more exact. Basically, I have three LINQ objects linked to tables. One is Product, the other is Company and the last is a mapping table Mapping to store what Company sells which products and by which ID this Company refers to this Product. I am now retrieving a list of products as follows: var options = new DataLoadOptions(); options.LoadWith<Product>(p => p.Mappings); context.LoadOptions = options; var products = ( from p in context.Products select new { ProductID = p.ProductID, //BackendProductID = p.BackendProductID, BackendProductID = (p.Mappings.Count == 0) ? "None" : (p.Mappings.Count > 1) ? "Multiple" : p.Mappings.First().BackendProductID, Description = p.Description } ).ToList(); This does a single query retrieving the information I want. But I want to be able to move the logic behind the BackendProductID into the LINQ object so I can use the commented line instead of the annoyingly nested ternary operator statements for neatness and re-usability. So I added the following property to the Product object: public string BackendProductID { get { if (Mappings.Count == 0) return "None"; if (Mappings.Count > 1) return "Multiple"; return Mappings.First().BackendProductID; } } The list is still the same, but it now does a query for every single Product to get it's BackendProductID. The code is neater and re-usable, but the performance now is terrible. What I need is some kind of Expression or Delegate but I couldn't get my head around writing one. It always ended up querying for every single product, still. Any help would be appreciated!

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• Insert and delete SIM contacs working but it needs to be phone restart to update the changes

  - by girishgm08

  Hi All, I am able to insert the contacts into SIM card and delete from it. But it needs to be phone restart to update the changes. The below is the code woks for delete the conatcs, Uri simUri = Uri.parse("content://icc/adn"); Cursor cur = context.getContentResolver().query(simUri, null, null, null, null); prn("Number of SIM Contacts are.."+cur.getCount()); int row =0; while(cur.moveToNext()){ String name = cur.getString(cur.getColumnIndex("name")); prn("Name..."+name); String data = cur.getString(cur.getColumnIndex("number")); if(!data.equals("")) prn("Number.."+data); String where = null; if(!name.equals("") && !data.equals("")){ where = "tag =" + name + "AND" + "number =" +data; } else if(name.equals("") && !data.equals("")){ where = "number ="+data; } else { where = "tag ="+name+ "AND" +"number="+null; } context.getContentResolver().delete(simUri, where, null); row++; } prn(row+" are deleted"); cur.close(); cur = null; Please look into this issue and give suggestions on this. Thanks, Girish G M

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• How do actually castings work at the CLR level?

  - by devoured elysium

  When doing an upcast or downcast, what does really happen behind the scenes? I had the idea that when doing something as: string myString = "abc"; object myObject = myString; string myStringBack = (string)myObject; the cast in the last line would have as only purpose tell the compiler we are safe we are not doing anything wrong. So, I had the idea that actually no casting code would be embedded in the code itself. It seems I was wrong: .maxstack 1 .locals init ( [0] string myString, [1] object myObject, [2] string myStringBack) L_0000: nop L_0001: ldstr "abc" L_0006: stloc.0 L_0007: ldloc.0 L_0008: stloc.1 L_0009: ldloc.1 L_000a: castclass string L_000f: stloc.2 L_0010: ret Why does the CLR need something like castclass string? There are two possible implementations for a downcast: You require a castclass something. When you get to the line of code that does an castclass, the CLR tries to make the cast. But then, what would happen had I ommited the castclass string line and tried to run the code? You don't require a castclass. As all reference types have a similar internal structure, if you try to use a string on an Form instance, it will throw an exception of wrong usage (because it detects a Form is not a string or any of its subtypes). Also, is the following statamente from C# 4.0 in a Nutshell correct? Upcasting and downcasting between compatible reference types performs reference conversions: a new reference is created that points to the same object. Does it really create a new reference? I thought it'd be the same reference, only stored in a different type of variable. Thanks

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• Using Everyauth/Express and Multiple Configurations?

  - by Zane Claes

  I'm successfully using Node.js + Express + Everyauth ( https://github.com/abelmartin/Express-And-Everyauth/blob/master/app.js ) to login to Facebook, Twitter, etc. from my application. The problem I'm trying to wrap my head around is that Everyauth seems to be "configure and forget." I set up a single everyauth object and configure it to act as middleware for express, and then forget about it. For example, if I want to create a mobile Facebook login I do: var app = express.createServer(); everyauth.facebook .appId('AAAA') .appSecret('BBBB') .entryPath('/login/facebook') .callbackPath('/callback/facebook') .mobile(true); // mobile! app.use(everyauth.middleware()); everyauth.helpExpress(app); app.listen(8000); Here's the problem: Both mobile and non-mobile clients will connect to my server, and I don't know which is connecting until the connection is made. Even worse, I need to support multiple Facebook app IDs (and, again, I don't know which one I will want to use until the client connects and I partially parse the input). Because everyauth is a singleton which in configured once, I cannot see how to make these changes to the configuration based upon the request that is made. What it seems like is that I need to create some sort of middleware which acts before the everyauth middleware to configure the everyauth object, such that everyauth subsequently uses the correct appId/appSecret/mobile parameters. I have no clue how to go about this... Suggestions? Here's the best idea I have so far, though it seems terrible: Create an everyauth object for every possible configuration using a different entryPath for each...

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• Proper status codes for JSON responses to Ajax calls?

  - by anonymous coward

  My project is returning JSON to Ajax calls from the browser. I'm wondering what the proper status code is for sending back with responses to invalid (but successfully handled) data submissions. For example, jQuery has the following two particular callbacks when making Ajax requests: success: Fired when a 200/2xx status code is delivered along with the response. error: Fired when 4xx, 5xx, etc, status codes come back with the response. If a user attempts to create a new "Person" object, I send back a JSON representation of the newly created object upon success, thus giving javascript access to the necessary unique ID's for the new object, etc. This, of course, is sent with a 200 status code. If a user submits malformed or invalid data (say, an invalid/incomplete "name" field), I would like to send back the validation error messages via JSON. (I don't see why this would be a bad thing). My question is: in doing so, should I send a 200 status code, because I successfully handled their invalid data? Therefore, I'd be using the jQuery success callback, but simply check for errors... Or, should I use a 4xx status code, perhaps 'Bad Request', because the data they sent me is invalid? (and thus, use the error callback to do the necessary client-side notifications).

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• How can I bind a simple Javascript array to an MVC3 controller action method?

  - by Sergio Tapia

  Here is the javascript code I use to create the array and send it on it's way: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#update-cart-btn").click(function() { var items = []; $(".item").each(function () { var productKey = $(this).find("input[name='item.ProductId']").val(); var productQuantity = $(this).find("input[type='text']").val(); items[productKey] = productQuantity; }); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "@Url.Action("UpdateCart", "Cart")", data: items, success: function () { alert("Successfully updated your cart!"); } }); }); }); </script> The items object is properly constructed with the values I need. What data type must my object be on the backend of my controller? I tried this but the variable remains null and is not bound. [Authorize] [HttpPost] public ActionResult UpdateCart(object[] items) // items remains null. { // Some magic here. return RedirectToAction("Index"); }

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• Extracting function declarations from a PHP file

  - by byronh

  I'm looking to create an on-site API reference for my framework and application. Basically, say I have a class file model.class.php: class Model extends Object { ... code here ... // Separates results into pages. // Returns Paginator object. final public function paginate($perpage = 10) { ... more code here ... } } and I want to be able to generate a reference that my developers can refer to quickly in order to know which functions are available to be called. They only need to see the comments directly above each function and the declaration line. Something like this (similar to a C++ header file): // Separates results into pages. // Returns Paginator object. final public function paginate($perpage = 10); I've done some research and this answer looked pretty good (using Reflection classes), however, I'm not sure how I can keep the comments in. Any ideas? EDIT: Sorry, but I want to keep the current comment formatting. Myself and the people who are working on the code hate the verbosity associated with PHPDocumentor. Not to mention a comment-rewrite of the entire project would take years, so I want to preserve just the // comments in plaintext.

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• Obtaining FontMetrics before getting a Graphics instance

  - by Tom Castle

  Typically, I'd obtain a graphics instance something like this: BufferedImage img = new BufferedImage(width, height, BufferedImage.TYPE_INT_ARGB); Graphics2D g = img.createGraphics(); However, in the current project I'm working on, the width and height variables above are dependent upon the size of a number of text fragments that will later be drawn onto the graphics instance. But, to obtain the dimensions of the font being used I would usually use the FontMetrics that I get from the graphics object. FontMetrics metrics = g.getFontMetrics(); So, I have a nasty little dependency cycle. I cannot create the graphics object until I know the size of the text, and I cannot know the size of the text until I have a graphics object. One solution is just to create another BufferedImage/Graphics pair first in order to get the FontMetrics instance I need, but this seems unnecessary. So, is there a nicer way? Or is it the case that the width, height etc. properties for a Font are somehow dependent upon what (graphics, component...) the text is to be drawn on?

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• jquery script that used to work is not working with jquery 1.4.2

  - by Zayatzz

  ... and i cant figure out why. The script is following: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://path/to/js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function openMediaPlayer() { $('#flashMovie').animate({'height':'333px'}); } function closeMediaPlayer() { $('#flashMovie').animate({'height':'80px'}); } jQuery(function($){ $('#videoholder').bind('mouseenter', function(){ openMediaPlayer(); }); $('#videoholder').bind('mouseleave', function(){ closeMediaPlayer(); }); }); </script> <div id="videoholder" style="height:80px;width:412px;"> <object width="412" height="80" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" id="flashMovie" name="flashMovie" style="height: 80px;" data="http://path/to/Player.swf"><param name="menu" value="false"><param name="bgcolor" value="#666666"><param name="allowFullscreen" value="true"><param name="flashvars" value="playlistURL=http://path/to/Player/data/playlist.xml"></object> </div> pure and simple resizing flash object. It worked with older(1.3.2) jquery verision. The animate just does not work. Can anyone tell me what i should change to get it working again? Alan.

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