Search Results

Search found 35869 results on 1435 pages for 'object context'.

Page 534/1435 | < Previous Page | 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539 540 541  | Next Page >

  • JQuery modal box form validation

    - by vikitor
    Hi, I was using a view to create an object for my specific project, but now I have to adapt this to another requirements, such as the creation of this object must be integrated in the creation of another one. The thing is, that this object must be created before starting to create the other one, and the way of doing it will be poping up a modal dialog box with JQuery with the form to create it. I've got to adapt the creation and it works fine, except for the validation messages. It is made in the controller like : if (not.NotName.Trim().Length == 0) { ModelState.AddModelError("NotName", "Name is required"); } if (_notification.checkIfExists(not.NotName, not.NotRecID)) { ModelState.AddModelError("NotName", "Notification already exists"); } And before with a normal view it worked fine, but now I'm not able to get the validation messages as I did. How can you get this validation messages thrown by the controller in the Modal Box? Because now when I made a mistake on purpose in the form in order to get the error it doesn't appear. I've seen the error is displayed in the site, because I've seen it on firebug, but it doesn't appear in my model box. How can I retrieve this errors? Do you know any tutorial that could help me with this? Thank you

    Read the article

  • binding image with 2 values with convertor

    - by prince23
    hi, is it possiable to set 2 data field for an image control whiling binding **<Image Source="{Binding ItemID, Converter={StaticResource IDToImageConverter}}" Height="50" />** now here i need to add one more value Price now. need to send even price as an paramter for IDToImageConverter function how can i do it? now i need to check first price value there are 3 condition i neeed to check in my IDToImageConverter function if( price> 5o) { // then get the ItemID based on the value bind image here if(ItemID >20) { // bind image1 } if(ItemID >50) { // bind image2 } } if( price> 100) { // as above codition we do here } now how can i add these above functionality in IDToImageConverter ? any idea how i can solve it <Image Source="{Binding ItemID, Converter={StaticResource IDToImageConverter}}" Height="50" /> </DataTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn> </data:DataGrid.Columns> </data:DataGrid> public class IDToImageConverter : IValueConverter { public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { Uri uri = new Uri("~/Images/" + value.ToString()+ ".jpg", UriKind.Relative); return new BitmapImage(uri); } thanks in advance. for anyhelp you provide prince

    Read the article

  • Mysterious Flickering Visual Artifact

    - by Axis
    A flashing bar of red appears at the top of the EAGLView that I have added as a subview in my iPhone app. It flickers on and off (i.e., one frame it's there, the next frame it's not, the next frame it's there again). I have removed a lot of code from my app until I'm essentially left with the stock OpenGL-ES project and a few changes: The glview is not fullscreen; it's a subview. I enabled the depth buffer. I'm not even trying to draw anything. If the glview is fullscreen, or if I disable the depth buffer, then there is no flicker and it works fine. But needless to say, this is a 3D view and I'd like to be able to display it within a larger UIKit view. I'm not sure what code would be useful to post, but here's how I add the glview to my main view: appDelegate.glView.frame = CGRectMake(245, 65, 215, 215); [self.view addSubview:appDelegate.glView]; [appDelegate.glView startAnimation]; Here's my render function: - (void) render { [EAGLContext setCurrentContext:context]; glBindFramebufferOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES, defaultFramebuffer); glViewport(0, 0, backingWidth, backingHeight); glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT | GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT); glBindRenderbufferOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, colorRenderbuffer); [context presentRenderbuffer:GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES]; } It seems pretty obvious to me that the problem lies with the depth buffer somehow, but I'm not sure why. Also, it works fine in the simulator, but not on my iphone. I'm using iPhone OS 3.1. Any ideas on where to look for a problem?

    Read the article

  • Unit Testing the Use of TransactionScope

    - by Randolpho
    The preamble: I have designed a strongly interfaced and fully mockable data layer class that expects the business layer to create a TransactionScope when multiple calls should be included in a single transaction. The problem: I would like to unit test that my business layer makes use of a TransactionScope object when I expect it to. Unfortunately, the standard pattern for using TransactionScope is a follows: using(var scope = new TransactionScope()) { // transactional methods datalayer.InsertFoo(); datalayer.InsertBar(); scope.Complete(); } While this is a really great pattern in terms of usability for the programmer, testing that it's done seems... unpossible to me. I cannot detect that a transient object has been instantiated, let alone mock it to determine that a method was called on it. Yet my goal for coverage implies that I must. The Question: How can I go about building unit tests that ensure TransactionScope is used appropriately according to the standard pattern? Final Thoughts: I've considered a solution that would certainly provide the coverage I need, but have rejected it as overly complex and not conforming to the standard TransactionScope pattern. It involves adding a CreateTransactionScope method on my data layer object that returns an instance of TransactionScope. But because TransactionScope contains constructor logic and non-virtual methods and is therefore difficult if not impossible to mock, CreateTransactionScope would return an instance of DataLayerTransactionScope which would be a mockable facade into TransactionScope. While this might do the job it's complex and I would prefer to use the standard pattern. Is there a better way?

    Read the article

  • In perl, how can I call a method whose name I have in a string?

    - by Ryan Thompson
    I'm trying to write some abstract code for searching through a list of similar objects for the first one whose attributes match specific values. In order to do this, I need to call a bunch of accessor methods and check all their values one by one. I'd like to use an abstraction like this: sub verify_attribute { my ($object, $attribute_method, $wanted_value) = @_; if ( call_method($object, $attribute_method) ~~ $wanted_value ) { return 1; } else { return; } } Then I can loop through a hash whose keys are accessor method names and whose values are the values I'm looking for for those attributes. For example, if that hash is called %wanted, I might use code like this to find the object I want: my $found_object; FINDOBJ: foreach my $obj (@list_of_objects) { foreach my $accessor (keys %wanted) { next FINDOBJ unless verify_attribute($obj, $accessor, $wanted{$accessor}); } # All attrs verified $found_object = $obj; last FINDOBJ; } Of course, the only problem is that call_method does not exsit. Or does it? How can I call a method if I have a string containing its name? Or is there a better solution to this whole problem?

    Read the article

  • Use cases of [ordered], the new PowerShell 3.0 feature

    - by Roman Kuzmin
    PowerShell 3.0 CTP1 introduces a new feature [ordered] which is somewhat a shortcut for OrderedDictionary. I cannot imagine practical use cases of it. Why is this feature really useful? Can somebody provide some useful examples? Example: this is, IMHO, rather demo case than practical: $a = [ordered]@{a=1;b=2;d=3;c=4} (I do not mind if it is still useful, then I am just looking for other useful cases). I am not looking for use cases of OrderedDictionary, it is useful, indeed. But we can use it directly in v2.0 (and I do a lot). I am trying to understand why is this new feature [ordered] needed in addition. Collected use cases from answers: $hash = [ordered]@{} is shorter than $hash = New-Object System.Collections.Specialized.OrderedDictionary N.B. ordered is not a real shortcut for the type. New-Object ordered does not work. N.B. 2: But this is still a good shortcut because (I think, cannot try) it creates typical for PowerShell case insensitive dictionary. The equivalent command in v2.0 is too long, indeed: New-Object System.Collections.Specialized.OrderedDictionary]([System.StringComparer]::OrdinalIgnoreCase)

    Read the article

  • Spring Dependency Injecting an annotated Aspect

    Using Spring I've had some issues with doing a dependency injection on an annotated Aspect class. CacheService is injected upon the Spring context's startup, but when the weaving takes place, it says that the cacheService is null. So I am forced to relook up the spring context manually and get the bean from there. Is there another way of going about it? Here is an example of my Aspect: import org.apache.log4j.Logger; import org.aspectj.lang.ProceedingJoinPoint; import org.aspectj.lang.annotation.Around; import org.aspectj.lang.annotation.Aspect; import com.mzgubin.application.cache.CacheService; @Aspect public class CachingAdvice { private static Logger log = Logger.getLogger(CachingAdvice.class); private CacheService cacheService; @Around("execution(public *com.mzgubin.application.callMethod(..)) &&" + "args(params)") public Object addCachingToCreateXMLFromSite(ProceedingJoinPoint pjp, InterestingParams params) throws Throwable { log.debug("Weaving a method call to see if we should return something from the cache or create it from scratch by letting control flow move on"); Object result = null; if (getCacheService().objectExists(params))}{ result = getCacheService().getObject(params); } else { result = pjp.proceed(pjp.getArgs()); getCacheService().storeObject(params, result); } return result; } public CacheService getCacheService(){ return cacheService; } public void setCacheService(CacheService cacheService){ this.cacheService = cacheService; } }

    Read the article

  • LINQ to SQL - Insert yielding strange behavior.

    - by Isaac
    Hi, I'm trying to insert several newly created items to the database. I have a LINQ2SQL generated class called "Order". Inside order, there's a property called "OrderItems" which is also generated by LINQ2SQL and represents the Items of that Order. So far so good. The problem I'm having right now, is when I try to add more than one newly created OrderItem inside Order. I.E: Order o = orderWorker.GetById( 10 ); for( int i=0; i < 5; ++i ) { OrderItem oi =new OrderItem { Order = order, Price = 100, ShippingPrice = 100, ShippingMethod = ... }; o.OrderItems.Add( oi ); } context.SubmitChanges(); Unfortunately, only a single entity is being added. Yes, I checked the generated SQL by adding Context.Log = Console.Out, and yes, only one statement was created. Any clues? By the way I know I'm not using InsertOnSubmit, by the documentation says: You can explicitly request Inserts by using InsertOnSubmit. Alternatively, LINQ to SQL can infer Inserts by finding objects connected to one of the known objects that must be updated. For example, if you add an Untracked object to an EntitySet(TEntity) or set an EntityRef(TEntity) to an Untracked object, you make the Untracked object reachable by way of tracked objects in the graph. While processing SubmitChanges, LINQ to SQL traverses the tracked objects and discovers any reachable persistent objects that are not tracked. Such objects are candidates for insertion into the database. Thank you very much for your time.

    Read the article

  • Issue with class design to model user preferences for different classes

    - by Mulone
    Hi all, I'm not sure how to design a couple of classes in my app. Basically that's a situation: each user can have many preferences each preference can be referred to an object of different classes (e.g. album, film, book etc) the preference is expressed as a set of values (e.g. score, etc). The problem is that many users can have preferences on the same objects, e.g.: John: score=5 for filmid=apocalypsenow Paul: score=3 for filmid=apocalypsenow And naturally I don't want to duplicate the object film in each user. So I could create a class called "preference" holding a score and then a target object, something like: User{ hasMany preferences } Preference{ belongsTo User double score Film target Album target //etc } and then define just one target. Then I would create an interface for the target Classes (album, film etc): Interface canBePreferred{ hasMany preferences } And implement all of those classes. This could work, but it looks pretty ugly and it would requires a lot of joins to work. Do you have some patterns I could use to model this nicely? Cheers, Mulone

    Read the article

  • .NET binary serialization conditionally without ISerializable

    - by SillyWhy
    I got 2 classes, for example: public class A { private B b; ... } public class B { ... } I need to serialize an object A using BinaryFormatter. When remoting it shall include the field b, but not when serialize to file. Here is what I added: [Serializable] public class A : MarshalByRefObject { private B b; [OnSerializing] private void OnSerializing(StreamingContext context) { if (context.State == StreamingContextStates.File) { this.b = null; } } ... } [Serializable] public class B : MarshalByRefObject { ... } I think this is a bad design because if another class C also contains B, in class C we must add the duplicate OnSerializing() logic as in A. Class B should decide what to do, not class A or C. I don't want to use ISerializable interface because there are too many variables in class B have to be added to SerializationInfo. I can create a SerializationSurrogate for class B, which perform nothing in GetObjectData() & SetObjectData(), then use it when serializing to file. However the same maintenance issue because whoever modify class B can't notice what going to happen during serialization & the existence of SerializationSurrogate. Is there a better alternative?

    Read the article

  • What are the original reasons for ToString() in Java and .NET?

    - by d.
    I've used ToString() modestly in the past and I've found it very useful in many circumstances. However, my usage of this method would hardly justify to put this method in none other than System.Object. My wild guess is that, at some point during the work carried out and meetings held to come up with the initial design of the .NET framework, it was decided that it was necessary - or at least extremely useful - to include a ToString() method that would be implemented by everything in the .NET framework. Does anyone know what the exact reasons were? Am I missing a ton of situations where ToString() proves useful enough as to be part of System.Object? What were the original reasons for ToString()? Thanks a lot! PS - Again: I'm not questioning the method or implying that it's not useful, I'm just curious to know what makes it SO useful as to be placed in System.Object. Side note - Imagine this: AnyDotNetNativeClass someInitialObject = new AnyDotNetNativeClass([some constructor parameters]); AnyDotNetNativeClass initialObjectFullCopy = AnyDotNetNativeClass.FromString(someInitialObject.ToString()); Wouldn't this be cool? EDIT(1): (A) - Based on some answers, it seems that .NET languages inherited this from Java. So, I'm adding "Java" to the subject and to the tags as well. If someone knows the reasons why this was implemented in Java then please shed some light! (B) - Static hypothetical FromString vs Serialization: sure, but that's quite a different story, right?

    Read the article

  • Can Haskell's monads be thought of as using and returning a hidden state parameter?

    - by AJM
    I don't understand the exact algebra and theory behind Haskell's monads. However, when I think about functional programming in general I get the impression that state would be modelled by taking an initial state and generating a copy of it to represent the next state. This is like when one list is appended to another; neither list gets modified, but a third list is created and returned. Is it therefore valid to think of monadic operations as implicitly taking an initial state object as a parameter and implicitly returning a final state object? These state objects would be hidden so that the programmer doesn't have to worry about them and to control how they gets accessed. So, the programmer would not try to copy the object representing the IO stream as it was ten minutes ago. In other words, if we have this code: main = do putStrLn "Enter your name:" name <- getLine putStrLn ( "Hello " ++ name ) ...is it OK to think of the IO monad and the "do" syntax as representing this style of code? putStrLn :: IOState -> String -> IOState getLine :: IOState -> (IOState, String) main :: IOState -> IOState -- main returns an IOState we can call "state3" main state0 = putStrLn state2 ("Hello " ++ name) where (state2, name) = getLine state1 state1 = putStrLn state0 "Enter your name:"

    Read the article

  • Random number generation in MVC applications

    - by SlimShaggy
    What is the correct way of generating random numbers in an ASP.NET MVC application if I need exactly one number per request? According to MSDN, in order to get randomness of sufficient quality, it is necessary to generate multiple numbers using a single System.Random object, created once. Since a new instance of a controller class is created for each request in MVC, I cannot use a private field initialized in the controller's constructor for the Random object. So in what part of the MVC app should I create and store the Random object? Currently I store it in a static field of the controller class and lazily initialize it in the action method that uses it: public class HomeController : Controller { ... private static Random random; ... public ActionResult Download() { ... if (random == null) random = new Random(); ... } } Since the "random" field can be accessed by multiple instances of the controller class, is it possible for its value to become corrupted if two instances attempt to initialize it simultaneously? And one more question: I know that the lifetime of statics is the lifetime of the application, but in case of an MVC app what is it? Is it from IIS startup till IIS shutdown?

    Read the article

  • Pattern for version-specific implementations of a Java class

    - by Mike Monkiewicz
    So here's my conundrum. I am programming a tool that needs to work on old versions of our application. I have the code to the application, but can not alter any of the classes. To pull information out of our database, I have a DTO of sorts that is populated by Hibernate. It consumes a data object for version 1.0 of our app, cleverly named DataObject. Below is the DTO class. public class MyDTO { private MyWrapperClass wrapper; public MyDTO(DataObject data) { wrapper = new MyWrapperClass(data); } } The DTO is instantiated through a Hibernate query as follows: select new com.foo.bar.MyDTO(t1.data) from mytable t1 Now, a little logic is needed on top of the data object, so I made a wrapper class for it. Note the DTO stores an instance of the wrapper class, not the original data object. public class MyWrapperClass { private DataObject data; public MyWrapperClass(DataObject data) { this.data = data; } public String doSomethingImportant() { ... version-specific logic ... } } This works well until I need to work on version 2.0 of our application. Now DataObject in the two versions are very similar, but not the same. This resulted in different sub classes of MyWrapperClass, which implement their own version-specific doSomethingImportant(). Still doing okay. But how does myDTO instantiate the appropriate version-specific MyWrapperClass? Hibernate is in turn instantiating MyDTO, so it's not like I can @Autowire a dependency in Spring. I would love to reuse MyDTO (and my dozens of other DTOs) for both versions of the tool, without having to duplicate the class. Don't repeat yourself, and all that. I'm sure there's a very simple pattern I'm missing that would help this. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Hibernate: fetching multiple bags efficiently

    - by Jens Jansson
    Hi! I'm developing a multilingual application. For this reason many objects have in their name and description fields collections of something I call LocalizedStrings instead of plain strings. Every LocalizedString is basically a pair of a locale and a string localized to that locale. Let's take an example an entity, let's say a book -object. public class Book{ @OneToMany private List<LocalizedString> names; @OneToMany private List<LocalizedString> description; //and so on... } When a user asks for a list of books, it does a query to get all the books, fetches the name and description of every book in the locale the user has selected to run the app in, and displays it back to the user. This works but it is a major performance issue. For the moment hibernate makes one query to fetch all the books, and after that it goes through every single object and asks hibernate for the localized strings for that specific object, resulting in a "n+1 select problem". Fetching a list of 50 entities produces about 6000 rows of sql commands in my server log. I tried making the collections eager but that lead me to the "cannot simultaneously fetch multiple bags"-issue. Then I tried setting the fetch strategy on the collections to subselect, hoping that it would do one query for all books, and after that do one query that fetches all LocalizedStrings for all the books. Subselects didn't work in this case how i would have hoped and it basically just did exactly the same as my first case. I'm starting to run out of ideas on how to optimize this. So in short, what fetching strategy alternatives are there when you are fetching a collection and every element in that collection has one or multiple collections in itself, which has to be fetch simultaneously.

    Read the article

  • Why I can't get all UDP packets?

    - by Jack
    My program use UdpClient to try to receive 27 responses from 27 hosts. The size of the response is 10KB. My broadband incoming bandwidth is 150KB/s. The 27 responses are sent from the hosts almost at the same time and for every 10 secs. However, I can only receive 8 - 17 responses each time. The number of responses that I can receive is quite dynamic but within the range. Can anyone tell me why? why can't I receive all? I understand UDP is not reliable. but I tried receiving 5 - 10 responses at the same time, it worked. I guess the network links are not so bad. The code is very simple. ON the 27 hosts, I just use UdpClient to send 10KB to my machine. On my machine, I have one UdpClient receive datagrams. Each time I get a data, I create a thread to handle it (basically handling it means just print out "I received 10KB", but it runs in a thread). listener = new UDPListener(Port); listener.Start(); while (true) { try { UDPContext context = listener.Accept(); ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(new WaitCallback(HandleMessage), context); } catch (Exception) { } } If I reduce the size of the response down to 3KB, the case gets much better that roughly 25 responses can be received. Any more idea? UDP buffer problems???

    Read the article

  • Can tomcat perform ssl redirection by filtering host alias?

    - by Stephen
    Hi, We have a tomcat server (6.0.20) running one web application behind two urls, e.g. www.foo and secure.foo This is configured in the server.xml as one host with a single alias: <Host name="www.foo" appBase="webapps"> <Context docBase="foo" path=""></Context> <Alias>secure.foo</Alias> </Host> Ideally we'd like any requests to secure.foo on port 80 to be automatically redirected to use ssl. However, I can only find instructions for redirecting based on the path after the hostname, so I could add a /* security constraint but then this would apply to both urls. Does anyone know if it's possible to apply the redirection by filtering on hostname requested? (We've already got the ssl connector, certificate, etc. working ok). I know we could do it by sticking an apache server in front of tomcat and handling the redirection there, but I'm curious to know if tomcat can do this on its own. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Link Button on asp.net user control not firing

    - by andyriome
    Hi I have a user control, which is added to another user control. The nested user control is built up of a gridview, an image button and a link button. The nested user control is added to the outer control as a collection object based upon the results bound to the gridview. The problem that I have is that my link button doesn't work. I click on it and the event doesn't fire. Even adding a break point was not reached. As the nested user control is added a number of times, I have set image button to have unique ids and also the link button. Whilst image button works correctly with its java script. The link button needs to fire an event in the code behind, but despite all my efforts, I can't make it work. I am adding the link button to the control dynamically. Below is the relevant code that I am using: public partial class ucCustomerDetails : System.Web.UI.UserControl { protected override void CreateChildControls( ) { base.CreateChildControls( ); string strUniqueID = lnkShowAllCust.UniqueID; strUniqueID = strUniqueID.Replace('$','_'); this.lnkShowAllCust.ID = strUniqueID; this.lnkShowAllCust.Click += new EventHandler(this.lnkShowAllCust_Click); this.Controls.Add(lnkShowAllCust); } protected override void OnInit (EventArgs e) { CreateChildControls( ); base.OnInit(e); } protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { base.EnsureChildControls( ); } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (IsPostBack) { CreateChildControls( ); } } protected void lnkShowAllCust_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.OnCustShowAllClicked(new EventArgs ( )); } protected virtual void OnCustShowAllClicked(EventArgs args) { if (this.ViewAllClicked != null) { this.ViewAllClicked(this, args); } } public event EventHandler ViewAllClicked; } I have been stuggling with this problem for the last 3 days and have had no success with it, and I really do need some help. Can anyone please help me?

    Read the article

  • How to Develop Dynamic Plug-In Based Functionality in C#

    - by Matthew
    Hello: I've been looking around for different methods of providing plug-in support for my application. Ideally, I will be creating a core functionality and based on different customers developing different plug-ins/addons such as importing, exporting data etc... What are the some methods available for making a C# application extensible via a plug-in architecture? Lets make up an example. If we have a program that consists of a main menu ( File, Edit, View, et al. ) along with a TreeView that displays different brands of cars grouped by manufacturer ( Ford, GM, for now). Right clicking on a car displays a context menu with the only option being 'delete car'. How could you develop the application so that plug-ins could be deployed so that you could allow one customer to see a new brand in the TreeView, let's say Honda, and also extent the car context menu so that they may now 'paint a car'? In Eclipse/RCP development this is easily handled by extension points and plug-ins. How does C# handle it? I've been looking into developing my own plug-in architecture and reading up on MEF.

    Read the article

  • Constructor and Destructors in C++ work?

    - by Jack
    I am using gcc. Please tell me if I am wrong - Lets say I have two classes A & B class A { public: A(){cout<<"A constructor"<<endl;} ~A(){cout<<"A destructor"<<endl;} }; class B:public A { public: B(){cout<<"B constructor"<<endl;} ~B(){cout<<"B destructor"<<endl;} }; 1) The first line in B's constructor should be a call to A's constructor ( I assume compiler automatically inserts it). Also the last line in B's destructor will be a call to A's destructor (compiler does it again). Why was it built this way? 2) When I say A * a = new B(); compiler creates a new B object and checks to see if A is a base class of B and if it is it allows 'a' to point to the newly created object. I guess that is why we don't need any virtual constructors. ( with help from @Tyler McHenry , @Konrad Rudolph) 3) When I write delete a compiler sees that a is an object of type A so it calls A's destructor leading to a problem which is solved by making A's destructor virtual. As user - Little Bobby Tables pointed out to me all destructors have the same name destroy() in memory so we can implement virtual destructors and now the call is made to B's destructor and all is well in C++ land. Please comment.

    Read the article

  • Doctrine: How to traverse from an entity to another 'linked' entity?

    - by ropstah
    I'm loading 3 different tables using a cross-join in Doctrine_RawSql. This brings me back the following object: User -> User class (doctrine base class) Settings -> DoctrineCollection of Setting User_Settings -> DoctrineCollection of User_Setting The object above is the result of a many-to-many relationship between User and Setting where User_Setting acts as a reference table. User_Setting also contains another field named value. This obviously contains the value of the corresponding Setting. All good so far, however the Settings and User_Settings properties of the returned User object are in no way linked to each other (apart from the setting_id field ofcourse). Is there any direct way to traverse directly from the Settings property to the corresponding User_Settings property? This is the corresponding query: $sets = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $sets->select('{us.*}, {s.*}, {uset.*}') ->from('(User us CROSS JOIN Setting s) LEFT JOIN User_Setting uset ON us.user_id = uset.user_id AND s.setting_id = uset.setting_id') ->addComponent('us', 'User us') ->addComponent('uset', 'us.User_Setting uset') ->addComponent('s', 'us.Setting s') ->where('s.category_id = ? AND us.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, 1)); $sets = $sets->execute();

    Read the article

  • How to force my method to accept objects from external software?

    - by Roman
    I have a method which needs to take a callback object as an argument and then (at the moment when it's needed) my method will call a specific method of the callback object. I wrote a class called Manager which has a method called addListener. As the argument for this method I need to use a callback object which is defined by the external software. So, I define the addListener in the following way: public void addListener(Listener listener). Of course Eclipse complains because it does not know what Listener is (because the Listener is defined by the external software). The only think that I know (should know) about the Listener is that it has a method called doSomething. So, to pleasure Eclipse I add an interface before my Manager class: interface Listener { void doSomething(); } public class CTManager { ... The problem seems to be solved but then I try to test my software. So, I create a class called test. In this class I create an instance of the Manager class and try to use addListener method of this instance. I also create a class Listener, instantiate it and give the instance to the addListener. And it's the place where the problem appears. Eclipse writes that addListener is not applicable to the given argument. I think it's because it expect something from my Listenr interface but gets something from the Listener class. How can I solve this problem?

    Read the article

  • WCF data services - Limiting related objects returned based on critera

    - by Mike Morley
    I have an object graph consisting of a base employee object, and a set of related message objects. I am able to return the employee objects based on search criteria on the employee properties (eg team) etc. However, if I expand on the messages, I get the full collection of messages back. I would like to be able to either take the top n messages (i.e. restrict to 10 most recent) or ideally use a date range on the message objects to limit how many are brought back. So far I have not been able to figure out a way of doing this: I get an error if I attempt to filter on properties on the message (&$filter=employee/message/StartDate gives an error "No property 'StartDate' exists in type 'System.Data.Objects.DataClasses.EntityCollection`1). Attempting to use Top on the message related object doesn't work either. I have also tried using a WebGet extension that takes a string list of employee IDs. That works until the list gets too long, and then fails due to the URL getting too long (it might be possible to setup a paging mechanism on this approach)... Unfortunately the UI control I am using requires the data to be in a fairly specific hierarchical shape, so I can't easily come at this from starting on the message side and working backwards. Outside of making multiple calls does anyone know of a method to accomplish this with wcf data services? Thanks! M.

    Read the article

  • Unit Testing an Event Firing From a Thread

    - by Dougc
    I'm having a problem unit testing a class which fires events when a thread starts and finishes. A cut down version of the offending source is as follows: public class ThreadRunner { private bool keepRunning; public event EventHandler Started; public event EventHandler Finished; public void StartThreadTest() { this.keepRunning = true; var thread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(this.LongRunningMethod)); thread.Start(); } public void FinishThreadTest() { this.keepRunning = false; } protected void OnStarted() { if (this.Started != null) this.Started(this, new EventArgs()); } protected void OnFinished() { if (this.Finished != null) this.Finished(this, new EventArgs()); } private void LongRunningMethod() { this.OnStarted(); while (this.keepRunning) Thread.Sleep(100); this.OnFinished(); } } I then have a test to check that the Finished event fires after the LongRunningMethod has finished as follows: [TestClass] public class ThreadRunnerTests { [TestMethod] public void CheckFinishedEventFiresTest() { var threadTest = new ThreadRunner(); bool finished = false; object locker = new object(); threadTest.Finished += delegate(object sender, EventArgs e) { lock (locker) { finished = true; Monitor.Pulse(locker); } }; threadTest.StartThreadTest(); threadTest.FinishThreadTest(); lock (locker) { Monitor.Wait(locker, 1000); Assert.IsTrue(finished); } } } So the idea here being that the test will block for a maximum of one second - or until the Finish event is fired - before checking whether the finished flag is set. Clearly I've done something wrong as sometimes the test will pass, sometimes it won't. Debugging seems very difficult as well as the breakpoints I'd expect to be hit (the OnFinished method, for example) don't always seem to be. I'm assuming this is just my misunderstanding of the way threading works, so hopefully someone can enlighten me.

    Read the article

  • Capturing wildcards in java generics

    - by Rollerball
    From this orcale java tutorial: The WildcardError example produces a capture error when compiled: import java.util.List; public class WildcardError { void foo(List<?> i) { i.set(0, i.get(0)); } } After this error demonstration, they fix the problem by using a helper method: public class WildcardFixed { void foo(List<?> i) { fooHelper(i); } // Helper method created so that the wildcard can be captured // through type inference. private <T> void fooHelper(List<T> l) { l.set(0, l.get(0)); } } First, they say that the list input parameter (i) is seen as an Object: In this example, the compiler processes the i input parameter as being of type Object. Why then i.get(0) does not return an Object? if it was already passed in as such? Furthermore what is the point of using a <?> when then you have to use an helper method using <T>. Would not be better using directly which can be inferred?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539 540 541  | Next Page >