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  • How to prevent onclick statements from being executed?

    - by ryanli
    I want to use an event listener for preventing the onclick statement of a submit button, however, using event.preventDefault() doesn't work as intended. The code is like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <script type="application/x-javascript"> function addListener() { document.getElementById("submit").addEventListener("click", function(ev) { alert("listener"); ev.preventDefault(); }, false); } </script> <title></title> </head> <body onload="addListener();"> <form id="form" method="post" target=""> <input type="submit" id="submit" onclick="alert('onclick')" value="test" /> </form> </body> </html> The expected behaviour is only "listener" will be alerted, but in practice (Firefox 3.7a5pre), "onclick" and "listener" are both alerted, in the given order. It seems that onclick is being executed before the listener, so event.preventDefault() doesn't work. Is there a way to prevent onclick from being executed?

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  • Properly obsoleting old members in an XML Serializable class in C# VB .NET

    - by George
    Hi! Some time ago I defined a class that was serialized using XML. That class contained a serializable propertyA of integer type. Now I have extended and updated this class, whereby a new propertyB was added, whose type is another class that also has several serializable properties. The new propertyB is now supposed to play the role of propertyA, that is since type of propertyB is another class, one of its members would contain the value that previously propertyA contained, thus making peroptyA obsolete. What I am trying to figure out is how do I make sure that when I desireliaze the OLD version of this class (without propertyB in it), I make sure that the desreializer would take the value of propertyA from the old calss and set it as a value of one of the members of propertyB in a new class? Private WithEvents _Position As Position = New Position(Alignment.MiddleMiddle, 0, True, 0, True) Public Property Position() As Position 'NEW composite property that holds the value of the obsolted property, i.e. Alignment Get Return _Position End Get Set(ByVal value As Position) _Position = value End Set End Property Private _Alignment As Alignment = Alignment.MiddleMiddle <Xml.Serialization.XmlIgnore(), Obsolete("Use Position property instead.")> _ Public Property Alignment() As Alignment'The old, obsoleted property that I guess must be left for compliance with deserializing the old version of this class Get Return _Alignment End Get Set(ByVal value As Alignment) _Alignment = value End Set End Property Can you help me, please?

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  • How to save enum settings in Visual Studio project properties?

    - by zaidwaqi
    Hi, In the Settings tab in Visual Studio, I can see Name, Type, Scope, Value table. Define settings is intuitive if the data type is already within the Type drop-down list i.e. integer, string, long etc. But I can't find enum anywhere. How do I save enum settings then? For now, I have the following which clutter my code too much. public enum Action { LOCK = 9, FORCED_LOGOFF = 12, SHUTDOWN = 14, REBOOT, LOGOFF = FORCED_LOGOFF }; and I define Action as int in the setting. Then I have to do, switch (Properties.Settings.Default.Action) { case 9: SetAction(Action.LOCK); break; case 12: SetAction(Action.FORCED_LOGOFF); break; case 14: SetAction(Action.SHUTDOWN); break; case 15: SetAction(Action.REBOOT); break; default: SetAction(Action.LOCK); break; } Would be nice if I could simply do something like SetAction(Properties.Settings.Default.Action); to replace all above but I dont know how to save enum in setting. Hope my question is clear. Thanks.

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  • Why doesn't JQuery hover animate work in this example

    - by Christian
    When I hover over the box it doesn't change it's caller as I intent. What's wrong? <html> <head><title>test</title></head> <style type="text/css" > .box_type1{ width:560px; height:560px; background-color:#b0c4de; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('.box_type1').hover( function () { $(this).stop().animate({backgroundColor:'#4E1402'}, 300); }, function () { $(this).stop().animate({backgroundColor:'#943D20'}, 100); }); }); </script> <body> </div> <div class="box_type1"> </div> </body> </html>

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  • Why <textarea> and <textfield> not taking font-family and font-size from body?

    - by metal-gear-solid
    Why Textarea and textfield not taking font-family and font-size from body? See live example here http://jsbin.com/ucano4 Code <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>texearea font</title> <style type="text/css"> body { font-family: Verdana, Geneva, sans-serif; font-size:16px } </style> </head> <body> <form action="" method="get"> <textarea name="" cols="20" rows="4"></textarea> <input name="" type="text" /> </form> <p>some text here</p> </body> </html> If it's a usual behavior then should i write in css like this. i need same style in all body,textarea,input { font-family: Verdana, Geneva, sans-serif; font-size:16px } And how many other elements in XHTML which will not take font styling from body {....}?

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  • Const Discards Qualifers: C++

    - by user991673
    I'm using OpenGL to render camera perspectives, and a one point in my code I'm trying to take the direction of the light (shown here as type "Vector4") and multiply it by a matrix of type "Matrix4x4" that represents the Modelview transformation (sorry if this is not making any sense, this is for a school project, as such I'm still learning about this stuff) Anyway, my code goes as follows... Vector4 lightDirection = data->dir * follow->getModelviewMatrix().getInverse().getTranspose(); data->dir = lightDirection; setLight(*data); this give me the following error: passing 'const vec4<double>' as 'this' argument of 'vec4<T>& vec4<T>::operator=(const vec4<T>&)[with T = double]' discards qualifiers Again, much of this code is prewritten for the class (namely the vector and matrix types) but if someone could just help me decipher what the error means it would be much appreciated! I can give more information as needed. I figured 'data' or 'data-dir' were const, however I can find no mention of either of them to be. 'dir' is of type SceneLightData, and when its added on I'm doing this: void Scene::addLight(const SceneLightData &sceneLight) { SceneLightData light = sceneLight; m_lights.push_back(&light); } The error occurs on this line: data->dir = lightDirection; EDIT problem solved. thanks everyone! solution: void Scene::addLight(const SceneLightData &sceneLight) { SceneLightData* light = new SceneLightData; *light = sceneLight; m_lights.push_back(light); } and SceneLightData* data = m_lights[i]; data->dir = data->dir * follow->getModelviewMatrix().getInverse().getTranspose(); setLight(*data);

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  • Getting information from servlet created html

    - by user541597
    I have a servlet that creates an html text box and then redirects to another servlet on submit. How can I access the value of the html text box from the new servlet? I am able to access servlet variables from the new servlet but I am not aware of how to access the value of the html generated code. thanks, Here is the servlet that gets the text input public class ServletB extends HttpServlet { public void doGet(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws IOException, ServletException { response.setContentType("text/html"); String value = System.getProperty("card"); PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); out.println("<center><h1>Your preffered method of payment is "+value+"</h1><br />"); out.println("Please Enter Card Number<input type =\"text\" name = \"number\"/><form action=\"http://codd.cs.gsu.edu:9999/cpereyra183/servlet/ServletC\"><input type =\"submit\" value=\"Continue\" /><input type=\"button\" value=\"Cancel\" /></center>"); } }} This is the servlet the first servlet redirects to all I do is try to do is output the text input public class ServletC extends HttpServlet { public void doGet(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws IOException, ServletException { response.setContentType("text/html"); String value = System.getProperty("card"); PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); out.println(request.getParameter("number")); } }

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  • posting form with file upload

    - by Jan
    I am having trouble with uploading a file when using jquery. I have the following HTML in a form. <fieldset> <ul> <li> <div class="field"><input size="35" type="file" name="formFile" id="formFile"/></div> </li> <li> <div class="field"><input size="35" type="text" name="formFileName" id="formFileName" /></div> </li> </ul> </fieldset> To post the data I am using $('#myForm').ajaxForm( When I post the data and the recieved data contains some javascript, the javascript is not recognised. I expected the javscriptcode to run when the data is recieved, but it happens to early. The results indicates that $ or jquery could not be found. If I remove the name attribute from the input type=file element, there are no errors, but that is not the correct solution. How could this happen?

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  • Should I still be using jquery .getJson in 1.4.2?

    - by chobo2
    Hi I was looking at the 14 days of jquery http://jquery14.com/day-01/jquery-14 and I saw this and it got me to wondering is there a point to use getJson anymore? JSON and script types auto-detected by content-type (jQuery.ajax Documentation, Commit 1, Commit 2) If the response to an Ajax request is returned with a JSON mime type (application/json), the dataType defaults to “json” (if no dataType is specified). Additionally, if the response to an Ajax request is returned with a JavaScript mime type (text/javascript or application/x-javascript) , the dataType defaults to “script” (if no dataType is specified), causing the script to automatically execute. First I can see such a huge benefit of this. In jquery 1.3 I came to a situation where in some cases I would return a partial view and some cases I would return a json result (asp.net mvc). It worked in firefox but in no other browser and one of the problems was I basically had to tell jquery to either do json or text/html. With it automatically detecting I could get away with this. Anyways I found a solution around this at that time. So now it just makes me wonder if there is any point to using GetJson. I am also unsure how to set these JavaScript mime types? I am assuming that if you return a JsonResult from asp.net mvc it will set it. but I am not sure if I was just sending a text result if it would be set( I am not sure if ContentResult would set this).

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  • getting page info from a webpage while sharing facebook style

    - by user556167
    Hi all. I am writing an app to share a page to friends when browsing. To this end, I can get the url of the page to my app and display it on the screen. Could anyone tell me, how to improve this, to show the headline of the page and the picture of a page as it appears when a page is being shared to friends on facebook. Here is the code to get and display the url of the page: Intent intent = getIntent(); String action = intent.getAction(); String type = intent.getType(); String mNewLinkUrl=""; if (action != null && type != null && Intent.ACTION_SEND.equals(action) && "text/plain".equals(type)){ mNewLinkUrl = intent.getStringExtra(Intent.EXTRA_TEXT); } TextView ptext = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.pagetext); ptext.append("\n"+mNewLinkUrl); Any insight will be appreciated. //update 1 found a method: use Jsoup to download the html as a Document. And use Elements and Element to get the data. For eg, the following is the code to get the links in imports in the html page: Elements imports = doc.select("link[href]"); for (Element link : imports) { Log.d(TAG,"link.tagName()"+link.tagName()+"link.attr(abs:href)"+link.attr("abs:href") +"link.attr(rel)"+link.attr("rel")); } But I am not able to figure out what attributes facebook exactly gets. Can anyone help me in this? Thank you.

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  • VB.NET CInt(Long) behaving differently in 32- and 64-bit environments

    - by LocoDelAssembly
    Hello everybody, this is my first message here. Today I had a problem converting a Long (Int64) to an Integer (Int32). The problem is that my code was always working in 32-bit environments, but when I try THE SAME executable in a 64-bit computer it crashes with a System.OverflowException exception. I've prepared this test code in VS2008 in a new project with default settings: Module Module1 Sub Main() Dim alpha As Long = -1 Dim delta As Integer Try delta = CInt(alpha And UInteger.MaxValue) Console.WriteLine("CINT OK") delta = Convert.ToInt32(alpha And UInteger.MaxValue) Console.WriteLine("Convert.ToInt32 OK") Catch ex As Exception Console.WriteLine(ex.GetType().ToString()) Finally Console.ReadLine() End Try End Sub End Module On my 32-bit setups (Windows XP SP3 32-bit and Windows 7 32-bit) it prints "CINT OK", but in the 64-bit computer (Windows 7 64-bit) that I've tested THE SAME executable it prints the exception name only. Is this behavior documented? I tried to find a reference but failed miserably. For reference I leave the MSIL code too: .method public static void Main() cil managed { .entrypoint .custom instance void [mscorlib]System.STAThreadAttribute::.ctor() = ( 01 00 00 00 ) // Code size 88 (0x58) .maxstack 2 .locals init ([0] int64 alpha, [1] int32 delta, [2] class [mscorlib]System.Exception ex) IL_0000: nop IL_0001: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0002: conv.i8 IL_0003: stloc.0 IL_0004: nop .try { .try { IL_0005: ldloc.0 IL_0006: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0007: conv.u8 IL_0008: and IL_0009: conv.ovf.i4 IL_000a: stloc.1 IL_000b: ldstr "CINT OK" IL_0010: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_0015: nop IL_0016: ldloc.0 IL_0017: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0018: conv.u8 IL_0019: and IL_001a: call int32 [mscorlib]System.Convert::ToInt32(int64) IL_001f: stloc.1 IL_0020: ldstr "Convert.ToInt32 OK" IL_0025: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_002a: nop IL_002b: leave.s IL_0055 } // end .try catch [mscorlib]System.Exception { IL_002d: dup IL_002e: call void [Microsoft.VisualBasic]Microsoft.VisualBasic.CompilerServices.ProjectData::SetProjectError(class [mscorlib]System.Exception) IL_0033: stloc.2 IL_0034: nop IL_0035: ldloc.2 IL_0036: callvirt instance class [mscorlib]System.Type [mscorlib]System.Exception::GetType() IL_003b: callvirt instance string [mscorlib]System.Type::ToString() IL_0040: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_0045: nop IL_0046: call void [Microsoft.VisualBasic]Microsoft.VisualBasic.CompilerServices.ProjectData::ClearProjectError() IL_004b: leave.s IL_0055 } // end handler } // end .try finally { IL_004d: nop IL_004e: call string [mscorlib]System.Console::ReadLine() IL_0053: pop IL_0054: endfinally } // end handler IL_0055: nop IL_0056: nop IL_0057: ret } // end of method Module1::Main I suspect that the instruction that is behaving differently is either conv.ovf.i4 or the ldc.i4.m1/conv.u8 pair. If you know what is going on here please let me know Thanks

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  • C++ Conceptual problem with (Pointer) Pointers

    - by Ptr
    I have a structure usually containing a pointer to an int. However, in some special cases, it is necessary that this int pointer points to another pointer which then points to an int. Wow: I mentioned the word pointer 5 times so far! Is this even possible? I thought about it that way: Instead of using a second int pointer, which is most likely not possible as my main int pointer can only point to an int and not to another int pointer, I could make it a reference like this: int intA = 1; int intB = 2; int& intC = intB; int* myPointers[ 123 ]; myPointers[ 0 ] = &intA; myPointers[ 1 ] = &intB; myPointers[ 3 ] = &intC; So the above would do what I want: The reference to intB (intC) behaves quite like I want it to (If it gets changed it also changes intB) The problem: I can't change references once they are set, right? Or is there a way? Everything in short: How do I get a value to work with * (pointers) and ** (pointers to pointers)?

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  • Is a server side script necessary to process a form?

    - by jitendra
    Is a server side script necessary to send a form to email? For example, suppose I want to submit this form. Is it only possible with php asp.net etc. or it can be done with javascript only? <HTML> <HEAD> <TITLE>HTML form tutorial example</TITLE> </HEAD> <BODY> <H1>HTML form tutorial example</H1> <FORM> Name: <INPUT TYPE="TEXT" NAME="Name" VALUE="" SIZE="25" MAXLENGTH="50"> <BR> Email: <INPUT TYPE="TEXT" NAME="Email" VALUE="" SIZE="25" MAXLENGTH="50"><BR> <INPUT TYPE="SUBMIT" NAME="submit" VALUE="Sign Me Up!"> </FORM> </BODY> </HTML>

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  • mvc design in a card game

    - by Hong
    I'm trying to make a card game. some classes I have are: CardModel, CardView; DeckModel, DeckView. The deck model has a list of card model, According to MVC, if I want to send a card to a deck, I can add the card model to the deck model, and the card view will be added to the deck view by a event handler. So I have a addCard(CardModel m) in the DeckModel class, but if I want to send a event to add the card view of that model to the deck view, I only know let the model has a reference to view. So the question is: If the card model and deck model have to have a reference to their view classes to do it? If not, how to do it better? Update, the code: public class DeckModel { private ArrayList<CardModel> cards; private ArrayList<EventHandler> actionEventHandlerList; public void addCard(CardModel card){ cards.add(card); //processEvent(event x); //must I pass a event that contain card view here? } CardModel getCards(int index){ return cards.get(index); } public synchronized void addEventHandler(EventHandler l){ if(actionEventHandlerList == null) actionEventHandlerList = new ArrayList<EventHandler>(); if(!actionEventHandlerList.contains(l)) actionEventHandlerList.add(l); } public synchronized void removeEventHandler(EventHandler l){ if(actionEventHandlerList!= null && actionEventHandlerList.contains(l)) actionEventHandlerList.remove(l); } private void processEvent(Event e){ ArrayList list; synchronized(this){ if(actionEventHandlerList!= null) list = (ArrayList)actionEventHandlerList.clone(); else return; } for(int i=0; i<actionEventHandlerList.size(); ++i){ actionEventHandlerList.get(i).handle(e); } } }

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  • Faster Javascript text replace

    - by Stacey
    Given the following javascript (jquery) $("#username").keyup(function () { selected.username = $("#username").val(); var url = selected.protocol + (selected.prepend == true ? selected.username : selected.url) + "/" + (selected.prepend == true ? selected.url : selected.username); $("#identifier").val(url); }); This code basically reads a textbox (username), and when it is typed into, it reconstructs the url that is being displayed in another textbox (identifier). This works fine - there are no problems with its functionality. However it feels 'slow' and 'sluggish'. Is there a cleaner/faster way to accomplish this task? Here is the HTML as requested. <fieldset class="identifier delta"> <form action="/authenticate/openid" method="post" target="_top" > <input type="text" class="openid" id="identifier" name="identifier" readonly="readonly" /> <input type='text' id='username' name='username' class="left" style='display: none;'/> <input type="submit" value="Login" style="height: 32px; padding-top: 1px; margin-right: 0px;" class="login right" /> </form> </fieldset> The identifier textbox just has a value set based on the hyperlink anchor of a button.

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  • Make form redirect users after posting

    - by Liso22
    I need to change a form so that instead of reloading the page after submitting it, it redirects the user to another page, this is the form: <form class="questionform" name="questionform-0" id="questionform-0"> <textarea class="question-box" cols="12" rows="5" id="question-box-' . $questionformid . '" name="title" type="text" maxlength="200" size="28"></textarea> <input type="text" class="ubicacion" value="" name="question"> <input type="button" name="ask" value="Publicar" onclick="askquestion('questionform-0'); window.location.reload(true);"> I want to remove the window.location.reload and change it for a redirect that sends users to the page their comment will appear. Which is: www.chusmix.com/s?= (the content of the second field) The problem is that the content of the second field is part of the url I want to redirect, it's not simply always the same URL. So I have no idea how to do it. How do I do it? Anyway thanks for any info or whatever that points me on the right direction. Thanks

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  • JavaScript: Is there a better way to retain your array but efficiently concat or replace items?

    - by Michael Mikowski
    I am looking for the best way to replace or add to elements of an array without deleting the original reference. Here is the set up: var a = [], b = [], c, i, obj; for ( i = 0; i < 100000; i++ ) { a[ i ] = i; b[ i ] = 10000 - i; } obj.data_list = a; Now we want to concatenate b INTO a without changing the reference to a, since it is used in obj.data_list. Here is one method: for ( i = 0; i < b.length; i++ ) { a.push( b[ i ] ); } This seems to be a somewhat terser and 8x (on V8) faster method: a.splice.apply( a, [ a.length, 0 ].concat( b ) ); I have found this useful when iterating over an "in-place" array and don't want to touch the elements as I go (a good practice). I start a new array (let's call it keep_list) with the initial arguments and then add the elements I wish to retain. Finally I use this apply method to quickly replace the truncated array: var keep_list = [ 0, 0 ]; for ( i = 0; i < a.length; i++ ){ if ( some_condition ){ keep_list.push( a[ i ] ); } // truncate array a.length = 0; // And replace contents a.splice.apply( a, keep_list ); There are a few problems with this solution: there is a max call stack size limit of around 50k on V8 I have not tested on other JS engines yet. This solution is a bit cryptic Has anyone found a better way?

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  • Returning JSON or XML for Exceptions in Jersey

    - by Dominic
    My goal is to have an error bean returned on a 404 with a descriptive message when a object is not found, and return the same MIME type that was requested. I have a look up resource, which will return the specified object in XML or JSON based on the URI (I have setup the com.sun.jersey.config.property.resourceConfigClass servlet parameter so I dont need the Accept header. My JAXBContextResolver has the ErrorBean.class in its list of types, and the correct JAXBContext is returned for this class because I can see in the logs). eg: http://foobar.com/rest/locations/1.json @GET @Path("{id}") @Produces({MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON, MediaType.APPLICATION_XML}) public Location getCustomer(@PathParam("id") int cId) { //look up location from datastore .... if (location == null) { throw new NotFoundException("Location" + cId + " is not found"); } } And my NotFoundException looks like this: public class NotFoundException extends WebApplicationException { public NotFoundException(String message) { super(Response.status(Response.Status.NOT_FOUND). entity(new ErrorBean( message, Response.Status.NOT_FOUND.getStatusCode() ) .build()); } } The ErrorBean is as follows: @XmlRootElement(name = "error") public class ErrorBean { private String errorMsg; private int errorCode; //no-arg constructor, property constructor, getter and setters ... } However, I'm always getting a 204 No Content response when I try this. I have hacked around, and if I return a string and specify the mime type this works fine: public NotFoundException(String message) { super(Response.status(Response.Status.NOT_FOUND). entity(message).type("text/plain").build()); } I have also tried returning an ErrorBean as a resource. This works fine: {"errorCode":404,"errorMsg":"Location 1 is not found!"}

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  • Zip multiple database PDF blob files

    - by Michael
    I have a database table that contains numerous PDF blob files. I am attempting to combine all of the files into a single ZIP file that I can download and then print. Please help! <?php include '../config.php'; include '../connect.php'; $session = $_GET['session']; $query = "SELECT $tbl_uploads.username, $tbl_uploads.description, $tbl_uploads.type, $tbl_uploads.size, $tbl_uploads.content, $tbl_members.session FROM $tbl_uploads LEFT JOIN $tbl_members ON $tbl_uploads.username = $tbl_members.username WHERE $tbl_members.session = '$session'"; $result = mysql_query($query) or die('Error, query failed'); $files = array(); while(list($username, $description, $type, $size, $content) = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $files[] = "$username-$description.pdf"; } $zip = new ZipArchive; $zip->open('file.zip', ZipArchive::CREATE); foreach ($files as $file) { $zip->addFile($file); } $zip->close(); header('Content-Type: application/zip'); header('Content-disposition: attachment; filename=filename.zip'); header('Content-Length: ' . filesize($zipfilename)); readfile($zipname); exit(); ?>

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  • Convert C# (with typed events) to VB.NET

    - by Steven
    I have an ASPX page (with VB Codebehind). I would like to extend the GridView class to show the header / footer when no rows are returned. I found a C# example online (link) (source). However, I cannot convert it to VB because it uses typed events (which are not legal in VB). I have tried several free C# to VB.NET converters online, but none have worked. Please convert the example to VB.NET or provide an alternate method of extending the GridView class. Notes / Difficulties: If you get an error with DataView objects, specify the type as System.Data.DataView and the type comparison could be the following: If data.[GetType]() Is GetType(System.Data.DataView) Then Since the event MustAddARow cannot have a type in VB (and RaiseEvent event doesn't have a return value), how can I compare it to Nothing in the function OnMustAddARow()? EDIT: The following is a sample with (hopefully) relevant code to help answer the question. namespace AlwaysShowHeaderFooter { public delegate IEnumerable MustAddARowHandler(IEnumerable data); public class GridViewAlwaysShow : GridView { ////////////////////////////////////// // Various member functions omitted // ////////////////////////////////////// protected IEnumerable OnMustAddARow(IEnumerable data) { if (MustAddARow == null) { throw new NullReferenceException("The datasource has no rows. You must handle the \"MustAddARow\" Event."); } return MustAddARow(data); } public event MustAddARowHandler MustAddARow; } }

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  • Trouble accessing Mutable array

    - by Jared Gross
    Im having trouble with my for loop where I am trying to index user names. I am able to separate my original array into individual objects but am not able to send the value to a new array that I need to reference later on. The value and count for userNames in my self.userNamesArray = userNames; line is correct. But right after that when I log self.userNamesArray, I get (null). Any tips cause I'm not completely sure I'm cheers! .h @property (nonatomic, copy) NSMutableArray *userNamesArray; .m - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { self.friendsRelation = [[PFUser currentUser] objectForKey:@"friendsRelation"]; PFQuery *query = [self.friendsRelation query]; [query orderByAscending:@"username"]; [query findObjectsInBackgroundWithBlock:^(NSArray *objects, NSError *error) { if (error) { NSLog(@"Error: %@ %@", error, [error userInfo]); } else { self.friends = objects; NSArray *users = [self.friends valueForKey:@"username"]; NSLog(@"username:%@", users); //Create an array of name wrappers and pass to the root view controller. NSMutableArray *userNames = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:[self.friends count]]; for (NSString *user in users) { componentsSeparatedByCharactersInSet:charSet]; NSArray *nameComponents = [user componentsSeparatedByString:@" "]; UserNameWrapper *userNameWrapper = [[UserNameWrapper alloc] initWithUserName:nil nameComponents:nameComponents]; [userNames addObject:userNameWrapper]; } self.userNamesArray = userNames; NSLog(@"userNamesArray:%@",self.userNamesArray); [self.tableView reloadData]; } Here's the code where I need to reference the self.userNamesArray where again, it is comping up nil. - (void)setUserNamesArray:(NSMutableArray *)newDataArray { if (newDataArray != self.userNamesArray) { self.userNamesArray = [newDataArray mutableCopy]; if (self.userNamesArray == nil) { self.sectionsArray = nil; NSLog(@"user names empty"); } else { [self configureSections]; } } }

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  • Hibernate not loading associated object

    - by Noor
    Hi, i am trying to load a hibernate object ForumMessage but in it contain another object Users and the Users object is not being loaded. My ForumMessage Mapping File: <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE hibernate-mapping PUBLIC "-//Hibernate/Hibernate Mapping DTD 3.0//EN" "http://hibernate.sourceforge.net/hibernate-mapping-3.0.dtd"> <!-- Generated Jan 4, 2011 10:10:29 AM by Hibernate Tools 3.4.0.Beta1 --> <hibernate-mapping> <class name="com.BiddingSystem.Models.ForumMessage" table="FORUMMESSAGE"> <id name="ForumMessageId" type="long"> <column name="FORUMMESSAGEID" /> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="ForumMessage" type="java.lang.String"> <column name="FORUMMESSAGE" /> </property> <many-to-one name="User" class="com.BiddingSystem.Models.Users" fetch="join"> <column name="UserId" /> </many-to-one> <property name="DatePosted" type="java.util.Date"> <column name="DATEPOSTED" /> </property> <many-to-one name="Topic" class="com.BiddingSystem.Models.ForumTopic" fetch="join"> <column name="TopicId" /> </many-to-one> </class> </hibernate-mapping> and I am using the follwing code: Session session = gileadHibernateUtil.getSessionFactory().openSession(); SQL="from ForumMessage"; System.out.println(SQL); Query query=session.createQuery(SQL); System.out.println(query.list().size()); return new LinkedList <ForumMessage>(query.list());

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  • Saving Data to Relational Database (Entity Framework)

    - by sheefy
    I'm having a little bit of trouble saving data to a database. Basically, I have a main table that has associations to other tables (Example Below). Tbl_Listing ID UserID - Associated to ID in User Table CategoryID - Associated to ID in Category Table LevelID - Associated to ID in Level Table. Name Address Normally, it's easy for me to add data to the DB (using Entity Framework). However, I'm not sure how to add data to the fields with associations. The numerous ID fields just need to hold an int value that corresponds with the ID in the associated table. For example; when I try to access the column in the following manner I get a "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." error. Listing NewListing = new Listing(); NewListing.Tbl_User.ID = 1; NewListing.Tbl_Category.ID = 2; ... DBEntities.AddToListingSet(NewListing); DBEntities.SaveChanges(); I am using NewListing.Tbl_User.ID instead of NewListing.UserID because the UserID field is not available through intellisense. If I try and create an object for each related field I get a "The relationship between the two objects cannot be defined because they are attached to different ObjectContext objects." error. With this method, I am trying to add the object without the .ID shown above - example NewListing.User = UserObject. I know this should be simple as I just want to reference the ID from the associated table in the main Listing's table. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance, -S

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  • Design pattern for loading multiple message types

    - by lukem00
    As I was looking through SO I came across a question about handling multiple message types. My concern is - how do I load such a message in a neat way? I decided to have a separate class with a method which loads one message each time it's invoked. This method should create a new instance of a concrete message type (say AlphaMessage, BetaMessage, GammaMessage, etc.) and return it as a Message. class MessageLoader { public Message Load() { // ... } } The code inside the method is something which looks really awful to me and I would very much like to refactor it/get rid of it: Message msg = Message.Load(...); // load yourself from whatever source if (msg.Type == MessageType.Alpha) return new AlphaMessage(msg); if (msg.Type == MessageType.Beta) return new BetaMessage(msg); // ... In fact, if the whole design looks just too messy and you guys have a better solution, I'm ready to restructure the whole thing. If my description is too chaotic, please let me know what it's missing and I shall edit the question. Thank you all.

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  • Linq-to-sql join/where?

    - by Curtis White
    I've the following table structures Users id Types id isBool UsersTypes userid types I want to select all the UserTypes based on id and isBool. I tried this query var q = from usertype in usertypes from type in types where type.isBool == false where userstypes.user == id select usertype; But this did not work as expected. My questions are: Why? Is there any difference in using the join on syntax vs where, where vs where cond1 && cond2? My understanding is query optimizer will optimize. Is there any difference in using where cond1 == var1 && cond2 == var2 with and without the parenthesis? This seems peculiar that it is possible to build this without parenthesis What type of query do I need in this case? I can see that I could do a subquery or use a group but not 100% sure if it is required. An example might be helpful. I'm thinking a subquery may be required in this case.

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