Search Results

Search found 49860 results on 1995 pages for 'reference type'.

Page 527/1995 | < Previous Page | 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531 532 533 534  | Next Page >

• Updating iOS application content which include images

  - by azamsharp

  I am working on a Vegetable gardening application. Apart from the vegetable name and description I also have vegetable image. Currently, I have all the images in the Supported Files folder in the Xcode project. But later on I want to update the application dynamically without having the user download a new version. When the user updates the application or downloads new data from the server that data will include the images. Can I store those images in the supporting file folder or somewhere where they can be references by just the name. RELATED QUESTION: I will also allow the user to take pictures of their vegetables and then write notes about the vegetables like "just planted", "about to harvest" etc. What is the recommended approach for storing pictures/photos. I can always store them in the user's photo library and then store the reference in the local database and then fetch and display the picture using the reference. The problem with that approach might be that if the user accidentally deletes the picture from the library then it will no longer be displayed in my application. The only way I see if to store the picture in the app local database as a BLOB.

  Read the article

• datepicker not working in chrome

  - by DotnetSparrow

  I have a Jquery UI datepicker control in my asp.net MVC application and it works fine in IE and Firefox but it doens't work in chrome when I click the datepicker button. Here is my Index view: $(function() { $('#datepicker').datepicker({ changeMonth: true, dateFormat: "dd M yy", changeYear: true, showButtonPanel: true, autoSize: true, altField: "input#txtDate", onSelect: function(dateText, inst) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/LiveGame/Partial3?gameDate=" + dateText, dataType: "html", success: function(result) { var domElement = $(result); $("#dvGames").html(domElement); } }); } }); $("#txtDate").val($.format.date(new Date(), 'dd MMM yyyy')); $('#dvGames').load( '<%= Url.Action("Partial3", "LiveGame") %>', { gameDate: $("#txtDate").val() } ); }); Here is my partial: public ActionResult Partial3(string gameDate) { return PartialView("Partial3", gameDate); } <div id="dvGames" class="cornerdate1"> <%= Url.Action("LiveGame","Partial3") %> </div> <input type="text" id="txtDate" name="txtDate" readonly="readonly" class="cornerdate" /> <input id="datepicker" class="cornerimage" type="image" src="../../Content/images/calendar.gif" alt="date" /> </div>

  Read the article

• Questions about openid and dotnetauthentication

  - by chobo2

  Hi I am looking into openid and dotnetauthentication library. However I still go some outstanding questions. the id that comes back is that unique for each user? Can I store this id in a database as the userId(currently this field is a primary key and unique identifier) I read that you can try to request information such as email address but you may not give it to you. What happens if you need this information? I think it kinda sucks if I have to popup another field right away and ask for their email address and whatever else fields I need. Sort of seems to defeat the purpose a bit as I always considered a benefit of openid is that you don't have to fill out registration forms. Is it better to only have some predefined choices(google,yahoo,openid,facebook). Then letting them type in their own ones(ie gray out the field to let them type in a url). I am thinking of this because it goes back to point number 2 if they type in a provider that does not give me the information that I need I am then stuck. How do you a log person out? Do you just kill the form authentication ticket?

  Read the article

• Packages name conflicting with getters and setters?

  - by MrKishi

  Hello, folks. So, I've came across this compilation error a while ago.. As there's an easy fix and I didn't find anything relevant at the time, I eventually let it go. I just remembered it and I'm now wondering if this is really part of the language grammar (which I highly doubt) or if it's a compiler bug. I'm being purely curious about this -- it doesn't really affect development, but it would be nice to see if any of you have seen this already. package view { import flash.display.Sprite; public class Main extends Sprite { private var _view:Sprite = new Sprite(); public function Main() { this.test(); } private function test():void { trace(this.view.x, this.view.y); //1178: Attempted access of inaccessible property x through a reference with static type view:Main. //1178: Attempted access of inaccessible property y through a reference with static type view:Main. //Note that I got this due to the package name. //It runs just fine if I rename the package or getter. } public function get view():Sprite { return this._view; } } }

  Read the article

• how to read uploaded files from xampp

  - by user225269

  I have this code for uploading files on the server: <tr> <td> <form enctype="multipart/form-data" action="uploadaction.php" method="POST"> <input type="hidden" name="MAX_FILE_SIZE" value="100000" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Select the image: <input name="uploadedfile" type="file" /> </td> <tr> <td> <input type="submit" value="Upload File" /> </form> </td> </tr> And here's the action form: <?php $target_path = "uploads/"; $target_path = $target_path . basename( $_FILES['uploadedfile']['name']); if(move_uploaded_file($_FILES['uploadedfile']['tmp_name'], $target_path)) { echo "The file ". basename( $_FILES['uploadedfile']['name']). " has been uploaded"; } else{ echo "There was an error uploading the file, please try again!"; } ?> What php function will I use? Can you give me an example on how to read the file back and display it in the browser? Please help, thanks.

  Read the article

• Change Sequence to Choice

  - by Gordon

  In my Schema File I defined a Group with a Sequence of possible Elements. <group name="argumentGroup"> <sequence> <element name="foo" type="double" /> <element name="bar" type="string" /> <element name="baz" type="integer" /> </sequence> </group> I then reference this Group like this: <element name="arguments"> <complexType> <group ref="my:argumentGroup"/> </complexType> </element> Is it possible to reference the Group at some other point but restrict it so it's a Choice instead of a Sequence. The position where I want to reuse it would only allow one of the Elements within. <element name="argument" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1"> <complexType> <group name="my:argumentGroup"> <! -- Somehow change argumentGroup sequence to choice here --> </group> <complexType> </element>

  Read the article

• Multiple "ObjectChangeTracker" getting created, can it be avoided?

  - by user555937

  Hi, We are working on a POC where we have following architecture (MVVM), WPF(Client) + WCF + Model(DataAccess)+ ADO.Net Entity Framework 4.0 (with SQL Server 2008 R2 as DB) All are different projects. In the DataAccess layer we have created different Entity Models(edmx) based on the functionality. The tables under perticular flow are grouped and created different entity models. We are using self tracking entities to and fro to communicate with the WPF client through wcf service. For Single model everything works fine. But when we created a Multiple models then few issues started coming. Mutliple models have few duplicate tables/entities. Two probels are, 1) When we try to access entities from different models mutiple objects "ObjectChangeTracker" are getting created. E.g. CompanyModel(edmx) - Company(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker, ObjectState ProductModel(edmx) - Customer(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker1, ObjectState1 OrderModel(edmx) - Oder(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker2, ObjectState2 Is there any way to avoid this? 2) There are few tables which shared across the Models, E.g. Company(Entity) is used in All above mdoels. During compile time it does not thow any error. But run time It gives error saying "Schema specified is not valid. Errors: The mapping of CLR type to EDM type is ambiguous because multiple CLR types match the EDM type "Company"".. To resolve this, we renamed the entities with some prefix to make them Unique. Is there any other way we can resolve this without changing the name of the entity in the same assembly? Thanks in advance and appreciate if anyone has approach for these issues. Thanks, Kiran

  Read the article

• what is the best practice approach for n-tier application development with entity framework?

  - by samsur

  I am building an application using entity framework. I am using the T4 template to generate self tracking entities. Currently, I am thinking of creating the entity framework code in a separate project. In this same project, I would have partial classes with additional methods for the entities. I am thinking of creating a separate project for a service layer (WCF) with methods for the upper/presentation tier. The WCF layer will reference the entity framework project. The methods in the WCF layer will return the entities or accept the entities as the parameters. I am thinkg of creating a third project for the presentation layer (ASP.net), this will make calls to the WCF service but will also need to reference the entities as the WCF methods take these types as the parameters/return types. In short, i want to use the STE entities generated by the T4 template as a DTO to be used in all layers. I was originally thinking of creating a business logic layer that maps to each entities. Example: If i have a customer class, the Business Layer would have a CustomerBLL class and then methods in the customerBLL will be used by the service layer. I was also trying to create a DTO in this business layer. I however found that this approach is very time consuming and i do not see a major benefit as it would create more maintenance work. What is the best practice for n-tier application development using entity framework 4?

  Read the article

• Exception when click DataGridview tab c#, .Net 4.0

  - by Nguyen Nam

  My winform app have two tab and multi thread, one is main tab and other is log tab. I only use log tab to show logs in a datagridview control. Exception is random occurred when click to log tab (Not click to row or colunm), i have try but can not find anyway to fix it. This is the error log: Message : Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Source : System.Windows.Forms TargetSite : System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewElementStates GetRowState(Int32) StackTrace : at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewRowCollection.GetRowState(Int32 rowIndex) at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridView.ComputeHeightOfFittingTrailingScrollingRows(Int32 totalVisibleFrozenHeight) at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridView.GetOutOfBoundCorrectedHitTestInfo(HitTestInfo& hti, Int32& mouseX, Int32& mouseY, Int32& xOffset, Int32& yOffset) at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridView.OnMouseMove(MouseEventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmMouseMove(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridView.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.OnMessage(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) Message : Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Source : System.Windows.Forms TargetSite : Void ClearInternal(Boolean) StackTrace : at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewRowCollection.ClearInternal(Boolean recreateNewRow) at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridView.OnClearingColumns() at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewColumnCollection.Clear() at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridView.Dispose(Boolean disposing) at System.ComponentModel.Component.Dispose() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.Dispose(Boolean disposing) at System.ComponentModel.Component.Dispose() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.Dispose(Boolean disposing) at System.Windows.Forms.TabControl.Dispose(Boolean disposing) at System.ComponentModel.Component.Dispose() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.Dispose(Boolean disposing) at System.Windows.Forms.Form.Dispose(Boolean disposing) Update status code: private void updateMessage(int index, string message) { try { this.dgForums.Rows[index].Cells["ColStatus"].Value = message; System.Windows.Forms.Application.DoEvents(); } catch { } }

  Read the article

• What wrapper class in C++ should I use for automated resource management?

  - by Vilx-

  I'm a C++ amateur. I'm writing some Win32 API code and there are handles and weirdly compositely allocated objects aplenty. So I was wondering - is there some wrapper class that would make resource management easier? For example, when I want to load some data I open a file with CreateFile() and get a HANDLE. When I'm done with it, I should call CloseHandle() on it. But for any reasonably complex loading function there will be dozens of possible exit points, not to mention exceptions. So it would be great if I could wrap the handle in some kind of wrapper class which would automatically call CloseHandle() once execution left the scope. Even better - it could do some reference counting so I can pass it around in and out of other functions, and it would release the resource only when the last reference left scope. The concept is simple - but is there something like that in the standard library? I'm using Visual Studio 2008, by the way, and I don't want to attach a 3rd party framework like Boost or something.

  Read the article

• parse a special xml in python

  - by zhaojing

  I have s special xml file like below: <alarm-dictionary source="DDD" type="ProxyComponent"> <alarm code="402" severity="Alarm" name="DDM_Alarm_402"> <message>Database memory usage low threshold crossed</message> <description>dnKinds = database type = quality_of_service perceived_severity = minor probable_cause = thresholdCrossed additional_text = Database memory usage low threshold crossed </description> </alarm> ... </alarm-dictionary> I know in python, I can get the "alarm code", "severity" in tag alarm by: for alarm_tag in dom.getElementsByTagName('alarm'): if alarm_tag.hasAttribute('code'): alarmcode = str(alarm_tag.getAttribute('code')) And I can get the text in tag message like below: for messages_tag in dom.getElementsByTagName('message'): messages = "" for message_tag in messages_tag.childNodes: if message_tag.nodeType in (message_tag.TEXT_NODE, message_tag.CDATA_SECTION_NODE): messages += message_tag.data But I also want to get the value like dnkind(database), type(quality_of_service), perceived_severity(thresholdCrossed) and probable_cause(Database memory usage low threshold crossed ) in tag description. That is, I also want to parse the content in the tag in xml. Could anyone help me with this? Thanks a lot!

  Read the article

• Initializing own plugins

  - by jgauffin

  I've written a few jquery plugins for my client. I want to write a function which would initialize each plugin which have been loaded. Example: <script src="/Scripts/jquery.plugin1.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="/Scripts/jquery.plugin2.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="/Scripts/jquery.initializer.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> Here I've loaded plugin1 and plugin2. Plugin1 should be attached to all links with class name 'ajax' and plugin2 to all divs with class name 'test2': $('document').ready(function(){ $('a.ajax').plugin1(); $('div.test2').plugin2(); } I know that I can use jQuery().pluginName to check if a plugin exists. But I want to have a leaner way. Can all loaded plugins register a initialize function in an array or something like that which I in document.ready can iterate through and invoke? like: //in plugin1.js myCustomPlugins['plugin1'] = function() { $('a.ajax').plugin1(); }; // and in the initializer script: myCustomPlugins.each(function() { this(); }; Guess it all boiled down to three questions: How do I use a jquery "global" array? How do I iterate through that array to invoke registered methods Are there a better approach?

  Read the article

• EFv1 mapping 1 to many Relationship to POCOs

  - by Scott

  I'm trying to work through a problem where I'm mapping EF Entities to POCO which serve as DTO. I have two tables within my database, say Products and Categories. A Product belongs to one category and one category may contain many Products. My EF entities are named efProduct and efCategory. Within each entity there is the proper Navigation Property between efProduct and efCategory. My Poco objects are simple public class Product { public string Name { get; set; } public int ID { get; set; } public double Price { get; set; } public Category ProductType { get; set; } } public class Category { public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public List<Product> products { get; set; } } To get a list of products I am able to do something like public IQueryable<Product> GetProducts() { return from p in ctx.Products select new Product { ID = p.ID, Name = p.Name, Price = p.Price ProductType = p.Category }; } However there is a type mismatch error because p.Category is of type efCategory. How can I resolve this? That is, how can I convert p.Category to type Category? I know in .NET EF has added support for POCO, but I'm forced to use .NET 3.5 SP1.

  Read the article

• Multiple jQuery includes in a document

  - by bah

  Hi, I have a document which uses old jQuery and I need new jQuery for a particular plug-in. My document structure looks like this: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jQuery.old.js"></script> </head> <body> <script> $("#elem").doSomething(); // use old jQuery </script> <!-------- My plugin begins --------> <script type="text/javascript" src="jQuery.new.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="jQuery.doSomething.js"></script> <script> $().ready(function(){ $("#elem").doSomething(); // use new jQuery }); </script> <div id="elem"></div> <!-------- My plugin ends ----------> <script> $("#elem").doSomething(); // use old jQuery </script> </body> </html> I have googled for this question but found nothing that would look like my case (I need first to load old javascript (in the head) and THEN new (in the body). By the way, in the Firefox looks like old jQuery lib loads and scripts that depends on it works, but script that uses new version, and in IE and Chrome everything is exactly opposite.

  Read the article

• AJAX help needed

  - by tharindu

  Hi guys.. i have problem in ajax.. im new comer for ajax...:) <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#bcode").focus(); //prevents autocomplete in some browsers $("#bcode").attr('autocomplete', 'off').keyup(function(event) { var name = $("#bcode").val(); $("#status").empty(); if(name.length > 17 ) { selectAll(); $("#status").html('<img align="absmiddle" src="loading.gif" /> Checking availability...').show(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "namecheck.php", data: "bcode="+ name, success: function(msg) { $("#status").html(msg).show(); } }); } else { $("#status").html('').addClass('err').show(); } }); }); //--> </script> i got text box value 'bcode' using '$_POST['bcode']' <input name="bcode" type="text" class="bcode" id="bcode" maxlength="18"; /> also i have menu/list in that form <select name="pallete" class="list_box" id="select"> <option value="P0" selected> </option> <option value="P1">P1</option> <option value="P2">P2</option> <option value="P3">P3</option> <option value="P4">P4</option> <option value="P5">P5</option> </select> How i can access selected item from php file by using '$_POST['pallete']' please help me. Thanks in advance..

  Read the article

• which is better: a lying copy constructor or a non-standard one?

  - by PaulH

  I have a C++ class that contains a non-copyable handle. The class, however, must have a copy constructor. So, I've implemented one that transfers ownership of the handle to the new object (as below) class Foo { public: Foo() : h_( INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE ) { }; // transfer the handle to the new instance Foo( const Foo& other ) : h_( other.Detach() ) { }; ~Foo() { if( INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE != h_ ) CloseHandle( h_ ); }; // other interesting functions... private: /// disallow assignment const Foo& operator=( const Foo& ); HANDLE Detach() const { HANDLE h = h_; h_ = INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE; return h; }; /// a non-copyable handle mutable HANDLE h_; }; // class Foo My problem is that the standard copy constructor takes a const-reference and I'm modifying that reference. So, I'd like to know which is better (and why): a non-standard copy constructor: Foo( Foo& other ); a copy-constructor that 'lies': Foo( const Foo& other ); Thanks, PaulH

  Read the article

• Is this the only way to pass a parameter for Cakephp to work with JQuery Ajax

  - by kwokwai

  Hi all, I was doing some self-learning on how to pass data from JQuery Ajax to a particular URL in CakePHP: I have tested three sets of codes that the first one was working well, but the rest failed to work, which makes me so confused. Could some experts here tell why the second and the third sets of codes failed to pass any data? Set 1: <input type=text name="data[User][name]" id="data[User][name]" size="36" maxlength="36"/> var usr = $("#data\\[User\\]\\[name\\]").val(); $.post( "http://www.washington.byethost18.com/site1/toavail/"+usr, function(msg){alert(msg);} ); Set 2: <input type=text name="data[User][name]" id="data[User][name]" size="36" maxlength="36"/> var usr = $("#data\\[User\\]\\[name\\]").val(); $.post( "http://www.washington.byethost18.com/site1/toavail/", {queryString: ""+usr+""}, function(msg){alert(msg);} ); Set 3: <input type=text name="data[User][name]" id="data[User][name]" size="36" maxlength="36"/> var usr = $("#data\\[User\\]\\[name\\]").val(); $.post( "http://www.washington.byethost18.com/site1/toavail/", usr, function(msg){alert(msg);} );

  Read the article

• Pulling name value pair from a structured adsense code block contained in a txt file

  - by Scott B

  I have a txt file which contains a google adsense code block and I'm trying to pull in the file via file_get_contents to extract the values of the google_ad_client and google_ad_slot variables. In the examples below, I want to return to my calling function: $google_ad_client = 'pub-1234567890987654'; $google_ad_slot = '1234567890' The file may contain one of either of these two formats and I wont know which the user has chosen: Newer Ad Unit Style <script type="text/javascript"><!-- google_ad_client = "pub-1234567890987654"; google_ad_slot = "1234567890"; google_ad_width = 336; google_ad_height = 280; //--> </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="path-to-google-script"></script> Classic Style <script type="text/javascript"><!-- google_ad_client = "pub-1234567890987654"; /* 336x280, created 8/6/09 */ google_ad_slot = "1234567890"; google_ad_width = 336; google_ad_height = 280; google_ad_format="336x280_as"; google_ad_type="text_image"; google_color_border="FFFFFF"; google_color_bg="FFFFFF"; google_color_link="2200CC"; google_color_url="000000"; google_color_text="777777"; //--> </script>

  Read the article

• Using $.post for simple ajax test, what am I missing?

  - by Cortopasta

  Playing with jquery for the first time, and I'm trying to get a simple AJAX set up working so I can better understand how things work. Unfortunately, I don't know a whole lot. Here's the HTML with the script: <html> <head> <title>AJAX attempt with jQuery</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function ajax(str){ $("document").ready(function(){ $.post("ajaxjquerytest.php",str,function(){ $("p").html(response); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <input type="text" onchange="ajax(this.value)"></input> <p>Age?</p> </body> </html> And here is the PHP it's talking to: <?php $age = $_POST['age']; if ($age < 30) { echo "Young"; } else if ($age > 30) { echo "Old"; } else { echo "you're 30"; } ?>

  Read the article

• password-check directive in angularjs

  - by mpm

  I'm writing a password verify directive : Directives.directive("passwordVerify",function(){ return { require:"ngModel", link: function(scope,element,attrs,ctrl){ ctrl.$parsers.unshift(function(viewValue){ var origin = scope.$eval(attrs["passwordVerify"]); if(origin!==viewValue){ ctrl.$setValidity("passwordVerify",false); return undefined; }else{ ctrl.$setValidity("passwordVerify",true); return viewValue; } }); } }; }); html : <input data-ng-model='user.password' type="password" name='password' placeholder='password' required> <input data-ng-model='user.password_verify' type="password" name='confirm_password' placeholder='confirm password' required data-password-verify="user.password"> Given 2 password fields in a form, if both password values are equal then the field affected by the directive is valid. The issue is that it works one way (i.e. when I type a password in the password-verify field). However, when the original password field is updated, the password-verify doesn't become valid. Any idea how I could have a "two way binding verify?"

  Read the article

• Serving .docx files through Php

  - by user275074

  Hi, I'm having issues when attempting to serve a .docx file using Php. When uploading the file I detect the file mime type and upload the file using the file with the correct extension based on the mime type; e.g. below: application/msword - doc application/vnd.openxmlformats-officedocument.wordprocessingml.document - docx When attempting to serve the files for download, I do the reverse in detecting the extension and serving based on the mime type e.g. public static function fileMimeType($extention) { if(!is_null($extention)) { switch($extention) { case 'txt': return 'text/plain'; break; case 'odt': return 'application/vnd.oasis.opendocument.text'; break; case 'doc': return 'application/msword'; break; case 'docx': return 'application/vnd.openxmlformats-officedocument.wordprocessingml.document'; break; case ('jpg' || 'jpeg'): return 'image/jpeg'; break; case 'png': return 'image/png'; break; case 'pdf': return 'application/pdf'; break; default: break; } } } All files appear to download correctly and open fine but when attempting to open a docx file, Word (on multiple files) throws a error stating the file is corrupt. Any ideas would be great, thanks.

  Read the article

• Problem with SqlLite database in Qt SDK 1.0.2

  - by Risino

  Hi I have a problem with SqlLite database. Here is my code: void incomeDialog::on_add_pushButton_clicked() { int a = ui->income_lineEdit->text().toInt(); int b = ui->other_lineEdit->text().toInt(); int c = (a+b); db = QSqlDatabase::addDatabase("QSQLITE"); db.setDatabaseName("money.db"); QSqlQuery query(db); query.exec("create table Income" "(Month TEXT, Payment NUMBER, Other NUMBER, Together NUMBER)"); query.prepare("INSERT INTO Income values (?,?,?,?)"); query.addBindValue(ui->comboBox->currentText()); query.addBindValue(ui->income_lineEdit->text().toInt()); query.addBindValue(ui->other_lineEdit->text().toInt()); query.addBindValue(c); query.exec(); } I use qt sdk 1.0.2. After building shows errors: Undefined reference to 'QSqlDatabase::addDatabase(QString const&, QString const&)... all errors is similar (Undefined reference to 'QSqlDatabase:: Do you have any idea how to repair it?

  Read the article

• Why do we need Audit Columns in Database Tables?

  - by Software Enthusiastic

  Hi I have seen many database designs having following audit columns on all the tables... Created By Create DateTime Updated By Upldated DateTime From one perspective I see tables from the following view... Entity Tables: Good candidate for Audit columns) Reference Tables: Audit columns may or may not required. In some case last update information is not at all required because record is never going to be modified.) Reference Data Tables Like Country Names, Entity State etc... Audit columns may not required because these information is created only during system installation time, and never going to be changed. I have seen many designers blindly put all audit columns to all tables, is this practice good, if yes what could be the reason... I just want to know because to me it seems illogical. It is difficult for me to figure out why do they design their db this way? I am not saying they are wrong or right, just want to know the WHY? You can also suggest me, if there is an alternative auditing patter or solution available... Thanks and Regards

  Read the article

• jQuery hide all table rows which contain a hidden field matching a value

  - by Famous Nerd

  Though I don't doubt this has been answered I cannot find a great match for my question. I have a table for which I'd like to filter rows based on whether or not they contain a hidden field matching a value. I understand that the technique tends to be "show all rows", "filter the set", "show/hide that filtered set" I have the following jquery but I'm aweful with filter and my filtered set seems to always contain no elements. my table is the usual <table> <tr><td>header></td><td>&nbsp;</tr> <tr> <td>a visible cell</td><td><input type='hidden' id='big-asp.net-id' value='what-im-filtering-on' /> </td> </tr> </table> My goal is to be able to match on tr who's descendent contains a hidden input containing either true or false. this is how I've tried the selector (variations of this) and I'm not even testing for the value yet. function OnFilterChanged(e){ //debugger; var checkedVal = $("#filters input[type='radio']:checked").val(); var allRows = $("#match-grid-container .tabular-data tr"); if(checkedVal=="all"){ allRows.show(); } else if(checkedVal=="matched"){ allRows.show(); allRows.filter(function(){$(this).find("input[type='hidden'][id~='IsAutoMatchHiddenField']")}).hide(); } else if(checkedVal=="unmatched"){ } } Am I way off with the filter? is the $(this) required in the filter so that i can do the descendant searching? Thanks kindly

  Read the article

• JavaScript doesn't parse when mod-rewrited through a PHP file?

  - by Newbtophp

  If I do the following (this is the actual/direct path to the JavaScript file): <script href="http://localhost/tpl/blue/js/functions.js" type="text/javascript"></script> It works fine, and the JavaScript parses - as its meant too. However I'm wanting to shorten the path to the JavaScript file (aswell as do some caching) which is why I'm rewriting all JavaScript files via .htaccess to cache.php (which handles the caching). The .htaccess contains the following: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteRule ^js/(.+?\.js)$ cache.php?file=$1 [NC] </IfModule> cache.php contains the following PHP code: <?php if (extension_loaded('zlib')) { ob_start('ob_gzhandler'); } $file = basename($_GET['file']); if (file_exists("tpl/blue/js/".$file)) { header("Content-Type: application/javascript"); header('Cache-Control: must-revalidate'); header('Expires: ' . gmdate('D, d M Y H:i:s', time() + 3600) . ' GMT'); echo file_get_contents("tpl/blue/js/".$file); } ?> and I'm calling the JavaScript file like so: <script href="http://localhost/js/functions.js" type="text/javascript"></script> But doing that the JavaScript doesn't parse? (if I call the functions which are within functions.js later on in the page they don't work) - so theirs a problem either with cache.php or the rewrite rule? (because the file by itself works fine). If I access the rewrited file- http://localhost/js/functions.js directly it prints the JavaScript code, as any JavaScript file would - so I'm confused as to what I'm doing wrong... All help is appreciated! :)

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531 532 533 534  | Next Page >