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  • Design for Vacation Tracking System

    - by Aaronaught
    I have been tasked with developing a system for tracking our company's paid time-off (vacation, sick days, etc.) At the moment we are using an Excel spreadsheet on a shared network drive, and it works pretty well, but we are concerned that we won't be able to "trust" employees forever and sometimes we run into locking issues when two people try to open the spreadsheet at once. So we are trying to build something a little more robust. I would like some input on this design in terms of maintainability, scalability, extensibility, etc. It's a pretty simple workflow we need to represent right now: I started with a basic MS Access schema like this: Employees (EmpID int, EmpName varchar(50), AllowedDays int) Vacations (VacationID int, EmpID int, BeginDate datetime, EndDate datetime) But we don't want to spend a lot of time building a schema and database like this and have to change it later, so I think I am going to go with something that will be easier to expand through configuration. Right now the vacation table has this schema: Vacations (VacationID int, PropName varchar(50), PropValue varchar(50)) And the table will be populated with data like this: VacationID | PropName | PropValue -----------+--------------+------------------ 1 | EmpID | 4 1 | EmpName | James Jones 1 | Reason | Vacation 1 | BeginDate | 2/24/2010 1 | EndDate | 2/30/2010 1 | Destination | Spectate Swamp 2 | ... | ... I think this is a pretty good, extensible design, we can easily add new properties to the vacation like the destination or maybe approval status, etc. I wasn't too sure how to go about managing the database of valid properties, I thought of putting them in a separate PropNames table but it gets complicated to manage all the different data types and people say that you shouldn't put CLR type names into a SQL database, so I decided to use XML instead, here is the schema: <VacationProperties> <PropertyNames>EmpID,EmpName,Reason,BeginDate,EndDate,Destination</PropertyNames> <PropertyTypes>System.Int32,System.String,System.String,System.DateTime,System.DateTime,System.String</PropertyTypes> <PropertiesRequired>true,true,false,true,true,false</PropertiesRequired> </VacationProperties> I might need more fields than that, I'm not completely sure. I'm parsing the XML like this (would like some feedback on the parsing code): string xml = File.ReadAllText("properties.xml"); Match m = Regex.Match(xml, "<(PropertyNames)>(.*?)</PropertyNames>"; string[] pn = m.Value.Split(','); // do the same for PropertyTypes, PropertiesRequired Then I use the following code to persist configuration changes to the database: string sql = "DROP TABLE VacationProperties"; sql = sql + " CREATE TABLE VacationProperties "; sql = sql + "(PropertyName varchar(100), PropertyType varchar(100) "; sql = sql + "IsRequired varchar(100))"; for (int i = 0; i < pn.Length; i++) { sql = sql + " INSERT VacationProperties VALUES (" + pn[i] + "," + pt[i] + "," + pv[i] + ")"; } // GlobalConnection is a singleton new SqlCommand(sql, GlobalConnection.Instance).ExecuteReader(); So far so good, but after a few days of this I then realized that a lot of this was just a more specific kind of a generic workflow which could be further abstracted, and instead of writing all of this boilerplate plumbing code I could just come up with a workflow and plug it into a workflow engine like Windows Workflow Foundation and have the users configure it: In order to support routing these configurations throw the workflow system, it seemed natural to implement generic XML Web Services for this instead of just using an XML file as above. I've used this code to implement the Web Services: public class VacationConfigurationService : WebService { [WebMethod] public void UpdateConfiguration(string xml) { // Above code goes here } } Which was pretty easy, although I'm still working on a way to validate that XML against some kind of schema as there's no error-checking yet. I also created a few different services for other operations like VacationSubmissionService, VacationReportService, VacationDataService, VacationAuthenticationService, etc. The whole Service Oriented Architecture looks like this: And because the workflow itself might change, I have been working on a way to integrate the WF workflow system with MS Visio, which everybody at the office already knows how to use so they could make changes pretty easily. We have a diagram that looks like the following (it's kind of hard to read but the main items are Activities, Authenticators, Validators, Transformers, Processors, and Data Connections, they're all analogous to the services in the SOA diagram above). The requirements for this system are: (Note - I don't control these, they were given to me by management) Main workflow must interface with Excel spreadsheet, probably through VBA macros (to ease the transition to the new system) Alerts should integrate with MS Outlook, Lotus Notes, and SMS (text messages). We also want to interface it with the company Voice Mail system but that is not a "hard" requirement. Performance requirements: Must handle 250,000 Transactions Per Second Should be able to handle up to 20,000 employees (right now we have 3) 99.99% uptime ("four nines") expected Must be secure against outside hacking, but users cannot be required to enter a username/password. Platforms: Must support Windows XP/Vista/7, Linux, iPhone, Blackberry, DOS 2.0, VAX, IRIX, PDP-11, Apple IIc. Time to complete: 6 to 8 weeks. My questions are: Is this a good design for the system so far? Am I using all of the recommended best practices for these technologies? How do I integrate the Visio diagram above with the Windows Workflow Foundation to call the ConfigurationService and persist workflow changes? Am I missing any important components? Will this be extensible enough to support any scenario via end-user configuration? Will the system scale to the above performance requirements? Will we need any expensive hardware to run it? Are there any "gotchas" I should know about with respect to cross-platform compatibility? For example would it be difficult to convert this to an iPhone app? How long would you expect this to take? (We've dedicated 1 week for testing so I'm thinking maybe 5 weeks?)

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  • Asyncronus javascript rendering widgets

    - by Joe J
    Hey all, I'm creating a javascript widget so third partys (web designers) can post a link on their website and it will render the widget on their site. Currently, I'm doing this with just a script link tag: <div class="some_random_div_in_html_body"> <script type='text/javascript' src='http://remotehost.com/link/to/widget.js'></script> </div> However, this has the side-effect of slowing down a thrid party's website render times of the page if my site is under a load. Therefore, I'd like the third party website to request the widget link from my site asyncronously and then render it on their site when the widget link loads completely. The Google Analytics javascript snippet seems to have a nice bit of asyncronous code that does a nice async request to model off of, but I'm wondering if I can modify it so that it will render content on the third party's site. Using the example below, I want the content of http://mysite.com/link/to/widget.js to render something in the "message" id field. <HTML> <HEAD><TITLE>Third Party Site</TITLE><STYLE>#message { background-color: #eee; } </STYLE></HEAD> <BODY> <div id="message">asdf</div> <script type="text/javascript"> (function() { var ga = document.createElement('script'); ga.type = 'text/javascript'; ga.async = true; ga.src = 'http://mysite.com/link/to/widget.js'; var s = document.getElementsByTagName('script')[0]; s.parentNode.insertBefore(ga, s); })(); </script> </BODY> </HTML> I don't know if what I'm trying to do constitutes Cross Site Scripting (still a bit vague on that concept) but am wondering if what I'm trying to do is possible. Or if anyone has any other approaches to creating javascript widgets effectively, I'd appreciate any advice. Thanks for reading this. Joe

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  • Form submit to target iframe only works once

    - by Pointy
    I'm having a really irritating problem doing something that I'm sure I've done before. The setup is this: There's a form which is submitted via a "click" handler on a button, though the submit is ultimately a simple call to the form's native submit() function. The form's target is an iframe, which is initially filled with an empty page (that is, its source object is an URL for an empty page). That is, the "target" attribute of the form is the same identifier (and yes, it's a valid identifier) as the "name" and "id" attributes of the iframe (and yes, it's unique) Now the goal of this setup is as follows: the form contains file upload fields. Should something be wrong with one of the files uploaded, the server will report back an error. If the error response (that is, the html page with a new copy of the form, along with appropriate error messages) were to be allowed to reload the original window, then the file input fields would be cleared. That's not good. Thus the form submits to the iframe, so that the response from the server can be a small page that knows it's in that hidden iframe, and knows to move the error messages up to the form. One more thing: the form itself is also in an iframe, as part of a popup modal dialog (like a jQuery UI dialog, only slightly different; same idea though). The setup works fine - on the first submit. In other words, if I supply nice happy files to upload, the server ships back the successful response, and the dialog is closed correctly. If I send a bogus file, the server responds with an error page that correctly copies its stuff up to the form page. On the second submit, however (like, if I fix the bogus file input field), the browser insists on sending the server response to a new browser tab. As far as I can tell, the form's "target" remains correct, the iframe "name" and "id" attributes aren't changed, and I even make sure to update the hidden iframe "window.name" and "window.id" values. None of that is helping; I always get a new browser tab. I'm trying to set up a slightly simpler test case to see if I can rule out some of my framework code (the stuff that does the submit), though via a few console.log() calls I think that stuff is OK; it's certainly OK on all the other dialogs etc. in the site. When/if I create a simpler version I'll post it. In the meantime, if any of you insanely smart people recognize this situation and know of a trick to make it work, I'd be really thankful. I see the same behavior in both Firefox (3.6) and Chrome, so it's got to be my problem and not a browser quirk (well, at least that's what I think to be true).

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  • Cannot create a row of size 8074 which is greater than the allowable maximum row size of 8060.

    - by Lieven Cardoen
    I have already asked a question about this, but the problems keeps on hitting me ;-) I have two tables that are identical. I want to add a xml column. In the first table this is no problem, but in the second table I get the sqlException (title). However, apart from the data in it, they are the same. So, can I get the sqlException because of data in the table? I have also tried to store the field off page with EXEC sp_tableoption 'dbo.PackageSessionNodesFinished', 'large value types out of row', 1 but without any succes. The same SqlException keeps coming. First table: PackageSessionNodes CREATE TABLE [dbo].[PackageSessionNodes]( [PackageSessionNodeId] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [PackageSessionId] [int] NOT NULL, [TreeNodeId] [int] NOT NULL, [Duration] [int] NULL, [Score] [float] NOT NULL, [ScoreMax] [float] NOT NULL, [Interactions] [xml] NOT NULL, [BrainTeaser] [bit] NULL, [DateCreated] [datetime] NULL, [CompletionStatus] [int] NOT NULL, [ReducedScore] [float] NOT NULL, [ReducedScoreMax] [float] NOT NULL, [ContentInteractions] [xml] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_PackageSessionNodes] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [PackageSessionNodeId] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] Second table: PackageSessionNodesFinished CREATE TABLE [dbo].[PackageSessionNodesFinished]( [PackageSessionNodeFinishedId] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [PackageSessionId] [int] NOT NULL, [TreeNodeId] [int] NOT NULL, [Duration] [int] NULL, [Score] [float] NOT NULL, [ScoreMax] [float] NOT NULL, [Interactions] [xml] NOT NULL, [BrainTeaser] [bit] NULL, [DateCreated] [datetime] NULL, [CompletionStatus] [int] NOT NULL, [ReducedScore] [float] NOT NULL, [ReducedScoreMax] [float] NOT NULL, [ContentInteractions] [xml] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_PackageSessionNodesFinished] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [PackageSessionNodeFinishedId] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] First script I tried to run (First two ALTER TABLE work fine, the third crashes on SqlException) ALTER TABLE dbo.PackageSessionNodes ADD ContentInteractions xml NOT NULL CONSTRAINT DF_PackageSessionNodes_ContentInteractions DEFAULT (('<contentinteractions/>')); ALTER TABLE dbo.PackageSessionNodes DROP CONSTRAINT DF_PackageSessionNodes_ContentInteractions ALTER TABLE dbo.PackageSessionNodesFinished ADD ContentInteractions xml NOT NULL CONSTRAINT DF_PackageSessionNodesFinished_ContentInteractions DEFAULT (('<contentinteractions/>')); ALTER TABLE dbo.PackageSessionNodesFinished DROP CONSTRAINT DF_PackageSessionNodesFinished_ContentInteractions Second script I tried to run with the same result as previous script: EXEC sp_tableoption 'dbo.PackageSessionNodes', 'large value types out of row', 1 ALTER TABLE dbo.PackageSessionNodes ADD ContentInteractions xml NOT NULL CONSTRAINT DF_PackageSessionNodes_ContentInteractions DEFAULT (('<contentinteractions/>')); ALTER TABLE dbo.PackageSessionNodes DROP CONSTRAINT DF_PackageSessionNodes_ContentInteractions EXEC sp_tableoption 'dbo.PackageSessionNodesFinished', 'large value types out of row', 1 ALTER TABLE dbo.PackageSessionNodesFinished ADD ContentInteractions xml NOT NULL CONSTRAINT DF_PackageSessionNodesFinished_ContentInteractions DEFAULT (('<contentinteractions/>')); ALTER TABLE dbo.PackageSessionNodesFinished DROP CONSTRAINT DF_PackageSessionNodesFinished_ContentInteractions Now, In PackageSessionNodes there are 234 records, in PackageSessionNodesFinished there are 4256946 records. Really would appreciate some help here as I'm stuck.

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  • Server side Xforms form validation and integration into ASP.NET

    - by Nigel
    I have recently been investigating methods of creating web-based forms for an ASP.NET web application that can be edited and managed at runtime. For example an administrator might wish to add a new validation rule or a new set of fields. The holy grail would provide a means of specifying a form along with (potentially very complex) arbitrary validation rules, and allocation of data sources for each field. The specification would then be used to update the deployed form in the web application which would then validate submissions both on the client side and on the server side. My investigations led me to Xforms and a number of technologies that support it. One solution appears to be IBM Lotus Forms, but this requires a very large investment in terms of infrastructure, which makes it infeasible, although the forms designer may be useful as a stand-alone tool for creating the forms. I have also discounted browser plug-ins as the form must be publicly visible and cross-browser compliant. I have noticed that there are numerous javascript libraries that provide client side implementations given an Xforms schema. These would provide a partial solution but server side validation is still a requirement. Another option seems to involve the use of server side solutions such as the Java application Orbeon. Orbeon provides a tool for specifying the forms (although not as rich as Lotus Forms Designer), but the most interesting point is that it can translate an XForms schema into an XHTML form complete with validation. The fact that it is written in Java is not a big problem if it is possible to integrate with the existing ASP.NET application. So my question is whether anyone has done this before. It sounds like a problem that should have been solved but is inherently very complex. It seems possible to use an off-the-shelf tool to design the form and export it to an Xforms schema and xhtml form, and it seems possible to take that xforms schema and form and publish it using a client side library. What seems to be difficult is providing a means of validating the form submission on the server side and integrating the process nicely with .NET (although it seems the .NET community doesn't involve themselves with XForms; please correct me if I'm wrong on this count). I would be more than happy if a product provided something simple like a web service that could validate a submission against a schema. Maybe Orbeon does this but I'd be grateful if somebody in the know could point me in the right direction before I research it further. Many thanks.

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  • jQueryUI autocomplete - when no results are returned

    - by Brian M. Hunt
    I'm wondering how one can catch and add a custom handler when empty results are returned from the server when using jQueryUI autocomplete. There seem to be a few questions on this point related to the various jQuery plugins (e.g. jQuery autocomplete display “No data” error message when results empty), but I am wondering if there's a better/simpler way to achieve the same with the jQueryUI autocomplete. It seems to me this is a common use case, and I thought perhaps that jQueryUI had improved on the jQuery autocomplete by adding the ability to cleanly handle this situation. However I've not been able to find documentation of such functionality, and before I hack away at it I'd like to throw out some feelers in case others have seen this before. While probably not particularly influential, I can have the server return anything - e.g. HTTP 204: No Content to a 200/JSON empty list - whatever makes it easiest to catch the result in jQueryUI's autocomplete. My first thought is to pass a callback with two arguments, namely a request object and a response callback to handle the code, per the documentation: The third variation, the callback, provides the most flexibility, and can be used to connect any data source to Autocomplete. The callback gets two arguments: A request object, with a single property called "term", which refers to the value currently in the text input. For example, when the user entered "new yo" in a city field, the Autocomplete term will equal "new yo". A response callback, which expects a single argument to contain the data to suggest to the user. This data should be filtered based on the provided term, and can be in any of the formats described above for simple local data (String-Array or Object-Array with label/value/both properties). When the response callback receives no data, it inserts returns a special one-line object-array that has a label and an indicator that there's no data (so the select/focus recognize it as the indicator that no-data was returned). This seems overcomplicated. I'd prefer to be able to use a source: "http://...", and just have a callback somewhere indicating that no data was returned. Thank you for reading. Brian

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  • XNA - Keyboard text input

    - by Sekhat
    Okay, so basically I want to be able to retrieve keyboard text. Like entering text into a text field or something. I'm only writing my game for windows. I've disregarded using Guide.BeginShowKeyboardInput because it breaks the feel of a self contained game, and the fact that the Guide always shows XBOX buttons doesn't seem right to me either. Yes it's the easiest way, but I don't like it. Next I tried using System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow. I created a class that inherited from it, and passed it the Games window handle, implemented the WndProc function to catch WM_CHAR (or WM_KEYDOWN) though the WndProc got called for other messages, WM_CHAR and WM_KEYDOWN never did. So I had to abandon that idea, and besides, I was also referencing the whole of Windows forms, which meant unnecessary memory footprint bloat. So my last idea was to create a Thread level, low level keyboard hook. This has been the most successful so far. I get WM_KEYDOWN message, (not tried WM_CHAR yet) translate the virtual keycode with Win32 funcation MapVirtualKey to a char. And I get my text! (I'm just printing with Debug.Write at the moment) A couple problems though. It's as if I have caps lock on, and an unresponsive shift key. (Of course it's not however, it's just that there is only one Virtual Key Code per key, so translating it only has one output) and it adds overhead as it attaches itself to the Windows Hook List and isn't as fast as I'd like it to be, but the slowness could be more due to Debug.Write. Has anyone else approached this and solved it, without having to resort to an on screen keyboard? or does anyone have further ideas for me to try? thanks in advance. note: This is cross posted from the XNA Creators Forums, so if I get an answer there I'll post it here and Vice-Versa Question asked by Jimmy Maybe I'm not understanding the question, but why can't you use the XNA Keyboard and KeyboardState classes? My comment: It's because though you can read keystates, you can't get access to typed text as and how it is typed by the user. So let me further clarify. I want to implement being able to read text input from the user as if they are typing into textbox is windows. The keyboard and KeyboardState class get states of all keys, but I'd have to map each key and combination to it's character representation. This falls over when the user doesn't use the same keyboard language as I do especially with symbols (my double quotes is shift + 2, while american keyboards have theirs somewhere near the return key).

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  • How to best design a date/geographic proximity query on GAE?

    - by Dane
    Hi all, I'm building a directory for finding athletic tournaments on GAE with web2py and a Flex front end. The user selects a location, a radius, and a maximum date from a set of choices. I have a basic version of this query implemented, but it's inefficient and slow. One way I know I can improve it is by condensing the many individual queries I'm using to assemble the objects into bulk queries. I just learned that was possible. But I'm also thinking about a more extensive redesign that utilizes memcache. The main problem is that I can't query the datastore by location because GAE won't allow multiple numerical comparison statements (<,<=,=,) in one query. I'm already using one for date, and I'd need TWO to check both latitude and longitude, so it's a no go. Currently, my algorithm looks like this: 1.) Query by date and select 2.) Use destination function from geopy's distance module to find the max and min latitude and longitudes for supplied distance 3.) Loop through results and remove all with lat/lng outside max/min 4.) Loop through again and use distance function to check exact distance, because step 2 will include some areas outside the radius. Remove results outside supplied distance (is this 2/3/4 combination inefficent?) 5.) Assemble many-to-many lists and attach to objects (this is where I need to switch to bulk operations) 6.) Return to client Here's my plan for using memcache.. let me know if I'm way out in left field on this as I have no prior experience with memcache or server caching in general. -Keep a list in the cache filled with "geo objects" that represent all my data. These have five properties: latitude, longitude, event_id, event_type (in anticipation of expanding beyond tournaments), and start_date. This list will be sorted by date. -Also keep a dict of pointers in the cache which represent the start and end indices in the cache for all the date ranges my app uses (next week, 2 weeks, month, 3 months, 6 months, year, 2 years). -Have a scheduled task that updates the pointers daily at 12am. -Add new inserts to the cache as well as the datastore; update pointers. Using this design, the algorithm would now look like: 1.) Use pointers to slice off appropriate chunk of list based on supplied date. 2-4.) Same as above algorithm, except with geo objects 5.) Use bulk operation to select full tournaments using remaining geo objects' event_ids 6.) Assemble many-to-manys 7.) Return to client Thoughts on this approach? Many thanks for reading and any advice you can give. -Dane

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  • Append indexed input fields with attached datepicker widget

    - by Micor
    I am looking for the most efficient way to add a set of fields with datepicker widget attached on click event. So here I have a set of indexed events being generated on a page: <div id="events"> <div class="event"> <input type="text" id="event_0_startDate" name="event[0].startDate" class="date"/> <input type="hidden" id="event_0_startDate_day" name="event[0].startDate_day" /> <input type="hidden" id="event_0_startDate_month" name="event[0].startDate_month" /> <input type="hidden" id="event_0_startDate_year" name="event[0].startDate_year"/> </div> <div class="event"> <input type="text" id="event_1_startDate" name="event[1].startDate" class="date"/> <input type="hidden" id="event_1_startDate_day" name="event[1].startDate_day" /> <input type="hidden" id="event_1_startDate_month" name="event[1].startDate_month" /> <input type="hidden" id="event_1_startDate_year" name="event[1].startDate_year" /> </div> .... more event divs .... </div> <a href="#" id="add_event">Add event</a> .. with datepicker widget attached: $(".date").datepicker({ onClose: function(dateText,picker) { var prefix = $(this).attr('id'); $('#' + prefix + '_month').val( dateText.split(/\//)[0] ); $('#' + prefix + '_day').val( dateText.split(/\//)[1] ); $('#' + prefix + '_year').val( dateText.split(/\//)[2] ); } }); I need a function that will add inside div id="events" after the last div class="event" another div class="event" where N is the next index and attach datepicker widget above to the new input field with class="date" like: <div class="event"> <input type="text" id="event_N_startDate" name="event[N].startDate" class="date"/> <input type="hidden" id="event_N_startDate_day" name="event[N].startDate_day"/> <input type="hidden" id="event_N_startDate_month" name="event[N].startDate_month" /> <input type="hidden" id="event_N_startDate_year" name="event[N].startDate_year" /> </div> Thank you.

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  • XStream parse attributes and values at the same time

    - by gurbieta
    Hi, I have the following XML <search ver="3.0"> <loc id="ARBA0009" type="1">Buenos Aires, Argentina</loc> <loc id="BRXX1283" type="1">Buenos Aires, Brazil</loc> <loc id="ARDF0127" type="1">Aeroparque Buenos Aires, Argentina</loc> <loc id="MXJO0669" type="1">Concepcion De Buenos Aires, Mexico</loc> <loc id="MXPA1785" type="1">San Nicolas De Buenos Aires, Mexico</loc> <loc id="ARBA0005" type="1">Balcarce, Argentina</loc> <loc id="ARBA0008" type="1">Bragado, Argentina</loc> <loc id="ARBA0010" type="1">Campana, Argentina</loc> <loc id="ARBA0016" type="1">Chascomus, Argentina</loc> <loc id="ARBA0019" type="1">Chivilcoy, Argentina</loc> </search> And a City class public class City { private String id; private Integer type; private String name; // getters & setters... } I tried the following aliases to parse the XML xStream.alias("search", List.class); xStream.alias("loc", City.class); xStream.useAttributeFor("id", String.class); xStream.useAttributeFor("type", Integer.class); But I can't figure out how to set the value of the "loc" tag, if I try to transform the City object in XML I get <search> <loc id="ARBA0001" type="1"> <name>Buenos Aires</name> </loc> </search> When I really need to get this <search> <loc id="ARBA0001" type="1">Buenos Aires</loc> </search> Then, if I try to parse the XML to a City object I get the field "name" with a null value. Anybody knows how to set te correct aliases to do this? Thanks in advance.

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  • Set default form textfield value (webbrowser control/DOM Javscript)

    - by Khou
    Hi I would like my application to load a webpage and set default the form textfield value a predefine value. Requirements: -The application is a windows form, it is to use the web browser control, to load a web page. -Textfield values are define by within the application. -When textfield on the webpage matches the applications predefined elements, the predefine fixed value is set and can not be changed by the end user. Example If my application defines element "FirstName" equal to value "John", the text field for value for element "FirstName" will always equal "John" and this value can not be changed by the end user. Below is html/javascript code to perform this functionality, now how do I implement this in a windows form? (without having to modify the loaded webpage source code (if possible). HTML <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN"> <html> <head> <title>page title</title> <script script type="text/javascript" src="demo1.js"></script> </head> <body onload="def(document.someform, 'name', 'my default name value');"> <h2 style="color: #8e9182">test form title</h2> <form name="someform" id="someform_frm" action="#"> <table cellspacing="1"> <tr><td><label for="name">NameX: </label></td><td><input type="text" size="30" maxlength="155" name="name" onchange="def(document.someform, 'name', 'my default name value');"></td></tr> <tr><td><label for="name2">NameY: </label></td><td><input type="text" size="30" maxlength="155" name="name2"></td></tr> <tr><td colspan="2"><input type="button" name="submit" value="Submit" onclick="showFormData(this.form);" ></td></table> </form> </body> </html> JAVASCRIPT function def(oForm, element_name, def_txt) { oForm.elements[element_name].value = def_txt; }

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  • Why default constructor does not appear for value types?

    - by Arun
    The below snippet gives me a list of constructors and methods of a type. static void ReflectOnType(Type type) { Console.WriteLine(type.FullName); Console.WriteLine("------------"); List<ConstructorInfo> constructors = type.GetConstructors(BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Static | BindingFlags.NonPublic |BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.Default).ToList(); List<MethodInfo> methods = type.GetMethods().ToList(); Type baseType = type.BaseType; while (baseType != null) { constructors.AddRange(baseType.GetConstructors(BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Static | BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.Default)); methods.AddRange(baseType.GetMethods()); baseType = baseType.BaseType; } Console.WriteLine("Reflection on {0} type", type.Name); for (int i = 0; i < constructors.Count; i++) { Console.Write("Constructor: {0}.{1}", constructors[i].DeclaringType.Name, constructors[i].Name); Console.Write("("); ParameterInfo[] parameterInfos = constructors[i].GetParameters(); if (parameterInfos.Length > 0) { for (int j = 0; j < parameterInfos.Length; j++) { if (j > 0) { Console.Write(", "); } Console.Write("{0} {1}", parameterInfos[j].ParameterType, parameterInfos[j].Name); } } Console.Write(")"); if (constructors[i].IsSpecialName) { Console.Write(" has 'SpecialName' attribute"); } Console.WriteLine(); } Console.WriteLine(); for (int i = 0; i < methods.Count; i++) { Console.Write("Method: {0}.{1}", methods[i].DeclaringType.Name, methods[i].Name); // Determine whether or not each field is a special name. if (methods[i].IsSpecialName) { Console.Write(" has 'SpecialName' attribute"); } Console.WriteLine(); } } But when I pass an ‘int’ type to this method, why don’t I see the implicit constructor in the output? Or, how do I modify the above code to list the default constructor as well (in case I’m missing something in my code).

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  • jQueryMobile: how to work with slider events?

    - by balexandre
    I'm testing the slider events in jQueryMobile and I must been missing something. page code is: <div data-role="fieldcontain"> <label for="slider">Input slider:</label> <input type="range" name="slider" id="slider" value="0" min="0" max="100" /> </div> and if I do: $("#slider").data("events"); I get blur, focus, keyup, remove What I want to do is to get the value once user release the slider handle and having a hook to the keyup event as $("#slider").bind("keyup", function() { alert('here'); } ); does absolutely nothing :( I must say that I wrongly assumed that jQueryMobile used jQueryUI controls as it was my first thought, but now working deep in the events I can see this is not the case, only in terms of CSS Design. What can I do? jQuery Mobile Slider source code can be found on Git if it helps anyone as well a test page can be found at JSBin As I understand, the #slider is the textbox with the value, so I would need to hook into the slider handle as the generated code for this slider is: <div data-role="fieldcontain" class="ui-field-contain ui-body ui-br"> <label for="slider" class="ui-input-text ui-slider" id="slider-label">Input slider:</label> <input data-type="range" max="100" min="0" value="0" id="slider" name="slider" class="ui-input-text ui-body-null ui-corner-all ui-shadow-inset ui-body-c ui-slider-input" /> <div role="application" class="ui-slider ui-btn-down-c ui-btn-corner-all"> <a class="ui-slider-handle ui-btn ui-btn-corner-all ui-shadow ui-btn-up-c" href="#" data-theme="c" role="slider" aria-valuemin="0" aria-valuemax="100" aria-valuenow="54" aria-valuetext="54" title="54" aria-labelledby="slider-label" style="left: 54%;"> <span class="ui-btn-inner ui-btn-corner-all"> <span class="ui-btn-text"></span> </span> </a> </div> </div> and checking the events in the handler anchor I get only the click event $("#slider").next().find("a").data("events");

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  • How to make custom WCF error handler return JSON response with non-OK http code?

    - by John
    I'm implementing a RESTful web service using WCF and the WebHttpBinding. Currently I'm working on the error handling logic, implementing a custom error handler (IErrorHandler); the aim is to have it catch any uncaught exceptions thrown by operations and then return a JSON error object (including say an error code and error message - e.g. { "errorCode": 123, "errorMessage": "bla" }) back to the browser user along with an an HTTP code such as BadRequest, InteralServerError or whatever (anything other than 'OK' really). Here is the code I am using inside the ProvideFault method of my error handler: fault = Message.CreateMessage(version, "", errorObject, new DataContractJsonSerializer(typeof(ErrorMessage))); var wbf = new WebBodyFormatMessageProperty(WebContentFormat.Json); fault.Properties.Add(WebBodyFormatMessageProperty.Name, wbf); var rmp = new HttpResponseMessageProperty(); rmp.StatusCode = System.Net.HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; rmp.Headers.Add(HttpRequestHeader.ContentType, "application/json"); fault.Properties.Add(HttpResponseMessageProperty.Name, rmp); -- This returns with Content-Type: application/json, however the status code is 'OK' instead of 'InternalServerError'. fault = Message.CreateMessage(version, "", errorObject, new DataContractJsonSerializer(typeof(ErrorMessage))); var wbf = new WebBodyFormatMessageProperty(WebContentFormat.Json); fault.Properties.Add(WebBodyFormatMessageProperty.Name, wbf); var rmp = new HttpResponseMessageProperty(); rmp.StatusCode = System.Net.HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; //rmp.Headers.Add(HttpRequestHeader.ContentType, "application/json"); fault.Properties.Add(HttpResponseMessageProperty.Name, rmp); -- This returns with the correct status code, however the content-type is now XML. fault = Message.CreateMessage(version, "", errorObject, new DataContractJsonSerializer(typeof(ErrorMessage))); var wbf = new WebBodyFormatMessageProperty(WebContentFormat.Json); fault.Properties.Add(WebBodyFormatMessageProperty.Name, wbf); var response = WebOperationContext.Current.OutgoingResponse; response.ContentType = "application/json"; response.StatusCode = HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; -- This returns with the correct status code and the correct content-type! The problem is that the http body now has the text 'Failed to load source for: http://localhost:7000/bla..' instead of the actual JSON data.. Any ideas? I'm considering using the last approach and just sticking the JSON in the HTTP StatusMessage header field instead of in the body, but this doesn't seem quite as nice?

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  • XML Schema to Java Classes with XJC

    - by nevets1219
    I am using xjc to generate Java classes from the XML schema and the following is an excerpt of the XSD. <xs:element name="NameInfo"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:choice> <xs:element ref="UnstructuredName"/> <!-- This line --> <xs:sequence> <xs:element ref="StructuredName"/> <xs:element ref="UnstructuredName" minOccurs="0"/> <!-- and this line! --> </xs:sequence> </xs:choice> <xs:element ref="SomethingElse" minOccurs="0"/> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> For the most part the generated classes are fine but for the above block I would get something like: public List<Object> getContent() { if (content == null) { content = new ArrayList<Object>(); } return this.content; } with the following comment above it: * You are getting this "catch-all" property because of the following reason: * The field name "UnstructuredName" is used by two different parts of a schema. See: * line XXXX of file:FILE.xsd * line XXXX of file:FILE.xsd * To get rid of this property, apply a property customization to one * of both of the following declarations to change their names: * Gets the value of the content property. I have placed a comment at the end of the two line in question. At the moment, I don't think it will be easy to change the schema since this was decided between vendors and I would not want to go this route (if possible) as it will slow down progress quite a bit. I searched and have found this page, is the external customization what I want to do? I have been mostly working with the generated classes so I'm not entirely familiar with the process that generates these classes. A simple example of the "property customization" would be great! Alternative method of generating the Java classes would be fine as long as the schema can still be used.

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  • Gateway Page Between ASP and an ASP.NET Page

    - by ajdams
    I'll admit, I am pretty new with ASP .NET programming and I have been asked to take all our gateway pages (written in classic ASP) and make one universal gateway page to the few C# .NET applications we have (that I wrote). I tried searching here and the web and couldn't find much of anything describing a great way to do this and figured I was either not searching properly or was not properly naming what I am trying to do. I decided to to take one of the main gateway pages we had in classic ASP and use that as a base for my new gateway. Without boring you with a bunch of code I will summarize my gateway in steps and then can take advice/critique from there. EDIT: Basically what I am trying to do is go from a classic ASP page to a ASP .NET page and then back again. EDIT2: If my question is still unclear I am asking if what I have an the right start and if anyone has suggestions as to how this could be better. It can be as generic as need-be, not looking for a specific off-the-shelf code answer. My Gateway page: In the first part of the page I grab session variables and determine if the user is leaving or returning through the gateway: Code (in VB): uid = Request.QueryString("GUID") If uid = "" Then direction = "Leaving" End If ' Gather available user information. userid = Session("lnglrnregid") bankid = Session("strBankid") ' Return location. floor = Request.QueryString("Floor") ' The option chosen will determine if the user continues as SSL or not. ' If they are currently SSL, they should remain if chosen. option1 = Application(bankid & "Option1") If MID(option1, 6, 1) = "1" Then sslHttps = "s" End If Next I enter the uid into a database table (SQL-Server 2005) as a uniqueidentifier field called GUID. I omitted the stored procedure call. Lastly, I use the direction variable to determine if the user is leaving or returning and do redirects from there to the different areas of the site. Code (In VB again): If direction = "Leaving" Then Select Case floor Case "sscat", "ssassign" ' A SkillSoft course Response.Redirect("Some site here") Case "lrcat", "lrassign" ' A LawRoom course Response.Redirect("Some site here") Case Else ' Some other SCORM course like MindLeaders or a custom upload. Response.Redirect("Some site here") End Select Session.Abandon Else ' The only other direction is "Returning" ..... That's about it so far - so like I said, not an expert so any suggestions would be greatly appreciated!

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  • VBA - Access 03 - Iterating through a list box, with an if statement to evaluate

    - by Justin
    So I have a one list box with values like DeptA, DeptB, DeptC & DeptD. I have a method that causes these to automatically populate in this list box if they are applicable. So in other words, if they populate in this list box, I want the resulting logic to say they are "Yes" in a boolean field in the table. So to accomplish this I am trying to use this example of iteration to cycle through the list box first of all, and it works great: dim i as integer dim myval as string For i = o to me.lstResults.listcount - 1 myVal = lstResults.itemdata(i) Next i if i debug.print myval, i get the list of data items that i want from the list box. so now i am trying to evaluate that list so that I can have an UPDATE SQL statement to update the table as i need it to be done. so, i know this is a mistake, but this is what i tried to do (giving it as an example so that you can see what i am trying to get to here) dim sql as string dim i as integer dim myval as string dim db as database sql = "UPDATE tblMain SET " for i = 0 to me.lstResults.listcount - 1 myval = lstResults.itemdata(i) If MyVal = "DeptA" Then sql = sql & "DeptA = Yes" ElseIF myval = "DeptB" Then sql = sql & "DeptB = Yes" ElseIf MyVal = "DeptC" Then sql = sql & "DeptC = Yes" ElseIf MyVal = "DeptD" Then sql = sql & "DeptD = Yes" End If Next i debug.print (sql) sql = sql & ";" set db= currentdb db.execute(sql) msgbox "Good Luck!" So you can see why this is going to cause problems because the listbox that these values (DeptA, DeptB, etc) automatically populate in are dynamic....there is rarely one value in the listbox, and the list of values changes per OrderID (what the form I am using this on populates information for in the first place; unique instance). I am looking for something that will evaluate this list one at a time (i.e. iterate through the list of values, and look for "DeptA", and if it is found add yes to the SQL string, and if it not add no to the SQL string, then march on to the next iteration). Even though the listbox populates values dynamically, they are set values, meaning i know what could end up in it. Thanks for any help, Justin

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  • Asynchronous sockets in C#

    - by IVlad
    I'm confused about the correct way of using asynchronous socket methods in C#. I will refer to these two articles to explain things and ask my questions: MSDN article on asynchronous client sockets and devarticles.com article on socket programming. My question is about the BeginReceive() method. The MSDN article uses these two functions to handle receiving data: private static void Receive(Socket client) { try { // Create the state object. StateObject state = new StateObject(); state.workSocket = client; // Begin receiving the data from the remote device. client.BeginReceive( state.buffer, 0, StateObject.BufferSize, 0, new AsyncCallback(ReceiveCallback), state); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } private static void ReceiveCallback( IAsyncResult ar ) { try { // Retrieve the state object and the client socket // from the asynchronous state object. StateObject state = (StateObject) ar.AsyncState; Socket client = state.workSocket; // Read data from the remote device. int bytesRead = client.EndReceive(ar); if (bytesRead > 0) { // There might be more data, so store the data received so far. state.sb.Append(Encoding.ASCII.GetString(state.buffer,0,bytesRead)); // Get the rest of the data. client.BeginReceive(state.buffer,0,StateObject.BufferSize,0, new AsyncCallback(ReceiveCallback), state); } else { // All the data has arrived; put it in response. if (state.sb.Length > 1) { response = state.sb.ToString(); } // Signal that all bytes have been received. receiveDone.Set(); } } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } While the devarticles.com tutorial passes null for the last parameter of the BeginReceive method, and goes on to explain that the last parameter is useful when we're dealing with multiple sockets. Now my questions are: What is the point of passing a state to the BeginReceive method if we're only working with a single socket? Is it to avoid using a class field? It seems like there's little point in doing it, but maybe I'm missing something. How can the state parameter help when dealing with multiple sockets? If I'm calling client.BeginReceive(...), won't all the data be read from the client socket? The devarticles.com tutorial makes it sound like in this call: m_asynResult = m_socClient.BeginReceive (theSocPkt.dataBuffer,0,theSocPkt.dataBuffer.Length, SocketFlags.None,pfnCallBack,theSocPkt); Data will be read from the theSocPkt.thisSocket socket, instead of from the m_socClient socket. In their example the two are one and the same, but what happens if that is not the case? I just don't really see where that last argument is useful or at least how it helps with multiple sockets. If I have multiple sockets, I still need to call BeginReceive on each of them, right?

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  • How to check if a checkbox in a checkbox array is checked with jquery

    - by eddy
    Hello everyone. I have a html table with a column of text boxes (mileage), all of them are disabled when the page loads, and I need that when user clicks on a check box, the text box for that column should be enabled and become a required field, and then if the user unchecks the checkbox, the textbox on that row must be disabled and the required class removed. I already have the function to enable and disable the text boxes (column mileage) when the user clicks on the corresponding checkbox, but it is written in javascript.However, for some reason it only works in IE). Here is the html code <tbody> <c:forEach items="${list}" var="item"> <tr> <td align="center"> <input type="checkbox" name="selectItems" value="<c:out value="${item.numberPlate}"/>" onchange="enableTextField(this)" /> </td> <td align="left"><c:out value="${item.numberPlate}"/></td> <td align="left"><c:out value="${item.driver.fullName}"/></td> <td align="left"><input type="text" name="mileage_<c:out value="${item.numberPlate}"/>" value="" disabled="true"/></td> </tr> </c:forEach> </tbody> And the javascript code: function enableTextField(r) { var node = r.parentNode; while( node && node.tagName !== 'TR' ) { node = node.parentNode; } var i=node.rowIndex; if(document.form1.selectItems[i-1].checked) { document.getElementById('mileage_' + document.form1.selectItems[i-1].value).disabled=false; } else { document.getElementById('mileage_' + document.form1.selectItems[i-1].value).value=""; document.getElementById('mileage_' + document.form1.selectItems[i-1].value).disabled=true; } } Now, I know that in order to add or remove dynamically validation rules I have to use: addClass('required'); o removeClass('required') ,but I don't know how to detect whether a check box is selected or not, and based on that ,enable or disable the text box for that row. I really hope you can help me out with this.

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  • How can we implement change notification propagation for WPF and SL in the MVVM pattern?

    - by Firoso
    Here's an example scenario targetting MVVM WPF/SL development: View data binds to view model Property "Target" "Target" exposes a field of an object called "data" that exists in the local application model, called "Original" when "Original" changes, it should raise notification to the view model and then propogate that change notification to the View. Here are the solutions I've come up with, but I don't like any of them all that much. I'm looking for other ideas, by the time we come up with something rock solid I'm certain Microsoft will have released .NET 5 with WPF/SL extensions for better tools for MVVM development. For now the question is, "What have you done to solve this problem and how has it worked out for you?" Option 1. Proposal: Attach a handler to data's PropertyChanged event that watches for string values of properties it cares about that might have changed, and raises the appropriate notification. Why I don't like it: Changes don't bubble naturally, objects must be explicitly watched, if data changes to a new source, events must be un-registered/registered. Why I kind of like it: I get explicit control over propogation of changes, and I don't have to use any types that belong at a higher level of the application such as dependancy properties. Option 2. Proposal: Attach a handler to data's PropertyChanged event that re-raises the event across all properties using the name property name. Why I don't like it: This is essentially the same as option 1, but less intelligent, and forces me to never change my property names, as they have to be the same as the property names on data Why I kind of like it: It's very easy to set up and I don't have to think about it... Then again if I try to think, and change names to things that make sense, I shoot myself in the foot, and then I have to think about it! Option 3. Proposal: Inherit my view model from dependancy object, and notify binding sources of changes directly. Why I don't like it: I'm not even 100% sure dependancy properties/objects can DO this, it was just a thought to look into. Also I don't personally feel that WPF/SL types like Dep Obj belong at the view model level. Why I kind of like it: IF it has the capability that I'm seeking then it's a good answer! minus that pesky layering issue. Option 4. Proposal: Use a consistant agent messaging system based off of Task Parallels DataFlow Library to propogate everything through linked pipelining. Why I don't like it: I've never tried this, and somehow I think it will be lacking, plus it requires me to think about my code completely differently all the way around. Why I kind of like it: It has the possiblity of allowing me to do some VERY fun manipulations with a push based data model and using ActionBlocks as validation AND setters to then privately change view model properties and explicitly control PropertyChanged notifications.

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  • Best practices concerning view model and model updates with a subset of the fields

    - by Martin
    By picking MVC for developing our new site, I find myself in the midst of "best practices" being developed around me in apparent real time. Two weeks ago, NerdDinner was my guide but with the development of MVC 2, even it seems outdated. It's an thrilling experience and I feel privileged to be in close contact with intelligent programmers daily. Right now I've stumbled upon an issue I can't seem to get a straight answer on - from all the blogs anyway - and I'd like to get some insight from the community. It's about Editing (read: Edit action). The bulk of material out there, tutorials and blogs, deal with creating and view the model. So while this question may not spell out a question, I hope to get some discussion going, contributing to my decision about the path of development I'm to take. My model represents a user with several fields like name, address and email. All the names, in fact, on field each for first name, last name and middle name. The Details view displays all these fields but you can change only one set of fields at a time, for instance, your names. The user expands a form while the other fields are still visible above and below. So the form that is posted back contains a subset of the fields representing the model. While this is appealing to us and our layout concerns, for various reasons, it is to be shunned by serious MVC-developers. I've been reading about some patterns and best practices and it seems that this is not in key with the paradigm of viewmodel == view. Or have I got it wrong? Anyway, NerdDinner dictates using FormCollection och UpdateModel. All the null fields are happily ignored. Since then, the MVC-community has abandoned this approach to such a degree that a bug in MVC 2 was not discovered. UpdateModel does not work without a complete model in your formcollection. The view model pattern receiving most praise seems to be Dedicated view model that contains a custom view model entity and is the only one that my design issue could be made compatible with. It entails a tedious amount of mapping, albeit lightened by the use of AutoMapper and the ideas of Jimmy Bogard, that may or may not be worthwhile. He also proposes a 1:1 relationship between view and view model. In keeping with these design paradigms, I am to create a view and associated view for each of my expanding sets of fields. The view models would each be nearly identical, differing only in the fields which are read-only, the views also containing much repeated markup. This seems absurd to me. In future I may want to be able to display two, more or all sets of fields open simultaneously. I will most attentively read the discussion I hope to spark. Many thanks in advance.

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  • Javassist annoations problem

    - by Ali
    I'm trying to generate my Entity class using javassist. Everything went well until I added the GeneratedValue annotation to the Id field. The @Id annotation works fine but when I add @GeneeratedValue I get an exception. This is my code: ClassPool cp = ClassPool.getDefault(); CtClass ctClass = cp.makeClass("test.Snake"); ClassFile classFile = ctClass.getClassFile(); classFile.setVersionToJava5(); AnnotationsAttribute attribute = new AnnotationsAttribute(classFile.getConstPool(), AnnotationsAttribute.visibleTag); Annotation idAnnotation = new Annotation(classFile.getConstPool(), ClassPool.getDefault().get("javax.persistence.Id")); attribute.addAnnotation(idAnnotation); Annotation gvAnnotation = new Annotation(classFile.getConstPool(), ClassPool.getDefault().get("javax.persistence.GeneratedValue")); attribute.addAnnotation(gvAnnotation); CtField idField = new CtField(ClassPool.getDefault().get("java.lang.Long"), "id", ctClass); idField.getFieldInfo().addAttribute(attribute); ctClass.addField(idField); CtField nameField = new CtField(ClassPool.getDefault().get("java.lang.String"), "name", ctClass); ctClass.addField(nameField); AnnotationsAttribute attr = new AnnotationsAttribute(classFile.getConstPool(), AnnotationsAttribute.visibleTag); Annotation annotation = new Annotation(classFile.getConstPool(), ClassPool.getDefault().get("javax.persistence.Entity")); attr.addAnnotation(annotation); classFile.addAttribute(attr); snakeClass = ctClass.toClass(); newInstance = snakeClass.newInstance(); And this is the exception I get: java.lang.NullPointerException at javassist.bytecode.ConstPool.getUtf8Info(ConstPool.java:565) at javassist.bytecode.annotation.EnumMemberValue.getValue(EnumMemberValue.java:98) at javassist.bytecode.annotation.EnumMemberValue.write(EnumMemberValue.java:116) at javassist.bytecode.annotation.Annotation.write(Annotation.java:316) at javassist.bytecode.AnnotationsAttribute.setAnnotations(AnnotationsAttribute.java:246) at javassist.bytecode.AnnotationsAttribute.addAnnotation(AnnotationsAttribute.java:211) at ClassLoadingTest.javassitTest(ClassLoadingTest.java:56) It seems to be a problem with @GeneratedValue. When I use it alone whithout id I get this exception either. When I use eclipse debugger to watch variable values, I get get this com.sun.jdi.InvocationException occurred invoking method. instead of the annotation value. but for Id annotation it shows a javassist annotation object. I'm new to javassist. Can anyone help me?

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  • Using selection sort in java to sort floats

    - by user334046
    Hey, I need to sort an array list of class house by a float field in a certain range. This is my code for the selection sort: public ArrayList<House> sortPrice(ArrayList<House> x,float y, float z){ ArrayList<House> xcopy = new ArrayList<House>(); for(int i = 0; i<x.size(); i++){ if(x.get(i).myPriceIsLessThanOrEqualTo(z) && x.get(i).myPriceIsGreaterThanOrEqualTo(y)){ xcopy.add(x.get(i)); } } ArrayList<House> price= new ArrayList<House>(); while(xcopy.size()>0){ House min = xcopy.get(0); for(int i = 1; i < xcopy.size();i++){ House current = xcopy.get(i); if (current.myPriceIsGreaterThanOrEqualTo(min.getPrice())){ min = current; } } price.add(min); xcopy.remove(min); } return price; } Here is what the house class looks like: public class House { private int numBedRs; private int sqft; private float numBathRs; private float price; private static int idNumOfMostRecentHouse = 0; private int id; public House(int bed,int ft, float bath, float price){ sqft = ft; numBathRs = bath; numBedRs = bed; this.price = price; idNumOfMostRecentHouse++; id = idNumOfMostRecentHouse; } public boolean myPriceIsLessThanOrEqualTo(float y){ if(Math.abs(price - y)<0.000001){ return true; } return false; } public boolean myPriceIsGreaterThanOrEqualTo(float b){ if(Math.abs(b-price)>0.0000001){ return true; } return false; } When i call looking for houses in range 260000.50 to 300000 I only get houses that are at the top of the range even though I have a lower value at 270000. Can someone help?

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  • Passing a ManagedObjectContext to a second view

    - by amo
    I'm writing my first iPhone/Cocoa app. It has two table views inside a navigation view. When you touch a row in the first table view, you are taken to the second table view. I would like the second view to display records from the CoreData entities related to the row you touched in the first view. I have the CoreData data showing up fine in the first table view. You can touch a row and go to the second table view. I'm able to pass info from the selected object from the first to the second view. But I cannot get the second view to do its own CoreData fetching. For the life of me I cannot get the managedObjectContext object to pass to the second view controller. I don't want to do the lookups in the first view and pass a dictionary because I want to be able to use a search field to refine results in the second view, as well as insert new entries to the CoreData data from there. Here's the function that transitions from the first to the second view. - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { // Navigation logic may go here -- for example, create and push another view controller. NSManagedObject *selectedObject = [[self fetchedResultsController] objectAtIndexPath:indexPath]; SecondViewController *secondViewController = [[SecondViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SecondView" bundle:nil]; secondViewController.tName = [[selectedObject valueForKey:@"name"] description]; secondViewController.managedObjectContext = [self managedObjectContext]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:secondViewController animated:YES]; [secondViewController release]; } And this is the function inside SecondViewController that crashes: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; self.title = tName; NSError *error; if (![[self fetchedResultsController] performFetch:&error]) { // <-- crashes here // Handle the error... } } - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController { if (fetchedResultsController != nil) { return fetchedResultsController; } /* Set up the fetched results controller. */ // Create the fetch request for the entity. NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; // Edit the entity name as appropriate. // **** crashes on the next line because managedObjectContext == 0x0 NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"SecondEntity" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; // <snip> ... more code here from Apple template, never gets executed because of the crashing return fetchedResultsController; } Any ideas on what I am doing wrong here? managedObjectContext is a retained property. UPDATE: I inserted a NSLog([[managedObjectContext registeredObjects] description]); in viewDidLoad and it appears managedObjectContext is being passed just fine. Still crashing, though. Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: '+entityForName: could not locate an NSManagedObjectModel for entity name 'SecondEntity''

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  • Can't Set Crystal Report Selection Formula Programatically

    - by eidylon
    Hello all, first, I can't stand Crystal! Okay, that's off my chest... Now, we have an old VB6 app we maintain for a client, which uses the Crystal Automation library to programatically change the record selection formulas in a bunch of Crystal Reports 8.5 reports. There are two reports which are ALMOST identical. I had to change them recently to add another field from another table. When I added the table in to the reports though, while it added it in the visual designer, it did not add it in the FROM clause of the SQL statement. So, I manually edited the SQL statement to add in the additional join. KO, works great. If i run the reports in Crystal preview mode, they work exactly as expected. Now, the users went to test the changes from within the VB app. One of the reports works fine and dandy. The other report however, is failing to set the selection formula as expected. The code sets the selection formulas using the function PESetSelectionFormula. I verified that the string being passed in to the function as the new selection formula is correct via a step-through examination of the variables. The call to PESetSelectionFormula seems to be working okay, and is returning a value of 1, which as near as I can find anywhere indicates success. (The other report, which is working fine from code is also returning 1.) However, the report is failing with an error: Error Code: 534 - Error detected by database DLL. The code, for debugging purposes dumps out the SQL string currently being used by the report. The SQL coming out of the report is: SELECT ... FROM ... WHERE ORDER BY ... As you can see, the WHERE clause is blank, which I would imagine is why the database DLL is upchucking on this statement. I don't understand why the automation library is not setting the WHERE clause even though the call to PESetSelectionFormula is being passed a valid string and is returning success. I thought perhaps it was because I had manually edited the SQL in the report to add the table it wasn't adding, but I did the same thing in the other nearly identical report, and that one is working fine. Anyone have any ideas why PESetSelectionFormula might report success but not actually do anything? P.S. I have already tried doing a Database Verify Database from the menus, and that said the report was all up to date and did not help at all.

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