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  • XmlDocument.Load() throws XmlSchemaValidationException

    - by Praetorian
    Hi, I'm trying to validate an XML document against a schema (which is embedded in my program as a resource). I got everything to work, so I tried to test for errors by adding a second sibling node in the XML at a location where the schema specifies maxOccurs="1". The problem is that my ValidationEventHandler is never getting called, also XmlDocument.Load() is throwing an XmlSchemaValidationException exception when I'd expected XmlDocument.Validate() to do that. This is the code I have: private void ValidateUserData( string xmlPath ) { var resInfo = Application.GetResourceStream( new Uri( @"MySchema.xsd", UriKind.Relative ) ); var schema = XmlSchema.Read( resInfo.Stream, SchemaValidationCallBack ); XmlSchemaSet schemaSet = new XmlSchemaSet(); schemaSet.Add( schema ); schemaSet.ValidationEventHandler += SchemaValidationCallBack; XmlReaderSettings settings = new XmlReaderSettings(); settings.Schemas = schemaSet; settings.ValidationType = ValidationType.Schema; XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); using( XmlReader reader = XmlReader.Create( xmlPath, settings ) ) { doc.Load( reader ); // <-- This line throws an exception if XML is ill-formed reader.Close(); } doc.Validate( SchemaValidationCallBack );// <-- This is never reached } private void SchemaValidationCallBack( object sender, ValidationEventArgs e ) { Console.WriteLine( "SchemaValidationCallBack: " + e.Message ); } How do I get the callback to be called so I can handle validation errors? Thanks for your help!

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  • Alternative to using c:out to prevent XSS

    - by lynxforest
    I'm working on preventing cross site scripting (XSS) in a Java, Spring based, Web application. I have already implemented a servlet filter similar to this example http://greatwebguy.com/programming/java/simple-cross-site-scripting-xss-servlet-filter/ which sanitizes all the input into the application. As an extra security measure I would like to also sanitize all output of the application in all JSPs. I have done some research to see how this could be done and found two complementary options. One of them is the use of Spring's defaultHtmlEscape attribute. This was very easy to implement (a few lines in web.xml), and it works great when your output is going through one of spring's tags (ie: message, or form tags). The other option I have found is to not directly use EL expressions such as ${...} and instead use <c:out value="${...}" /> That second approach works perfectly, however due to the size of the application I am working on (200+ JSP files). It is a very cumbersome task to have to replace all inappropriate uses of EL expressions with the c:out tag. Also it would become a cumbersome task in the future to make sure all developers stick to this convention of using the c:out tag (not to mention, how much more unreadable the code would be). Is there alternative way to escape the output of EL expressions that would require fewer code modifications? Thank you in advance.

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  • C++ operator lookup rules / Koenig lookup

    - by John Bartholomew
    While writing a test suite, I needed to provide an implementation of operator<<(std::ostream&... for Boost unit test to use. This worked: namespace theseus { namespace core { std::ostream& operator<<(std::ostream& ss, const PixelRGB& p) { return (ss << "PixelRGB(" << (int)p.r << "," << (int)p.g << "," << (int)p.b << ")"); } }} This didn't: std::ostream& operator<<(std::ostream& ss, const theseus::core::PixelRGB& p) { return (ss << "PixelRGB(" << (int)p.r << "," << (int)p.g << "," << (int)p.b << ")"); } Apparently, the second wasn't included in the candidate matches when g++ tried to resolve the use of the operator. Why (what rule causes this)? The code calling operator<< is deep within the Boost unit test framework, but here's the test code: BOOST_AUTO_TEST_SUITE(core_image) BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE(test_output) { using namespace theseus::core; BOOST_TEST_MESSAGE(PixelRGB(5,5,5)); // only compiles with operator<< definition inside theseus::core std::cout << PixelRGB(5,5,5) << "\n"; // works with either definition BOOST_CHECK(true); // prevent no-assertion error } BOOST_AUTO_TEST_SUITE_END() For reference, I'm using g++ 4.4 (though for the moment I'm assuming this behaviour is standards-conformant).

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  • Disadvantages of MySQL Row Locking

    - by Nyxynyx
    I am using row locking (transactions) in MySQL for creating a job queue. Engine used is InnoDB. SQL Query START TRANSACTION; SELECT * FROM mytable WHERE status IS NULL ORDER BY timestamp DESC LIMIT 1 FOR UPDATE; UPDATE mytable SET status = 1; COMMIT; According to this webpage, The problem with SELECT FOR UPDATE is that it usually creates a single synchronization point for all of the worker processes, and you see a lot of processes waiting for the locks to be released with COMMIT. Question: Does this mean that when the first query is executed, which takes some time to finish the transaction before, when the second similar query occurs before the first transaction is committed, it will have to wait for it to finish before the query is executed? If this is true, then I do not understand why the row locking of a single row (which I assume) will affect the next transaction query that would not require reading that locked row? Additionally, can this problem be solved (and still achieve the effect row locking does for a job queue) by doing a UPDATE instead of the transaction? UPDATE mytable SET status = 1 WHERE status IS NULL ORDER BY timestamp DESC LIMIT 1

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  • Preventing HTML character entities in locale files from getting munged by Rails3 xss protection

    - by Chris S
    We're building an app, our first using Rails 3, and we're having to build I18n in from the outset. Being perfectionists, we want real typography to be used in our views: dashes, curled quotes, ellipses et al. This means in our locales/xx.yml files we have two choices: Use real UTF-8 characters inline. Should work, but hard to type, and scares me due to the amount of software which still does naughty things to unicode. Use HTML character entities (&#8217; &#8212; etc). Easier to type, and probably more compatible with misbehaving software. I'd rather take the second option, however the auto-escaping in Rails 3 makes this problematic, as the ampersands in the YAML get auto-converted into character entities themselves, resulting in 'visible' &8217;s in the browser. Obviously this can be worked around by using raw on strings, i.e.: raw t('views.signup.organisation_details') But we're not happy going down the route of globally raw-ing every time we t something as it leaves us open to making an error and producing an XSS hole. We could selectively raw strings which we know contain character entities, but this would be hard to scale, and just feels wrong - besides, a string which contains an entity in one language may not in another. Any suggestions on a clever rails-y way to fix this? Or are we doomed to crap typography, xss holes, hours of wasted effort or all thre?

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  • Does QThread::sleep() require the event loop to be running?

    - by suszterpatt
    I have a simple client-server program written in Qt, where processes communicate using MPI. The basic design I'm trying to implement is the following: The first process (the "server") launches a GUI (derived from QMainWindow), which listens for messages from the clients (using repeat fire QTimers and asynchronous MPI receive calls), updates the GUI depending on what messages it receives, and sends a reply to every message. Every other process (the "clients") runs in an infinite loop, and all they are intended to do is send a message to the server process, receive the reply, go to sleep for a while, then wake up and repeat. Every process instantiates a single object derived from QThread, and calls its start() method. The run() method of these classes all look like this: from foo.cpp: void Foo::run() { while (true) { // Send message to the first process // Wait for a reply // Do uninteresting stuff with the reply sleep(3); // also tried QThread::sleep(3) } } In the client's code, there is no call to exec() anywhere, so no event loop should start. The problem is that the clients never wake up from sleeping (if I surround the sleep() call with two writes to a log file, only the first one is executed, control never reaches the second). Is this because I didn't start the event loop? And if so, what is the simplest way to achieve the desired functionality?

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  • NSCollectionView: Can the same object not be in the array more than once or is this a bug?

    - by Sean
    I may be doing this all wrong, but I thought I was on the right track until I hit this little snag. Basically I was putting together a toy using NSCollectionView and trying to understand how to hook that all up using IB. I have a button which will add a couple of strings to the NSArrayController: The first time I press this button, my strings appear in the collection view as expected: The second time I press the button, the views scroll down and room is made - but the items don't appear to get added. I just see blank space: The button is implemented as follows (controller is a pointer to the NSArrayController I added in IB): - (IBAction)addStuff:(id)control { [controller addObjects:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"String 1",@"String 2",@"String 3",nil]]; } I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. Rather than try to explain all the connections/binds/etc, if you need more info, I'd be grateful if you could just take a quick look at the toy project itself. UPDATE: After more experimentation as suggested by James Williams, it seems the problem stems from having multiple objects with the same memory address in the array. This confuses either NSArrayController or NSCollectionView (not sure which). Changing my addStuff: to this resulted in the behavior I originally expected: [controller addObjects:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 1"],[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 2"],[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 3"],nil]]; So the question now, I guess, is if this is a bug I should report to Apple or if this is intended/documented behavior and I just missed it?

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  • Positioning divs

    - by Thomas
    Hi all, I'm working with the Jquery accordion. So my code goes like this: <h3><a href="#">Test </a></h3> <div class="accordion" style="background-color:yellow;"> <div class="test_1"> my first dynamic content div </div> <div class="test_2"> my second dynamic content div </div> </div> So you see the H3 that's the 'accordian', if i click on that the div accordion opens with inside 2 seperate divs. That all works but the positioning of my 2 divs inside the accordion div fails. I should like to get them UNDER eachother, but both divs got generated dynamically what means that i don't know the size of the first div (test_1) so i can't position on pixels. I already tried with some br tags etc but nothing seems to work. Is there a way to do this in css maybe with float or something or should it be done inside the html ? ANy other ideas? Regards, T

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  • Push TFS 2008 code to remote VSS over VPN?

    - by drovani
    We have a local Team Foundation Server 2008 that we keep our code under version control. However, we also have a paranoid client that has their own Visual Source Safe installation that wants us to keep a running copy of the code on their server as well. As such, I'm hoping there is a way I can just do a nightly push from our TFS repository to their VSS repository. I'm not concerned about keeping each changeset on TFS as a different changeset on the VSS, just a once-nightly push that creates a new changeset on the VSS and uploads the latest changeset from TFS. I guess the first part is if it is even possible for TFS to push an update to VSS. I've noticed that most replies to this question have been something to the tune of "don't do it", but I can't find anything that specifically states that it cannot be done. The second part would then be automating the process by having the TFS server connect to the client's VPN, then push the code changes. I have full control over the TFS server and I can customize the VSS install, if there are settings that need changing, but I'm limited on what I can do about settings on either firewall or server specific settings on the client's VSS server.

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  • Insert data in an object to a database.

    - by paul
    I am facing the following design/implementation dilemma. I have a class Customer which is below with getters and setters. I would like to insert the value of the Customer into a "Customer" table of a database. But Customer has an address which is of type "Address". How do I go about inserting this field into the database?(I am using sqlite3). I thought of writing a separate table "Address(customerId,doorNo,city,state,country,pinCode)". But I am having second thoughts about generating the primary key(customerId) which should be same for both the "customer" and "Address" table. Sqlite3 faq states that I can do "Integer Primary Key" to use the field to generate an auto number. But if I do that in customer table, I would have to retrieve the same Id to be used in Address table. This kinda looks wrong to me :-?. There should be an elegant method to solve this. Any ideas would be much appreciated. Thanks in advance. import java.io.*; import java.sql.*; class Customer { private String id; private String name; private Address address; private Connection connection; private ResultSet resultSet; private PreparedStatement preparedStatement; public void insertToDatabase(){ } } class Address{ private String doorNumber; private String streetName; private String cityName; private String districtName; private String stateName; private String countryName; private long pinCode; }

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  • Interchange structured data between Haskell and C

    - by Eonil
    First, I'm a Haskell beginner. I'm planning integrating Haskell into C for realtime game. Haskell does logic, C does rendering. To do this, I have to pass huge complexly structured data (game state) from/to each other for each tick (at least 30 times per second). So the passing data should be lightweight. This state data may laid on sequential space on memory. Both of Haskell and C parts should access every area of the states freely. In best case, the cost of passing data can be copying a pointer to a memory. In worst case, copying whole data with conversion. I'm reading Haskell's FFI(http://www.haskell.org/haskellwiki/FFICookBook#Working_with_structs) The Haskell code look specifying memory layout explicitly. I have a few questions. Can Haskell specify memory layout explicitly? (to be matched exactly with C struct) Is this real memory layout? Or any kind of conversion required? (performance penalty) If Q#2 is true, Any performance penalty when the memory layout specified explicitly? What's the syntax #{alignment foo}? Where can I find the document about this? If I want to pass huge data with best performance, how should I do that? *PS Explicit memory layout feature which I said is just C#'s [StructLayout] attribute. Which is specifying in-memory position and size explicitly. http://www.developerfusion.com/article/84519/mastering-structs-in-c/ I'm not sure Haskell has matching linguistic construct matching with fields of C struct.

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  • Concept of WNDCLASSEX, good programming habits and WndProc for system classes

    - by luiscubal
    I understand that the Windows API uses "classes", relying to the WNDCLASS/WNDCLASSEX structures. I have successfully gone through windows API Hello World applications and understand that this class is used by our own windows, but also by Windows core controls, such as "EDIT", "BUTTON", etc. I also understand that it is somehow related to WndProc(it allows me to define a function for it) Although I can find documentation about this class, I can't find anything explaining the concept. So far, the only thing I found about it was this: A Window Class has NOTHING to do with C++ classes. Which really doesn't help(it tells me what it isn't but doesn't tellme what it is). In fact, this only confuses me more, since I'd be tempted to associate WNDCLASSEX to C++ classes and think that "WNDCLASSEX" represents a control type . So, my first question is What is it? In second place, I understand that one can define a WndProc in a class. However, a window can also get messages from the child controls(or windows, or whatever they are called in the Windows API). How can this be? Finally, when is it a good programming practise to define a new class? Per application(for the main frame), per frame, one per control I define(if I create my own progress bar class, for example)? I know Java/Swing, C#/Windows.Form, C/GTK+ and C++/wxWidgets, so I'll probably understand comparisons with these toolkits.

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  • iPhone - adding views and landscape orientation

    - by Franz
    I got a problem with Cocoa touch and landscape orientation. I instantiate my view from a .xib; i added in my view controller - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { return interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight; } to only allow landscape orientation. This works find for the first view i add.. if I add a second view however it is rotated again like the landscape view is shown in portrait mode (rotated 90 degree counterclockwise). I really don't know what is going on and can't find a workaround. I even tried to get behind what is happening just adding my view twice: MainMenuViewController* controller = [[MainMenuViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainMenu" bundle:nil]; [window addSubview: controller.view]; MainMenuViewController* controller2 = [[MainMenuViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainMenu" bundle:nil]; [window addSubview: controller2.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; The view of controller is displayed correctly, while the view of controller2 is rotated by 90 degrees. Does anyone have an idea how this can happen? Thanks for your help.

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  • Get location of element you just pushed into vector C++

    - by Satchmo Brown
    I am curious about how pushing back into a vector works. I want a way to push back an element and then be able to add it's location in the vector to a double array serving as a type of map. Something like this: // Create a bomb Bomb b; b.currentTime = SDL_GetTicks(); b.explodeTime = SDL_GetTicks() + 3000; b.owner = player; b.power = 2; b.x = x; b.y = y; bombVec.push_back(b); bombs[y][x] = THIS_IS_WHAT_I_WANT; This way when I explode the bomb, I can check the map and then have an ID in the vector to deal with. Every non bomb square will have a -1. Also, just curious. Imagine I have 3 elements in a vector. I delete the second one and then add another. Does the new element go in the same location as the one that was deleted? Thanks!

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  • jquery change event not working with IE6

    - by manivineet
    It is indeed quite unfortunate that my client still uses IE6. using jquery 1.4.2 The problem is that I open a window using a click event and do some edit operation in the new window. I have a 'change' event attached to the row of a table which has input fields. Now when the window loads for the first time and I make a change in the input for the FIRST time, the change event does not fire. however, on a second try it starts working. I have noticed that I e.g. I run a dummy page, i.e. create a new page(i work with visual studio) and run that page individually , the 'change' event works just fine. what it going on? and what can i do, besides going back to 1.3.2 (by the way that doesn't work either, but haven't fully tested it yet) <!--HTML--> <table id="tbReadData"> <tr class="nenDataRow" id="nenDr2"> <td> <input type="text" class="nenMeterRegister" value="1234" /> </td> <tr /> <table> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#tbReadData').find('tr').change(function() { alert('this works'); } }); </script>

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  • Application Design: Single vs. Multiple Hits to the DB

    - by shyneman
    I'm building a service that performs a set of configured activities based on the type of request that it receives. Each activity involves going to the database and retrieving/updating some kind of information. The logic for each activity can be generalized and re-used across different request types. The activities may need to participate in a transaction for the duration of the servicing the request. One option, I'm considering is having each activity maintain its own access to DAL/database. This fully encapsulates the activity into a stand-alone re-usable piece, but hitting the database multiple times for one request doesn't seem like a viable option. I don't really know how to easily implement the concept of a transaction across the multiple activities here either. The second option is to encapsulate ALL the activities into one big activity and hit the database once. But this does not allow re-use and configuration of these activities for different requests. Does anyone have any suggestions and input about what should be the best way to approach my problem? Thanks for any help.

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  • In ASP.NET, is it possible to output cache by host name? ie varybyhost or varbyhostheader?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I've got a website that has a number of host headers. Depending on the host header, the results are different - both visually (theme'd) and data. So lets imagine i have a website called 'Foo' - that returns search results (original, eh?). Now, the same code runs both sites. It is physically the same server/website (using Host Headers) :- www.foo.com www.foo.com.au Now, if i goto '.com', the site is theme'd in blue. if i goto the '.com.au' site, it's theme'd in red. And the data is different for the same search result, based on the host name (ie. us results for .com, au results for .com.au) SO .. if i wish to use OutputCaching .. can this be handled / differ by the host name? I don't want to have the first person goto the .com site .. grab the results ... and the a second person goto my .com.au .. same search data .. and get the theme and results for the .com site. Possible?

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  • MySQL Ratings From Two Tables

    - by DirtyBirdNJ
    I am using MySQL and PHP to build a data layer for a flash game. Retrieving lists of levels is pretty easy, but I've hit a roadblock in trying to fetch the level's average rating along with it's pointer information. Here is an example data set: levels Table: level_id | level_name 1 | Some Level 2 | Second Level 3 | Third Level ratings Table: rating_id | level_id | rating_value 1 | 1 | 3 2 | 1 | 4 3 | 1 | 1 4 | 2 | 3 5 | 2 | 4 6 | 2 | 1 7 | 3 | 3 8 | 3 | 4 9 | 3 | 1 I know this requires a join, but I cannot figure out how to get the average rating value based on the level_id when I request a list of levels. This is what I'm trying to do: SELECT levels.level_id, AVG(ratings.level_rating WHERE levels.level_id = ratings.level_id) FROM levels I know my SQL is flawed there, but I can't figure out how to get this concept across. The only thing I can get to work is returning a single average from the entire ratings table, which is not very useful. Ideal Output from the above conceptually valid but syntactically awry query would be: level_id | level_rating 1| 3.34 2| 1.00 3| 4.54 My main issue is I can't figure out how to use the level_id of each response row before the query has been returned. It's like I want to use a placeholder... or an alias... I really don't know and it's very frustrating. The solution I have in place now is an EPIC band-aid and will only cause me problems long term... please help!

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  • Exposed onsite vs IFD deployments for MS Dynamics CRM

    - by Greg McGuffey
    I'm working for the first time on a MS Dyanmics CRM 4.0 project. Our company has a high number of remote employees and even more remote consultants. As such it will be necessary to make the CRM solution available over the internet. As near as I can tell, I have three options: Have everyone use a VPN to access an intranet site (typical onsite deployment). However, we have found that VPNs are far from trouble free and cause many support issues. We avoid them like the plague. Use IFD to expose the CRM on the internet. I don't know much about this except that the URL will be different than the onsite URL, which could cause some headaches (see below). Expose the CRM site by opening the site to the internet, using SSL to encrypt traffic. We currently do this with our MS sharepoint sites. I'm not sure how secure this would be (one of the reasons for this question). I'd like to avoid using both the onsite intranet deployment and the IFD together for a couple of reasons. One of the requests for the solution is use email to notify users that they've been assigned a task, and include the URL to the task within the email. For this reason. If both deployments are used, then I'll need to include two URLs and the user would need to know which to use. Which leads to the second reason, the main users of the solution split time between being in the office and being remote. Thus they would need to access the solution two different ways, and know when to use which. Bad. So, what are the advantages/disadvantages of any of these methods? Any other options? Is there any issue using IFD from within the intranet? Security issues? Thanks!

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  • Streaming Youtube Videos

    - by Vinay
    Hi All, I am writing an application to play the youtube videos using streaming. First method: I am getting the RTSP URL to the video using GData APIs. Here is the code to play the RTSP url. VideoView mVideoView = new VideoView(this); setContentView(mVideoView); mVideoView.setVideoURI(Uri.parse("rtsp://rtsp2.youtube.com/CiILENy73wIaGQkDwpjrUxOWQBMYESARFEgGUgZ2aWRlb3MM/0/0/0/video.3gp")); mVideoView.start(); But it throws error on both G1 device and emulator (Emulator has some firewall problem as per mailing list) Here is the error message ERROR/PlayerDriver(35): Command PLAYER_INIT completed with an error or info PVMFFailure Second method: A hack way to get the path of 3gp file from http://www.youtube.com/get_video?v=&t=<&<.. After getting the file path and I can call setVideoURI and it plays fine. But it is a hack way to achieve the requirement. I have checked the Youtube App also, it also does the hack way to play the youtube url.(Checked with logcat) I have tried changing from VideoView to MediaPlayer but no change in the error. Is there a "Clean" way to do this? Please let me know your thoughts.

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  • Determining when stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished

    - by alku83
    I have a UIWebView which loads up an HTML page. This page has two buttons on it, say Exit and Submit. I don't want users to be able to click the Exit button, so once the page has finished loading (ie. webViewDidFinishLoad is called), I use stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString to remove one of these buttons, by manipulating the HTML. I also disable user interaction on the UIWebView on webViewDidStartLoad, and enable it again on webViewDidFinishLoad. The problem I am finding is that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString takes a second or two to complete, and it seems to be done in it's own thread. So what is happening is that webViewDidFinishLoad is called, user interaction is enabled on the UIWebView, and if the user is quick, they can click the Exit button before stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished. As stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString seems to be on it's own thread with no way to know when it's finished (it doesnt call webViewDidFinishLoad), the only way to completely prevent users from tapping the Exit button that I can see is to only enable user interaction on the UIWebView after some delay, which is unreliable (how can I really know how long to delay for?). Am I correct in that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is done on it's on thread, and I have no way of being able to tell when it's finished? Any other suggestions for how to get around this problem? EDIT: In short, what I want to know is if it is possible to disable a UIWebView while stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is executing, and re-enable the UIWebView when the javascript is finished. EDIT 2: There's an article here which seems to imply you can somehow poll the JS engine to see when it's finished, but I can't find any other references saying the same thing: http://drnicwilliams.com/2008/11/10/to-webkit-or-not-to-webkit-within-your-iphone-app/ EDIT 3 Based on the answer from Brad Smith, it seems that I actually need to know when the UIWebView has finished loading itself after the javascript has executed. It's looking more and more like I just need to put a delay of sorts in there.

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  • How do I push another viewController onto the navigationController from within a tabviewController?

    - by user207788
    Hi, I have a project set up using these two tutorials. http://twilloapp.blogspot.com/2009/03/how-to-embed-navigation-controller.html and the link for the second tutorial is at the bottom of the first. The tutorial is slightly outdated but I managed to get it to work as advertised. Now I want to push a new detailedView onto the NavigationController when a user touches a row in the table view. So I added this to my MyTableViewController.m file. - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { // Navigation logic may go here. Create and push another view controller. SecondViewController *detailViewController = [[SecondViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SecondViewController.xib" bundle:nil]; // ... // Pass the selected object to the new view controller. [self.navigationController pushViewController:detailViewController animated:YES]; [detailViewController release]; } Now when I run this project and touch a row in my table view I am getting an error: asm_Terminating_due_to_uncaught_exception IT seems to be having an issue loading the SecondViewController from nib, however I checked the detailViewController and it is not nil. I know I am missing something and it is more than likely something simple. Please help. Thanks, Bruce

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  • Adding <tr> from repeater's ItemDataBound Event

    - by nemiss
    My repeater's templates generate a table, where each item is a table row. When a very very specific condition is met (itemdata), I want to add an additional row to the table from this event. How can I do that? protected void rptData_ItemDataBound(object sender, RepeaterItemEventArgs e) { if (e.Item.ItemType == ListItemType.Item || e.Item.ItemType == ListItemType.AlternatingItem) { bool tmp = bool.Parse(DataBinder.Eval(e.Item.DataItem, "somedata").ToString()); if (!tmp && e.Item.ItemIndex != 0) { //Add row after this item } } } I can use e.Item.Controls.Add() and add TableRow but for that I need to locate a table right? How can I solve that? UPDATE I will explain now why I need this: I am creating a sort of message board, where data entries are displayed in a tabled style. The first items in the table are "important" items after those items, i want to add this row. I could solved it using 2 repeaters, where the first repeater will be bounded to pinned items, and the second repeater will be bounded to refular items. But I don't want to have to repeaters nor I want to complex the business logic for separating the fetched data to pinned and not-pinned collection. I think the best opton is to do it "onfly", using one repeater and one datasource.

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  • Retrieve values from multimdimensional array

    - by vincentlerry
    I have a great difficulty. I need to retrieve [title], [url] and [abstract] values ??from this multidimensional array. Also, I have to store those values in mysql database. thanks in advance!!! Array ( [bossresponse] = Array ( [responsecode] = 200 [limitedweb] = Array ( [start] = 0 [count] = 20 [totalresults] = 972000 [results] = Array ( [0] = Array ( [date] = [clickurl] = http://www.torchlake.com/ [url] = http://www.torchlake.com/ [dispurl] = www.torchlake.com [title] = Torch Lake, COLI Inc, Highspeed, Dial-up, Wireless ... [abstract] = Welcome to COLI Inc. Chain O' Lake Internet. Local Northern Michigan ISP, offering Dialup Internet access, Wireless access, Web design, and T1 services in Northern ... ) [1] = Array ( [date] = [clickurl] = http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Torch_Lake_(Antrim_County,_Michigan) [url] = http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Torch_Lake_(Antrim_County,_Michigan) [dispurl] = en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Torch_Lake_(Antrim_County,_Michigan) [title] = Torch Lake (Antrim County, Michigan) - Wikipedia, the free ... [abstract] = Torch Lake at 19 miles (31 km) long is Michigan's longest lake and at approximately 18,770 acres (76 km²) is Michigan's second largest lake. Within it are several ... ) this is the entire code that generates this array: require("OAuth.php"); $cc_key = ""; $cc_secret = ""; $url = "http://yboss.yahooapis.com/ysearch/limitedweb"; $args = array(); $args["q"] = "car"; $args["format"] = "json"; $args["count"] = 20; $consumer = new OAuthConsumer($cc_key, $cc_secret); $request = OAuthRequest::from_consumer_and_token($consumer, NULL,"GET", $url, $args); $request-sign_request(new OAuthSignatureMethod_HMAC_SHA1(), $consumer, NULL); $url = sprintf("%s?%s", $url, OAuthUtil::build_http_query($args)); $ch = curl_init(); $headers = array($request-to_header()); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $headers); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, TRUE); $rsp = curl_exec($ch); $results = json_decode($rsp, true);

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  • How do I create Variables in XSLT that are not document fragments?

    - by chiborg
    Consider the following XSLT template <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:variable name="var1"> <elem>1</elem> <elem>2</elem> <elem>3</elem> </xsl:variable> <xsl:text>var1 has </xsl:text> <xsl:value-of select="count($var1)"/> <xsl:text>elements. </xsl:text> <xsl:variable name="var2" select="$var1/elem[. != '2']"/> <xsl:text>var2 has </xsl:text> <xsl:value-of select="count($var2)"/> <xsl:text>elements. </xsl:text> </xsl:template> The output of this template is var1 has 1 elements var2 has 2 elements The first line outputs 1 (and not, as I first expected 3) because var1 is a document fragment that contains the <elem> elements as childen. Now for my questions: How can I create a variable that does not contain a document fragment? I could do it like I did with var2, only leaving out the predicate. But maybe there is a way without using a second variable. Or, as an alternative: How can I preserve the document fragment in a variable while filtering out some elements?

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