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• NSCollectionView: Can the same object not be in the array more than once or is this a bug?

  - by Sean

  I may be doing this all wrong, but I thought I was on the right track until I hit this little snag. Basically I was putting together a toy using NSCollectionView and trying to understand how to hook that all up using IB. I have a button which will add a couple of strings to the NSArrayController: The first time I press this button, my strings appear in the collection view as expected: The second time I press the button, the views scroll down and room is made - but the items don't appear to get added. I just see blank space: The button is implemented as follows (controller is a pointer to the NSArrayController I added in IB): - (IBAction)addStuff:(id)control { [controller addObjects:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"String 1",@"String 2",@"String 3",nil]]; } I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. Rather than try to explain all the connections/binds/etc, if you need more info, I'd be grateful if you could just take a quick look at the toy project itself. UPDATE: After more experimentation as suggested by James Williams, it seems the problem stems from having multiple objects with the same memory address in the array. This confuses either NSArrayController or NSCollectionView (not sure which). Changing my addStuff: to this resulted in the behavior I originally expected: [controller addObjects:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 1"],[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 2"],[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 3"],nil]]; So the question now, I guess, is if this is a bug I should report to Apple or if this is intended/documented behavior and I just missed it?

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• Insert data in an object to a database.

  - by paul

  I am facing the following design/implementation dilemma. I have a class Customer which is below with getters and setters. I would like to insert the value of the Customer into a "Customer" table of a database. But Customer has an address which is of type "Address". How do I go about inserting this field into the database?(I am using sqlite3). I thought of writing a separate table "Address(customerId,doorNo,city,state,country,pinCode)". But I am having second thoughts about generating the primary key(customerId) which should be same for both the "customer" and "Address" table. Sqlite3 faq states that I can do "Integer Primary Key" to use the field to generate an auto number. But if I do that in customer table, I would have to retrieve the same Id to be used in Address table. This kinda looks wrong to me :-?. There should be an elegant method to solve this. Any ideas would be much appreciated. Thanks in advance. import java.io.*; import java.sql.*; class Customer { private String id; private String name; private Address address; private Connection connection; private ResultSet resultSet; private PreparedStatement preparedStatement; public void insertToDatabase(){ } } class Address{ private String doorNumber; private String streetName; private String cityName; private String districtName; private String stateName; private String countryName; private long pinCode; }

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• Java - Thread problem

  - by Yatendra Goel

  My question is related to all those methods(including Thread.sleep(...)) which throw InterruptedException. I found a statement on Sun's tutorial saying InterruptedException is an exception that sleep throws when another thread interrupts the current thread while sleep is active. Is that means that the interrupt will be ignored if the sleep is not active at the time of interrupt? Suppose I have two threads: threadOne and threadTwo. threadOne creates and starts threadTwo. threadTwo executes a runnable whose run method is something like: public void run() { : : try { Thread.sleep(10 * 1000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { return; } : : : // In the middle of two sleep invocations : : try { Thread.sleep(10 * 1000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { return; } : : } After thread creation, threadOne interrupts threadTwo. Suppose the threadTwo is in the middle of two sleep invocations at the time of interrupt (when no sleep method was active), then will the second sleep method throw InterrupteException as soon as it is invoked? If not, then will this interrupt will be ignored forever? How to be sure that threadTwo will always know about the interrupt (doesn't matter whether its one of the sleep method is active or not)?

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• Interchange structured data between Haskell and C

  - by Eonil

  First, I'm a Haskell beginner. I'm planning integrating Haskell into C for realtime game. Haskell does logic, C does rendering. To do this, I have to pass huge complexly structured data (game state) from/to each other for each tick (at least 30 times per second). So the passing data should be lightweight. This state data may laid on sequential space on memory. Both of Haskell and C parts should access every area of the states freely. In best case, the cost of passing data can be copying a pointer to a memory. In worst case, copying whole data with conversion. I'm reading Haskell's FFI(http://www.haskell.org/haskellwiki/FFICookBook#Working_with_structs) The Haskell code look specifying memory layout explicitly. I have a few questions. Can Haskell specify memory layout explicitly? (to be matched exactly with C struct) Is this real memory layout? Or any kind of conversion required? (performance penalty) If Q#2 is true, Any performance penalty when the memory layout specified explicitly? What's the syntax #{alignment foo}? Where can I find the document about this? If I want to pass huge data with best performance, how should I do that? *PS Explicit memory layout feature which I said is just C#'s [StructLayout] attribute. Which is specifying in-memory position and size explicitly. http://www.developerfusion.com/article/84519/mastering-structs-in-c/ I'm not sure Haskell has matching linguistic construct matching with fields of C struct.

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• Concept of WNDCLASSEX, good programming habits and WndProc for system classes

  - by luiscubal

  I understand that the Windows API uses "classes", relying to the WNDCLASS/WNDCLASSEX structures. I have successfully gone through windows API Hello World applications and understand that this class is used by our own windows, but also by Windows core controls, such as "EDIT", "BUTTON", etc. I also understand that it is somehow related to WndProc(it allows me to define a function for it) Although I can find documentation about this class, I can't find anything explaining the concept. So far, the only thing I found about it was this: A Window Class has NOTHING to do with C++ classes. Which really doesn't help(it tells me what it isn't but doesn't tellme what it is). In fact, this only confuses me more, since I'd be tempted to associate WNDCLASSEX to C++ classes and think that "WNDCLASSEX" represents a control type . So, my first question is What is it? In second place, I understand that one can define a WndProc in a class. However, a window can also get messages from the child controls(or windows, or whatever they are called in the Windows API). How can this be? Finally, when is it a good programming practise to define a new class? Per application(for the main frame), per frame, one per control I define(if I create my own progress bar class, for example)? I know Java/Swing, C#/Windows.Form, C/GTK+ and C++/wxWidgets, so I'll probably understand comparisons with these toolkits.

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• Positioning divs

  - by Thomas

  Hi all, I'm working with the Jquery accordion. So my code goes like this: <h3><a href="#">Test </a></h3> <div class="accordion" style="background-color:yellow;"> <div class="test_1"> my first dynamic content div </div> <div class="test_2"> my second dynamic content div </div> </div> So you see the H3 that's the 'accordian', if i click on that the div accordion opens with inside 2 seperate divs. That all works but the positioning of my 2 divs inside the accordion div fails. I should like to get them UNDER eachother, but both divs got generated dynamically what means that i don't know the size of the first div (test_1) so i can't position on pixels. I already tried with some br tags etc but nothing seems to work. Is there a way to do this in css maybe with float or something or should it be done inside the html ? ANy other ideas? Regards, T

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• Push TFS 2008 code to remote VSS over VPN?

  - by drovani

  We have a local Team Foundation Server 2008 that we keep our code under version control. However, we also have a paranoid client that has their own Visual Source Safe installation that wants us to keep a running copy of the code on their server as well. As such, I'm hoping there is a way I can just do a nightly push from our TFS repository to their VSS repository. I'm not concerned about keeping each changeset on TFS as a different changeset on the VSS, just a once-nightly push that creates a new changeset on the VSS and uploads the latest changeset from TFS. I guess the first part is if it is even possible for TFS to push an update to VSS. I've noticed that most replies to this question have been something to the tune of "don't do it", but I can't find anything that specifically states that it cannot be done. The second part would then be automating the process by having the TFS server connect to the client's VPN, then push the code changes. I have full control over the TFS server and I can customize the VSS install, if there are settings that need changing, but I'm limited on what I can do about settings on either firewall or server specific settings on the client's VSS server.

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• Detaching all entities of T to get fresh data

  - by Goran

  Lets take an example where there are two type of entites loaded: Product and Category, Product.CategoryId - Category.Id. We have available CRUD operations on products (not Categories). If on another screen Categories are updated (or from another user in the network), we would like to be able to reload the Categories, while preserving the context we currently use, since we could be in the middle of editing data, and we do not want changes to be lost (and we cannot depend on saving, since we have incomplete data). Since there is no easy way to tell EF to get fresh data (added, removed and modified), we thought of twp possible ways: 1) Getting products attached to context, and categories detached from context. This would mean that we loose the ability to access Product.Category.Name, which we do sometimes require, so we would need to manually resolve it (example when printing data). 2) detaching / attaching all Categories from current context. Context.ChangeTracker.Entries().Where(x => x.Entity.GetType() == typeof(T)).ForEach(x => x.State = EntityState.Detached); And then reload the categories, which will get fresh data. Do you find any problem with this second approach? We understand that this will require all constraints to be put on foreign keys, and not navigation properties, since when detaching all Categories, Product.Category navigation properties would be reset to null also. Also, there could be a potential performance problem, which we did not test, since there could be couple of thousand products loaded, and all would need to resolve navigation property when reloading. Which of the two do you prefer, and is there a better way (EF6 + .NET 4.0)?

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• Preventing HTML character entities in locale files from getting munged by Rails3 xss protection

  - by Chris S

  We're building an app, our first using Rails 3, and we're having to build I18n in from the outset. Being perfectionists, we want real typography to be used in our views: dashes, curled quotes, ellipses et al. This means in our locales/xx.yml files we have two choices: Use real UTF-8 characters inline. Should work, but hard to type, and scares me due to the amount of software which still does naughty things to unicode. Use HTML character entities (&#8217; &#8212; etc). Easier to type, and probably more compatible with misbehaving software. I'd rather take the second option, however the auto-escaping in Rails 3 makes this problematic, as the ampersands in the YAML get auto-converted into character entities themselves, resulting in 'visible' &8217;s in the browser. Obviously this can be worked around by using raw on strings, i.e.: raw t('views.signup.organisation_details') But we're not happy going down the route of globally raw-ing every time we t something as it leaves us open to making an error and producing an XSS hole. We could selectively raw strings which we know contain character entities, but this would be hard to scale, and just feels wrong - besides, a string which contains an entity in one language may not in another. Any suggestions on a clever rails-y way to fix this? Or are we doomed to crap typography, xss holes, hours of wasted effort or all thre?

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• Adding <tr> from repeater's ItemDataBound Event

  - by nemiss

  My repeater's templates generate a table, where each item is a table row. When a very very specific condition is met (itemdata), I want to add an additional row to the table from this event. How can I do that? protected void rptData_ItemDataBound(object sender, RepeaterItemEventArgs e) { if (e.Item.ItemType == ListItemType.Item || e.Item.ItemType == ListItemType.AlternatingItem) { bool tmp = bool.Parse(DataBinder.Eval(e.Item.DataItem, "somedata").ToString()); if (!tmp && e.Item.ItemIndex != 0) { //Add row after this item } } } I can use e.Item.Controls.Add() and add TableRow but for that I need to locate a table right? How can I solve that? UPDATE I will explain now why I need this: I am creating a sort of message board, where data entries are displayed in a tabled style. The first items in the table are "important" items after those items, i want to add this row. I could solved it using 2 repeaters, where the first repeater will be bounded to pinned items, and the second repeater will be bounded to refular items. But I don't want to have to repeaters nor I want to complex the business logic for separating the fetched data to pinned and not-pinned collection. I think the best opton is to do it "onfly", using one repeater and one datasource.

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• Determining when stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished

  - by alku83

  I have a UIWebView which loads up an HTML page. This page has two buttons on it, say Exit and Submit. I don't want users to be able to click the Exit button, so once the page has finished loading (ie. webViewDidFinishLoad is called), I use stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString to remove one of these buttons, by manipulating the HTML. I also disable user interaction on the UIWebView on webViewDidStartLoad, and enable it again on webViewDidFinishLoad. The problem I am finding is that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString takes a second or two to complete, and it seems to be done in it's own thread. So what is happening is that webViewDidFinishLoad is called, user interaction is enabled on the UIWebView, and if the user is quick, they can click the Exit button before stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished. As stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString seems to be on it's own thread with no way to know when it's finished (it doesnt call webViewDidFinishLoad), the only way to completely prevent users from tapping the Exit button that I can see is to only enable user interaction on the UIWebView after some delay, which is unreliable (how can I really know how long to delay for?). Am I correct in that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is done on it's on thread, and I have no way of being able to tell when it's finished? Any other suggestions for how to get around this problem? EDIT: In short, what I want to know is if it is possible to disable a UIWebView while stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is executing, and re-enable the UIWebView when the javascript is finished. EDIT 2: There's an article here which seems to imply you can somehow poll the JS engine to see when it's finished, but I can't find any other references saying the same thing: http://drnicwilliams.com/2008/11/10/to-webkit-or-not-to-webkit-within-your-iphone-app/ EDIT 3 Based on the answer from Brad Smith, it seems that I actually need to know when the UIWebView has finished loading itself after the javascript has executed. It's looking more and more like I just need to put a delay of sorts in there.

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• How do I push another viewController onto the navigationController from within a tabviewController?

  - by user207788

  Hi, I have a project set up using these two tutorials. http://twilloapp.blogspot.com/2009/03/how-to-embed-navigation-controller.html and the link for the second tutorial is at the bottom of the first. The tutorial is slightly outdated but I managed to get it to work as advertised. Now I want to push a new detailedView onto the NavigationController when a user touches a row in the table view. So I added this to my MyTableViewController.m file. - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { // Navigation logic may go here. Create and push another view controller. SecondViewController *detailViewController = [[SecondViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SecondViewController.xib" bundle:nil]; // ... // Pass the selected object to the new view controller. [self.navigationController pushViewController:detailViewController animated:YES]; [detailViewController release]; } Now when I run this project and touch a row in my table view I am getting an error: asm_Terminating_due_to_uncaught_exception IT seems to be having an issue loading the SecondViewController from nib, however I checked the detailViewController and it is not nil. I know I am missing something and it is more than likely something simple. Please help. Thanks, Bruce

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• Does QThread::sleep() require the event loop to be running?

  - by suszterpatt

  I have a simple client-server program written in Qt, where processes communicate using MPI. The basic design I'm trying to implement is the following: The first process (the "server") launches a GUI (derived from QMainWindow), which listens for messages from the clients (using repeat fire QTimers and asynchronous MPI receive calls), updates the GUI depending on what messages it receives, and sends a reply to every message. Every other process (the "clients") runs in an infinite loop, and all they are intended to do is send a message to the server process, receive the reply, go to sleep for a while, then wake up and repeat. Every process instantiates a single object derived from QThread, and calls its start() method. The run() method of these classes all look like this: from foo.cpp: void Foo::run() { while (true) { // Send message to the first process // Wait for a reply // Do uninteresting stuff with the reply sleep(3); // also tried QThread::sleep(3) } } In the client's code, there is no call to exec() anywhere, so no event loop should start. The problem is that the clients never wake up from sleeping (if I surround the sleep() call with two writes to a log file, only the first one is executed, control never reaches the second). Is this because I didn't start the event loop? And if so, what is the simplest way to achieve the desired functionality?

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• Get location of element you just pushed into vector C++

  - by Satchmo Brown

  I am curious about how pushing back into a vector works. I want a way to push back an element and then be able to add it's location in the vector to a double array serving as a type of map. Something like this: // Create a bomb Bomb b; b.currentTime = SDL_GetTicks(); b.explodeTime = SDL_GetTicks() + 3000; b.owner = player; b.power = 2; b.x = x; b.y = y; bombVec.push_back(b); bombs[y][x] = THIS_IS_WHAT_I_WANT; This way when I explode the bomb, I can check the map and then have an ID in the vector to deal with. Every non bomb square will have a -1. Also, just curious. Imagine I have 3 elements in a vector. I delete the second one and then add another. Does the new element go in the same location as the one that was deleted? Thanks!

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• jquery change event not working with IE6

  - by manivineet

  It is indeed quite unfortunate that my client still uses IE6. using jquery 1.4.2 The problem is that I open a window using a click event and do some edit operation in the new window. I have a 'change' event attached to the row of a table which has input fields. Now when the window loads for the first time and I make a change in the input for the FIRST time, the change event does not fire. however, on a second try it starts working. I have noticed that I e.g. I run a dummy page, i.e. create a new page(i work with visual studio) and run that page individually , the 'change' event works just fine. what it going on? and what can i do, besides going back to 1.3.2 (by the way that doesn't work either, but haven't fully tested it yet) <!--HTML--> <table id="tbReadData"> <tr class="nenDataRow" id="nenDr2"> <td> <input type="text" class="nenMeterRegister" value="1234" /> </td> <tr /> <table> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#tbReadData').find('tr').change(function() { alert('this works'); } }); </script>

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• Application Design: Single vs. Multiple Hits to the DB

  - by shyneman

  I'm building a service that performs a set of configured activities based on the type of request that it receives. Each activity involves going to the database and retrieving/updating some kind of information. The logic for each activity can be generalized and re-used across different request types. The activities may need to participate in a transaction for the duration of the servicing the request. One option, I'm considering is having each activity maintain its own access to DAL/database. This fully encapsulates the activity into a stand-alone re-usable piece, but hitting the database multiple times for one request doesn't seem like a viable option. I don't really know how to easily implement the concept of a transaction across the multiple activities here either. The second option is to encapsulate ALL the activities into one big activity and hit the database once. But this does not allow re-use and configuration of these activities for different requests. Does anyone have any suggestions and input about what should be the best way to approach my problem? Thanks for any help.

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• Getting a Specified Cast is not valid while importing data from Excel using Linq to SQL

  - by niceoneishere

  This is my second post. After learning from my first post how fantastic is to use Linq to SQL, I wanted to try to import data from a Excel sheet into my SQL database. First My Excel Sheet: it contains 4 columns namely ItemNo ItemSize ItemPrice UnitsSold I have a created a database table with the following fields table name ProductsSold Id int not null identity --with auto increment set to true ItemNo VarChar(10) not null ItemSize VarChar(4) not null ItemPrice Decimal(18,2) not null UnitsSold int not null Now I created a dal.dbml file based on my database and I am trying to import the data from excel sheet to db table using the code below. Everything is happening on click of a button. private const string forecast_query = "SELECT ItemNo, ItemSize, ItemPrice, UnitsSold FROM [Sheet1$]"; protected void btnUpload_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { var importer = new LinqSqlModelImporter(); if (fileUpload.HasFile) { var uploadFile = new UploadFile(fileUpload.FileName); try { fileUpload.SaveAs(uploadFile.SavePath); if(File.Exists(uploadFile.SavePath)) { importer.SourceConnectionString = uploadFile.GetOleDbConnectionString(); importer.Import(forecast_query); gvDisplay.DataBind(); pnDisplay.Visible = true; } } catch (Exception ex) { Response.Write(ex.Source.ToString()); lblInfo.Text = ex.Message; } finally { uploadFile.DeleteFileNoException(); } } } // Now here is the code for LinqSqlModelImporter public class LinqSqlModelImporter : SqlImporter { public override void Import(string query) { // importing data using oledb command and inserting into db using LINQ to SQL using (var context = new WSDALDataContext()) { using (var myConnection = new OleDbConnection(base.SourceConnectionString)) using (var myCommand = new OleDbCommand(query, myConnection)) { myConnection.Open(); var myReader = myCommand.ExecuteReader(); while (myReader.Read()) { context.ProductsSolds.InsertOnSubmit(new ProductsSold() { ItemNo = myReader.GetString(0), ItemSize = myReader.GetString(1), ItemPrice = myReader.GetDecimal(2), UnitsSold = myReader.GetInt32(3) }); } } context.SubmitChanges(); } } } can someone please tell me where am I making the error or if I am missing something, but this is driving me nuts. When I debugged I am getting this error when casting from a number the value must be a number less than infinity I really appreciate it

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• Streaming Youtube Videos

  - by Vinay

  Hi All, I am writing an application to play the youtube videos using streaming. First method: I am getting the RTSP URL to the video using GData APIs. Here is the code to play the RTSP url. VideoView mVideoView = new VideoView(this); setContentView(mVideoView); mVideoView.setVideoURI(Uri.parse("rtsp://rtsp2.youtube.com/CiILENy73wIaGQkDwpjrUxOWQBMYESARFEgGUgZ2aWRlb3MM/0/0/0/video.3gp")); mVideoView.start(); But it throws error on both G1 device and emulator (Emulator has some firewall problem as per mailing list) Here is the error message ERROR/PlayerDriver(35): Command PLAYER_INIT completed with an error or info PVMFFailure Second method: A hack way to get the path of 3gp file from http://www.youtube.com/get_video?v=&t=<&<.. After getting the file path and I can call setVideoURI and it plays fine. But it is a hack way to achieve the requirement. I have checked the Youtube App also, it also does the hack way to play the youtube url.(Checked with logcat) I have tried changing from VideoView to MediaPlayer but no change in the error. Is there a "Clean" way to do this? Please let me know your thoughts.

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• In ASP.NET, is it possible to output cache by host name? ie varybyhost or varbyhostheader?

  - by Pure.Krome

  Hi folks, I've got a website that has a number of host headers. Depending on the host header, the results are different - both visually (theme'd) and data. So lets imagine i have a website called 'Foo' - that returns search results (original, eh?). Now, the same code runs both sites. It is physically the same server/website (using Host Headers) :- www.foo.com www.foo.com.au Now, if i goto '.com', the site is theme'd in blue. if i goto the '.com.au' site, it's theme'd in red. And the data is different for the same search result, based on the host name (ie. us results for .com, au results for .com.au) SO .. if i wish to use OutputCaching .. can this be handled / differ by the host name? I don't want to have the first person goto the .com site .. grab the results ... and the a second person goto my .com.au .. same search data .. and get the theme and results for the .com site. Possible?

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• MySQL Ratings From Two Tables

  - by DirtyBirdNJ

  I am using MySQL and PHP to build a data layer for a flash game. Retrieving lists of levels is pretty easy, but I've hit a roadblock in trying to fetch the level's average rating along with it's pointer information. Here is an example data set: levels Table: level_id | level_name 1 | Some Level 2 | Second Level 3 | Third Level ratings Table: rating_id | level_id | rating_value 1 | 1 | 3 2 | 1 | 4 3 | 1 | 1 4 | 2 | 3 5 | 2 | 4 6 | 2 | 1 7 | 3 | 3 8 | 3 | 4 9 | 3 | 1 I know this requires a join, but I cannot figure out how to get the average rating value based on the level_id when I request a list of levels. This is what I'm trying to do: SELECT levels.level_id, AVG(ratings.level_rating WHERE levels.level_id = ratings.level_id) FROM levels I know my SQL is flawed there, but I can't figure out how to get this concept across. The only thing I can get to work is returning a single average from the entire ratings table, which is not very useful. Ideal Output from the above conceptually valid but syntactically awry query would be: level_id | level_rating 1| 3.34 2| 1.00 3| 4.54 My main issue is I can't figure out how to use the level_id of each response row before the query has been returned. It's like I want to use a placeholder... or an alias... I really don't know and it's very frustrating. The solution I have in place now is an EPIC band-aid and will only cause me problems long term... please help!

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• questions on nfa and dfa..

  - by Loop

  Hi Guys... Hope you help me with this one.... I have a main question which is ''how to judge whether a regular expression will be accepted by NFA and/or DFA? For eg. My question says that which of the regular expressions are equivalent? explain... 1.(a+b)*b(a+b)*b(a+b)* 2.a*ba*ba* 3.a*ba*b(a+b)* do we have to draw the NFA and DFA and then find through minimisation algorithm? if we do then how do we come to know that which regular expression is accepted by NFA/DFA so that we can begin with the answer? its so confusing.... Second is a very similar one, the question asks me to show that the language (a^nb^n|n1} is not accepted by DFA...grrrrr...how do i know this? (BTW this is a set of all strings of where a number of a's is followed by the same number of b's).... I hope I explained clearly well....

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• Exposed onsite vs IFD deployments for MS Dynamics CRM

  - by Greg McGuffey

  I'm working for the first time on a MS Dyanmics CRM 4.0 project. Our company has a high number of remote employees and even more remote consultants. As such it will be necessary to make the CRM solution available over the internet. As near as I can tell, I have three options: Have everyone use a VPN to access an intranet site (typical onsite deployment). However, we have found that VPNs are far from trouble free and cause many support issues. We avoid them like the plague. Use IFD to expose the CRM on the internet. I don't know much about this except that the URL will be different than the onsite URL, which could cause some headaches (see below). Expose the CRM site by opening the site to the internet, using SSL to encrypt traffic. We currently do this with our MS sharepoint sites. I'm not sure how secure this would be (one of the reasons for this question). I'd like to avoid using both the onsite intranet deployment and the IFD together for a couple of reasons. One of the requests for the solution is use email to notify users that they've been assigned a task, and include the URL to the task within the email. For this reason. If both deployments are used, then I'll need to include two URLs and the user would need to know which to use. Which leads to the second reason, the main users of the solution split time between being in the office and being remote. Thus they would need to access the solution two different ways, and know when to use which. Bad. So, what are the advantages/disadvantages of any of these methods? Any other options? Is there any issue using IFD from within the intranet? Security issues? Thanks!

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• Problems solving oddly acting labels in ie7.

  - by Qwibble

  Okay so this is sort of a double question so I'll split it into two. First part In modern browsers the main bold labels sit above their corresponding form elements, and align to the left as is expected. However in ie7, they randomly site 10-15px inset. I went through the developer tools and could find nothing to fix it. I've made sure all my margins and padding is reset so I don't really understand =S Here's the page demo - link Maybe some of you ie bug fixing genius's know what the problem is? =D Second part Again with labels, this time the in-line ones resident next to the check boxes and radio buttons. In modern browsers again, the side beside the form elements as expected, but not so in ie7 where they take a new line. I've tried floating, changing margins and everything but to no effect in sitting it in-line with the div.checker or div.radio that is created by the uniform Jquery plugin. Here's the page demo - link Sorry for troubling you with my ie7 problems, I know they arent the most fun to solve. Hopefully someone has the patience to help. Matt

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• Add webservice reference, the classes in different file

  - by ArunDhaJ

  Hi, When I add webservice as service reference in my .Net project, it creates a service folder within "Service References". All the interfaces and classes are contained within that service folder. I wanted to know how to split the interface's method and classes. Actually I wanted the web service reference to import classes defined in different dll. I wanted to define this way because of my design constraints. I've 3 layered application. Of which third layer is communication layer which holds all web service references. second is business layer and first is presentation layer. If the class declarations are in layer-3 and I'm accessing those classes from presentation layer, it is logically a cross-layer-access-violation. Instead, I wanted a separate project which holds only the class declarations and this would be used in all 3 layers. I didn't faced any problems to achieve this with layer-1 and layer-2. But, I'm not sure how to make communication layer to use this common declaration dll. Your suggestion would help me to design my application better. Thanks in advance Regards ArunDhaJ

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• How do I create Variables in XSLT that are not document fragments?

  - by chiborg

  Consider the following XSLT template <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:variable name="var1"> <elem>1</elem> <elem>2</elem> <elem>3</elem> </xsl:variable> <xsl:text>var1 has </xsl:text> <xsl:value-of select="count($var1)"/> <xsl:text>elements. </xsl:text> <xsl:variable name="var2" select="$var1/elem[. != '2']"/> <xsl:text>var2 has </xsl:text> <xsl:value-of select="count($var2)"/> <xsl:text>elements. </xsl:text> </xsl:template> The output of this template is var1 has 1 elements var2 has 2 elements The first line outputs 1 (and not, as I first expected 3) because var1 is a document fragment that contains the <elem> elements as childen. Now for my questions: How can I create a variable that does not contain a document fragment? I could do it like I did with var2, only leaving out the predicate. But maybe there is a way without using a second variable. Or, as an alternative: How can I preserve the document fragment in a variable while filtering out some elements?

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