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  • NSCollectionView: Can the same object not be in the array more than once or is this a bug?

    - by Sean
    I may be doing this all wrong, but I thought I was on the right track until I hit this little snag. Basically I was putting together a toy using NSCollectionView and trying to understand how to hook that all up using IB. I have a button which will add a couple of strings to the NSArrayController: The first time I press this button, my strings appear in the collection view as expected: The second time I press the button, the views scroll down and room is made - but the items don't appear to get added. I just see blank space: The button is implemented as follows (controller is a pointer to the NSArrayController I added in IB): - (IBAction)addStuff:(id)control { [controller addObjects:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"String 1",@"String 2",@"String 3",nil]]; } I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. Rather than try to explain all the connections/binds/etc, if you need more info, I'd be grateful if you could just take a quick look at the toy project itself. UPDATE: After more experimentation as suggested by James Williams, it seems the problem stems from having multiple objects with the same memory address in the array. This confuses either NSArrayController or NSCollectionView (not sure which). Changing my addStuff: to this resulted in the behavior I originally expected: [controller addObjects:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 1"],[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 2"],[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 3"],nil]]; So the question now, I guess, is if this is a bug I should report to Apple or if this is intended/documented behavior and I just missed it?

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  • My chance to shape our development process/policy

    - by Matt Luongo
    Hey guys, I'm sorry if this is a duplicate, but the question search terms are pretty generic. I work at a small(ish) development firm. I say small, but the company is actually a fair size; however, I'm only the second full-time developer, as most past work has been organized around contractors. I'm in a position to define internal project process and policy- obvious stuff like SCM and unit-testing. Methodology is outside the scope of the document I'm putting together, but I'd really like to push us in a leaner (and maybe even Agile?) direction. I feel like I have plenty of good practice recommendations, but not enough solid motivation to make my document the spirit guide I'd like it to be. I've separated the document into "principles" and "recommendations". Recommendations have been easy to come up with. Use SCM, strive for 1-step, regularly scheduled builds, unit test first, document as you go... Listing the principles that are supposed to be informing these recommendations, though, has been rough. I've come up with "tools work for us; we should never work for tools" and a hazy clause aimed at our QA (which has been overly manual) that I'd like to read "tedium is the root of all evil". I don't want to miss an opportunity with this document to give us a good in-house start and maybe even push us toward Agile. What principles am I missing?

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  • google chrome extension update text after response callback

    - by Jerome
    I am writing a Google Chrome extension. I have reached the stage where I can pass messages back and forth readily but I am running into trouble with using the response callback. My background page opens a message page and then the message page requests more information from background. When the message page receives the response I want to replace some of the standard text on the message page with custom text based on the response. Here is the code: chrome.extension.sendRequest({cmd: "sendKeyWords"}, function(response) { keyWordList=response.keyWordsFound; var keyWords=""; for (var i = 0; i FIRST QUESTION: This all seems to work fine but the text on the page doesn't change. I am almost certainly because the callback completes after the page is finished loading and the rest of the code finishes before the callback completes, too. How do I update the page with the new text? Can I listen for the callback to complete or something like that? SECOND QUESTION: The procedure I am pursuing first opens the message page and then the message page requests the keyword list from background. Since I always want the keyword list, it makes more sense to just send it when I create the tab. Can I do that? Here is the code from background that opens the message page: //when request from detail page to open message page chrome.extension.onRequest.addListener(function(request, sender, sendResponse) { if(request.cmd == "openMessage") { console.log("Received Request to Open Message, Profile Score: "+request.keyWordsFound.length); keyWordList=request.keyWordsFound; chrome.tabs.create({url: request.url}, function(tab){ msgTabId=tab.id; //needed to determine if message tab has later been closed chrome.tabs.executeScript(tab.id, {file: "message.js"}); }); console.log("Opening Message"); } });

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  • how to load files in python

    - by Alvaro
    I'm fairly new to python and would like some help on properly loading separate files. My codes purpose is to open a given file, search for customers of that file by the state or state abbreviation. However, i have a separate function to open a separate file where i have (name of state):(state abbreviation) Thanks. def file_state_search(fileid, state): z=0 indx = 0 while z<25: line=fileid.readline() data_list = ("Name:", "Address:", "City:", "State:", "Zipcode:") line_split = line.split(":") if state in line: while indx<5: print data_list[indx], line_split[indx] indx = indx + 1 elif state not in line: z = z + 1 def state_convert(fileid, state): line2=in_file2.readline() while state in line2: print line2 x=1 while x==1: print "Choose an option:" print print "Option '1': Search Record By State" print option = raw_input("Enter an option:") print if option == "1": state = raw_input("Enter A State:") in_file = open("AdrData.txt", 'r') line=in_file.readline() print in_file2 = open("States.txt", 'r') line2=in_file2.readline() converted_state = state_convert(in_file2, state) print converted_state state_find = file_state_search(in_file, state) print state_find x=raw_input("Enter '1' to continue, Enter '2' to stop: ") x=int(x) By the way, my first import statement works, for whatever reason my second one doesn't. Edit: My question is, what am i doing wrong in my state_convert function.

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  • Why do I get empty request from the Jakarta Commons HttpClient?

    - by polyurethan
    I have a problem with the Jakarta Commons HttpClient. Before my self-written HttpServer gets the real request there is one request which is completely empty. That's the first problem. The second problem is, sometimes the request data ends after the third or fourth line of the http request: POST / HTTP/1.1 User-Agent: Jakarta Commons-HttpClient/3.1 Host: 127.0.0.1:4232 For debugging I am using the Axis TCPMonitor. There every things is fine but the empty request. How I process the stream: StringBuffer requestBuffer = new StringBuffer(); InputStreamReader is = new InputStreamReader(socket.getInputStream(), "UTF-8"); int byteIn = -1; do { byteIn = is.read(); if (byteIn > 0) { requestBuffer.append((char) byteIn); } } while (byteIn != -1 && is.ready()); String requestData = requestBuffer.toString(); How I send the request: client.getParams().setSoTimeout(30000); method = new PostMethod(url.getPath()); method.getParams().setContentCharset("utf-8"); method.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/xml; charset=utf-8"); method.addRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); method.setFollowRedirects(false); byte[] requestXml = getRequestXml(); method.setRequestEntity(new InputStreamRequestEntity(new ByteArrayInputStream(requestXml))); client.executeMethod(method); int statusCode = method.getStatusCode(); Have anyone of you an idea how to solve these problems? Alex

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  • Selecting first instance of class but not nested instances via jQuery

    - by DA
    Given the following hypothetical markup: <ul class="monkey"> <li> <p class="horse"></p> <p class="cow"></p> </li> </ul> <dl class="monkey"> <dt class="horse"></dt> <dd class="cow"> <dl> <dt></dt> <dd></dd> </dl> <dl class="monkey"> <dt class="horse"></dt> <dd class="cow"></dd> </dl> </dd> </dl> I want to be able to grab the 'first level' of horse and cow classes within each monkey class. But I don't want the NESTED horse and cow classes. I started with .children, but that won't work with the UL example as they aren't direct children of .monkey. I can use find: $('.monkey').find('.horse, .cow') but that returns all instances, including the nested ones. I can filter the find: $('.monkey').find('.horse, .cow').not('.cow .horse, .cow .cow') but that prevents me from selecting nested instances on a second function call. So...I guess what I'm looking for is 'find first "level" of this descendant'. I could likely do this with some looping logic, but was wondering if there is a selector and/or some combo of selectors that would achieve that logic.

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  • Is there a practical benefit to casting a NULL pointer to an object and calling one of its member fu

    - by zdawg
    Ok, so I know that technically this is undefined behavior, but nonetheless, I've seen this more than once in production code. And please correct me if I'm wrong, but I've also heard that some people use this "feature" as a somewhat legitimate substitute of a lacking aspect of the current C++ standard, namely, the inability to obtain the address (well, offset really) of a member function. For example, this is out of a popular implementation of a PCRE (Perl-compatible Regular Expression) library: #ifndef offsetof #define offsetof(p_type,field) ((size_t)&(((p_type *)0)->field)) #endif One can debate whether the exploitation of such a language subtlety in a case like this is valid or not, or even necessary, but I've also seen it used like this: struct Result { void stat() { if(this) // do something... else // do something else... } }; // ...somewhere else in the code... ((Result*)0)->stat(); This works just fine! It avoids a null pointer dereference by testing for the existence of this, and it does not try to access class members in the else block. So long as these guards are in place, it's legitimate code, right? So the question remains: Is there a practical use case, where one would benefit from using such a construct? I'm especially concerned about the second case, since the first case is more of a workaround for a language limitation. Or is it? PS. Sorry about the C-style casts, unfortunately people still prefer to type less if they can.

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  • While loop problems

    - by Luke
    I have put together the following code, the problem is that each while loop is only returning one set of data. $result = mysql_query("SELECT date FROM ".TBL_FIXTURES." WHERE compname = '$comp_name' GROUP BY date"); $i = 1; echo "<table cellspacing=\"10\" style='border: 1px dotted' width=\"300\" bgcolor=\"#eeeeee\">"; while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { $date=date("F j Y", $row['date']); echo $date; echo " <tr> <td>Fixture $i - Deadline on $date</td> </tr> "; $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM ".TBL_FIXTURES." WHERE compname = '$comp_name' AND date = '$row[date]' ORDER BY date"); while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { extract ($row); echo " <tr> <td>$home_user - $home_team V $away_user - $away_team</td> </tr> "; } $i++; } echo "</table>"; I should get many dates, and then each set of fixture below. At the moment, the first row from the first while loop is present, along with the data from the second while loop. However, it doesn't continue? Any ideas where I can correct this? Thanks

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  • Add items from one array to another

    - by Peterim
    I have two arrays: 1) The first array: array( [0] => array( [code] => code_1 [value] => xxx [1] => array( [code] => code_2 [value] => xxx [2] => array( [code] => code_3 [value] => xxx 2) The second array: array( [0] => array( [settingcode] => code_1 [value] => xxx [1] => array( [settingcode] => code_2 [value] => xxx [2] => array( [settingcode] => code_3 [value] => xxx [3] => array( [settingcode] => code_4 [value] => xxx [4] => array( [settingcode] => code_5 [value] => xxx How can add two missing items (code_4 and code_5) from array2 to array1? Thank you!

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  • Cache data in SQL CE database

    - by user93422
    Background I have an SQL CE database, that is constantly updated (every second). I have a (web) application that allows a user to look at the data in real-time. At some point a user can click "take a snapshot" button, and it will open the snapshot in a different window. And then on that form, there is "print" and "download" buttons that will either generate a page for printing, or will stream the data as CSV file - but same data snapshot has to be used, i.e. I can't go to the DB to get latest data for that. Details SQL CE dabatase is exposed through WCF web service. Snapshot consists of up to 500 records, 10 columns each. Expiration time on the snapshot of 2 hours is sufficient. It is a low-traffic application, so I don't expect more than few (5) connections at the same time. Loosing snapshot is not a big deal, user can simply generate new one. database is accessed by self-hosted WCF web service using Linq-to-SQL. Web site is ASP.NET MVC hosted on UltiDev Cassini. database, and web site are most likely be on the same box, when deployed. The entire app is intranet bound. Problem I need to cache the snapshot of the data at the moment user pressed "take a snapshot" button, so that I can use same data to generate print page, or generate a file for download. Solution 1: Each time there is a need to generate a snapshot, I will create a table in the database. Since there are no temp tables in SQL CE, I will need to clean it up myself. Solution 2: Cache the snapshot in-memory on either DB server, or web server. Question: Is there anything wrong with proposed solutions? Any different solution suggestions?

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  • Looping and pausing after loading ajax content in Javascript JQuery

    - by Tristan
    I have what I though was a simple problem to solve (never is!) I'm trying to loop through a list of URL's in a javascript array I have made, load the first one, wait X seconds, then load the second, and continue until I start again. I got the array and looping working, trouble is, however I try and implement a "wait" using setInterval or similar, I have a structural issue, as the loop continues in the background. I tried to code it like this: $(document).ready(function(){ // my array of URL's var urlArray = new Array(); urlArray[0] = "urlOne"; urlArray[1] = "urlTwo"; urlArray[2] = "urlThree"; // my looping logic that continues to execute (problem starts here) while (true) { for (var i = 0; i < urlArray.length; i++) { $('#load').load(urlArray[i], function(){ // now ideally I want it to wait here for X seconds after loading that URL and then start the loop again, but javascript doesn't seem to work this way, and I'm not sure how to structure it to get the same effect }); } } });

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  • Objective-C subclass and base class casting

    - by ryanjm.mp
    I'm going to create a base class that implements very similar functions for all of the subclasses. This was answered in a different question. But what I need to know now is if/how I can cast various functions (in the base class) to return the subclass object. This is both for a given function but also a function call in it. (I'm working with CoreData by the way) As a function within the base class (this is from a class that is going to become my subclass) +(Structure *)fetchStructureByID:(NSNumber *)structureID inContext:(NSManagedObjectContext *)managedObjectContext {...} And as a function call within a given function: Structure *newStructure = [Structure fetchStructureByID:[currentDictionary objectForKey:@"myId"]]; inContext:managedObjectContext]; Structure is one of my subclasses, so I need to rewrite both of these so that they are "generic" and can be applied to other subclasses (whoever is calling the function). How do I do that? Update: I just realized that in the second part there are actually two issues. You can't change [Structure fetch...] to [self fetch...] because it is a class method, not an instance method. How do I get around that too?

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  • How to query MySQL for exact length and exact UTF-8 characters

    - by oskarae
    I have table with words dictionary in my language (latvian). CREATE TABLE words ( value varchar(255) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci DEFAULT NULL ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 COLLATE=utf8_unicode_ci; And let's say it has 3 words inside: INSERT INTO words (value) VALUES ('teja'); INSERT INTO words (value) VALUES ('vejš'); INSERT INTO words (value) VALUES ('feja'); What I want to do is I want to find all words that is exactly 4 characters long and where second character is 'e' and third character is 'j' For me it feels that correct query would be: SELECT * FROM words WHERE value LIKE '_ej_'; But problem with this query is that it returs not 2 entries ('teja','vejš') but all three. As I understand it is because internally MySQL converts strings to some ASCII representation? Then there is BINARY addition possible for LIKE SELECT * FROM words WHERE value LIKE BINARY '_ej_'; But this also does not return 2 entries ('teja','vejš') but only one ('teja'). I believe this has something to do with UTF-8 2 bytes for non ASCII chars? So question: What MySQL query would return my exact two words ('teja','vejš')? Thank you in advance

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  • Expanding DIV slides behind DIV beneath it...

    - by Paddy
    I'm not sure that I'm going to get an answer here, as I'd need to post a lot of CSS and html to get a working recreation, however... I have structure something like this: <fieldset> <legend>Test A</legend> <h3>Test A</h3> <p> Something here. </p> <div style="display:hidden;">I'm dynamically displayed</div> </fieldset> <fieldset> <legend>Test B</legend> <h3>Test B</h3> <p> Something B here. </p> </fieldset> I have code that toggles the display of my hidden div using jQuery and .show(). This works fine in IE8, firefox and Safari, but when I stick IE8 into compatibility mode, then the first fieldset (Test A) will expand, but the expansion happens behind the second fieldset, which doesn't move (i.e. it slides down behind it). I have quite a bit of CSS in use here, and I'm going to have to go back and unpick the whold lot, which isn't a fun idea. If anybody has any idea of one of the IE7 rendering issues that might be affecting this, then I'd very much appreciate it. (note that there is more to the content in these fieldsets than shown, including floated divs). Quick note - if I stick IE7 into quirks mode, it works (but wrecks the rest of my layout) - in standards mode, I get the above behaviour.

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  • Positioning divs

    - by Thomas
    Hi all, I'm working with the Jquery accordion. So my code goes like this: <h3><a href="#">Test </a></h3> <div class="accordion" style="background-color:yellow;"> <div class="test_1"> my first dynamic content div </div> <div class="test_2"> my second dynamic content div </div> </div> So you see the H3 that's the 'accordian', if i click on that the div accordion opens with inside 2 seperate divs. That all works but the positioning of my 2 divs inside the accordion div fails. I should like to get them UNDER eachother, but both divs got generated dynamically what means that i don't know the size of the first div (test_1) so i can't position on pixels. I already tried with some br tags etc but nothing seems to work. Is there a way to do this in css maybe with float or something or should it be done inside the html ? ANy other ideas? Regards, T

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  • SQL Server full text query across multiple tables - why so slow?

    - by Mikey Cee
    Hi. I'm trying to understand the performance of an SQL Server 2008 full-text query I am constructing. The following query, using a full-text index, returns the correct results immediately: SELECT O.ID, O.Name FROM dbo.EventOccurrence O WHERE FREETEXT(O.Name, 'query') ie, all EventOccurrences with the word 'query' in their name. And the following query, using a full-text index from a different table, also returns straight away: SELECT V.ID, V.Name FROM dbo.Venue V WHERE FREETEXT(V.Name, 'query') ie. all Venues with the word 'query' in their name. But if I try to join the tables and do both full-text queries at once, it 12 seconds to return: SELECT O.ID, O.Name FROM dbo.EventOccurrence O INNER JOIN dbo.Event E ON O.EventID = E.ID INNER JOIN dbo.Venue V ON E.VenueID = V.ID WHERE FREETEXT(E.Name, 'search') OR FREETEXT(V.Name, 'search') Here is the execution plan: http://uploadpad.com/files/query.PNG From my reading, I didn't think it was even possible to make a free text query across multiple tables in this way, so I'm not sure I am understanding this correctly. Note that if I remove the WHERE clause from this last query then it returns all results within a second, so it's definitely the full-text that is causing the issue here. Can someone explain (i) why this is so slow and (ii) if this is even supported / if I am even understanding this correctly. Thanks in advance for your help.

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  • Managed bean property value not set to null

    - by Vladimir
    Hi! I'm new to JSF, so this question might be strange. I have an inputText component's value bound to managed bean's property of type Float. I need to set property to null when inputText field is empty, not to 0 value. It's not done by default, so I added converter with the following method implemented: public Object getAsObject(FacesContext arg0, UIComponent arg1, String arg2) throws ConverterException { if (StringUtils.isEmpty(arg2)) { return null; } float result = Float.parseFloat(arg2); if (result == 0) { return null; } return result; } I registered converter, and assigned it to inputText component. I logged arg2 argument, and also logged return value from getAsObject method. By my log I can see that it returns null value. But, I also log setter property on backing bean and argument is 0 value, not null as expected. To be more precise, it is setter property is called twice, once with null argument, second time with 0 value argument. It still sets backing bean value to 0. How can I set value to null? Thanks in advance.

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  • EF 4 Self Tracking Entities does not work as expected.

    - by ashraf
    I am using EF4 Self Tracking Entities (VS2010 Beta 2 CTP 2 plus new T4 generator). But when I try to update entity information it does not update to database as expected. I setup 2 service calls. one for GetResource(int id) which return a resource object. the second call is SaveResource(Resource res); here is the code. public Resource GetResource(int id) { using (var dc = new MyEntities()) { return dc.Resources.Where(d => d.ResourceId == id).SingleOrDefault(); } } public void SaveResource(Resource res) { using (var dc = new MyEntities()) { dc.Resources.ApplyChanges(res); dc.SaveChanges(); // Nothing save to database. } } //Windows Console Client Calls var res = service.GetResource(1); res.Description = "New Change"; // Not updating... service.SaveResource(res); // does not change anything. It seems to me that ChangeTracker.State is always show as "Unchanged". anything wrong in this code?

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  • Can I specify default value?

    - by atch
    Why is it that for user defined types when creating an array of objects every element of this array is initialized with default ctor but when I create built-in type this isn't the case? And second question: is it possible to specify default value to be used while initialize? Something like this (not valid): char* p = new char[size]('\0'); And another question in this topic while I'm with arrays. I suppose that when creating an array of user defined type and knowing the fact that every elem. of this array will be initialized with default value firstly why? If arrays for built in types do not initialize their elems. with their dflts why do they do it for UDT, and secondly: is there a way to switch it off/avoid/circumvent somehow? It seems like bit of a waste if I for example have created an array with size 10000 and then 10000 times dflt ctor will be invoked and I will (later on) overwrite this values anyway. I think that behaviour should be consistent, so either every type of array should be initialized or none. And I think that the behaviour for built-in arrays is more appropriate.

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  • Syncing magento database froms development to production

    - by ringerce
    I use git for version control. I have a development, staging and production environment. When I finish in development I push to staging for review by the client. When approved, I push changes from staging to production. That works fine as long as there is no database changes. What happens if I install modules via Magento connect on local development and it makes database modifications. How would I push those changes up to the production server since the production server is always changing? Edit: I wrote two shell scripts. One that pulls the production database down to my development server, replaces base url with develpment url and updates my development db accordingly. It also leaves the production sql dump behind to be added to my git repo. I'm not really sure if it's beneficial to keep the raw dumps in source control but I'm going to try it out. The second scripts moves the development database up to staging and essentially performs the same operations as the first. Now when it comes time to move to production I pull the updated production repo into the production server and allow magento to do it's thing. I also started using SQLYog recently and it has a database comparison wizard which will give me the differences in my development and production databases and allow me to merge the changes in selectively. It always creates a migration script that I added to source control as well. If anything goes wrong I can run the comparison to see if anything was missed. Does this sounds like a decent workflow to you guys?

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  • Broken console in Maven project using Netbeans

    - by Maciek Sawicki
    Hi, I have strange problem with my Neatens+Maven installation. This is the shortest code to reproduce the problem: public class App { public static void main( String[] args ) { // Create a scanner to read from keyboard Scanner scanner = new Scanner (System.in); Scanner s= new Scanner(System.in); String param= s.next(); System.out.println(param); } } When I'm running it as Maven Project inside Netbeans console seems to be broken. It just ignores my input. It's look like infinitive loop in System.out.println(param);. However this project works fine when it's compiled as "Java Aplication" project. It also works O.K. if I build and run it from cmd. System info: Os: Vista IDE: Netbeans 6.8 Maven: apache-maven-2.2.1 //edit Built program (using mavean from Netbeans) works fine. I just can't test it using Net beans. And I think I forgot to ask the question ;). So of course my first question is: how can I fix this problem? And second is: Is it any workaround for this? For example configuring Netbeans to run external commend line app instead of using built in console.

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  • Which plugin framework to use for native C++/Win32

    - by Kerido
    Hi everybody. I have an extensible product that allows 3rd party developers to extend it. The aspects that can be extended are documented and interfaces are provided in the SDK. Currently, I'm using COM and I'm getting pretty comfortable with it. I especially like the ability to provide interface versioning in a unified manner. I consider it to be a requirement because you never know what you're gonna need in the future. Just to be precise, here's an example. Let's suppose I have an interface representing a particular feature: class IFeature { public: virtual void DoFeatureTask() = 0; }; Then after the interface is already documented (and someone may have used it in the plugin code) I'm realizing, I need more from this feature. Maybe, there is an option I need to provide. I just define the second version: class IFeature2 { public: virtual void DoFeatureTask(int theOption) = 0; }; I don't mean I intend to have lots of versions. But it just may happen. In COM, because every interface is associated with a GUID, I can query a preferred implementation, determine its presence, and, finally, fall back to a legacy one. But after glancing through C++/COM-related questions, I noticed many recommendations against COM. So maybe it's not the best choice and I'm just too old-school. Can you advise on an alternative?

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  • PHP compare two dimension array

    - by Jerry
    Hello guys I would like to know how to compare two two-dimension arrays value. First array Array 1 ( [0] => Array ( [0] => a ) [1] => Array ( [0] => b ) [2] => Array ( [0] => c ) } Second one Array 2 ( [0] => Array ( [0] => a ) [1] => Array ( [0] => d ) [2] => Array ( [0] => e ) } I need to know if my loop could compare the arrays to check the matched value. In my case, array1[0][0]=a matches array2[0][0]=a. If it matches, php will output some html. My foreach loop foreach ($array1 as $arrays){ foreach($arrays as $array){ //need to compare array2 here not sure how to do it. } } I would appreciate any helps. Thanks!

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  • Application Design: Single vs. Multiple Hits to the DB

    - by shyneman
    I'm building a service that performs a set of configured activities based on the type of request that it receives. Each activity involves going to the database and retrieving/updating some kind of information. The logic for each activity can be generalized and re-used across different request types. The activities may need to participate in a transaction for the duration of the servicing the request. One option, I'm considering is having each activity maintain its own access to DAL/database. This fully encapsulates the activity into a stand-alone re-usable piece, but hitting the database multiple times for one request doesn't seem like a viable option. I don't really know how to easily implement the concept of a transaction across the multiple activities here either. The second option is to encapsulate ALL the activities into one big activity and hit the database once. But this does not allow re-use and configuration of these activities for different requests. Does anyone have any suggestions and input about what should be the best way to approach my problem? Thanks for any help.

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  • Inject runtime exception to pthread sometime fails. How to fix that?

    - by lionbest
    I try to inject the exception to thread using signals, but some times the exception is not get caught. For example the following code: void _sigthrow(int sig) { throw runtime_error(strsignal(sig)); } struct sigaction sigthrow = {{&_sigthrow}}; void* thread1(void*) { sigaction(SIGINT,&sigthrow,NULL); try { while(1) usleep(1); } catch(exception &e) { cerr << "Thread1 catched " << e.what() << endl; } }; void* thread2(void*) { sigaction(SIGINT,&sigthrow,NULL); try { while(1); } catch(exception &e) { cerr << "Thread2 catched " << e.what() << endl; //never goes here } }; If I try to execute like: int main() { pthread_t p1,p2; pthread_create( &p1, NULL, &thread1, NULL ); pthread_create( &p2, NULL, &thread2, NULL ); sleep(1); pthread_kill( p1, SIGINT); pthread_kill( p2, SIGINT); sleep(1); return EXIT_SUCCESS; } I get the following output: Thread1 catched Interrupt terminate called after throwing an instance of 'std::runtime_error' what(): Interrupt Aborted How can I make second threat catch exception? Is there better idea about injecting exceptions?

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