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• nhibernate mapping: delete collection, insert new collection with old IDs

  - by npeBeg

  my issue lokks similar to this one: (link) but i have one-to-many association: <set name="Fields" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="false" inverse="true"> <key column="[TEMPLATE_ID]"></key> <one-to-many class="MyNamespace.Field, MyLibrary"/> </set> (i also tried to use ) this mapping is for Template object. this one and the Field object has their ID generators set to identity. so when i call session.Update for the Template object it works fine, well, almost: if the Field object has an Id number, UPDATE sql request is called, if the Id is 0, the INSERT is performed. But if i delete a Field object from the collection it has no effect for the Database. I found that if i also call session.Delete for this Field object, everything will be ok, but due to client-server architecture i don't know what to delete. so i decided to delete all the collection elements from the DB and call session.Update with a new collection. and i've got an issue: nhibernate performs the UPDATE operation for the Field objects that has non-zero Id, but they are removed from DB! maybe i should use some other Id generator or smth.. what is the best way to make nhibernate perform "delete all"/"insert all" routine for the collection?

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• Uniquing with Existing Core Data Entities

  - by warrenm

  I'm using Core Data to store a lot (1000s) of items. A pair of properties on each item are used to determine uniqueness, so when a new item comes in, I compare it against the existing items before inserting it. Since the incoming data is in the form of an RSS feed, there are often many duplicates, and the cost of the uniquing step is O(N^2), which has become significant. Right now, I create a set of existing items before iterating over the list of (possible) new items. My theory is that on the first iteration, all the items will be faulted in, and assuming we aren't pressed for memory, most of those items will remain resident over the course of the iteration. I see my options thusly: Use string comparison for uniquing, iterating over all "new" items and comparing to all existing items (Current approach) Use a predicate to filter the set of existing items against the properties of the "new" items. Use a predicate with Core Data to determine uniqueness of each "new" item (without retrieving the set of existing items). Is option 3 likely to be faster than my current approach? Do you know of a better way?

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• Questions about the Backpropogation Algorithm

  - by Colemangrill

  I have a few questions concerning backpropogation. I'm trying to learn the fundamentals behind neural network theory and wanted to start small, building a simple XOR classifier. I've read a lot of articles and skimmed multiple textbooks - but I can't seem to teach this thing the pattern for XOR. Firstly, I am unclear about the learning model for backpropogation. Here is some pseudo-code to represent how I am trying to train the network. [Lets assume my network is setup properly (ie: multiple inputs connect to a hidden layer connect to an output layer and all wired up properly)]. SET guess = getNetworkOutput() // Note this is using a sigmoid activation function. SET error = desiredOutput - guess SET delta = learningConstant * error * sigmoidDerivative(guess) For Each Node in inputNodes For Each Weight in inputNodes[n] inputNodes[n].weight[j] += delta; // At this point, I am assuming the first layer has been trained. // Then I recurse a similar function over the hidden layer and output layer. // The prime difference being that it further divi's up the adjustment delta. I realize this is probably not enough to go off of, and I will gladly expound on any part of my implementation. Using the above algorithm, my neural network does get trained, kind of. But not properly. The output is always XOR 1 1 [smallest number] XOR 0 0 [largest number] XOR 1 0 [medium number] XOR 0 1 [medium number] I can never train the [1,1] [0,0] to be the same value. If you have any suggestions, additional resources, articles, blogs, etc for me to look at I am very interested in learning more about this topic. Thank you for your assistance, I appreciate it greatly!

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• Casting Type array to Generic array?

  - by George R

  The short version of the question - why can't I do this? I'm restricted to .NET 3.5. T[] genericArray; // Obviously T should be float! genericArray = new T[3]{ 1.0f, 2.0f, 0.0f }; // Can't do this either, why the hell not genericArray = new float[3]{ 1.0f, 2.0f, 0.0f }; Longer version - I'm working with the Unity engine here, although that's not important. What is - I'm trying to throw conversion between its fixed Vector2 (2 floats) and Vector3 (3 floats) and my generic Vector< class. I can't cast types directly to a generic array. using UnityEngine; public struct Vector { private readonly T[] _axes; #region Constructors public Vector(int axisCount) { this._axes = new T[axisCount]; } public Vector(T x, T y) { this._axes = new T[2] { x, y }; } public Vector(T x, T y, T z) { this._axes = new T[3]{x, y, z}; } public Vector(Vector2 vector2) { // This doesn't work this._axes = new T[2] { vector2.x, vector2.y }; } public Vector(Vector3 vector3) { // Nor does this this._axes = new T[3] { vector3.x, vector3.y, vector3.z }; } #endregion #region Properties public T this[int i] { get { return _axes[i]; } set { _axes[i] = value; } } public T X { get { return _axes[0];} set { _axes[0] = value; } } public T Y { get { return _axes[1]; } set { _axes[1] = value; } } public T Z { get { return this._axes.Length (Vector2 vector2) { Vector vector = new Vector(vector2); return vector; } public static explicit operator Vector(Vector3 vector3) { Vector vector = new Vector(vector3); return vector; } #endregion }

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• Problem importing Oracle .dmp file

  - by BitFiddler

  So I have looked at all the suggested ways of importing .dmp files and non of them seem to answer this question: where does the data go once you import it? Context: I created a user like so: SQL> create user IMPORTER identified by "12345"; SQL> grant connect, unlimited tablespace, resource to IMPORTER; I then ran the 'imp' command as follows: C:\>imp system/password FROMUSER=OVIEDOE TOUSER=IMPORTER file=c:\database1.dmp Now there were 9 .dmp files, after each one it asked me for the next one and then I received the message "Import terminated successfully with warnings." The warning was: Warning: the objects were exported by OVIEDOE, not by you import done in WE8MSWIN1252 character set and AL16UTF16 NCHAR character set export client uses WE8ISO8859P1 character set (possible charset conversion) IMP-00046: using FILESIZE value from export file of 2147483648 Now it says it was terminated successfully so my assumption (I am new to oracle so this may be wrong) is that the data was loaded. However, when I use SQL developer to connect to the database and look under the 'tables' node under the IMPORTER user, there is nothing there. What is going on? Did the data load? If so, where can I find it?

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• Strange behaviour of CheckBox and TwoWay bound property

  - by walkor

  Hello, everyone. I fell in the following situation: I have a main UserControl with a DataGrid (which contains List). I need to show different panels depending on properties of the selected row(object). So i've created 2 controls and included them into this main control. Main control has 2 public properties - public List<ComplexObject> SourceList { get; set; } and public ComplexObject CurrentObject { get; set; } Pseudo-code: <UserControl x:Name="Main"> <DataGrid ItemsSource="{Binding SourceList}" SelectedItem="{Binding CurrentObject, Mode=TwoWay}"/> <Controls:RightPanelFirst Visibility="condition2"/> <Controls:RightPanelSecond Visibility="condition2"/> </UserControl> RightPanelFirst and RightPanelSecond have the following xaml: <UserControl> <... content here...> <CheckBox IsChecked="{Binding CurrentObject.ComplexProperty.SimpleProperty1, Mode=TwoWay}"> <CheckBox IsChecked="{Binding CurrentObject.ComplexProperty.SimpleProperty2, Mode=TwoWay}" x:Name="cbSecond"> <TextBox IsEnabled="{Binding IsChecked, ElementName=cbSecond}"/> </UserControl> So, my actual steps: Check both checkboxes (object values are set to true) Make other actions in code behind which modify CurrentObject. Then i want UI to reflect the changes, so I call NotifyPropertyChanged("CurrentObject"); SimpleProperty1 remains the same, but SimpleProperty2 resets to false I have no idea why this happens, can anyone help me please? Silverlight drives me mad.

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• Open an Emacs buffer when a command tries to open an editor in shell-mode

  - by Chris Conway

  I like to use Emacs' shell mode, but it has a few deficiencies. One of those is that it's not smart enough to open a new buffer when a shell command tries to invoke an editor. For example with the environment variable VISUAL set to vim I get the following from svn propedit: $ svn propedit svn:externals . "svn-prop.tmp" 2L, 149C[1;1H ~ [4;1H~ [5;1H~ [6;1H~ [7;1H~ ... (It may be hard to tell from the representation, but it's a horrible, ugly mess.) With VISUAL set to "emacs -nw", I get $ svn propedit svn:externals . emacs: Terminal type "dumb" is not powerful enough to run Emacs. It lacks the ability to position the cursor. If that is not the actual type of terminal you have, use the Bourne shell command `TERM=... export TERM' (C-shell: `setenv TERM ...') to specify the correct type. It may be necessary to do `unset TERMINFO' (C-shell: `unsetenv TERMINFO') as well.svn: system('emacs -nw svn-prop.tmp') returned 256 (It works with VISUAL set to just emacs, but only from inside an Emacs X window, not inside a terminal session.) Is there a way to get shell mode to do the right thing here and open up a new buffer on behalf of the command line process?

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• implementing a read/write field for an interface that only defines read

  - by PaulH

  I have a C# 2.0 application where a base interface allows read-only access to a value in a concrete class. But, within the concrete class, I'd like to have read/write access to that value. So, I have an implementation like this: public abstract class Base { public abstract DateTime StartTime { get; } } public class Foo : Base { DateTime start_time_; public override DateTime StartTime { get { return start_time_; } internal set { start_time_ = value; } } } But, this gives me the error: Foo.cs(200,22): error CS0546: 'Foo.StartTime.set': cannot override because 'Base.StartTime' does not have an overridable set accessor I don't want the base class to have write access. But, I do want the concrete class to provide read/write access. Is there a way to make this work? Thanks, PaulH Unfortunately, Base can't be changed to an interface as it contains non-abstract functionality also. Something I should have thought to put in the original problem description. public abstract class Base { public abstract DateTime StartTime { get; } public void Buzz() { // do something interesting... } } My solution is to do this: public class Foo : Base { DateTime start_time_; public override DateTime StartTime { get { return start_time_; } } internal void SetStartTime { start_time_ = value; } } It's not as nice as I'd like, but it works.

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• C/C++ I18N mbstowcs question

  - by bogertron

  I am working on internationalizing the input for a C/C++ application. I have currently hit an issue with converting from a multi-byte string to wide character string. The code needs to be cross platform compatible, so I am using mbstowcs and wcstombs as much as possible. I am currently working on a WIN32 machine and I have set the locale to a non-english locale (Japanese). When I attempt to convert a multibyte character string, I seem to be having some conversion issues. Here is an example of the code: int main(int argc, char** argv) { wchar_t *wcsVal = NULL; char *mbsVal = NULL; /* Get the current code page, in my case 932, runs only on windows */ TCHAR szCodePage[10]; int cch= GetLocaleInfo( GetSystemDefaultLCID(), LOCALE_IDEFAULTANSICODEPAGE, szCodePage, sizeof(szCodePage)); /* verify locale is set */ if (setlocale(LC_CTYPE, "") == 0) { fprintf(stderr, "Failed to set locale\n"); return 1; } mbsVal = argv[1]; /* validate multibyte string and convert to wide character */ int size = mbstowcs(NULL, mbsVal, 0); if (size == -1) { printf("Invalid multibyte\n"); return 1; } wcsVal = (wchar_t*) malloc(sizeof(wchar_t) * (size + 1)); if (wcsVal == NULL) { printf("memory issue \n"); return 1; } mbstowcs(wcsVal, szVal, size + 1); wprintf(L"%ls \n", wcsVal); return 0; } At the end of execution, the wide character string does not contain the converted data. I believe that there is an issue with the code page settings, because when i use MultiByteToWideChar and have the current code page sent in EX: MultiByteToWideChar( CP_ACP, 0, mbsVal, -1, wcsVal, size + 1 ); in place of the mbstowcs calls, the conversion succeeds. My question is, how do I use the generic mbstowcs call instead of teh MuliByteToWideChar call?

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• C++ Initialize array in constructor EXC_BAD_ACCESS

  - by user890395

  I'm creating a simple constructor and initializing an array: // Construtor Cinema::Cinema(){ // Initalize reservations for(int i = 0; i < 18; i++){ for(int j = 0; j < 12; j++){ setReservation(i, j, 0); } } // Set default name setMovieName("N/A"); // Set default price setPrice(8); } The setReservation function: void Cinema::setReservation(int row, int column, int reservation){ this->reservations[row][column] = reservation; } The setMovieName function: void Cinema::setMovieName(std::string movieName){ this->movieName = movieName; } For some odd reason when I run the program, the setMovieName function gives the following error: "Program Received Signal: EXC_BAD_ACCESS" If I take out the for-loop that initializes the array of reservations, the problem goes away and the movie name is set without any problems. Any idea what I'm doing wrong? This is the Cinema.h file: #ifndef Cinema_h #define Cinema_h class Cinema{ private: int reservations[17][11]; std::string movieName; float price; public: // Construtor Cinema(); // getters/setters int getReservation(int row, int column); int getNumReservations(); std::string getMovieName(); float getPrice(); void setReservation(int row, int column, int reservation); void setMovieName(std::string movieName); void setPrice(float price); }; #endif

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• Return value mapping on Stored Procedures in Entity Framework

  - by Yucel

  Hi, I am calling a stored procedure with EntityFramework. But custom property that i set in partial entity class is null. I have Entities in my edmx (I called edmx i dont know what to call for this). For example I have a "User" table in my database and so i have a "User" class on my Entity. I have a stored procedure called GetUserById(@userId) and in this stored procedure i am writing a basic sql statement like below "SELECT * FROM Users WHERE Id=@userId" in my edmx i make a function import to call this stored procedure and set its return value to Entities (also select User from dropdownlist). It works perfectly when i call my stored procedure like below User user = Context.SP_GetUserById(123456); But i add a custom new column to stored procedure to return one more column like below SELECT *, dbo.ConcatRoles(U.Id) AS RolesAsString FROM membership.[User] U WHERE Id = @id Now when i execute it from SSMS new column called RolesAsString appear in result. To work this on entity framework i added a new property called RolesAsString to my User class like below. public partial class User { public string RolesAsString{ get; set; } } But this field isnt filled by stored procedure when i call it. I look to the Mapping Detail windows of my SP_GetUserById there isnt a mapping on this window. I want to add but window is read only i cant map it. I looked to the source of edmx cant find anything about mapping of SP. How can i map this custom field?

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• What's an effective way to move data from one open browser tab to another?

  - by slk

  I am looking for a quick way to grab some data off of one Web page and throw it into another. I don't have access to the query string in the URL of the second page, so passing the data that way is not an option. Right now, I am using a Greasemonkey user script in tandem with a JS bookmarklet trigger: javascript:doIt(); // ==UserScript== // @include public_site // @include internal_site // ==/UserScript== if (document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { var datum1 = GM_getValue("d1"); var datum2 = GM_getValue("d2"); } unsafeWindow.doIt = function() { if(document.location.host.match(public_site)) { var d1 = innerHTML of page element 1; var d2 = innerHTML of page element 2; //Next two lines use setTimeout to bypass GM_setValue restriction window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d1", d1);}, 0); window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d2", d2);}, 0); } else if(document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { document.getElementById("field1").value = datum1; document.getElementById("field2").value = datum2; } } While I am open to another method, I would prefer to stay with this basic model if possible, as this is just a small fraction of the code in doIt() which is used on several other pages, mostly to automate date-based form fills; people really like their "magic button." The above code works, but there's an interruption to the workflow: In order for the user to know which page on the public site to grab data from, the internal page has to be opened first. Then, once the GM cookie is set from the public page, the internal page has to be reloaded to get the proper information into the internal page variables. I'm wondering if there's any way to GM_getValue() at bookmarklet-clicktime to prevent the need for a refresh. Thanks!

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• Convert charset in mysql query

  - by Yousf

  Hi, I have a question about converting charset from inside mysql query. I have a 2 databases. One for the website (joomla), the other for forum (IPB). I am doing query from inside joomla, which by default have "SET NAMES UTF8". I want to query a table inside the forum databases. A table called "ibf_topics". This table has latin1 encoding. I do the following to select anything from the not-utf8 table. //convert connection to handle latin1. $query = "SET NAMES latin1"; $db->setQuery($query); $db->query(); $query = "select id, title from other_database.ibf_topics"; $db->setQuery($query); $db->query(); //read result into an array. //return connection to handle UTF8. $query = "SET NAMES UTF8"; $db->setQuery($query); $db->query(); After that, when I want to use the selected tile, I use the following: echo iconv("CP1256", "UTF-8", $topic['title']) The question is, is there anyway to avoid all this hassle? For now, I can't change forum database to UTF8 and I can't change joomla database to latin1 :S

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• Using parameterized function calls in SELECT statements. SQL Server

  - by geekzlla

  I have taken over some code from a previous developer and have come across this SQL statement that calls several SQL functions. As you can see, the function calls in the select statement pass a parameter to the function. How does the SQL statement know what value to replace the variable with? For the below sample, how does the query engine know what to replace nDeptID with when it calls, fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) nDeptID IS a column in table Note. SELECT STATEMENT: SELECT nCustomerID AS [Customer ID], nJobID AS [Job ID], dbo.fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) AS Department, nJobTaskID AS JobTaskID, dbo.fn_SelDeptTaskDesc_OpenTask(nJobID, nJobTaskID) AS Task, nStandardNoteID AS StandardNoteID, dbo.fn_SelNoteTypeDesc(nNoteID) AS [Note Type], dbo.fn_SelGPAStandardNote(nStandardNoteID) AS [Standard Note], nEntryDate AS [Entry Date], nUserName as [Added By], nType AS Type, nNote AS Note FROM Note WHERE nJobID = 844261 ORDER BY nJobID, Task, [Entry Date] ====================== Function fn_SelDeptName_DeptID: ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[fn_SelDeptName_DeptID] (@iDeptID int) RETURNS varchar(25) -- Used by DataCollection for Job Tracking -- if the Deptartment isnt found return an empty string BEGIN -- Return the Department name for the given DeptID. DECLARE @strDeptName varchar(25) IF @iDeptID = 0 SET @strDeptName = '' ELSE BEGIN SET @strDeptName = (SELECT dName FROM Department WHERE dDeptID = @iDeptID) IF (@strDeptName IS NULL) SET @strDeptName = '' END RETURN @strDeptName END ========================== Thanks in advance.

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• How can I abstract out the core functionality of several Rails applications?

  - by hornairs

  I'd like to develop a number of non-trivial Rails applications which all implement a core set of functionality but each have certain particular customizations, extensions, and aesthetic differences. How can I pull the core functionality (models, controllers, helpers, support classes, tests) common to all these systems out in such a way that updating the core will benefit every application based upon it? I've seen Rails Engines but they seem to be too detached, almost too abstracted to be built upon. I can seem them being useful for adding one component to an existing app, for example bolting on a blog engine to your existing e-commerce site. Since engines seem to be mostly self contained, it seems difficult and inconvenient to override their functionality and views while keeping DRY. I've also considered abstracting the code into a gem, but this seems a little odd. Do I make the gem depend on the Rails gems, and the define models & controllers inside it, and then subclass them in my various applications? Or do I define many modules inside the gem that I include in the different spots inside my various applications? How do I test the gem and then test the set of customizations and overridden functionality on top of it? I'm also concerned with how I'll develop the gem and the Rails apps in tandem, can I vendor a git repository of the gem into the app and push from that so I don't have to build a new gem every iteration? Also, are there private gem hosts/can I set my own gem source up? Also, any general suggestions for this kind of undertaking? Abstraction paradigms to adhere to? Required reading? Comments from the wise who have done this before? Thanks!

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• javascript watching for variable change via a timer

  - by DA

  I have a slide show where every 10 seconds the next image loads. Once an image loads, it waits 10 seconds (setTimeout) and then calls a function which fades it out, then calls the function again to fade in the next image. It repeats indefinitely. This works. However, at times, I'm going to want to over-ride this "function1 call - pause - function2 call - function1 call" loop outside of this function (for instance, I may click on a slide # and want to jump directly to that slide and cancel the current pause). One solution seems to be to set up a variable, allow other events to change that variable and then in my original function chain, check for any changes before continuing the loop. I have this set up: var ping = 500; var pausetime = 10000; for(i=0; i<=pausetime; i=i+ping){ setTimeout(function(){ console.log(gocheckthevariable()); console.log(i); pseudoIf('the variable is true AND the timer is done then...do the next thing') },i) } The idea is that I'd like to pause for 10 seconds. During this pause, every half second I'll check to see if this should be stopped. The above will write out to the console the following every half second: true 10000 true 10000 true 10000 etc... But what I want/need is this: true 0 true 500 true 1000 etc... The basic problem is that the for loop executes before each of the set timeouts. While I can check the value of the variable every half second, I can't match that against the current loop index. I'm sure this is a common issue, but I'm at a loss what I should actually be searching for.

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• In ArrayBlockingQueue, why copy into ReentrantLock field into local final variable?

  - by mjlee

  In ArrayBlockingQueue, any method that requires lock will get set 'final' local variable before calling 'lock()'. public boolean offer(E e) { if (e == null) throw new NullPointerException(); final ReentrantLock lock = this.lock; lock.lock(); try { if (count == items.length) return false; else { insert(e); return true; } } finally { lock.unlock(); } } Is there any reason to set a local variable 'lock' from 'this.lock' when field 'this.lock' is final also. Additionally, it also set local variable of E[] before acting on. private E extract() { final E[] items = this.items; E x = items[takeIndex]; items[takeIndex] = null; takeIndex = inc(takeIndex); --count; notFull.signal(); return x; } Is there any reason for copying to local final variable?

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• Handle BACK key event in child view

  - by Mick Byrne

  In my app, users can tap on image thumbnails to see a full size version. When the thumbnail is tapped a bunch of new views are created in code (i.e. no XML), appended at the end of the view hierarchy and some scaling and rotating transitions happen, then the full size, high res version of the image is displayed. Tapping on the full size image reverses the transitions and removes the new views from the view hierarchy. I want users to also be able to press the BACK key to reverse the image transitions. However, I can't seem to catch the KeyEvent. This is what I'm trying at the moment: // Set a click listener on the image to reverse everything frameView.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View arg0) { zoomOut(); // This works fine } }); // Set the focus onto the frame and then set a key listener to catch the back buttons frameView.setFocusable(true); frameView.setFocusableInTouchMode(true); frameView.requestFocus(); frameView.setOnKeyListener(new OnKeyListener() { @Override public boolean onKey(View v, int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { // The code never even gets here !!! if(keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_BACK && event.getRepeatCount() == 0) { zoomOut(); return true; } return false; } });

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• Maven 3 plugin - How to programatically exclude a dependency and all its transitive dependencies?

  - by electrotype

  I'm developing a Maven 3 plugin and I want to exclude some dependencies, and their transitive dependencies, when a configuration is set to true in the plugin. I don't want to use <exclusions> in the POM itself, even in a profile. I want to exclude those dependencies programatically. In fact, what I want is to prevent the dependency jars to be included in the final war (I'm building a war), when a plugin configuration is set to true. I tried : @Mojo(requiresDependencyResolution=ResolutionScope.COMPILE, name="compileHook",defaultPhase=LifecyclePhase.COMPILE) public class compileHook extends AbstractMojo { @Override public void execute() throws MojoExecutionException, MojoFailureException { // ... Set<Artifact> artifacts = this.project.getArtifacts(); for(Artifact artifact : artifacts) { if("org.package.to.remove".equalsIgnoreCase(artifact.getGroupId())) { artifact.setScope("provided"); } } // ... } } Since this occures at the compile phase, it will indeed remove the artifacts with a group id "org.package.to.remove" from having their jars included in the war when packaged. But this doesn't remove the transitive artifacts those dependencies add! What is the best way to programatically remove some dependencies, and their transitive dependencies, from being included in a final .jar/.war?

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• Specify Columntype in nhibernate

  - by Bipul

  I have a class CaptionItem public class CaptionItem { public virtual int SystemId { get; set; } public virtual int Version { get; set; } protected internal virtual IDictionary<string, string> CaptionValues {get; private set;} } I am using following code for nHibernate mapping Id(x => x.SystemId); Version(x => x.Version); Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); HasMany(x => x.CaptionValues) .KeyColumn("CaptionItem_Id") .AsMap<string>(idx => idx.Column("CaptionSet_Name"), elem => elem.Column("Text")) .Not.LazyLoad() .Cascade.Delete() .Table("CaptionValue") .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); So in database two tables get created. One CaptionValue and other CaptionItem. In CaptionItem table has three columns 1. CaptionItem_Id int 2. Text nvarchar(255) 3. CaptionSet_Name nvarchar(255) Now, my question is how can I make the columnt type of Text to nvarchar(max)? Thanks in advance.

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• How do I resize table view after resizing it's footer?

  - by Pedro

  I have a UITableView with header & footer added with code following the pattern shown in Apple's recipes example so the code for the footer is... if (tableFooterView == nil) { [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"DetailFooterView" owner:self options:nil]; self.tableView.tableFooterView = tableFooterView; } The footer NIB contains nothing more than a UITextView & I set text & resize with... CGSize size = [footerText sizeWithFont:[footerTextView font] constrainedToSize:CGSizeMake(304.0, 500.0)]; CGRect frame = CGRectMake(8.0, 0.0, size.width, size.height + 24.0); footerTextView.frame = frame; footerTextView.text = footerText; [tableFooterView sizeToFit]; That all works however I can't get the UITableView to resize around the resized footer. If I set the original size of the footer for any possible text I have a big whitespace in most cases. If I set it smaller then I can push the view up to see the whole text but it bounces back on release. I've tried [[self view] sizeToFit]; but that doesn't work. Can anyone fill me in? Cheers & TIA, Pedro :)

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• What does this model error says in asp.net mvc?

  - by Pandiya Chendur

  My Html action link takes me to a view where i can see the details.. For Ex:http://localhost:1985/Materials/Details/4 But it shows error, The model item passed into the dictionary is of type 'System.Data.Linq.DataQuery`1[CrMVC.Models.ConstructionRepository+Materials]' but this dictionary requires a model item of type 'CrMVC.Models.ConstructionRepository+Materials'. And my model is... public IQueryable<Materials> GetMaterial(int id) { return from m in db.Materials join Mt in db.MeasurementTypes on m.MeasurementTypeId equals Mt.Id where m.Mat_id == id select new Materials() { Id = Convert.ToInt64(m.Mat_id), Mat_Name = m.Mat_Name, Mes_Name = Mt.Name, }; } public class Materials { private Int64 id; public string mat_Name; public string mes_Name; public Int64 Id { get { return id; } set { id = value; } } public string Mat_Name { get { return mat_Name; } set { mat_Name = value; } } public string Mes_Name { get { return mes_Name; } set { mes_Name = value; } } } } and my controller method... public ActionResult Details(int id) { var material = consRepository.GetMaterial(id).AsQueryable(); return View("Details", material); } Any suggestion what am i missing here?

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• IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

  - by crosan

  We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

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• SQL Server race condition issue with range lock

  - by Freek

  I'm implementing a queue in SQL Server (please no discussions about this) and am running into a race condition issue. The T-SQL of interest is the following: set transaction isolation level serializable begin tran declare @RecordId int declare @CurrentTS datetime2 set @CurrentTS=CURRENT_TIMESTAMP select top 1 @RecordId=Id from QueuedImportJobs with (updlock) where Status=@Status and (LeaseTimeout is null or @CurrentTS>LeaseTimeout) order by Id asc if @@ROWCOUNT> 0 begin update QueuedImportJobs set LeaseTimeout = DATEADD(mi,5,@CurrentTS), LeaseTicket=newid() where Id=@RecordId select * from QueuedImportJobs where Id = @RecordId end commit tran RecordId is the PK and there is also an index on Status,LeaseTimeout. What I'm basically doing is select a record of which the lease happens to be expired, while simultaneously updating the lease time with 5 minutes and setting a new lease ticket. So the problem is that I'm getting deadlocks when I run this code in parallel using a couple of threads. I've debugged it up to the point where I found out that the update statement sometimes gets executing twice for the same record. Now, I was under the impression that the with (updlock) should prevent this (it also happens with xlock btw, not with tablockx). So it actually look like there is a RangeS-U and a RangeX-X lock on the same range of records, which ought to be impossible. So what am I missing? I'm thinking it might have something to do with the top 1 clause or that SQL Server does not know that where Id=@RecordId is actually in the locked range? Deadlock graph: Table schema (simplified):

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• Getting "prompt aborted by user" javascript exception

  - by Bhagwat

  I am getting "Components.Exception("prompt aborted by user", Cr.NS_ERROR_NOT_AVAILABLE)" exception when I am using "windows.location.href" in javasacript. My Code is: function checkCookie(){ var value = null; var cookieName='UserDetailsCookie'; value=ReadCookie(cookieName); if(value != null){ var url='<%=request.getContextPath()%>/jsp/admin.jsp'; window.location.href = url; } document.loginForm.userName.focus(); } function ReadCookie(name) { name += '='; var parts = document.cookie.split(/;\s*/); for (var i = 0; i < parts.length; i++) { var part = parts[i]; if (part.indexOf(name) == 0) return part.substring(name.length); } return null; } and I am calling this method on onLoad event of body <body onLoad="javascript:checkCookie();"> In anyone knows why this exception throws please?

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