Search Results

Search found 40791 results on 1632 pages for 'call display'.

Page 538/1632 | < Previous Page | 534 535 536 537 538 539 540 541 542 543 544 545  | Next Page >

  • implement AOP for Controllers in Spring 3

    - by tommy
    How do I implement AOP with an annotated Controller? I've search and found two previous posts regarding the problem, but can't seem to get the solutions to work. posted solution 1 posted solution 2 Here's what I have: Dispatch Servlet: <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:p="http://www.springframework.org/schema/p" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xmlns:mvc="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xmlns:aop="http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop/spring-aop-3.0.xsd"> <context:annotation-config/> <context:component-scan base-package="com.foo.controller"/> <bean id="fooAspect" class="com.foo.aop.FooAspect" /> <aop:aspectj-autoproxy> <aop:include name="fooAspect" /> </aop:aspectj-autoproxy> </beans> Controller: @Controller public class FooController { @RequestMapping(value="/index.htm", method=RequestMethod.GET) public String showIndex(Model model){ return "index"; } } Aspect: @Aspect public class FooAspect { @Pointcut("@target(org.springframework.stereotype.Controller)") public void controllerPointcutter() {} @Pointcut("execution(* *(..))") public void methodPointcutter() {} @Before("controllerPointcutter()") public void beforeMethodInController(JoinPoint jp){ System.out.println("### before controller call..."); } @AfterReturning("controllerPointcutter() && methodPointcutter() ") public void afterMethodInController(JoinPoin jp) { System.out.println("### after returning..."); } @Before("methodPointcutter()") public void beforeAnyMethod(JoinPoint jp){ System.out.println("### before any call..."); } } The beforeAnyMethod() works for methods NOT in a controller; I cannot get anything to execute on calls to controllers. Am I missing something?

    Read the article

  • Internal Java code best practice for dealing with invalid REST API parameters

    - by user326389
    My colleague wrote the following stackoverflow question: other stack overflow question on this topic The question seems to have been misinterpreted and I want to find out the answer, so I'm starting this new question... hopefully a little more clear. Basically, we have a REST API. Users of our API call our methods with parameters. But sometimes users call them with the wrong parameters!! Maybe a mistake in their code, maybe they're just trying to play with us, maybe they're trying to see how we respond, who knows! We respond with HTTP status error codes and maybe a detailed description of the invalid parameter in the XML response. All is well. But internally we deal with these invalid parameters by throwing exceptions. For example, if someone looks up a Person object by giving us their profile id, but the profile id doesn't exist... we throw a PersonInvalidException when looking them up. Then we catch this exception in our API controller and send back an HTTP 400 status error code. Our question is... is this the best practice, throwing exceptions internally for this kind of user error? These exceptions never get propogated back to the user, this is a REST API. They only make our code cleaner. Otherwise we could have a validation method in each of our API controllers to make sure the parameters all make sense, but that seems inefficient. We have to look up things in our database potentially twice. Or we could return nulls and check for them, but that sucks... What are your thoughts?

    Read the article

  • How to combine two separate unrelated Git repositories into one with single history timeline

    - by Antony
    I have two unrelated (not sharing any ancestor check in) Git repositories, one is a super repository which consists a number of smaller projects (Lets call it repository A). Another one is just a makeshift local Git repository for a smaller project (lets call it repository B). Graphically, it would look like this A0-B0-C0-D0-E0-F0-G0-HEAD (repo A) A0-B0-C0-D0-E0-F0-G0-HEAD (remote/master bare repo pulled & pushed from repo A) A1-B1-C1-D1-E1-HEAD (repo B) Ideally, I would really like to merge repo B into repo A with a single history timeline. So it would appear that I originally started project in repo A. Graphically, this would be the ideal end result A0-A1-B1-B0-D1-C0-D0-E0-F0-G0-E1-H(from repo B)-HEAD (new repo A) A0-A1-B1-B0-D1-C0-D0-E0-F0-G0-E1-H(from repo B)-HEAD (remote/master bare repo pulled & pushed from repo A) I have been doing some reading with submodules and subtree (Pro Git is a pretty good book by the way), but both of them seem to cater solution towards maintaining two separate branch with sub module being able to pull changes from upstream and subtree being slightly less headache. Both solution require additional and specialized git commands to handle check ins and sync between master and sub tree/module branch. Both solution also result in multiple time-lines (with --squash you even get 3 timelines with subtree). The closest solution from SO seems to talk about "graft", but is that really it? The goal is to have a single unified repository where I can pull/push check-ins, so that there are no more repo B, just repo A in the end.

    Read the article

  • C++ - Basic WinAPI question

    - by HardCoder1986
    Hello! I am now working on a some sort of a game engine and I had an idea to put everything engine-related into a static library and then link it to my actual problem. Right now I achieved it and actually link that library and every functions seem to work fine, except those, which are windows-related. I have a chunk of code in my library that looks like this: hWnd = CreateWindow(className, "Name", WS_OVERLAPPED | WS_CAPTION | WS_EX_TOPMOST, 0, 0, 800, 600, NULL, NULL, GetModuleHandle(NULL), this); if (hWnd) { ShowWindow(hWnd, SW_NORMAL); UpdateWindow(hWnd); } else { MessageBox(NULL, "Internal program error", "Error", MB_OK | MB_ICONERROR); return; } When this code was not in the library, but in the actual project, it worked fine, created the window and everything was ok. Right now (when I'm linking to my library that contains this code) CreateWindow(...) call returns NULL and GetLastError() returns "Operation succesfully completed" (wtf?). Could anybody help me with this? Is it possible to create a window and display it using a static library call and why could my code fail? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Symfony2 entity field type alternatives to "property" or "__toString()"?

    - by Polmonino
    Using Symfony2 entity field type one should specify property option: $builder->add('customers', 'entity', array( 'multiple' => true, 'class' => 'AcmeHelloBundle:Customer', 'property' => 'first', )); But sometimes this is not sufficient: think about two customers with the same name, so display the email (unique) would be mandatory. Another possibility is to implement __toString() into the model: class Customer { public $first, $last, $email; public function __toString() { return sprintf('%s %s (%s)', $this->first, $this->last, $this->email); } } The disadvances of the latter is that you are forced to display the entity the same way in all your forms. Is there any other way to make this more flexible? I mean something like a callback function: $builder->add('customers', 'entity', array( 'multiple' => true, 'class' => 'AcmeHelloBundle:Customer', 'property' => function($data) { return sprintf('%s %s (%s)', $data->first, $data->last, $data->email); }, ));

    Read the article

  • R: building a simple command line plotting tool/Capturing window close events

    - by user275455
    I am trying to use R within a script that will act as a simple command line plot tool. I.e. user pipes in a csv file and they get a plot. I can get to R fine and get the plot to display through various temp file machinations, but I have hit a roadblock. I cannot figure out how to get R to keep running until the users closes the window. If I plot and exit, the plot disappears immediately. If I plot and use some kind of infinite loop, the user cannot close the plot; he must exit by using an interrupt which I don't like. I see there is a getGraphicsEvent function, but it claims that the device is not supported (X11). Anyway, it doesn't appear to actually support an onClose event, only onMouseDown. Any ideas on how to solve this? edit: Thanks to Dirk for the advice to check out the tk interface. Here is the test code that works: require(tcltk) library(tkrplot) ##function to display plot, called by tkrplot and embedded in a window plotIt<-function(){ plot(x=1:10, y=1:10) } ##create top level window tt<-tktoplevel() ##variable to wait on like a condition variable, to be set by event handler done <- tclVar(0) ##bind to the window destroy event, set done variable when destroyed tkbind(tt,"",function() tclvalue(done) <- 1) ##Have tkrplot embed the plot window, then realize it with tkgrid tkgrid(tkrplot(tt,plotIt)) ##wait until done is true tkwait.variable(done)

    Read the article

  • Why would the same web form control render different "onclick" logic based on the page structure?

    - by zk812
    It was hard to title this question. :) I have a user control that is used to display a list of lookup items in my database and a delete button for each item (Editor User Control below). The delete button has an onClientClick event used to display a confirmation dialog in JavaScript. On page one, the confirmation pops up and functions correctly. The overall structure is: Master Page Page Editor User Control List of items with delete button On page two, the confirmation pops up but regardless of the answer, the page posts back anyway. The structure of this page is: Master Page Page User Control Editor User Control List of items with delete button For some reason, this makes a difference in how the delete button is rendered. Page one: <input type="image" name="ctl00...RequestTypesDataList$ctl01$ctl01" src="Images/Disable.png" alt="Delete" onclick="return ProcessDeleteCommand(1);" /> Page two: <input type="image" name="ctl00...RequestTypesDataList$ctl07$ctl01" src="Images/Disable.png" alt="Delete" onclick="return ProcessDeleteCommand(2);WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions(&quot;ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$RequestCreator1$RequestTypeEditor1$RequestTypesDataList$ctl07$ctl01&quot;, &quot;&quot;, true, &quot;&quot;, &quot;&quot;, false, false))" /> Does anyone know why page two renders WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions after my JS check? It's causing the postback regardless of the confirmation choice.

    Read the article

  • Access is denied. Javascript error on request to secured page

    - by ihorko
    On SomePage.aspx page by javascript (XMLHttpRequest) I call SecuredPage.aspx used next code: var httpRequest = GetXmlHttp(); var url = "https://myhost.com/SecuredPage.aspx"; var params = "param1=" + document.getElementById('param1').value + "&param2=" + document.getElementById('param2').value; httpRequest.open("POST", url, true); httpRequest.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); httpRequest.onreadystatechange = function() { //Call a function when the state changes. if (httpRequest.readyState == 4 && httpRequest.status == 200) { alert(httpRequest.responseText); } } httpRequest.send(params); // HERE ACCESS IS DENIED //--------------------------------------------- function GetXmlHttp() { var xmlhttp = false; if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); } else if (window.ActiveXObject) // code for IE { try { xmlhttp = new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); } catch (e) { try { xmlhttp = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } catch (E) { xmlhttp = false; } } } return xmlhttp; } It throws Access is denied error. if send to http (http://myhost.com/SecuredPage.aspx), it works fine. How is it possible to resolve that problem. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Drupal view filter to show only one of a certain item

    - by Joel
    I'm fairly new to Drupal, and am using Node Import to take a TSV file and turn it into nodes. I'm hitting a problem, though, with automating updates to the nodes. Again, I'd like to take a Tab Separated Values text file, and load it into my site via Node Import (or whatever else anyone might suggest) and then only show updated Nodes. Here's a specific example: I have a Node with the following info: StoreId Name Address Phone Contact 01 Name1 Address1 Phone1 Contact1 02 Name2 Address2 Phone2 Contact2 etc. The info pulls into the nodes just fine (Thank you Node Import!), but we also want to process updates to the nodes. So far I have two ideas... figure out how to delete duplicate (previous) instances of the same StoreID, or just save the node with the duplicate StoreID (and new other info) and just display the most current version. In Views, I can get it to show the nodes and everything, but I can't figure out how to only display the most recent version of each StoreID. A view of views would work, but I can't seem to get that to work, either. Any ideas or other approaches I could take? Thanks in advance for the help!

    Read the article

  • unexpected behaviour of object stored in web service Session

    - by draconis
    Hi. I'm using Session variables inside a web service to maintain state between successive method calls by an external application called QBWC. I set this up by decorating my web service methods with this attribute: [WebMethod(EnableSession = true)] I'm using the Session variable to store an instance of a custom object called QueueManager. The QueueManager has a property called ChangeQueue which looks like this: [Serializable] public class QueueManager { ... public Queue<QBChange> ChangeQueue { get; set; } ... where QBChange is a custom business object belonging to my web service. Now, every time I get a call to a method in my web service, I use this code to retrieve my QueueManager object and access my queue: QueueManager qm = (QueueManager)Session[ticket]; then I remove an object from the queue, using qm.dequeue() and then I save the modified query manager object (modified because it contains one less object in the queue) back to the Session variable, like so: Session[ticket] = qm; ready for the next web service method call using the same ticket. Now here's the thing: if I comment out this last line //Session[ticket] = qm; , then the web service behaves exactly the same way, reducing the size of the queue between method calls. Now why is that? The web service seems to be updating a class contained in serialized form in a Session variable without being asked to. Why would it do that? When I deserialize my Queuemanager object, does the qm variable hold a reference to the serialized object inside the Session[ticket] variable?? This seems very unlikely.

    Read the article

  • merging two tables, while applying aggregates on the duplicates (max,min and sum)

    - by cloudraven
    I have a table (let's call it log) with a few millions of records. Among the fields I have Id, Count, FirstHit, LastHit. Id - The record id Count - number of times this Id has been reported FirstHit - earliest timestamp with which this Id was reported LastHit - latest timestamp with which this Id was reported This table only has one record for any given Id Everyday I get into another table (let's call it feed) with around half a million records with these fields among many others: Id Timestamp - Entry date and time. This table can have many records for the same id What I want to do is to update log in the following way. Count - log count value, plus the count() of records for that id found in feed FirstHit - the earliest of the current value in log or the minimum value in feed for that id LastHit - the latest of the current value in log or the maximum value in feed for that id. It should be noticed that many of the ids in feed are already in log. The simple thing that worked is to create a temporary table and insert into it the union of both as in Select Id, Min(Timestamp) As FirstHit, MAX(Timestamp) as LastHit, Count(*) as Count FROM feed GROUP BY Id UNION ALL Select Id, FirstHit,LastHit,Count FROM log; From that temporary table I do a select that aggregates Min(firsthit), max(lasthit) and sum(Count) Select Id, Min(FirstHit),Max(LastHit),Sum(Count) FROM @temp GROUP BY Id; and that gives me the end result. I could then delete everything from log and replace it with everything with temp, or craft an update for the common records and insert the new ones. However, I think both are highly inefficient. Is there a more efficient way of doing this. Perhaps doing the update in place in the log table?

    Read the article

  • Stored Procedure: Reducing Table Data

    - by SumGuy
    Hi Guys, A simple question about Stored Procedures. I have one stored procedure collecting a whole bunch of data in a table. I then call this procedure from within another stored procedure. I can copy the data into a new table created in the calling procedure but as far as I can see the tables have to be identical. Is this right? Or is there a way to insert only the data I want? For example.... I have one procedure which returns this: SELECT @batch as Batch, @Count as Qty, pd.Location, cast(pd.GL as decimal(10,3)) as [Length], cast(pd.GW as decimal(10,3)) as Width, cast(pd.GT as decimal(10,3)) as Thickness FROM propertydata pd GROUP BY pd.Location, pd.GL, pd.GW, pd.GT I then call this procedure but only want the following data: DECLARE @BatchTable TABLE ( Batch varchar(50), [Length] decimal(10,3), Width decimal(10,3), Thickness decimal(10,3), ) INSERT @BatchTable (Batch, [Length], Width, Thickness) EXEC dbo.batch_drawings_NEW @batch So in the second command I don't want the Qty and Location values. However the code above keeps returning the error: "Insert Error: Column name or number of supplied values does not match table"

    Read the article

  • Am I doing AS3 reference cleanup correctly?

    - by Ólafur Waage
    In one frame of my fla file (let's call it frame 2), I load a few xml files, then send that data into a class that is initialized in that frame, this class creates a few timers and listeners. Then when this class is done doing it's work. I call a dispatchEvent and move to frame 3. This frame does some things as well, it's initialized and creates a few event listeners and timers. When it's done, I move to frame 2 again. This is supposed to repeat as often as I need so I need to clean up the references correctly and I'm wondering if I'm doing it correctly. For sprites I do this. world.removeChild(Background); // world is the parent stage Background = null; For instances of other classes I do this. Players[i].cleanUp(world); // do any cleanup within the instanced class world.removeChild(PlayersSelect[i]); For event listeners I do this. if(Background != null) { Background.removeEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, deSelectPlayer); } For timers I do this. if(Timeout != null) { Timeout.stop(); Timeout.removeEventListener(TimerEvent.TIMER, queueHandler); Timeout.removeEventListener(TimerEvent.TIMER_COMPLETE, queueCompleted); Timeout = null; } And for library images I do this if(_libImage!= null) { s.removeChild(Images._libImage); // s is the stage _libImage= null; } And for the class itself in the main timeline, I do this Frame2.removeEventListener("Done", IAmDone); Frame2.cleanUp(); // the cleanup() does all the stuff above Frame2= null; Even if I do all this, when I get to frame 2 for the 2nd time, it runs for 1-2 seconds and then I get a lot of null reference errors because the cleanup function is called prematurely. Am I doing the cleanup correctly? What can cause events to fire prematurely?

    Read the article

  • How do you Bind to a ComboBox in a DataTemplate?

    - by discwiz
    I have a listbox that is bound to an observable collection of Audio (custom class). The Audio class has two properties, DisplayText (string) and a property called TarpIds (Observable Collection of Integer). I need to allow the user to change the TarpID in the combo box for each list item displayed and catch the selection change. I created a DataTemplate that styles the DisplayText property from the Audio object and adds a ComboBox to display the available TarpIDs for this audio (These are dynamic and unique to each Audio). The DisplayText works great, but I can not get the TarpIDs to display in the ComboBox. Here is what I have so far and thanks for any help. FYI I set the ItemSource at run time that binds the ListUploadAudio to the Observable Collection of Audio. <Border BorderBrush="Red" Background="WhiteSmoke" CornerRadius="8"> <Border.Resources> <DataTemplate x:Key="UploadLayout" DataType="Audio"> <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=DisplayText}" FontWeight="Bold" Foreground="Blue"> </TextBlock> <ComboBox x:Name="ListBoxTarpIDs" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=TarpIds}"> </ComboBox> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </Border.Resources> <ListBox x:Name="ListUploadAudio" BorderBrush="Transparent" Background="Transparent" Width="230" Margin="10" Height="200" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" SelectionMode="Multiple" ItemTemplate="{DynamicResource UploadLayout}"> </ListBox> </Border>

    Read the article

  • IE8: weird border around HTML button element

    - by s427
    I have a button element with a custom background (image+color) and no borders except for a 2px border-bottom (and a bunch of other properties --code below) which renders quite differently in Firefox and in IE8. The problem is, this is a work for a company that uses IE8 as their only browser, so it's important that the button renders well in IE8. Here's a visual comparison between the two: My question here is not about the padding difference (I'm looking into that), but about the weird border that is visible on IE8 in addition to the regular border (border-bottom). Can anyone explain to me where it comes from and how to get rid of it? Thanks in advance. Here is the HTML code: <button class="btn" id="c_edit"> <span>Annuler</span> </button> And here is the CSS: .btn { display: inline-block; margin: 0 0 7px 5px; padding: 0; color: #ddd; font-size: 14px; font-family: FrutigerLTStd55Roman, sans-serif; text-decoration: none; border: none; border-bottom: 2px solid #222; background-color: #999; background-image: url('img/btn_bg.gif'); background-position: 0 bottom; background-repeat: repeat-x; cursor: pointer; transition: all .5s ease-out; } .btn span { display: inline-block; margin: 0; padding: 8px 10px 6px 40px; background-color: transparent; background-position: 4px 0; background-repeat: no-repeat; }

    Read the article

  • How do I write this SQL statement to get the ad and posting? (PHP/MySQL)

    - by ggfan
    I am a little confused on the logic of how to write this SQL statement. When a user clicks on a tag, say HTML, it would display all the posts with HTML as its tag. (a post can have multiple tags) I have three tables: Posting--posting_id, title, detail, etc tags--tagID, tagname postingtag--posting_id, tagID I want to display all the title of the post and the date added. global $dbc; $tagID=$_GET['tagID']; //the GET is set by URL //part I need help with. I need another WHERE statment to get to the posting table $query = "SELECT p.title,p.date_added, t.tagname FROM posting as p, postingtag as pt, tags as t WHERE t.tagID=$tagID"; $data = mysqli_query($dbc, $query); echo '<table>'; echo '<tr><td><b>Title</b></td><td><b>Date Posted</b></td></tr>'; while ($row = mysqli_fetch_array($data)) { echo '<tr><td>'.$row['title'].'</td>'; echo '<td>'.$row['date_added'].'</td></tr>'; } echo '</table>'; }

    Read the article

  • PHP Check slave status without mysql_connect timeout issues

    - by Jonathon
    I have a web-app that has a master mysql db and four slave dbs. I want to handle all (or almost all) read-only (SELECT) queries from the slaves. Our load-balancer sends the user to one of the slave machines automatically, since they are also running Apache/PHP and serving webpages. I am using an include file to setup the connection to the databases, such as: //for master server (i.e. - UPDATE/INSERT/DELETE statements) $Host = "10.0.0.x"; $User = "xx"; $Password = "xx"; $Link = mysql_connect( $Host, $User, $Password ); if( !$Link ) ) { die( "Master database is currently unavailable. Please try again later." ); } //this connection can be used for READ-ONLY (i.e. - SELECT statements) on the localhost $Host_Local = "localhost"; $User_Local = "xx"; $Password_Local = "xx"; $Link_Local = mysql_connect( $Host_Local, $User_Local, $Password_Local ); //fail back to master if slave db is down if( !$Link_Local ) ) { $Link_Local = mysql_connect( $Host, $User, $Password ); } I then use $Link for all update queries and $Link_Local as the connection for SELECT statements. Everything works fine until the slave server database goes down. If the local db is down, the $Link_Local = mysql_connect() call takes at least 30 seconds before it gives up on trying to connect to the localhost and returns back to the script. This causes a huge backlog of page serves and basically shuts down the system (due to the extremely slow response time). Does anyone know of a better way to handle connections to slave servers via PHP? Or, is there some kind of timeout function that could be used to stop the mysql_connect call after 2-3 seconds? Thanks for the help. I searched the other mysql_connect threads, but didn't see any that addressed this issue.

    Read the article

  • Why jquery have problem with onbeforeprint event?

    - by Cesar Lopez
    Hi all, I have the following function. $(function() { $(".sectionHeader:gt(0)").click(function() { $(this).next(".fieldset").slideToggle("fast"); }); $("img[alt='minimize']").click(function(e) { $(this).closest("table").next(".fieldset").slideUp("fast"); e.stopPropagation(); return false; }); $("img[alt='maximize']").click(function(e) { $(this).closest("table").next(".fieldset").slideDown("fast"); e.stopPropagation(); return false; }); }); <script type="text/javascript"> window.onbeforeprint = expandAll; function expandAll(){ $(".fieldset:gt(0)").slideDown("fast"); } </script> For this html <table class="sectionHeader" ><tr ><td>Heading 1</td></tr></table> <div style="display:none;" class="fieldset">Content 1</div> <table class="sectionHeader" ><tr ><td>Heading 2</td></tr></table> <div style="display:none;" class="fieldset">Content 2</div> I have several div class="fieldset" over the page, but when I do print preview or print, I can see all divs sliding down before opening the print preview or printing but on the actual print preview or print out they are all collapse. I would appreciate if anyone comes with a solution for this. Anyone have any idea why is this or how to fix it? Thanks. PS:Using a does not work either ( I assume because jquery using toggle) and its not the kind of question I am looking for.

    Read the article

  • Should a C++ constructor do real work?

    - by Wade Williams
    I'm strugging with some advice I have in the back of my mind but for which I can't remember the reasoning. I seem to remember at some point reading some advice (can't remember the source) that C++ constructors should not do real work. Rather, they should initialize variables only. The advice when on to explain that real work should be done in some sort of init() method, to be called separately after the instance was created. The situation is I have a class that represents a hardware device. It makes logical sense to me for the constructor to call the routines that query the device in order to build up the instance variables that describe the device. In other words, once new instantiates the object, the developer receives an object which is ready to be used, no separate call to object-init() required. Is there a good reason why constructors shouldn't do real work? Obviously it could slow allocation time, but that wouldn't be any different if calling a separate method immediately after allocation. Just trying to figure out what gotchas I not currently considering that might have lead to such advice.

    Read the article

  • Jquery Ajax + PHP

    - by Kris.Mitchell
    I am having problems with jQuery Ajax and PHP I have my php file set up to echo the data I am gathering from a mysql database. I have verified that the database is returning something and that the string at the end of the function actually contains data. What is happening though, is that it looks like the php echo is happening before the ajax call, causing the php data to be displayed at the top of the page, and not below in proper div. I think it might have something to do with timing of the ajax and the php call, but I am not sure. So, why is the data not getting caught by the .ajax and thrown into the div? Thanks for the help! jQuery $(document).ready(function() { $.ajax({ url: "../database_functions.php", type: "GET", data: "cat=jw&sub=pi&sort=no", cache: false, success: function (html) { alert("Success!"); $('#product-list').html(html); } }); }); PHP echo "Hello World";

    Read the article

  • SQL Server 2008 Stored Proc suddenly returns -1

    - by aaginor
    I use the following stored procedure from my SQL Server 2008 database to return a value to my C#-Program ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[getArticleBelongsToCatsCount] @id int AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @result int; set @result = (SELECT COUNT(*) FROM art_in_cat WHERE child_id = @id); return @result; END I use a SQLCommand-Object to call this Stored Procedure public int ExecuteNonQuery() { try { return _command.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (Exception e) { Logger.instance.ErrorRoutine(e, "Text: " + _command.CommandText); return -1; } } Till recently, everything works fine. All of a sudden, the stored procedure returned -1. At first, I suspected, that the ExecuteNonQuery-Command would have caused and Exception, but when stepping through the function, it shows that no Exception is thrown and the return value comes directly from return _command.ExecuteNonQuery(); I checked following parameters and they were as expected: - Connection object was set to the correct database with correct access values - the parameter for the SP was there and contained the right type, direction and value Then I checked the SP via SQLManager, I used the same value for the parameter like the one for which my C# brings -1 as result (btw. I checked some more parameter values in my C' program and they ALL returned -1) but in the manager, the SP returns the correct value. It looks like the call from my C# prog is somehow bugged, but as I don't get any error (it's just the -1 from the SP), I have no idea, where to look for a solution.

    Read the article

  • Parsing large txt files in ruby taking a lot of time?

    - by hershey92
    below is the code to download a txt file from internet approx 9000 lines and populate the database, I have tried a lot but it takes a lot of time more than 7 minutes. I am using win 7 64 bit and ruby 1.9.3. Is there a way to do it faster ?? require 'open-uri' require 'dbi' dbh = DBI.connect("DBI:Mysql:mfmodel:localhost","root","") #file = open('http://www.amfiindia.com/spages/NAV0.txt') file = File.open('test.txt','r') lines = file.lines 2.times { lines.next } curSubType = '' curType = '' curCompName = '' lines.each do |line| line.strip! if line[-1] == ')' curType,curSubType = line.split('(') curSubType.chop! elsif line[-4..-1] == 'Fund' curCompName = line.split(" Mutual Fund")[0] elsif line == '' next else sCode,isin_div,isin_re,sName,nav,rePrice,salePrice,date = line.split(';') sCode = Integer(sCode) sth = dbh.prepare "call mfmodel.populate(?,?,?,?,?,?,?)" sth.execute curCompName,curSubType,curType,sCode,isin_div,isin_re,sName end end dbh.do "commit" dbh.disconnect file.close 106799;-;-;HDFC ARBITRAGE FUND RETAIL PLAN DIVIDEND OPTION;10.352;10.3;10.352;29-Jun-2012 This is the format of data to be inserted in the table. Now there are 8000 such lines and how can I do an insert by combining all that and call the procedure just once. Also, does mysql support arrays and iteration to do such a thing inside the routine. Please give your suggestions.Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How do I change the viewport of a window in win32?

    - by Colen
    Hi, I have a window with child windows inside in it. The child windows take up about 1000 pixels of vertical space. However, our users don't always have 1000 pixels of vertical space available - they might have as little as 500 or 600 pixels. I want to be able to display this window at a size of 500 pixels high, and have the user "scroll" up and down the window to see the full contents. The window should always be 500 pixels high, but the view within it should change. Assume I can add a scroll bar somewhere so the user can choose which part of the window he wants to see. Windows will normally paint the window contents from height 0 to height 500; how do I tell it instead to "paint from height 250 to height 750", for example? I know that I can set the viewport with functions like SetViewportOrgEx etc, but those functions require a device context - when do I call them if I want them to be "permanent"? Do I call them when I get the WM_PAINT message from windows? Or at some other time? And which functions from that family do I want to use? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Compiler turning a string& into a basic_string<>&

    - by Shtong
    Hello I'm coming back to C++ after long years spent on other technologies and i'm stuck on some weird behavior when calling some methods taking std::string as parameters : An example of call : LocalNodeConfiguration *LocalNodeConfiguration::ReadFromFile(std::string & path) { // ... throw configuration_file_error(string("Configuration file empty"), path); // ... } When I compile I get this (I cropped file names for readability) : /usr/bin/g++ -g -I/home/shtong/Dev/OmegaNoc/build -I/usr/share/include/boost-1.41.0 -o CMakeFiles/OmegaNocInternals.dir/configuration/localNodeConfiguration.cxx.o -c /home/shtong/Dev/OmegaNoc/source/configuration/localNodeConfiguration.cxx .../localNodeConfiguration.cxx: In static member function ‘static OmegaNoc::LocalNodeConfiguration* OmegaNoc::LocalNodeConfiguration::ReadFromFile(std::string&)’: .../localNodeConfiguration.cxx:72: error: no matching function for call to ‘OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error::configuration_file_error(std::string, std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> >&)’ .../configurationManager.hxx:25: note: candidates are: OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error::configuration_file_error(std::string&, std::string&) .../configurationManager.hxx:22: note: OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error::configuration_file_error(const OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error&) So as I understand it, the compiler is considering that my path parameter turned into a basic_string at some point, thus not finding the constructor overload I want to use. But I don't really get why this transformation happened. Some search on the net suggested me to use g++ but I was already using it. So any other advice would be appreciated :) Thanks

    Read the article

  • How would a user stay logged in to a REST-based website?

    - by unforgiven3
    A year or so ago I asked this question: Can you help me understand this? “Common REST Mistakes: Sessions are irrelevant”. My question was essentially this: Okay, I get that HTTP authentication is done automatically on every message - but how? Is the username/password sent with every request? Doesn't that just increase attack surface area? I feel like I'm missing part of the puzzle. The answers I received made perfect sense in the context of a mobile (iPhone, Android, WP7) app - when talking to a REST service, the app would just send user credentials along with each request. That worked great for me. But now, I would like to better understand how one would secure a REST-like website, like StackOverflow itself or something like Reddit. How would things work if it was a user logged in via a web browser instead of logged in via an iPhone app? What happens when a user logs in? Are the credentials saved in the browser somehow? How would the browser know what credentials to send with subsequent REST requests? What if it's a JavaScript call to a webservice? How would the JavaScript call include user credentials? I'll be quite frank: my understanding of security when it comes to websites is pretty limited. I enjoyed working with REST services from an app perspective, but now I want to try and build a website that is based on REST principles, and I'm finding myself to be pretty lost. If there is anything in the above question that is unclear that you'd like me to clarify, please leave a comment and I'll address it.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 534 535 536 537 538 539 540 541 542 543 544 545  | Next Page >