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  • SSIS String or binary data would be truncated. The statement has been terminated.

    - by Subbarao
    When I run SSIS package from BIDS it runs fine without any error / problem. When I try to call it through a ASP.NET website I get the following error - "String or binary data would be truncated. The statement has been terminated." I checked all the columns / data to see if anything is exceeding the limit, everything is fine. I can run the package through command line using dtexec C:dtexec /f "C:\temp\MyTempPackage.dtsx", it executes without any problem . The problem is when I try to run it through ASP.NET. The following is the code that I am trying to use - //DTS Runtime Application Application app = new Application(); //DTS Package Package package = app.LoadPackage(packagePath, null); //Execute and Get the result DTSExecResult result = package.Execute(); I am making a call to a webservice from asp.net which has the above code. Both the webservice and website have identity impersonation enabled. I have identity enabled in my web.config for this <identity impersonate="true" userName="MyUserName" password="MyPassword"/> This problem is only when I am trying to import a Excel file (.xlsx) when I import a .txt file everything is fine. Excel Import blew up in both 32bit and 64bit enviornments. Help on how to make this to work is greatly appreciated.

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  • merging two tables, while applying aggregates on the duplicates (max,min and sum)

    - by cloudraven
    I have a table (let's call it log) with a few millions of records. Among the fields I have Id, Count, FirstHit, LastHit. Id - The record id Count - number of times this Id has been reported FirstHit - earliest timestamp with which this Id was reported LastHit - latest timestamp with which this Id was reported This table only has one record for any given Id Everyday I get into another table (let's call it feed) with around half a million records with these fields among many others: Id Timestamp - Entry date and time. This table can have many records for the same id What I want to do is to update log in the following way. Count - log count value, plus the count() of records for that id found in feed FirstHit - the earliest of the current value in log or the minimum value in feed for that id LastHit - the latest of the current value in log or the maximum value in feed for that id. It should be noticed that many of the ids in feed are already in log. The simple thing that worked is to create a temporary table and insert into it the union of both as in Select Id, Min(Timestamp) As FirstHit, MAX(Timestamp) as LastHit, Count(*) as Count FROM feed GROUP BY Id UNION ALL Select Id, FirstHit,LastHit,Count FROM log; From that temporary table I do a select that aggregates Min(firsthit), max(lasthit) and sum(Count) Select Id, Min(FirstHit),Max(LastHit),Sum(Count) FROM @temp GROUP BY Id; and that gives me the end result. I could then delete everything from log and replace it with everything with temp, or craft an update for the common records and insert the new ones. However, I think both are highly inefficient. Is there a more efficient way of doing this. Perhaps doing the update in place in the log table?

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  • Asynchronous URL connection objective C

    - by tweety
    I created an asynchronous URL connection to call a web service using HTTP POST method. after I am pinging the web i set an NSTimerInterval in the completion handler. my problem is when I'm trying to display the time on the view controller it is not doing promptly. I know block is stored in the heap and gets executed later on anytime and probably that's why i'm not getting prompt answer. I was wondering is there any other way to do this? Thanks in advance. my code: __block NSDate *start= [NSDate date]; __block NSDate *end; __block double miliseconds; __block NSTimeInterval time; [NSURLConnection sendAsynchronousRequest:urlRequest queue:queue completionHandler:^(NSURLResponse *response, NSData *data, NSError *error) { if([data length]==0 && error==nil){ end=[NSDate date]; time=[end timeIntervalSinceDate:start]; NSLog(@"Successfully Pinged"); miliseconds = time; // calling a method to display ping time [self label:miliseconds]; } -(void) label:(double) mili{ double miliseconds=mili*1000; self.timeDisplay.text=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Time: %.3f ms", miliseconds];

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  • using yield in C# like I would in Ruby

    - by Sarah Vessels
    Besides just using yield for iterators in Ruby, I also use it to pass control briefly back to the caller before resuming control in the called method. What I want to do in C# is similar. In a test class, I want to get a connection instance, create another variable instance that uses that connection, then pass the variable to the calling method so it can be fiddled with. I then want control to return to the called method so that the connection can be disposed. I guess I'm wanting a block/closure like in Ruby. Here's the general idea: private static MyThing getThing() { using (var connection = new Connection()) { yield return new MyThing(connection); } } [TestMethod] public void MyTest1() { // call getThing(), use yielded MyThing, control returns to getThing() // for disposal } [TestMethod] public void MyTest2() { // call getThing(), use yielded MyThing, control returns to getThing() // for disposal } ... This doesn't work in C#; ReSharper tells me that the body of getThing cannot be an iterator block because MyThing is not an iterator interface type. That's definitely true, but I don't want to iterate through some list. I'm guessing I shouldn't use yield if I'm not working with iterators. Any idea how I can achieve this block/closure thing in C# so I don't have to wrap my code in MyTest1, MyTest2, ... with the code in getThing()'s body?

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  • Getting list of Facebook friends with latest API

    - by Eric
    I'm using the most recent version of the Facebook SDK (which lets to connect to something called the 'graph API' though I'm not sure). I've adapted Facebook's example code to let me connect to Facebook and that works... but I can't get a list of my friends. $friends = $facebook->api('friends.get'); This produces the error message: "Fatal error: Uncaught OAuthException: (#803) Some of the aliases you requested do not exist: friends.get thrown in /mycode/facebook.php on line 543" No clue why that is or what that means. Can someone tell me the right syntax (for the latest Facebook API) to get a list of friends? (I tried "$friends = $facebook-api-friends_get();" and get a different error, "Fatal error: Call to a member function friends_get() on a non-object in /mycode/example.php on line 129".) I can confirm that BEFORE this point in my code, things are fine: I'm connected to Facebook with a valid session and I can get my info and dump it to the screen just... i.e. this code executes perfectly before the failed friends.get call: $session = $facebook->getSession(); if ($session) { $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); } print_r($me);

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  • NSMutableArray memory management

    - by chicken
    NSMutableArray *a1 = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *a2 = [NSMutableArray array]; TempObj *obj = [[TempObj alloc] init]; //assume this line is repeated for each obj [a1 addObject:obj]; [a1 addObject:obj2]; [a1 addObject:obj3]; [a1 addObject:obj4]; [obj release]; [obj2 release]; [obj3 release]; [obj4 release]; [a1 release]; Ok so a2 is an autorelease obj so i dont have to call release on it? Also how do you know when you get an autorelease object? And for a1, i dont have to loop through the array and release each object first? What if i called [a1 removeAllObjects]; does that call [[a1 objectAtIndex:#] release]; Am i supposed to release those objects after ive added them to the array?

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  • Queueing method calls - any idea how?

    - by TomTom
    I write a heavily asynchronseous application. I am looking for a way to queue method calls, similar to what BeginInvoke / EndInvoke does.... but on my OWN queue. The reaqson is that I am having my own optimized message queueing system using a threadpool but at the same time making sure every component is single threaded in the requests (i.e. one thread only handles messages for a component). I Have a lot of messages going back and forth. For limited use, I would really love to be able to just queue a message call with parameters, instead of having to define my own parameter, method wrapping / unwrapping just for the sake of doing a lot of admnistrative calls. I also do not always want to bypass the queue, and I definitely do not want the sending service to wait for the other service to respond. Anyone knows of a way to intercept a method call? Some way to utilize TransparentProxy / Virtual Proxy for this? ;) ServicedComponent? I would like this to be as little overhead as possible ;)

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  • PHP static objects giving a fatal error

    - by Webbo
    I have the following PHP code; <?php component_customer_init(); component_customer_go(); function component_customer_init() { $customer = Customer::getInstance(); $customer->set(1); } function component_customer_go() { $customer = Customer::getInstance(); $customer->get(); } class Customer { public $id; static $class = false; static function getInstance() { if(self::$class == false) { self::$class = new Customer; } else { return self::$class; } } public function set($id) { $this->id = $id; } public function get() { print $this->id; } } ?> I get the following error; Fatal error: Call to a member function set() on a non-object in ....../classes/customer.php on line 9 Can anyone tell me why I get this error? I know this code might look strange, but it's based on a component system that I'm writing for a CMS. The aim is to be able to replace HTML tags in the template e.g.; <!-- component:customer-login --> with; <?php component_customer_login(); ?> I also need to call pre-render methods of the "Customer" class to validate forms before output is made etc. If anyone can think of a better way, please let me know but in the first instance, I'd like to know why I get the "Fatal error" mentioned above. Cheers

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  • Java program using a class from a JAR file

    - by Myn
    Hi guys, I'll try to phrase this as best I can. I have a program which has an API-like functionality - it uses reflection to dynamically call methods from within a class. In this instance: Server.java public static void main(String[] args) { Class<?> clazz = Class.forName("DiHandler"); StHandler out = (StHandler) clazz; out.read(); DiHandler.java // implements StHandler import edu.ds.*; public void read() { Ds aType = new Ds(); aType = "134"; } So DiHandler has a method read() which can contain anything, it doesn't matter to Server.java after compile time. My problem is: DiHandler.java uses the class Ds from a JAR file. When I'm working on DiHandler.java in Eclipse (in a separate project from the project Server.java is in) I can add this JAR without a problem. But when I move DiHandler.class, after it's compiled, to be used by Server.class, how can it still use the JAR file? I hope this makes some sense, I suppose another way to phrase it would be how can I allow DiHandler to call on a class from the JAR without editing the classpath? Thanks very much in advance and sorry for any confusion or poor phrasing, I can only offer thanks and the customary offer of a pint for any assistance. M

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  • Code Contracts: Do we have to specify Contract.Requires(...) statements redundantly in delegating me

    - by herzmeister der welten
    I'm intending to use the new .NET 4 Code Contracts feature for future development. This made me wonder if we have to specify equivalent Contract.Requires(...) statements redundantly in a chain of methods. I think a code example is worth a thousand words: public bool CrushGodzilla(string weapon, int velocity) { Contract.Requires(weapon != null); // long code return false; } public bool CrushGodzilla(string weapon) { Contract.Requires(weapon != null); // specify contract requirement here // as well??? return this.CrushGodzilla(weapon, int.MaxValue); } For runtime checking it doesn't matter much, as we will eventually always hit the requirement check, and we will get an error if it fails. However, is it considered bad practice when we don't specify the contract requirement here in the second overload again? Also, there will be the feature of compile time checking, and possibly also design time checking of code contracts. It seems it's not yet available for C# in Visual Studio 2010, but I think there are some languages like Spec# that already do. These engines will probably give us hints when we write code to call such a method and our argument currently can or will be null. So I wonder if these engines will always analyze a call stack until they find a method with a contract that is currently not satisfied? Furthermore, here I learned about the difference between Contract.Requires(...) and Contract.Assume(...). I suppose that difference is also to consider in the context of this question then?

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  • Why ASP.NET menu control ignores roles in Web.sitemap?

    - by MainMa
    Hi, I have a website with a menu based on sitemap. ActiveDirectoryRoleProvider is a custom class. securityTrimmingEnabled of sitemap provider is set to true. Now, nevertheless the roles set in the sitemap file, site menu displays every sitemap entity. So for example if I have in sitemap a node with roles="*", a second one with roles="Administrators" and a third one with roles="Foo" and I login as a member of Administrators group but not Foo group, the site menu will display all three items. On the other hand, if I have a node which does not specify roles attribute but has children, this node will never be displayed. If I put: <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Administrators") ? "Admin" : "Not admin"%> <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Foo") ? "Foo" : "Not foo"%> before the menu, it displays that I'm Admin, but Not foo, which is just fine. So if it knows that I'm Admin but Not foo, why does it continue to display Foo's sitemap nodes? Note: changing authorizations has no effect on the menu. It continues to show every item, even for the pages I'm unable to access.

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  • Suggestions on error handling of Win32 C++ code: AtlThrow vs. STL exceptions

    - by EmbeddedProg
    In writing Win32 C++ code, I'd appreciate some hints on how to handle errors of Win32 APIs. In particular, in case of a failure of a Win32 function call (e.g. MapViewOfFile), is it better to: use AtlThrowLastWin32 define a Win32Exception class derived from std::exception, with an added HRESULT data member to store the HRESULT corresponding to value returned by GetLastError? In this latter case, I could use the what() method to return a detailed error string (e.g. "MapViewOfFile call failed in MyClass::DoSomething() method."). What are the pros and cons of 1 vs. 2? Is there any other better option that I am missing? As a side note, if I'd like to localize the component I'm developing, how could I localize the exception what() string? I was thinking of building a table mapping the original English string returned by what() into a Unicode localized error string. Could anyone suggest a better approach? Thanks much for your insights and suggestions.

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  • How does the NY Times iPhone app do this?

    - by ArgMan
    Alright, I have an RSS feed that gets arranged in a UITableView and then the user selects a story and it loads in a UIWebView. However, I'd like to stop using the UIWebView and just use a UITextView or UILabel. This png is what I am trying to do (just display the various text aspects of a news story): http://img411.imageshack.us/img411/2449/screenshot20100315at120.png Let me start off by saying that I have tried to use the usualNSString *myText = [webView stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:@"document.documentElement.textContent"]; and assign it to a UILabel, but it doesn't work the way that I am implementing it (in webViewDidFinishLoad--is that not correct?) and I get a blank textView and normal webView. If I overlay a UITextView on top of a UIWebView on its own (that is, a webView that just loads one page), the code posted above works fine to display the text I require, but the problem arises when the RSS feed is added into the mix. Ideas and/or help, guys? I've been stuck wondering why this doesn't work as it should for a few days now. If you have a better, more efficient way of doing it then placing the code in webViewDidFinishLoad, please let me know! Does it go in my didSelectRowAtIndexPath? I'm lost here, guys. Thank you very much in advance!

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  • How should I link two items with MouseMovementListeners?

    - by user1708810
    I'm working on a program that will display two "views" of the same set of items. So I need to have something set up so that when the top down view is changed, the side view is updated (and vice versa). Here's a brief outline of the relevant code so you can get an idea of my structure so far: public class DraggableComponent extends JComponent { //Contains code for MouseMovementListener that makes the item draggable } public class ItemGraphic extends DraggableComponent { //Code to render the graphic } public class Item { private ItemGraphic topGraphic; private ItemGraphic sideGraphic; } I'm able to get each graphic to display fine in my GUI. I can also independently drag each graphic. I'm missing the "linking." Some ideas I've been thinking about: Have one listener for the whole GUI. Loop through each Item and if the cursor is within the bounds of either graphic, move the other graphic. I'm concerned about the efficiency of this method. Multiple "paired" listeners (not quite sure how this would work, but the idea is that each graphic would have a listener for the other paired graphic)

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  • IE7 & 8 not fireing jQuery click events for elements appended inside a table

    - by Keith
    I have an IE bug that I'm not sure how to fix. Using jQuery I'm dynamically moving a menu to appear on an element on mouseover. My code (simplified) looks something like this: $j = jQuery.noConflict(); $j(document).ready(function() { //do something on the menu clicks $j('div.ico').click(function() { alert($j(this).parent().html()); }); setUpActions('#tableId', '#menuId'); }); //on mouseover set up the actions menu to appear on mouseover function setUpActions(tableSelector, menuSelector) { $j(tableSelector + ' div.test').mouseover(function() { //note that append will move the underlying //DOM element with all events from it's old //parent to the end of this one. $j(this).append($j(menuSelector).show()); }); } This menu doesn't seem to register events correctly for the menu after it's been moved in IE7, IE8 and IE8-as-IE7 (yeah MS, that's really a 'new rendering engine' in IE8, we all believe you). It works as expected in everything else. You can see the behaviour in a basic demo here. In the demo you can see two examples of the issue: The image behind the buttons should change on hover (done with a CSS :hover selector). It works on the first mouseover but then persists. The click event doesn’t fire – however with the dev tools you can manually call it and it is still subscribed. You can see (2) in IE8's dev tools: Open page in IE8 Open dev tools Select "Script" tab and "Console" sub-tab Type: $j('#testFloat div.ico:first').click() to manually call any subscribed events There will be an alert on the page This means that I'm not losing the event subscriptions, they're still there, IE's just not calling them when I click. Does anyone know why this bug occurs (other than just because of IE's venerable engine)? Is there a workaround? Could it be something that I'm doing wrong that just happens to work as expected in everything else?

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  • How to fetch particular element from string after splitting it, using XSLT split() ?

    - by Vijay
    Hi All, I have one query regarding XSLT functions. I am using split function to fetch values from a string. I am using separator as "*". e.g. String : {"item1*item2*item3*item4"} split function I am using is as; <xsl:template name="SplitItemsCollection"> <xsl:param name="list" select="''"/> <xsl:param name="separator" select="'*'"/> <xsl:if test="not($list = '' or $separator = '')"> <xsl:variable name="head" select="substring-before(concat($list, $separator), $separator)"/> <xsl:variable name="tail" select="substring-after($list, $separator)"/> <xsl:value-of select="$head"/> <xsl:call-template name="split"> <xsl:with-param name="list" select="$tail"/> <xsl:with-param name="separator" select="$separator"/> </xsl:call-template> </xsl:if> </xsl:template> This function returns me all the items. Is there any way to fetch particular item from these separated items ? Say I want to fetch item3. Can we do it directly ? Thanks in advance.

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  • What's the "proper" way to retrieve a reference to a ribbon object?

    - by Nick
    For a VSTO workbook project, is there a best practice for retrieving a reference to the Ribbon object from the ThisWorkbook class? Here's what I'm doing: In my Ribbon class, I created a public method called InvalidateControl(string controlID). I need to call that method from the ThisWorkbook class based on when a certain workbook level event fires. But the only way I can see to "get" a reference to that Ribbon object is to do this... // This is all in the ThisWorkbook class Ribbon ribbon; protected override IRibbonExtensibility CreateRibbonExtensibilityObject() { this.ribbon = new Ribbon(); return this.ribbon; } ...which seems a little smelly. I mean, I have to override CreateRibbonExtensibilityObject() regardless; all I'm doing beyond that is maintaining a local reference to the ribbon so I can call methods against it. But it doesn't feel right. Is there another, better way to get that reference in the ThisWorkbook class? Or is this pretty acceptable? Thanks!

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  • Why would the same web form control render different "onclick" logic based on the page structure?

    - by zk812
    It was hard to title this question. :) I have a user control that is used to display a list of lookup items in my database and a delete button for each item (Editor User Control below). The delete button has an onClientClick event used to display a confirmation dialog in JavaScript. On page one, the confirmation pops up and functions correctly. The overall structure is: Master Page Page Editor User Control List of items with delete button On page two, the confirmation pops up but regardless of the answer, the page posts back anyway. The structure of this page is: Master Page Page User Control Editor User Control List of items with delete button For some reason, this makes a difference in how the delete button is rendered. Page one: <input type="image" name="ctl00...RequestTypesDataList$ctl01$ctl01" src="Images/Disable.png" alt="Delete" onclick="return ProcessDeleteCommand(1);" /> Page two: <input type="image" name="ctl00...RequestTypesDataList$ctl07$ctl01" src="Images/Disable.png" alt="Delete" onclick="return ProcessDeleteCommand(2);WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions(&quot;ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$RequestCreator1$RequestTypeEditor1$RequestTypesDataList$ctl07$ctl01&quot;, &quot;&quot;, true, &quot;&quot;, &quot;&quot;, false, false))" /> Does anyone know why page two renders WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions after my JS check? It's causing the postback regardless of the confirmation choice.

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  • Can Win32_NetworkAdapterConfiguration.EnableStatic() be used to set more than one IP address?

    - by Andrew J. Brehm
    I ran into this problem in a Visual Basic program that uses WMI but could confirm it in PowerShell. Apparently the EnableStatic() method can only be used to set one IP address, despite taking two parameters IP address(es) and subnetmask(s) that are arrays. I.e. $a=get-wmiobject win32_networkadapterconfiguration -computername myserver This gets me an array of all network adapters on "myserver". After selecting a specific one ($a=$a[14] in this case), I can run $a.EnableStatic() which has this signature System.Management.ManagementBaseObject EnableStatic(System.String[] IPAddress, System.String[] SubnetMask) I thought this implies that I could set several IP addresses like this: $ips="192.168.1.42","192.168.1.43" $a.EnableStatic($ips,"255.255.255.0") But this call fails. However, this call works: $a.EnableStatic($ips[0],"255.255.255.0") It looks to me as if EnableStatic() really takes two strings rather than two arrays of strings as parameters. In Visual Basic it's more complicated and arrays must be passed but the method appears to take into account only the first element of each array. Am I confused again or is there some logic here?

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  • PHP & WP: Render Certain Markup Based on True False Condition

    - by rob
    So, I'm working on a site where on the top of certain pages I'd like to display a static graphic and on some pages I would like to display an scrolling banner. So far I set up the condition as follows: <?php $regBanner = true; $regBannerURL = get_bloginfo('stylesheet_directory'); //grabbing WP site URL ?> and in my markup: <div id="banner"> <?php if ($regBanner) { echo "<img src='" . $regBannerURL . "/style/images/main_site/home_page/mock_banner.jpg' />"; } else { echo 'Slider!'; } ?> </div><!-- end banner --> In my else statement, where I'm echoing 'Slider!' I would like to output the markup for my slider: <div id="slider"> <img src="<?php bloginfo('stylesheet_directory') ?>/style/images/main_site/banners/services_banners/1.jpg" alt="" /> <img src="<?php bloginfo('stylesheet_directory') ?>/style/images/main_site/banners/services_banners/2.jpg" alt="" /> <img src="<?php bloginfo('stylesheet_directory') ?>/style/images/main_site/banners/services_banners/3.jpg" alt="" /> ............. </div> My question is how can I throw the div and all those images into my else echo statement? I'm having trouble escaping the quotes and my slider markup isn't rendering.

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  • Internal Java code best practice for dealing with invalid REST API parameters

    - by user326389
    My colleague wrote the following stackoverflow question: other stack overflow question on this topic The question seems to have been misinterpreted and I want to find out the answer, so I'm starting this new question... hopefully a little more clear. Basically, we have a REST API. Users of our API call our methods with parameters. But sometimes users call them with the wrong parameters!! Maybe a mistake in their code, maybe they're just trying to play with us, maybe they're trying to see how we respond, who knows! We respond with HTTP status error codes and maybe a detailed description of the invalid parameter in the XML response. All is well. But internally we deal with these invalid parameters by throwing exceptions. For example, if someone looks up a Person object by giving us their profile id, but the profile id doesn't exist... we throw a PersonInvalidException when looking them up. Then we catch this exception in our API controller and send back an HTTP 400 status error code. Our question is... is this the best practice, throwing exceptions internally for this kind of user error? These exceptions never get propogated back to the user, this is a REST API. They only make our code cleaner. Otherwise we could have a validation method in each of our API controllers to make sure the parameters all make sense, but that seems inefficient. We have to look up things in our database potentially twice. Or we could return nulls and check for them, but that sucks... What are your thoughts?

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  • How do you Bind to a ComboBox in a DataTemplate?

    - by discwiz
    I have a listbox that is bound to an observable collection of Audio (custom class). The Audio class has two properties, DisplayText (string) and a property called TarpIds (Observable Collection of Integer). I need to allow the user to change the TarpID in the combo box for each list item displayed and catch the selection change. I created a DataTemplate that styles the DisplayText property from the Audio object and adds a ComboBox to display the available TarpIDs for this audio (These are dynamic and unique to each Audio). The DisplayText works great, but I can not get the TarpIDs to display in the ComboBox. Here is what I have so far and thanks for any help. FYI I set the ItemSource at run time that binds the ListUploadAudio to the Observable Collection of Audio. <Border BorderBrush="Red" Background="WhiteSmoke" CornerRadius="8"> <Border.Resources> <DataTemplate x:Key="UploadLayout" DataType="Audio"> <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=DisplayText}" FontWeight="Bold" Foreground="Blue"> </TextBlock> <ComboBox x:Name="ListBoxTarpIDs" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=TarpIds}"> </ComboBox> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </Border.Resources> <ListBox x:Name="ListUploadAudio" BorderBrush="Transparent" Background="Transparent" Width="230" Margin="10" Height="200" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" SelectionMode="Multiple" ItemTemplate="{DynamicResource UploadLayout}"> </ListBox> </Border>

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  • Cakephp, Route old google search results to new home page

    - by ion
    Hi there, I have created a new website for a company and I would like all the previous search engine results to be redirected. Since there were quite a few pages and most of them where using an id I would like to use something generic instead of re-routing all the old pages. My first thought was to do that: Router::connect('/*', array('controller' => 'pages', 'action' => 'display', 'home')); And put that at the very end of the routes.php file [since it is prioritized] so that all requests not validating with previous route actions would return true with this one and redirect to homepage. However this does not work. I'm pasting my routes.php file [since it is small] hoping that someone could give me a hint: Router::connect('/', array('controller' => 'pages', 'action' => 'display', 'home')); Router::connect('/company/*', array('controller' => 'articles', 'action' => 'view')); Router::connect('/contact/*', array('controller' => 'contacts', 'action' => 'view')); Router::connect('/lang/*', array('controller' => 'p28n', 'action' => 'change')); Router::connect('/eng/*', array('controller' => 'p28n', 'action' => 'shuntRequest', 'lang' => 'eng')); Router::connect('/gre/*', array('controller' => 'p28n', 'action' => 'shuntRequest', 'lang' => 'gre')); Router::parseExtensions('xml');

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  • PHP Check slave status without mysql_connect timeout issues

    - by Jonathon
    I have a web-app that has a master mysql db and four slave dbs. I want to handle all (or almost all) read-only (SELECT) queries from the slaves. Our load-balancer sends the user to one of the slave machines automatically, since they are also running Apache/PHP and serving webpages. I am using an include file to setup the connection to the databases, such as: //for master server (i.e. - UPDATE/INSERT/DELETE statements) $Host = "10.0.0.x"; $User = "xx"; $Password = "xx"; $Link = mysql_connect( $Host, $User, $Password ); if( !$Link ) ) { die( "Master database is currently unavailable. Please try again later." ); } //this connection can be used for READ-ONLY (i.e. - SELECT statements) on the localhost $Host_Local = "localhost"; $User_Local = "xx"; $Password_Local = "xx"; $Link_Local = mysql_connect( $Host_Local, $User_Local, $Password_Local ); //fail back to master if slave db is down if( !$Link_Local ) ) { $Link_Local = mysql_connect( $Host, $User, $Password ); } I then use $Link for all update queries and $Link_Local as the connection for SELECT statements. Everything works fine until the slave server database goes down. If the local db is down, the $Link_Local = mysql_connect() call takes at least 30 seconds before it gives up on trying to connect to the localhost and returns back to the script. This causes a huge backlog of page serves and basically shuts down the system (due to the extremely slow response time). Does anyone know of a better way to handle connections to slave servers via PHP? Or, is there some kind of timeout function that could be used to stop the mysql_connect call after 2-3 seconds? Thanks for the help. I searched the other mysql_connect threads, but didn't see any that addressed this issue.

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  • implement AOP for Controllers in Spring 3

    - by tommy
    How do I implement AOP with an annotated Controller? I've search and found two previous posts regarding the problem, but can't seem to get the solutions to work. posted solution 1 posted solution 2 Here's what I have: Dispatch Servlet: <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:p="http://www.springframework.org/schema/p" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xmlns:mvc="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xmlns:aop="http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop/spring-aop-3.0.xsd"> <context:annotation-config/> <context:component-scan base-package="com.foo.controller"/> <bean id="fooAspect" class="com.foo.aop.FooAspect" /> <aop:aspectj-autoproxy> <aop:include name="fooAspect" /> </aop:aspectj-autoproxy> </beans> Controller: @Controller public class FooController { @RequestMapping(value="/index.htm", method=RequestMethod.GET) public String showIndex(Model model){ return "index"; } } Aspect: @Aspect public class FooAspect { @Pointcut("@target(org.springframework.stereotype.Controller)") public void controllerPointcutter() {} @Pointcut("execution(* *(..))") public void methodPointcutter() {} @Before("controllerPointcutter()") public void beforeMethodInController(JoinPoint jp){ System.out.println("### before controller call..."); } @AfterReturning("controllerPointcutter() && methodPointcutter() ") public void afterMethodInController(JoinPoin jp) { System.out.println("### after returning..."); } @Before("methodPointcutter()") public void beforeAnyMethod(JoinPoint jp){ System.out.println("### before any call..."); } } The beforeAnyMethod() works for methods NOT in a controller; I cannot get anything to execute on calls to controllers. Am I missing something?

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