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  • auto complete asp.net

    - by lodun
    Why my autocomplete ajax script does not work: This is my WebService.cs: using System; using System.Data; using System.Web; using System.Collections; using System.Web.Services; using System.Web.Services.Protocols; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data.SqlClient; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Configuration; using System.Web.Script.Services; [ScriptService] [WebService(Namespace = "http://tempuri.org/")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] // To allow this Web Service to be called from script, using ASP.NET AJAX, uncomment the following line. public class WebService : System.Web.Services.WebService { public WebService () { //Uncomment the following line if using designed components //InitializeComponent(); } [WebMethod] public string[] GetCountryInfo(string prefixText, int count) { string sql = "Select * from questions Where username like @prefixText"; SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(sql,"estudent_piooConnectionString"); da.SelectCommand.Parameters.Add("@prefixText", SqlDbType.VarChar, 50).Value = prefixText + "%"; DataTable dt = new DataTable(); da.Fill(dt); string[] items = new string[dt.Rows.Count]; int i = 1; foreach (DataRow dr in dt.Rows) { items.SetValue(dr["username"].ToString(),i); i++; } return items; } } my css: /*AutoComplete flyout */ .autocomplete_completionListElement { margin : 0px!important; background-color : inherit; color : windowtext; border : buttonshadow; border-width : 1px; border-style : solid; cursor : 'default'; overflow : auto; height : 200px; text-align : left; list-style-type : none;padding:0px; } /* AutoComplete highlighted item */ .autocomplete_highlightedListItem { background-color: #ffff99; color: black; padding: 1px; } /* AutoComplete item */ .autocomplete_listItem { background-color : window; color : windowtext; padding : 1px; } and textbox: <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox2" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <cc1:AutoCompleteExtender ID="AutoCompleteExtender1" CompletionListCssClass="autocomplete_completionListElement" CompletionListItemCssClass="autocomplete_listItem" CompletionSetCount="20" CompletionInterval="1000" DelimiterCharacters=";,:" CompletionListHighlightedItemCssClass="autocomplete_highlightedList MinimumPrefixLength="1" ServiceMethod="GetCountryInfo" ShowOnlyCurrentWordInCompletionListItem="true" TargetControlID="TextBox2" ServicePath="WebService.asmx" runat="server"></cc1:AutoCompleteExtender>

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  • Optimising speeds in HDF5 using Pytables

    - by Sree Aurovindh
    The problem is with respect to the writing speed of the computer (10 * 32 bit machine) and the postgresql query performance.I will explain the scenario in detail. I have data about 80 Gb (along with approprite database indexes in place). I am trying to read it from Postgresql database and writing it into HDF5 using Pytables.I have 1 table and 5 variable arrays in one hdf5 file.The implementation of Hdf5 is not multithreaded or enabled for symmetric multi processing.I have rented about 10 computers for a day and trying to write them inorder to speed up my data handling. As for as the postgresql table is concerned the overall record size is 140 million and I have 5 primary- foreign key referring tables.I am not using joins as it is not scalable So for a single lookup i do 6 lookup without joins and write them into hdf5 format. For each lookup i do 6 inserts into each of the table and its corresponding arrays. The queries are really simple select * from x.train where tr_id=1 (primary key & indexed) select q_t from x.qt where q_id=2 (non-primary key but indexed) (similarly five queries) Each computer writes two hdf5 files and hence the total count comes around 20 files. Some Calculations and statistics: Total number of records : 14,37,00,000 Total number of records per file : 143700000/20 =71,85,000 The total number of records in each file : 71,85,000 * 5 = 3,59,25,000 Current Postgresql database config : My current Machine : 8GB RAM with i7 2nd generation Processor. I made changes to the following to postgresql configuration file : shared_buffers : 2 GB effective_cache_size : 4 GB Note on current performance: I have run it for about ten hours and the performance is as follows: The total number of records written for each file is about 6,21,000 * 5 = 31,05,000 The bottle neck is that i can only rent it for 10 hours per day (overnight) and if it processes in this speed it will take about 11 days which is too high for my experiments. Please suggest me on how to improve. Questions: 1. Should i use Symmetric multi processing on those desktops(it has 2 cores with about 2 GB of RAM).In that case what is suggested or prefereable? 2. If i change my postgresql configuration file and increase the RAM will it enhance my process. 3. Should i use multi threading.. In that case any links or pointers would be of great help Thanks Sree aurovindh V

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  • Best practices regarding equals: to overload or not to overload?

    - by polygenelubricants
    Consider the following snippet: import java.util.*; public class EqualsOverload { public static void main(String[] args) { class Thing { final int x; Thing(int x) { this.x = x; } public int hashCode() { return x; } public boolean equals(Thing other) { return this.x == other.x; } } List<Thing> myThings = Arrays.asList(new Thing(42)); System.out.println(myThings.contains(new Thing(42))); // prints "false" } } Note that contains returns false!!! We seems to have lost our things!! The bug, of course, is the fact that we've accidentally overloaded, instead of overridden, Object.equals(Object). If we had written class Thing as follows instead, then contains returns true as expected. class Thing { final int x; Thing(int x) { this.x = x; } public int hashCode() { return x; } @Override public boolean equals(Object o) { return (o instanceof Thing) && (this.x == ((Thing) o).x); } } Effective Java 2nd Edition, Item 36: Consistently use the Override annotation, uses essentially the same argument to recommend that @Override should be used consistently. This advice is good, of course, for if we had tried to declare @Override equals(Thing other) in the first snippet, our friendly little compiler would immediately point out our silly little mistake, since it's an overload, not an override. What the book doesn't specifically cover, however, is whether overloading equals is a good idea to begin with. Essentially, there are 3 situations: Overload only, no override -- ALMOST CERTAINLY WRONG! This is essentially the first snippet above Override only (no overload) -- one way to fix This is essentially the second snippet above Overload and override combo -- another way to fix The 3rd situation is illustrated by the following snippet: class Thing { final int x; Thing(int x) { this.x = x; } public int hashCode() { return x; } public boolean equals(Thing other) { return this.x == other.x; } @Override public boolean equals(Object o) { return (o instanceof Thing) && (this.equals((Thing) o)); } } Here, even though we now have 2 equals method, there is still one equality logic, and it's located in the overload. The @Override simply delegates to the overload. So the questions are: What are the pros and cons of "override only" vs "overload & override combo"? Is there a justification for overloading equals, or is this almost certainly a bad practice?

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  • Entity Framework 4 CTP 5 POCO - Many-to-many configuration, insertion, and update?

    - by Saxman
    I really need someone to help me to fully understand how to do many-to-many relationship with Entity Framework 4 CTP 5, POCO. I need to understand 3 concepts: How to config my model to indicates some tables are many-to-many. How to properly do insert. How to properly do update. Here are my current models: public class MusicSheet { [Key] public int ID { get; set; } public string Title { get; set; } public string Key { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Author> Authors { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Tag> Tags { get; set; } } public class Author { [Key] public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public string Bio { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<MusicSheet> MusicSheets { get; set; } } public class Tag { [Key] public int ID { get; set; } public string TagName { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<MusicSheet> MusicSheets { get; set; } } As you can see, the MusicSheet can have many Authors or Tags, and an Author or Tag can have multiple MusicSheets. Again, my questions are: What to do on the EntityTypeConfiguration to set the relationship between them as well as mapping to an table/object that associates with the many-to-many relationship. How to insert a new music sheets (where it might have multiple authors or multiple tags). How to update a music sheet. For example, I might set TagA, TagB to MusicSheet1, but later I need to change the tags to TagA and TagC. It seems like I need to first check to see if the tags already exists, if not, insert the new tag and then associate it with the music sheet (so that I doesn't re-insert TagA?). Or this is something already handled by the framework? Thank you very much. I really hope to fully understand it rather than just doing it without fully understand what's going on. Especially on #3.

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  • drupal jQuery 1.4 on specific pages

    - by Mark
    I'm looking for a way to force drupal to use 1.4 on specific pages. This is the same as this old question:http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2842792/drupal-jquery-1-4-on-specific-pages It look me a while to try the answer which I marked correct. But because I'm new to module dev overall I couldn't figure it out based on the answer. The code from that answer looked like this: /** * Implementation of hook_theme_registry_alter(). * Based on the jquery_update module. * * Make this page preprocess function runs *last*, * so that a theme can't call drupal_get_js(). */ function MYMODULE_theme_registry_alter(&$theme_registry) { if (isset($theme_registry['page'])) { // See if our preprocess function is loaded, if so remove it. if ($key = array_search('MYMODULE_preprocess_page', $theme_registry['page']['preprocess functions'])) { unset($theme_registry['page']['preprocess functions'][$key]); } // Now add it on at the end of the array so that it runs last. $theme_registry['page']['preprocess functions'][] = 'MYMODULE_preprocess_page'; } } /** * Implementation of moduleName_preprocess_hook(). * Based on the jquery_update module functions. * * Strips out JS and CSS for a path. */ function MYMODULE_preprocess_page(&$variables, $arg = 'my_page', $delta=0) { // I needed a one hit wonder. Can be altered to use function arguments // to increase it's flexibility. if(arg($delta) == $arg) { $scripts = drupal_add_js(); $css = drupal_add_css(); // Only do this for pages that have JavaScript on them. if (!empty($variables['scripts'])) { $path = drupal_get_path('module', 'admin_menu'); unset($scripts['module'][$path . '/admin_menu.js']); $variables['scripts'] = drupal_get_js('header', $scripts); } // Similar process for CSS but there are 2 Css realted variables. // $variables['css'] and $variables['styles'] are both used. if (!empty($variables['css'])) { $path = drupal_get_path('module', 'admin_menu'); unset($css['all']['module'][$path . '/admin_menu.css']); unset($css['all']['module'][$path . '/admin_menu.color.css']); $variables['styles'] = drupal_get_css($css); } } } I need the jquery_update 1.3.2 to be unset on the node-types of 'blog' and 'video'. Can someone help me out? Thank you.

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  • My mental block - struggling to learn Objective C

    - by iqessar
    Hello people, this would be my first question after signing up! Anyway heres my question, I did Java at university and I was always told I am a good programmer. However I never pursued it as a career - I went into support and management instead. Im pretty much bored with my job, I have therefore started to learn Objective C so that I can develop apps for the iphone. I am currently watching several different Videos / Books. My problem is that when I go through the Apple documentation, although I understand most of it, sometimes I stumble. I believe that because you/we have the Apple documentation (i.e. Framework references) , everything should be clear, and therefore you should have no need to refer to a book or video (in order to learn how to use a particular class). But I alway do refer to a book and video and subsequently feel guilty as I believe the framework reference should be enough. (I therefore feel I am not up to being a programmer) I also believe that you shouldn't need example code in order to learn how to use a particular class because Apple provides documentation for each class, but AGAIN I find my self googling example code and I find my answer like that - again I feel guilty for doing this. Am I right in saying that Apple documentation is simply not clear? and that its ok to refer to a video/book or google? or forums for that matter? I have proffesional programmers who tell me that I am worrying too much and that I should get on with it and use all the resources that I have. I just cant seem to get round this mental block that I have in my head. When I start a programming project I am able to use the excellent search skills that I have to find the code I need, copy and paste it (yes I do understand it) BUT then I feel guilty telling myself that why didn't you think up the code yourself???? Therefore your not a real programmer, your just good at googling. Currently I am going through 20+ books so that I can learn most of the frameworks, syntax etc to develop iphone apps. I believe if I do this, then when I think of a project I can make it quickly. Should I read a few books, like 2-3 and then just start a project /app , and if I get stuck just google it and get the code I need? Can anybody please answer my questions?

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  • Silverlight MVVM MEF ViewInjection

    - by silverfighter
    Hi all, since my title is buzzword compliant I hope I will get lots of answers to my question or any pointers to the right direction. OK what I usually do is have a ViewModel which contains a list of ViewModels itself. public class MasterViewModel { public ObservableCollection<DetailViewModel> DetailViewModels { get; set; } public DetailViewModel Detail { get; set; } } <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding DetailViewModels}"> <ItemsControl> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <StackPanel /> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </ItemsControl> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <views:DetailsView /> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> With this in mind I will now come to my questions. I read a lot of good things about MEF and also saw the dashboard sample of Glenn Block but this was not helping me enough. What I want to do is sidbar (like the windows sidebar). Sidebar = StackPanel ListItems = Gadget ButI want it MVVM style OK I have something like a contract IGadget I implemented an custom Export. [ExportGadget(GadgetType = GadgetTypes.News)] I have my NewsGadgetView.xaml (which implements IGadget) and imports the NewsGadgetViewModel and also makes itself available as ExportGadget. so far so good. With this I can create a set of gadgets. Then I have my SidbarView.xaml which imports a sidebarViewModel. and now I get lost... I thought of something like a GadgetFactory which uses PartCreator to create my Gadgets. but this would sit in my SidebarView.xaml But I want to have control over my Gadgets to add and remove them from my sidebar. So I thought about something like an ObserveableCollection... Which I bind to The GadgetHost is basicaly Grid which will dynamicaly load the Gadget.... So how would I create my sidebar containing different gadgets without knowing which Gadgets are available and have a ViewModel for the sidebar as well as for each gadget?... Thanks for any help....

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  • jQuery Validation plugin, IE7 "SCRIPT3: Member not found"

    - by jkinz
    I have the following: <html> <head> </head> <body> <div> <form method="post"> <div id="questions"> <label for="question-6">Name of Course:</label> <input type="text" name="name_of_course[response]" value="" id="question-6" class="required"> <label class="control-label" for="reporting-year">Reporting Year: </label> <select name="reporting_year" id="reporting-year"> <option value="-1" selected="selected">Select option...</option> <option value="4">2013-2014</option> <option value="1">2012-2013</option> <option value="2">2011-2012</option> <option value="3">2010-2011</option> </select> </div> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="Save Entry" class="btn"> </form> </div> <script src="//code.jquery.com/jquery.js"></script> <script src="//ajax.aspnetcdn.com/ajax/jquery.validate/1.10.0/jquery.validate.min.js"></script> <script> $(function(){ jQuery.validator.addMethod("notEqual", function(value, element, param) { return this.optional(element) || value !== param; }, "Please select an option"); $('form').validate({ rules:{ 'reporting_year': { notEqual: "-1" } } }); }); </script> </body> </html> Everyone's favorite browser, IE7 (IE10 w/compatibility really) is reporting the following error in the console: SCRIPT3: Member not found. jquery.js, line 2525 character 4 Of course IE8 and above work fine, but my client is using IE7.

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  • Implementing a logging library in .NET with a database as the storage medium

    - by Dave
    I'm just starting to work on a logging library that everyone can use to keep track of any sort of system information while the user is running our application. The simplest example so far is to track Info, Warnings, and Errors. I want all plugins to be able to use this feature, but since each developer might have a different idea of what's important to report, I want to keep this as generic as possible. In the C++ world, I would normally use something like a stl::pair<string,string> to act as a key value pair structure, and have a stl::list of these to act as a "row" in the log. The log cache would then be a list<list<pair<string,string>>> (ugh!). This way, the developers can use a const string key like INFO, WARNING, ERROR to have a consistent naming for a column in the database (for SELECTing specific types of information). I'd like the database to be able to deal with any number of distinct column names. For example, John might have an INFO row with a column called USER, and Bill might have an INFO row with a column called FILENAME. I want the log viewer to be able to display all information, and if one report doesn't have a value for INFO / FILENAME, those fields should just appear blank. So one option is to use List<List<KeyValuePair<String,String>>, and the another is to have the log library consumer somehow "register" its schema, and then have the database do an ALTER TABLE to handle this situation. Yet another idea is to have a table that's just for key value pairs, with a foreign key that maps the key value pairs back to the original log entry. I obviously don't want logging to bog down the system, so I only lock the log cache to make a copy of the data (and remove the already-copied data), then a background thread will dump the information to the database. My specific questions regarding this are: Do you see any performance issues? In other words, have you ever tried something like this and found that certain things just don't work well in practice? Is there a more .NETish way to implement the key value pairs, other than List<List<KeyValuePair<String,String>>>? Even if there is a way to do #2 better, is the ALTER TABLE idea I proposed above a Bad Thing? Would you recommend multiple databases over a single one? I don't yet have an idea of how frequently the log would get written to, but we ideally would like to have lots of low level information. Perhaps there should be a DB with a fixed schema only for the low level stuff, and then another DB that's more flexible for reporting information back to users.

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  • how to create a system-wide independent universal counter object primarily for Database keys?

    - by andora
    I would like to create/use a system-wide independent universal 'counter object' that can be called via COM in a thread-safe manner. The counter object will be passed an ID to identify which counter to return, handle the counting, 'persist' the count (occasionally), have reasonable performance (as fast as possible) perhaps capable of 1000 counts per second or better (1mS) and be accessible cross-process/out-of-process. The current count status must be persisted between object restarts/shutdowns. The counter object is liklely to be a 'singleton' type object implemented in some form of free-threaded dictionary, containing maybe 10 counters (perhaps 50 max). The count needs to be monotonic and consistent, (ie: guaranteed unique sequential values). Each counter should have a few methods, like reset, inc, dec, set, clear, remove. As a luxury, I would like to have a variable-increment (ie: 'step by' value). To support thread-safefty, perhaps some sorm of critical-section or mutex call. It just needs to return a long/4byte signed integer. I really want something that can be called from anywhere, including VBScript, so I figure COM is my preferred solution. The primary use of this is for database keys. I am unable to use autoinc or guid type keys and have ruled out database-generated counting systems at this point. I've spent days researching this and I have really struggled to find a solution. The best I can find is a free-threaded dictionary object that can be instantiated using COM+ from Motobit - it seems to offer all the 'basics' and I guess I could create some form of wrapper for this. So, here are my questions: Does such a 'general purpose counter-object already exist? Can you direct me to it? (MS did do an IIS/ASP object called 'MSWC.Counter' but this isn't 'cross-process'/ out-of-process component and isn't thread-safe. (but if it was, it would do!) What is the best way of creating such a Component? (I'd prefer VB6 right-now, [don't ask!] but can do in VB.NET2005 if I had to). I don't have the skills/knowledge/tools to use anything else. I am desparate for a workable solution. I need specific guidance! If anybody can code something up for me I am prepared to pay for it.

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  • How to obtain a pointer out of a C++ vtable?

    - by Josh Haberman
    Say you have a C++ class like: class Foo { public: virtual ~Foo() {} virtual DoSomething() = 0; }; The C++ compiler translates a call into a vtable lookup: Foo* foo; // Translated by C++ to: // foo->vtable->DoSomething(foo); foo->DoSomething(); Suppose I was writing a JIT compiler and I wanted to obtain the address of the DoSomething() function for a particular instance of class Foo, so I can generate code that jumps to it directly instead of doing a table lookup and an indirect branch. My questions are: Is there any standard C++ way to do this (I'm almost sure the answer is no, but wanted to ask for the sake of completeness). Is there any remotely compiler-independent way of doing this, like a library someone has implemented that provides an API for accessing a vtable? I'm open to completely hacks, if they will work. For example, if I created my own derived class and could determine the address of its DoSomething method, I could assume that the vtable is the first (hidden) member of Foo and search through its vtable until I find my pointer value. However, I don't know a way of getting this address: if I write &DerivedFoo::DoSomething I get a pointer-to-member, which is something totally different. Maybe I could turn the pointer-to-member into the vtable offset. When I compile the following: class Foo { public: virtual ~Foo() {} virtual void DoSomething() = 0; }; void foo(Foo *f, void (Foo::*member)()) { (f->*member)(); } On GCC/x86-64, I get this assembly output: Disassembly of section .text: 0000000000000000 <_Z3fooP3FooMS_FvvE>: 0: 40 f6 c6 01 test sil,0x1 4: 48 89 74 24 e8 mov QWORD PTR [rsp-0x18],rsi 9: 48 89 54 24 f0 mov QWORD PTR [rsp-0x10],rdx e: 74 10 je 20 <_Z3fooP3FooMS_FvvE+0x20> 10: 48 01 d7 add rdi,rdx 13: 48 8b 07 mov rax,QWORD PTR [rdi] 16: 48 8b 74 30 ff mov rsi,QWORD PTR [rax+rsi*1-0x1] 1b: ff e6 jmp rsi 1d: 0f 1f 00 nop DWORD PTR [rax] 20: 48 01 d7 add rdi,rdx 23: ff e6 jmp rsi I don't fully understand what's going on here, but if I could reverse-engineer this or use an ABI spec I could generate a fragment like the above for each separate platform, as a way of obtaining a pointer out of a vtable.

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  • Virtual member call in a constructor when assigning value to property

    - by comecme
    I have an Abstract class and a Derived class. The abstract class defines an abstract property named Message. In the derived class, the property is implemented by overriding the abstract property. The constructor of the derived class takes a string argument and assigns it to its Message property. In Resharper, this assignment leads to a warning "Virtual member call in constructor". The AbstractClass has this definition: public abstract class AbstractClass { public abstract string Message { get; set; } protected AbstractClass() { } public abstract void PrintMessage(); } And the DerivedClass is as follows: using System; public class DerivedClass : AbstractClass { private string _message; public override string Message { get { return _message; } set { _message = value; } } public DerivedClass(string message) { Message = message; // Warning: Virtual member call in a constructor } public DerivedClass() : this("Default DerivedClass message") {} public override void PrintMessage() { Console.WriteLine("DerivedClass PrintMessage(): " + Message); } } I did find some other questions about this warning, but in those situations there is an actual call to a method. For instance, in this question, the answer by Matt Howels contains some sample code. I'll repeat it here for easy reference. class Parent { public Parent() { DoSomething(); } protected virtual void DoSomething() {}; } class Child : Parent { private string foo; public Child() { foo = "HELLO"; } protected override void DoSomething() { Console.WriteLine(foo.ToLower()); } } Matt doesn't describe on what error the warning would appear, but I'm assuming it will be on the call to DoSomething in the Parent constructor. In this example, I understand what is meant by a virtual member being called. The member call occurs in the base class, in which only a virtual method exists. In my situation however, I don't see why assigning a value to Message would be calling a virtual member. Both the call to and the implementation of the Message property are defined in the derived class. Although I can get rid of the error by making my Derived Class sealed, I would like to understand why this situation is resulting in the warning.

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  • Hide public method used to help test a .NET assembly

    - by ChrisW
    I have a .NET assembly, to be released. Its release build includes: A public, documented API of methods which people are supposed to use A public but undocumented API of other methods, which exist only in order to help test the assembly, and which people are not supposed to use The assembly to be released is a custom control, not an application. To regression-test it, I run it in a testing framework/application, which uses (in addition to the public/documented API) some advanced/undocumented methods which are exported from the control. For the public methods which I don't want people to use, I excluded them from the documentation using the <exclude> tag (supported by the Sandcastle Help File Builder), and the [EditorBrowsable] attribute, for example like this: /// <summary> /// Gets a <see cref="IEditorTransaction"/> instance, which helps /// to combine several DOM edits into a single transaction, which /// can be undone and redone as if they were a single, atomic operation. /// </summary> /// <returns>A <see cref="IEditorTransaction"/> instance.</returns> IEditorTransaction createEditorTransaction(); /// <exclude/> [EditorBrowsable(EditorBrowsableState.Never)] void debugDumpBlocks(TextWriter output); This successfully removes the method from the API documentation, and from Intellisense. However, if in a sample application program I right-click on an instance of the interface to see its definition in the metadata, I can still see the method, and the [EditorBrowsable] attribute as well, for example: // Summary: // Gets a ModelText.ModelDom.Nodes.IEditorTransaction instance, which helps // to combine several DOM edits into a single transaction, which can be undone // and redone as if they were a single, atomic operation. // // Returns: // A ModelText.ModelDom.Nodes.IEditorTransaction instance. IEditorTransaction createEditorTransaction(); // [EditorBrowsable(EditorBrowsableState.Never)] void debugDumpBlocks(TextWriter output); Questions: Is there a way to hide a public method, even from the meta data? If not then instead, for this scenario, would you recommend making the methods internal and using the InternalsVisibleTo attribute? Or would you recommend some other way, and if so what and why? Thank you.

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  • using CSS to center FLOATED input elements wrapped in a DIV

    - by Tim
    There's no shortage of questions and answers about centering but I've not been able to get it to work given my specific circumstances, which involve floating. I want to center a container DIV that contains three floated input elements (split-button, text, checkbox), so that when my page is resized wider, they go from this: ||.....[ ][v] [ ] [ ] label .....|| to this ||......................[ ][v] [ ] [ ] label.......................|| They float fine, but when the page is made wider, they stay to the left: ||.....[ ][v] [ ] [ ] label .......................................|| If I remove the float so that the input elements are stacked rather than side-by-side: [ ][v] [ ] [ ] label then they DO center correctly when the page is resized. SO it is the float being applied to the elements of the DIV#hbox inside the container that is messing up the centering. Is what I want to do impossible because of the way float is designed to work? Here is my DOCTYPE, and the markup does validate at w3c: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> Here is my markup: <div id="term1-container"> <div class="hbox"> <div> <button id="operator1" class="operator-split-button">equals</button> <button id="operator1drop">show all operators</button> </div> <div><input type="text" id="term1"></input></div> <div><input type="checkbox" id="meta2"></input><label for="meta2" class="tinylabel">meta</label></div> </div> </div> And here's the (not-working) CSS: #term1-container {text-align: center} .hbox {margin: 0 auto;} .hbox div {float:left; } I have also tried applying display: inline-block to the floated button, text-input, and checkbox; and even though I think it applies only to text, I've also tried applying white-space: nowrap to the #term1-container DIV, based on posts I've seen here on SO. And just to be a little more complete, here's the jQuery that creates the split-button: $(".operator-split-button").button().click( function() { alert( "foo" ); }).next().button( { text: false, icons: { primary: "ui-icon-triangle-1-s" } }).click( function(){positionOperatorsMenu();} ) })

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  • How can I refactor this JavaScript code to avoid making functions in a loop?

    - by Bungle
    I wrote the following code for a project that I'm working on: var clicky_tracking = [ ['related-searches', 'Related Searches'], ['related-stories', 'Related Stories'], ['more-videos', 'More Videos'], ['web-headlines', 'Publication'] ]; for (var x = 0, length_x = clicky_tracking.length; x < length_x; x++) { links = document.getElementById(clicky_tracking[x][0]) .getElementsByTagName('a'); for (var y = 0, length_y = links.length; y < length_y; y++) { links[y].onclick = (function(name, url) { return function() { clicky.log(url, name, 'outbound'); }; }(clicky_tracking[x][1], links[y].href)); } } What I'm trying to do is: define a two-dimensional array, with each instance the inner arrays containing two elements: an id attribute value (e.g., "related-searches") and a corresponding description (e.g., "Related Searches"); for each of the inner arrays, find the element in the document with the corresponding id attribute, and then gather a collection of all <a> elements (hyperlinks) within it; loop through that collection and attach an onclick handler to each hyperlink, which should call clicky.log, passing in as parameters the description that corresponds to the id (e.g., "Related Searches" for the id "related-searches") and the value of the href attribute for the <a> element that was clicked. Hopefully that wasn't thoroughly confusing! The code may be more self-explanatory than that. I believe that what I've implemented here is a closure, but JSLint complains: http://img.skitch.com/20100526-k1trfr6tpj64iamm8r4jf5rbru.png So, my questions are: How can I refactor this code to make JSLint agreeable? Or, better yet, is there a best-practices way to do this that I'm missing, regardless of what JSLint thinks? Should I rely on event delegation instead? That is, attaching onclick event handlers to the document elements with the id attributes in my arrays, and then looking at event.target? I've done that once before and understand the theory, but I'm very hazy on the details, and would appreciate some guidance on what that would look like - assuming this is a viable approach. Thanks very much for any help!

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  • Why is my namespace not recognized in Visual Studio / xaml

    - by msfanboy
    Hello, these are my 2 classes a Attachable Property SelectedItems: code is from here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1297643/sync-selecteditems-in-a-muliselect-listbox-with-a-collection-in-viewmodel The namespace TBM.Helper is for sure proper as it works for other classes too. The namespace reference is also in the xaml file: xmlns:Helper="clr_namespace:TBM.Helper" But <ListBox Helper:SelectedItems.Items="{Binding SelectedItems}" ... does not work because = The property 'SelectedItems.Items' does not exist in XML namespace 'clr_namespace:TBM.Helper'. The attachable property 'Items' was not found in type 'SelectedItems What do I have to change ? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Collections; using System.Windows; namespace TBM.Helper { public static class SelectedItems : DependencyObject { private static readonly DependencyProperty SelectedItemsBehaviorProperty = DependencyProperty.RegisterAttached( "SelectedItemsBehavior", typeof(SelectedItemsBehavior), typeof(ListBox), null); public static readonly DependencyProperty ItemsProperty = DependencyProperty.RegisterAttached( "Items", typeof(IList), typeof(SelectedItems), new PropertyMetadata(null, ItemsPropertyChanged)); public static void SetItems(ListBox listBox, IList list) { listBox.SetValue(ItemsProperty, list); } public static IList GetItems(ListBox listBox) { return listBox.GetValue(ItemsProperty) as IList; } private static void ItemsPropertyChanged(DependencyObject d, DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs e) { var target = d as ListBox; if (target != null) { GetOrCreateBehavior(target, e.NewValue as IList); } } private static SelectedItemsBehavior GetOrCreateBehavior(ListBox target, IList list) { var behavior = target.GetValue(SelectedItemsBehaviorProperty) as SelectedItemsBehavior; if (behavior == null) { behavior = new SelectedItemsBehavior(target, list); target.SetValue(SelectedItemsBehaviorProperty, behavior); } return behavior; } } } using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Collections; namespace TBM.Helper { public class SelectedItemsBehavior { private readonly ListBox _listBox; private readonly IList _boundList; public SelectedItemsBehavior(ListBox listBox, IList boundList) { _boundList = boundList; _listBox = listBox; SetSelectedItems(); _listBox.SelectionChanged += OnSelectionChanged; _listBox.DataContextChanged += OnDataContextChanged; } private void SetSelectedItems() { _listBox.SelectedItems.Clear(); foreach (object item in _boundList) { // References in _boundList might not be the same as in _listBox.Items int i = _listBox.Items.IndexOf(item); if (i >= 0) _listBox.SelectedItems.Add(_listBox.Items[i]); } } private void OnDataContextChanged(object sender, DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs e) { SetSelectedItems(); } private void OnSelectionChanged(object sender, SelectionChangedEventArgs e) { _boundList.Clear(); foreach (var item in _listBox.SelectedItems) _boundList.Add(item); } } }

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  • Access violation when running native C++ application that uses a /clr built DLL

    - by doobop
    I'm reorganzing a legacy mixed (managed and unmanaged DLLs) application so that the main application segment is unmanaged MFC and that will call a C++ DLL compiled with /clr flag that will bridge the communication between the managed (C# DLLs) and unmanaged code. Unfortuantely, my changed have resulted in an Access violation that occurs before the application InitInstance() is called. This makes it very difficult to debug. The only information I get is the following stack trace. > 64006108() ntdll.dll!_ZwCreateMutant@16() + 0xc bytes kernel32.dll!_CreateMutexW@12() + 0x7a bytes So, here are some sceanrios I've tried. - Turned on Exceptions-Win32 Exceptions-c0000005 Access Violation to break when Thrown. Still the most detail I get is from the above stack trace. I've tried the application with F10, but it fails before any breakpoints are hit and fails with the above stack trace. - I've stubbed out the bridge DLL so that it only has one method that returns a bool and that method is coded to just return false (no C# code called). bool DllPassthrough::IsFailed() { return false; } If the stubbed out DLL is compiled with the /clr flag, the application fails. If it is compiled without the /clr flag, the application runs. - I've created a stub MFC application using the Visual Studio wizard for multidocument applications and call DllPassthrough::IsFailed(). This succeeds even with the /clr flag used to compile the DLL. - I've tried doing a manual LoadLibrary on winmm.lib as outlined in the following note Access violation when using c++/cli. The application still fails. So, my questions are how to solve the problem? Any hints, strategies, or previous incidents. And, failing that, how can I get more information on what code segment or library is causing the access exception? If I try more involved workarounds like doing LoadLibrary calls, I'd like to narrow it to the failing libraries. Thanks. BTW, we are using Visual Studio 2008 and the project is being built against the .NET 2.0 framework for the managed sections.

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  • How to check for palindrome using Python logic

    - by DrOnline
    My background is only a 6 month college class in basic C/C++, and I'm trying to convert to Python. I may be talking nonsense, but it seems to me C, at least at my level, is very for-loop intensive. I solve most problems with these loops. And it seems to me the biggest mistake people do when going from C to Python is trying to implement C logic using Python, which makes things run slowly, and it's just not making the most of the language. I see on this website: http://hyperpolyglot.org/scripting (serach for "c-style for", that Python doesn't have C-style for loops. Might be outdated, but I interpret it to mean Python has its own methods for this. I've tried looking around, I can't find much up to date (Python 3) advice for this. How can I solve a palindrome challenge in Python, without using the for loop? I've done this in C in class, but I want to do it in Python, on a personal basis. The problem is from the Euler Project, great site btw. def isPalindrome(n): lst = [int(n) for n in str(n)] l=len(lst) if l==0 || l==1: return True elif len(lst)%2==0: for k in range (l) ##### else: while (k<=((l-1)/2)): if (list[]): ##### for i in range (999, 100, -1): for j in range (999,100, -1): if isPalindrome(i*j): print(i*j) break I'm missing a lot of code here. The five hashes are just reminders for myself. Concrete questions: 1) In C, I would make a for loop comparing index 0 to index max, and then index 0+1 with max-1, until something something. How to best do this in Python? 2) My for loop (in in range (999, 100, -1), is this a bad way to do it in Python? 3) Does anybody have any good advice, or good websites or resources for people in my position? I'm not a programmer, I don't aspire to be one, I just want to learn enough so that when I write my bachelor's degree thesis (electrical engineering), I don't have to simultaneously LEARN an applicable programming language while trying to obtain good results in the project. "How to go from basic C to great application of Python", that sort of thing. 4) Any specific bits of code to make a great solution to this problem would also be appreciated, I need to learn good algorithms.. I am envisioning 3 situations. If the value is zero or single digit, if it is of odd length, and if it is of even length. I was planning to write for loops... PS: The problem is: Find the highest value product of two 3 digit integers that is also a palindrome.

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  • Add Access-Control-Allow-Origin to header in PHP

    - by SANDeveloper
    I am trying to workaround CORS restriction on a WebGL application. I have a Web Service which resolves URL and returns images. Since this web service is not CORS enabled, I can't use the returned images as textures. I was planning to: Write a PHP script to handle image requests Image requests would be sent through the query string as a url parameter The PHP Script will: Call the web service with the query string url Fetch the image response (web service returns a content-type:image response) Add the CORS header (Add Access-Control-Allow-Origin) to the response Send the response to the browser I tried to implement this using a variety of techniques including CURL, HTTPResponse, plain var_dump etc. but got stuck at some point in each. So I have 2 questions: Is the approach good enough? Considering the approach is good enough: I made the most progress with CURL. I could get the image header and data with: $ch = curl_init(); $url = $_GET["url"]; curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, array('Content-Type:image/jpeg')); //Execute request $response = curl_exec($ch); //get the default response headers $headers = curl_getinfo($ch); //close connection curl_close($ch); But this doesn't actually change set the response content-type to image/jpeg. It dumps the header + response into a new response of content-type text/html and display the header and the image BLOB data in the browser. How do I get it to send the response in the format I want? Managed to get it working: $ch = curl_init(); $url = $_GET["url"]; curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, false); //Execute request $response = curl_exec($ch); //get the default response headers $headers = curl_getinfo($ch); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $headers); header('Content-Type: image/jpeg'); header("Access-Control-Allow-Origin: *"); // header("Expires: Sat, 26 Jul 2017 05:00:00 GMT"); //close connection curl_close($ch); flush();

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  • How can this PHP/FQL code be modified to increase the performance and usability?

    - by Kaoukkos
    I try to get some insights from the pages I am administrator on Facebook. What my code does, it gets the IDs of the pages I want to work with through mySQL. I did not include that part though.After this, I get the page_id, name and fan_count of each of those facebook IDs and are saved in fancounts[]. Using the IDs ( pages[] ) I get two messages max from each page. There may be no messages, there may be 1 or 2 messages max. Possibly I will increase it later. messages[] holds the messages of each page. I have two problems with it. It has a very slow performance I can't find a way to echo the data like this: ID - Name of the page - Fan Count Here goes the first message Here goes the second one //here is a break ID - Name of the page 2 - Fan Count Here goes the first message of page 2 Here goes the second one of page 2 My questions are, how can the code be modified to increase performance and show the data as above? I read about fql.multiquery. Can it be used here? Please provide me with code examples. Thank you $pages = array(); // I get the IDs I want to work with $pagesIds = implode(',', $pages); // fancounts[] holds the page_id, name and fan_count of the Ids I work with $fancounts = array(); $pagesFanCounts = $facebook->api("/fql", array( "q" => "SELECT page_id, name, fan_count FROM page WHERE page_id IN ({$pagesIds})" )); foreach ($pagesFanCounts['data'] as $page){ $fancounts[] = $page['page_id']."-".$page['name']."-".$page['fan_count']; } //messages[] holds from 0 to 2 messages from each of the above pages $messages = array(); foreach( $pages as $id) { $getMessages = $facebook->api("/fql", array( "q" => "SELECT message FROM stream WHERE source_id = '$id' LIMIT 2" )); $messages[] = $getMessages['data']; } // this is how I print them now but it does not give me the best output. ( thanks goes to Mark for providing me this code ) $count = min(count($fancounts),count($messages)); for($i=0; $i<$count; ++$i) { echo $fancounts[$i],'<br>'; foreach($messages[$i] as $msg) { echo $msg['message'],'<br>'; } }

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  • Passing Auth to API calls with Web Service References

    - by coffeeaddict
    I am new to web services. The last time I dealt with SOAP was when I created a bunch of wrapper classes that sent requests and received responses back per some response objects/classes I had created. So I had an object to send certain API requests and likewise a set of objects to hold the response back as an object so I could utilize that 3rd party API. Then someone came to me and said why not just use the wsdl and a web service. Ok, so today I went and created a "Service Reference". I see that this is what's called a "Proxy Class". You just instantiate an instance of this and then walla you have access to all the methods from the wsdl. But this leaves me with auth questions. Back when I created my own classes manually, I had a class which exposed properties that I would set then access for things like signature, username, password that got sent along with the Http request that were required by whatever 3rd party API I was using to make API calls. But then with using a Service Reference, how then would I pass this information just like I had done in my custom classes? For instance I'm going to be working with the PayPal API. It requires you to send a signature and a few other pieces of information like username and password. // Determins if API call needs to use a session based URI string requestURI = UseAuthURI == true ? _requestURIAuthBased + aSessionID : _requestURI; byte[] data = XmlUtil.DocumentToBytes(doc); // Create the atual Request instance HttpWebRequest request = CreateWebRequest(requestURI, data.Length); So how do I pass username, password, signature, etc. when using web service references for each method call? Is it as simple as specifying it as a param to the method or do you use the .Credentials and .URL methods of your proxy class object? It seems to me Credentials means windows credentials but I could be wrong. Is it limited to that or can you use that to specify those required header values that PayPal expects with each method call/API request?

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  • Chrome extension: sendMessage doesn't work

    - by user3334776
    I've already read the documentation from Google on 'message passing' a few times and have probably looked at over 10 other questions with the same problem and already tried quiet a few variations of most of their "solutions" and of what I have below... This is black magic, right? Either way, here it goes. Manifest File: { "manifest_version" : 2, "name" : "Message Test", "version" : "1.0", "browser_action": { "default_popup": "popup.html" }, "background": { "scripts": ["background.js"] }, "content_scripts": [ { "matches" : ["<all_urls>"], "js": ["message-test.js"] } ] } I'm aware extensions aren't suppose to use inline JS, but I'm leaving this in so the original question can be left as it was since I still can't get the message to send from the background page, When I switch from the popup to the background, I removed the appropriate lines from the manifest.json popup.html file: <html> <head> <script> chrome.tabs.query({active: true, currentWindow: true}, function(tabs) { chrome.tabs.sendMessage(tabs[0].id, {greeting: "hello", theMessage: "Why isn\'t this working?"}, function(response) { console.log(response.farewell); }); }); </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> OR background.js file: chrome.tabs.query({active: true, currentWindow: true}, function(tabs) { chrome.tabs.sendMessage(tabs[0].id, {greeting: "hello", theMessage: "Why isn\'t this working?"}, function(response) { console.log(response.farewell); }); }); message-test.js file: var Mymessage; chrome.runtime.onMessage.addListener(function(message, sender, sendResponse) { if (message.greeting == "hello"){ Mymessage = message.theMessage; alert(Mymessage); } else{ sendResponse({}); } }); No alert(Mymessage) goes off. I'm also trying to execute this after pressing a button from a popup and having a window at a specified url, but that's a later issue. The other files can be found here except with the background.js content wrapped in an addEventListener("click"....: http://pastebin.com/KhqxLx5y AND http://pastebin.com/JaGcp6tj

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  • Self updating app, wont overwrite existing app, using Android packagemanager?

    - by LokiSinclair
    I know there are plenty of questions about this on here, but I've tried everything (but the correct 'thing', obviously!) and nothing seems to shine any light on the problem I'm having. I've written an app (for a customer), which is designed to be hosted on their own server. The app references a simple text file with the latest version code in it and checks it against it's own version. If it's out of date it goes off and downloads the update. Everything is working as intended up to this point. I use the: Intent i = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); i.setDataAndType(Uri.fromFile(outputFile), "application/vnd.android.package-archive"); i.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); startActivity(i); ...code to start the install process of the newly downloaded .apk file. And that all starts as I would expect. I click on "Install" - when I'm prompted to confirm the overwriting of the current app, with the new. It starts, and then displays: App not installed. And existing package by the same name with a conflicting signature is already installed. Now I'm aware that Android can't have multiple applications sharing the same package name, which is fine, but nothing comes up in LogCat and I can only assume that the OS is annoyed at me attempting to 'update' my app, even though I'm going through all the correct channels and using the inbuilt package manager to do it for me! Can anyone tell me what the OS is moaning about? I'm not attempting to install two apps side by side, I want it to update it, which it starts to do, and then gets really confused. Is it something to do with me using the same keystore for signing the packages? I highly doubt it as I've used the same keystores previously to handle updates to games and the like, but I just can't figure out what it's complaining about. Hopefully someone out there has had this issue and solved it, and can point me in the right direction. I'm flying a bit blind with the limited information it's giving me :( Cheers.

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  • Implementing Skip List in C++

    - by trikker
    [SOLVED] So I decided to try and create a sorted doubly linked skip list... I'm pretty sure I have a good grasp of how it works. When you insert x the program searches the base list for the appropriate place to put x (since it is sorted), (conceptually) flips a coin, and if the "coin" lands on a then that element is added to the list above it(or a new list is created with element in it), linked to the element below it, and the coin is flipped again, etc. If the "coin" lands on b at anytime then the insertion is over. You must also have a -infinite stored in every list as the starting point so that it isn't possible to insert a value that is less than the starting point (meaning that it could never be found.) To search for x, you start at the "top-left" (highest list lowest value) and "move right" to the next element. If the value is less than x than you continue to the next element, etc. until you have "gone too far" and the value is greater than x. In this case you go back to the last element and move down a level, continuing this chain until you either find x or x is never found. To delete x you simply search x and delete it every time it comes up in the lists. For now, I'm simply going to make a skip list that stores numbers. I don't think there is anything in the STL that can assist me, so I will need to create a class List that holds an integer value and has member functions, search, delete, and insert. The problem I'm having is dealing with links. I'm pretty sure I could create a class to handle the "horizontal" links with a pointer to the previous element and the element in front, but I'm not sure how to deal with the "vertical" links (point to corresponding element in other list?) If any of my logic is flawed please tell me, but my main questions are: How to deal with vertical links and whether my link idea is correct Now that I read my class List idea I'm thinking that a List should hold a vector of integers rather than a single integer. In fact I'm pretty positive, but would just like some validation. I'm assuming the coin flip would simply call int function where rand()%2 returns a value of 0 or 1 and if it's 0 then a the value "levels up" and if it's 0 then the insert is over. Is this incorrect? How to store a value similar to -infinite? Edit: I've started writing some code and am considering how to handle the List constructor....I'm guessing that on its construction, the "-infinite" value should be stored in the vectorname[0] element and I can just call insert on it after its creation to put the x in the appropriate place.

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  • Few doubts regarding Bitmaps , Images & `using` blocks

    - by imageWorker
    I caught up in this problem. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2559826/garbage-collector-not-doing-its-job-memory-consumption-1-5gb-outofmemory-exc I feel that there is something wrong in my understanding. Please clarify these things. Destructor & IDisposable.Dispose are two methods for freeing resources that are not not under the control of .NET. Which means, everything except memory. right? using blocks are just better way of calling IDisposable.Dispose() method of an object. This is the main code I'm referring to. class someclass { static someMethod(Bitmap img) { Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(img); //statement1 // some code here and return } } here is class I'm using for testing: class someotherClass { public static voide Main() { foreach (string imagePath in imagePathsArray) { using (Bitmap img1 = new Bitmap(imagePath)) { someclass.someMethod(img1); // does some more processing on `img1` } } } } Is there any memory leak with statement1? Question1: If each image size is say 10MB. Then does this bmp object occupy atleast 10MB? What I mean is, will it make completely new copy of entire image? or just refer to it? Question2:should I or should I not put the statement1 in using block? My Argument: We should not. Because using is not for freeing memory but for freeing the resources (file handle in this case). If I use it in using block. It closes file handle here encapsulated by this bmp object. It means we are also closing filehandle for the caller's img1 object. Which is not correct? As of the memory leak. No there is no scope of memory leak here. Because reference bmp is destroyed when this method is returned. Which leaves memory it refered without any pointer. So, its garbage collected. Am I right? Edit: class someclass { static Bitmap someMethod(Bitmap img) { Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(img); //can I use `using` block on this enclosing `return bmp`; ??? // do some processing on bmp here return bmp; } }

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