Search Results

Search found 16155 results on 647 pages for 'stackoverflow api'.

Page 539/647 | < Previous Page | 535 536 537 538 539 540 541 542 543 544 545 546  | Next Page >

  • How can I stop an auto-generated Linq to SQL class from loading ALL data?

    - by Gary McGill
    DUPLICATE of http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2433422/how-can-i-stop-an-auto-generated-linq-to-sql-class-from-loading-all-data post answers there! I have an ASP.NET MVC project, much like the NerdDinner tutorial example. (I'm using MVC 2, but followed the NerdDinner tutorial in order to create it). As per the instructions in part 3 of the tutorial, I've created a Linq-to-SQL model of my database by creating a "Linq to SQL Classes" (.dbml) surface, and dropping my database tables onto it. The designer has automatically added relationships between the generated classes based on my database tables. Let's say that my classes are as per the NerdDinner example, so I have Dinner and RSVP tables, where each Dinner record is associated with many RSVP records - hence in the generated classes, the Dinner object has a RSVPs property which is a list of RSVP objects. My problem is this: it appears (and I'd be gladly proved wrong on this) that as soon as I access a Dinner object, it's loading all of the corresponding RSVP objects, even if I don't use the RSVPs member. First question: is this really the default behavior for the generated classes? In my particular situation, the object graph contains many more tables (which have an order of magnitude more records), and so this is disastrous behaviour - I'd be loading tons of data when all I want to do is show the details of a single parent record. Second question: are there any properties exposed through the designer UI that would let me modify this behavior? (I can't find any). Third question: I've seen a description of how to control the loading of related records in a DataContext by using a DataShape object associated with the DataContext. Is that what I'm meant to do, and if so are there any tutorials like the NerdDinner one that would show not only how to do it, but also suggest a 'pattern' for normal use?

    Read the article

  • Multiple connections in a single SSH SOCKS 5 Proxy

    - by Elie Zedeck
    Hey guys, My fist question here on Stackoverflow: What should I need to do so that the SSH SOCKS 5 Proxy (SSH2) will allow multiple connections? What I have noticed, is that when I load a page in Firefox (already configured to use the SOCKS 5 proxy), it loads everything one by one. It can be perceived by bare eyes, and I also confirm that through the use of Firebug's NET tab, which logs the connections that have been made. I have already configure some of the directives in the about:config page, like pipeline, persistent proxy connections, and a few other things. But I still get this kind of sequential load of resources, which is noticeably very slow. network.http.pipelining;true network.http.pipelining.maxrequests;8 network.http.pipelining.ssl;true network.http.proxy.pipelining;true network.http.max-persistent-connections-per-proxy;100 network.proxy.socks_remote_dns;true My ISP sucks because during the day, it intentionally breaks connections on a random basis. And so, it is impossible to actually accomplish meaningful works without the need of a lot of browser refresh or hitting F5 key. So, that is why I started to find solutions to this. The SSH's dynamic port forwarding is the best solution I find to date, because it has some pretty good compression which saves a lot of useless traffic, and is also secure. The only thing remaining is to get it to have multiple connections running in it. Thanks for all the inputs.

    Read the article

  • "Public" nested classes or not

    - by Frederick
    Suppose I have a class 'Application'. In order to be initialised it takes certain settings in the constructor. Let's also assume that the number of settings is so many that it's compelling to place them in a class of their own. Compare the following two implementations of this scenario. Implementation 1: class Application { Application(ApplicationSettings settings) { //Do initialisation here } } class ApplicationSettings { //Settings related methods and properties here } Implementation 2: class Application { Application(Application.Settings settings) { //Do initialisation here } class Settings { //Settings related methods and properties here } } To me, the second approach is very much preferable. It is more readable because it strongly emphasises the relation between the two classes. When I write code to instantiate Application class anywhere, the second approach is going to look prettier. Now just imagine the Settings class itself in turn had some similarly "related" class and that class in turn did so too. Go only three such levels and the class naming gets out out of hand in the 'non-nested' case. If you nest, however, things still stay elegant. Despite the above, I've read people saying on StackOverflow that nested classes are justified only if they're not visible to the outside world; that is if they are used only for the internal implementation of the containing class. The commonly cited objection is bloating the size of containing class's source file, but partial classes is the perfect solution for that problem. My question is, why are we wary of the "publicly exposed" use of nested classes? Are there any other arguments against such use?

    Read the article

  • How do I duplicate Facebook picture tagging functionality?

    - by marcamillion
    I asked this question in another post - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2597773/how-do-i-put-a-div-box-around-my-cursor-on-click I got a wonderful answer. See the code below: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#image-wrapper").click(function(e){ var ele = $("<div>"); ele.css({width:"50px", height:"50px", border:"1px solid green", position:"absolute", left: e.pageX - 25, top: e.pageY -25}); $("body").append(ele); }); }); </script> <div id="image-wrapper" style="border: 1px solid red; width: 300px; height: 200px;"> </div> The issue I am having is that when I implement this snippet, on every click a box appears and stays there. So if I click on the image 10 times, I get 10 boxes. How do I get the previous box to disappear once I click somewhere else (i.e. have the box move to another place on the image (just like with Facebook Picture Tagging))? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • log4j vs. System.out.println - logger advantages?

    - by wishi_
    Hi! I'm newly using log4j in a project. A fellow programmer told me that using System.out.println is considered bas style and that log4j is something like standard for logging matters nowadays. We do lots of JUnit testing - System.out stuff turns out to be harder to test. Therefore I began utilizing log4j for a Console controller class, that's just handling commandline parameters. // some logger config org.apache.log4j.BasicConfigurator.configure(); Logger logger = LoggerFactory.getLogger(Console.class); Category cat = Category.getRoot(); Seems to work: logger.debug("String"); Produces: 1 [main] DEBUG project.prototype.controller.Console - String I got two questions regarding this: From my basic understanding using this logger should provide me comfortable options to write a logfile with timestamps - instead of spamming the console - if debug mode is enabled at the logger? Why is System.out.println harder to test? I searched stackoverflow and found a testing recipe. So I wonder what kind of advantage I really get by using log4j.

    Read the article

  • jQuery eval of ajax inline script not throwing errors

    - by Josh
    http://stackoverflow.com/questions/606794/debugging-ajax-code-with-firebug This question is quite similar, though old and without real answers. I'm currently putting together an app that has scripts that get loaded in with an ajax request. An example: var main = _main.get(); main.load( someurl ); Where someurl is a page that contains an inline script element: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready( function(){ var activities = new activities(); activities.init(); }); </script> jQuery will do a line by line eval of js that lives in inline script tags. The problem is, I get no errors or any information whatsoever in firebug when something goes awry. Does anyone have a good solution for this? Or a better practice for loading pages which contain javascript functionality? Edit: A little progress... so at the top of the page that is being loaded in via ajax, I have another script that was being included like this: <script type="text/javascript" src="javascript/pages/activities.js"></script> When I moved the inline $(document).ready() code in the page to the end of this included file, instead, syntax errors were now properly getting thrown. As an aside, I threw a console.log() into the inline script tag, and it was being logged just fine. I also tried removing the $(document).ready() altogether, and also switching it out for a $(window).load() event. No difference. May have something to do with the inline scripts dependency on the included activities.js, I guess. :: shakes head :: javascript can be a nightmare.

    Read the article

  • TextMate tips for Rails Development

    - by Ganesh Shankar
    Working on Rails code for a bit has started me on the spiral into obsessively customising my dev environment (I say obsessive as at the last Rails meetup I went to there was some guy who was raving about shaving milliseconds off each line of code and therefore upto half an hour a day... I hope I don't become that guy...) I spend most of my time in TextMate so it seemed like a great place to start the optimising... So far I've added a few TextMate bundles like Git Bundle, Project Plus and the theme from Railscasts. I've noticed some of the other TextMate users I've come into contact with using heaps of nifty keyboard shortcuts and other plugins to help make their dev environment more friendly. Looking around the net, I was a bit overwhelmed by the amount of shortcuts and plugins available... So I was hoping to hear from other Rails developers out there: What are some good keyboard shortcuts and plugins that I should be aware of for TextMate with specific reference to Rails Development? I've read this question on SO: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/99807/what-are-some-useful-textmate-shortcuts but I was wondering if there was something a bit more specific to Rails development.

    Read the article

  • Play multiple audio files using AVAudioPlayer

    - by inScript09
    Hi all, I am planning on releasing 10 of my song recordings for free but bundled in an iphone app. They are not available on web or itunes or anywhere as of now. I am new to iphone sdk (latest) as you can imagine, so I have been going through the developer documentation, various forums and stackoverflow to learn. Apple's avTouch sample application was a great start. But I want my app to play all the 10 tracks one by one. All the songs are added to resources folder and are named as track1, track2...track10. In the avTouch app code I can see the following 2 parts which is where I think I need to make changes to achieve what I am looking for. But I am lost. // Load the array with the sample file NSURL *fileURL = [[NSURL alloc] initFileURLWithPath: [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"sample" ofType:@"m4a"]]; - (void)audioPlayerDidFinishPlaying:(AVAudioPlayer *)player successfully:(BOOL)flag { if (flag == NO) NSLog(@"Playback finished unsuccessfully"); [player setCurrentTime:0.]; [self updateViewForPlayerState]; } can anyone please help me on 1. how to load the array with all the 10 tracks which are added to resources folder 2. and when I hit play, player should start the first track. when the 1st track ends 2nd track should start and so on for the remaining tracks. Thank You

    Read the article

  • How can I get jQuery validation plugin Ketchup to stop an Ajax form submission when validation fails?

    - by Marshall Sontag
    I'm using Ruby on Rails, Formtastic gem, jQuery and ketchup to validate my form. I'm submitting the form created by Formtastic inside a modal box using ajax: <% semantic_form_remote_for @contact_form, :url => '/request/contact' do |f| %> I have a validation plugin verifying the fields on the form: $(document).ready(function() { $("#new_contact_form").ketchup(); }); The problem is that semantic_form_remote_for generates an onSubmit ajax request that the jQuery validation plugins won't prevent, since it's not a normal form submission. One question on stackoverflow suggests using :condition on the remote form declaration to fire a javascript function, but I can't do that since I'm not using a function, but rather relying on a jQuery handler. I also tried putting ketchup within a submit event handler: $(document).ready(function() { $("#new_contact_form").submit(function() { $('#new_contact_form').ketchup(); }); }); No luck. Form still submits. I also tried using the beforeSend option of jQuery.ajax: $(document).ready(function() { jQuery.ajax( { beforeSend: function(){ $('#new_contact_form').ketchup(); } }); }); Validation fires off, but form is still submitted. I switched to jQuery Validation plugin just to see if it was due to some limitation in Ketchup. It turns out that Validation has a submitHandler option: $(document).ready(function() { $('#new_contact_form').validate({ submitHandler: function(form) { jQuery.ajax({ data:jQuery.param(jQuery('#new_contact_form').serializeArray()), dataType:'script', type:'post', url:'/request/contact' }); return false; } }); }); This works when I use a regular semantic_form_for instead of semantic_form_remote_for, but alas, I would rather use Ketchup. Is Ketchup just woefully lacking? Am I forced to use jQuery Validation?

    Read the article

  • Securely erasing a file using simple methods?

    - by Jason
    Hello, I am using C# .NET Framework 2.0. I have a question relating to file shredding. My target operating systems are Windows 7, Windows Vista, and Windows XP. Possibly Windows Server 2003 or 2008 but I'm guessing they should be the same as the first three. My goal is to securely erase a file. I don't believe using File.Delete is secure at all. I read somewhere that the operating system simply marks the raw hard-disk data for deletion when you delete a file - the data is not erased at all. That's why there exists so many working methods to recover supposedly "deleted" files. I also read, that's why it's much more useful to overwrite the file, because then the data on disk actually has to be changed. Is this true? Is this generally what's needed? If so, I believe I can simply write the file full of 1's and 0's a few times. I've read: http://www.codeproject.com/KB/files/NShred.aspx http://blogs.computerworld.com/node/5756 http://blogs.computerworld.com/node/5687 http://stackoverflow.com/questions/4147775/securely-deleting-a-file-in-c-net

    Read the article

  • Application Architect vs. Systems Architect vs. Enterprise Architect?

    - by iaman00b
    So many buzzwords. Not sure if I need to start playing BS Bingo or not. And I'm not trying to be cynical. But I've heard many people with these various titles. There never seems to be a clear delineation between the three. Or there's a lot of domain crossover between the three. Actually, another I've seen while looking around here on Stackoverflow has been "Solutions Architect" as well. But that one doesn't seem to be so prevalent in other places. There are questions here and there with vague answers. But I'd like definative answers to this. Please assume I'm still relatively new to software stuff and that I'm trying to map out a career path. Oh, and please be gentle folks; this most definitely is not a duplicate question. Neither is it an aggregate. So kindly leave it alone. Xp

    Read the article

  • Sending mail issues. very confusing

    - by Dejan.S
    Hi my name is what, my name is who.. ops got carried away Now this might be a serverfault question and a stackoverflow question but I will go with it here because I don't really know the answer. I been sending mail a lot with asp.net before and never had problems like this before. I have setup a mail with this following code var list = new List<string> { "mail", "mail", "mail", "mail" }; var smtp = new SmtpClient("localhost", 25); var plainText = txtPlain.Text; var htmlText = Server.HtmlDecode(FCKeditor1.Value); foreach (var email in list) { var message = new MailMessage() { From = new MailAddress("my server mail"), ReplyTo = new MailAddress("mail") }; var mailMessage = Server.HtmlDecode(FCKeditor1.Value); message.To.Add(email); message.Subject = "Hi Enzorit"; message.Body = mailMessage; message.IsBodyHtml = true; message.BodyEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.GetEncoding("iso-8859-2"); var alternateViewHtml = AlternateView.CreateAlternateViewFromString(htmlText, null, MediaTypeNames.Text.Html); var alternateViewPlainText = AlternateView.CreateAlternateViewFromString(plainText, null, MediaTypeNames.Text.Plain); message.AlternateViews.Add(alternateViewHtml); message.AlternateViews.Add(alternateViewPlainText); smtp.Send(message); } now the issue becomes that some email clients get just plain while some get the html. Like on my hotmail on the computer i get the html but on my iphone i get the plain one. Why is that? and like that wasn't enough The mail wont deliver to some mails like any .pl email. Now here is where I am thinking that it might be a reverse DNS setup thing on my windows server 2008 issue + some company mails, it becomes spam, i had same issue with hotmail but that was solved when I added the plain. Anybody have had the problem before? I am very thankful for any answer I get.. thanks

    Read the article

  • RDP through TCP Proxy

    - by johng100
    Hi, First time in Stackoverflow and I'm hoping someone can help me. I'm looking at a proof of concept to pass RDP traffic through a TCP Proxy/tunnel which will pass through firewalls using HTTPS. The problem has to do with deploying images to machines and so it can't be assumed that the .NET framework will be present, so C++ is being used at the deployment end of a connection. The basic system I have at present is a program which listens for client connections on a port then passes any data to a WCF service which stores it as a byte array. A deployment machine (using GSoap and C++) polls the WCF service for messages and if it finds them then passes the data onto the target server process via sockets. I know this sounds horrible, but it works for simple test clients and server passing data to and from simple test client and server programs via this WCF/C++/C# proxy layer. But I have to support traffic from RDP, VNC and possibly others, so I need a transparent proxy to do this and am wondering whether the above approach is worth pursuing. I've read up on SSH tunneling and that seems a possibility. My basic question is is it possible to tunnel RDP traffic over HTTPS using custom code. Thanks John

    Read the article

  • Maintain one to one mapping between objects

    - by Rohan West
    Hi there, i have the following two classes that provide a one to one mapping between each other. How do i handle null values, when i run the second test i get a stackoverflow exception. How can i stop this recursive cycle? Thanks [TestMethod] public void SetY() { var x = new X(); var y = new Y(); x.Y = y; Assert.AreSame(x.Y, y); Assert.AreSame(y.X, x); } [TestMethod] public void SetYToNull() { var x = new X(); var y = new Y(); x.Y = y; y.X = null; Assert.IsNull(x.Y); Assert.IsNull(y.X); } public class X { private Y _y; public Y Y { get { return _y; } set { if(_y != value) { if(_y != null) { _y.X = null; } _y = value; if(_y != null) { _y.X = this; } } } } } public class Y { private X _x; public X X { get { return _x; } set { if (_x != value) { if (_x != null) { _x.Y = null; } _x = value; if (_x != null) { _x.Y = this; } } } } }

    Read the article

  • How do I grant a site's applet an AllPermission privilege?

    - by nahsra
    I'd like to specify certain applets to run with java.security.AllPermission on my computer (for debugging and security testing). However, I don't want to enable all applets that I run to have this permission. So, editing my user Java policy file (which I have ensured is the correct policy file through testing), I try to put this value: grant codeBase "http://host_where_applet_lives/-" { permission java.security.AllPermission; }; This value fails when the applet tries to do something powerful (create a new Thread, in my case). However, when I put the following value: grant { permission java.security.AllPermission; }; The applet is able to perform the powerful operation. The only difference is the lack of a codeBase attribute. An answer to a similar question asked here [1] seemed to suggest (but never show or prove) that AccessController.doPrivileged() calls may be required. To me, this sounds wrong as I don't need that call when I grant the permissions to all applets (the second example I showed). Even if this is a solution, littering the applets I run with AccessController.doPrivileged() calls is not easy or necessarily possible. To top it off, my tests show that this just doesn't work anyway. But I'm happy to hear more ideas around it. [1] http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1751412/cant-get-allpermission-configured-for-intranet-applet-can-anyone-help

    Read the article

  • Investigating the root cause behind SharePoint's "request not found in the TrackedRequests"

    - by Muhimbi
    We have a long standing issue in our bug tracking system about the dreaded "ERROR: request not found in the TrackedRequests. We might be creating and closing webs on different threads." message in SharePoint's trace log. As we develop Workflow software for the SharePoint market, we look into this issue from time to time to make sure it is not caused by our products. I have personally come to the conclusion that this is a problem in SharePoint, but perhaps someone else can prove me wrong. Here is what I know: According to the hundreds of search results returned by Google on this topic, this issue appears to be mainly related to SharePoint Workflows, both SharePoint Designer and Visual Studio based workflows. Assuming ULS logging is set to Monitorable, the easiest way to reproduce this problem is to create a new SharePoint Designer Workflow, attach it to a document library, set it to auto start on add/update, don't add any actions, save the workflow and upload a file to the document library. The error is only visible in the SharePoint trace log, it does not appear to impact the execution of the workflow at hand. I have verified that the problem occurs on 32 bit as well as 64 bit systems, Win2K3 and 2K8, WSS and MOSS with SharePoint versions up to the December 2009 Cumulative Update (6524). The problem does not occur when a workflow is started manually. There are dozens of related posts on MSDN Forums, hundreds on Google, one on StackOverflow and none on SharePoint Overflow. There appears to be no answer. Does anyone have any idea about what is going on, what is causing this and if we should worry or file this under 'Red Herrings'.

    Read the article

  • SQL INSTR() using CSV. Need exact match rather than part

    - by Alastair Pitts
    This is a follow up issue relating to the answer for http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2445029/sql-placeholder-in-where-in-issue-inserted-strings-fail Quick background: We have a SQL query that uses a placeholder value to accept a string, which represents a unique tag/id. Usually, this is only a single tag, but we needed the ability to use a csv string for multiple tags, returning a combined result. In the answer we received from the vendor, they suggested the use of the INSTR function, ala: select * from pitotal where tag IN (SELECT tag from pipoint WHERE INSTR(?, tag) <> 0) and time between 'y' and 't' This works perfectly well 99% of the time, the issue is when the tag is also a subset of 2 parts of the CSV string. Eg the placeholder value is: 'northdom,southdom,eastdom,westdom' and possible tags include: north or northdom What happens, as north is a subset of northdom, is that the two tags are return instead of just northdom, which is actually what we want. I'm not strong on SQL so I couldn't work out how to set it as exact, or split the csv string, so help would be appreciated. Is there a way to split the csv string or make it look for an exact match?

    Read the article

  • Blob in Java/Hibernate/sql-server 2005

    - by Ramy
    Hi, I'm trying to insert an HTML blob into our sql-server2005 database. i've been using the data-type [text] for the field the blob will eventually live in. i've also put a '@Lob' annotation on the field in the domain model. The problem comes in when the HTML blob I'm attempting to store is larger than 65536 characters. Its seems that is the caracter-limit for a text data type when using the @Lob annotation. Ideally I'd like to keep the whole blob in tact rather than chunk it up into multiple rows in the database. I appreciate any help or insight that might be provided. Thanks! _Ramy Allow me to clarify annotation: @Lob @Column(length = Integer. MAX_VALUE) //per an answer on stackoverflow private String htmlBlob; database side (sql-server-2005): CREATE TABLE dbo.IndustrySectorTearSheetBlob( ... htmlBlob text NULL ... ) Still seeing truncation after 65536 characters... EDIT: i've printed out the contents of all possible strings (only 10 right now) that would be inserted into the Database. Each string seems to contain all cahracters, judging by the fact that the close html tag is present at the end of the string....

    Read the article

  • looking for a license key algorithm.

    - by giulio
    There are alot of questions relating to license keys asked on stackoverflow. But they don't answer this question. Can anyone provide a simple license key algorithm that is technology independent and doesn't required a diploma in mathematics to understand ? The license key algorithm is similar to public key encryption. I just need something simple that can be implemented in any platform .Net/Java and uses simple data like characters. Written as Pseudo code is perfect. So if a person presents a string, a complementary string can be generated that is the authorisation code. Below is a common scenario that it would be used for. Customer downloads s/w which generates a unique key upon initial startup/installation. S/w runs during trial period. At end of trial period an authorisation key is required. Customer goes to designated web-site, enters their code and get authorisation code to enable s/w, after paying :) Don't be afraid to describe your answer as though you're talking to a 5 yr old as I am not a mathemtician.

    Read the article

  • How to implement properly plugins in C#?

    - by MartyIX
    I'm trying to add plugins to my game and what I'm trying to implement is this: Plugins will be either mine or 3rd party's so I would like a solution where crashing of the plugin would not mean crashing of the main application. Methods of plugins are called very often (for example because of drawing of game objects). What I've found so far: 1) http://www.codeproject.com/KB/cs/pluginsincsharp.aspx - simple concept that seems like it should work nicely. Since plugins are used in my game for every round I would suffice to add the Restart() method and if a plugin is no longer needed Unload() method + GC should take care of that. 2) http://mef.codeplex.com/Wikipage - Managed Extensibility Framework - my program should work on .NET 3.5 and I don't want to add any other framework separately I want to write my plugin system myself. Therefore this solution is out of question. 3) Microsoft provides: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.addin.aspx but according to a few articles I've read it is very complex. 4) Different AppDomains for plugins. According to Marc Gravell ( http://stackoverflow.com/questions/665668/usage-of-appdomain-in-c ) different AppDomains allow isolation. Unloading of plugins would be easy. What would the performance load be? I need to call methods of plugins very often (to draw objects for example). Using Application Domains - http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/yb506139.aspx A few tutorials on java2s.com Could you please comment on my findings? New approaches are also welcomed! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to access generic property without knowing the closed generic type

    - by Martin Booka Weser
    I have a generic Type as follows public class TestGeneric<T> { public T Data { get; set; } public TestGeneric(T data) { this.Data = data; } } If i have now an object (which is coming from some external source) from which i know that it's type is of some closed TestGeneric<, but i don't know the TypeParameter T. Now I need to access the Data of my object. Problem is that i can't cast the object, since i don't know exactly to which closed TestGeneric. I use // thx to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/457676/c-reflection-check-if-a-class-is-derived-from-a-generic-class private static bool IsSubclassOfRawGeneric(Type rawGeneric, Type subclass) { while (subclass != typeof(object)) { var cur = subclass.IsGenericType ? subclass.GetGenericTypeDefinition() : subclass; if (rawGeneric == cur) { return true; } subclass = subclass.BaseType; } return false; } to make sure, my object is of the generic type. The code in question is as follows: public static void Main() { object myObject = new TestGeneric<string>("test"); // or from another source if (IsSubclassOfRawGeneric(typeof(TestGeneric<>), myObject.GetType())) { // the following gives an InvalidCastException // var data = ((TestGeneric<object>)myObject).Data; // if i try to access the property with reflection // i get an InvalidOperationException var dataProperty = typeof(TestGeneric<>).GetProperty("Data"); object data = dataProperty.GetValue(myObject, new object[] { }); } } I need the Data regardless of its type (well, if i could ask for its type using GetType() would be fine, but not necessary) since i just want to dump it in xml using ToString(). Any suggestions? Thanx.

    Read the article

  • How implement the Open Session in View pattern in NHibernate?

    - by MCardinale
    I'm using ASP.NET MVC + NHibernate + Fluent NHibernate and having a problem with lazy loading. Through this question (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2519964/how-to-fix-a-nhibernate-lazy-loading-error-no-session-or-session-was-closed), I've discovered that I have to implement the Open Session in View pattern , but I don't know how. In my repositories classes, I use methods like this public ImageGallery GetById(int id) { using(ISession session = NHibernateSessionFactory.OpenSession()) { return session.Get<ImageGallery>(id); } } public void Add(ImageGallery imageGallery) { using(ISession session = NHibernateSessionFactory.OpenSession()) { using(ITransaction transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { session.Save(imageGallery); transaction.Commit(); } } } And this is my Session Factory helper class: public class NHibernateSessionFactory { private static ISessionFactory _sessionFactory; private static ISessionFactory SessionFactory { get { if(_sessionFactory == null) { _sessionFactory = Fluently.Configure() .Database(MySQLConfiguration.Standard.ConnectionString(MyConnString)) .Mappings(m => m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<ImageGalleryMap>()) .ExposeConfiguration(c => c.Properties.Add("hbm2ddl.keywords", "none")) .BuildSessionFactory(); } return _sessionFactory; } } public static ISession OpenSession() { return SessionFactory.OpenSession(); } } Someone could help me to implements Open Session in View pattern? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Java: Cleaning up what causes a connection reset

    - by Zombies
    There seems to be some confusion as well contradicting statements on various SO answers: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/585599/whats-causing-my-java-net-socketexception-connection-reset . You can see here that the accepted answer states that the connection was closed by other side. But this is not true, closing a connection doesn't cause a connection reset. It is cauesed by "an underlying TCP/IP error." What I want to know is if a SocketException: Connection reset means really besides "unerlying TCP/IP Error." What really causes this? As I doubt it has anything to do with the connection being closed (since closing a connection isn't an exception worthy flag, and reading from a closed connection is, but that isn't an "underlying TCP/IP error." My hypothesis is this Connection reset is caused from a server's failure to acknowledge an ACK packet (either wholly or just improperly as per TCP/IP). And that a SocketTimeoutException is generated only when no data is generated to be read (since this is thrown during a read after a certain duration, and read is waiting for data, but is not concerned with ACK packets). In other words, read() throws SocketTimeoutException if it didn't read any bytes of actual data (DATA LAYER) in its allotted time.

    Read the article

  • Best pratice: How do I implement a list that can be rendered both server-side and client-side?

    - by André Pena
    Technologies involved: ASP.NET Web-forms Javascript (jQuery for instance) Case To make it clearer let's give the Stackoverflow authors list as an example. This list can be manipulated at client-side. I can search, page and so forth. So obviously we would need to call jQuery.ajax to retrieve the HTML of each page given a search. Alright. Now this leaves me with the first question: What is the best way to render the response for the jQuery.ajax at server-side? I can't use templates I suppose, so the most obvious solution I think is to create the HTML tags as server-controls and render them as the result of an ASHX request? Is this is best approach? Nice. That solved we have yet another problem: When the user first enters the Authors List the first list page should already come from the server completely rendered alright? Of course we could render the first page as well as an ajax call but I don't think it's better. This time I CAN use templates to render the list but this template couldn't be reused in case 1. What do I do? Now the final question: Now we have 2 rendering strategies: 1) Client and 2) Server. How do I reuse code for the 2 renderings? What are the best pratices for solving these problems?

    Read the article

  • diffie-hellman ssh keyxchange

    - by Chuck
    Hi, I've set out to make a primitive SSH client in C#; you might remember me from posts such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2872279/c-primitive-ssh-connection-lowlevel hehe. Anyway, things are great up until the time when I initiate a DH key exchange. I've compared the traffic when I establish a ssh connection (from openssh client to openssh server), to the traffic when my client connects to the same openssh server. OpenSSH client - OpenSSH server (S for server, C for client): S: SSH-2.0-OpenSSH_5.1p1 Debian-6ubuntu2\r (saying hello) C: SSH-2.0-OpenSSH_5.2\r (introducing myself) C: Key Exchange Init (0x14 = 20) S: Key Exchange Init C: Diffie-Hellman GEX Request (0x22 = 34) (with DH GEX min, number of bits and max) S: Diffie-Hellman Key Exchange Reply (with P, G, etc.) C: Diffie-Hellman GEX Init S: Diffie-Hellman GEX Reply My client - OpenSSH server: S: SSH-2.0-OpenSSH_5.1p1 Debian-6ubuntu2\r (saying hello) C: SSH-2.0-Some_Name\r (introducing myself) C: Key Exchange Init (0x14 = 20) S: Key Exchange Init C: Diffie-Hellman GEX Request (0x22 = 34) (with DH GEX min, number of bits and max) and then a bogus TCP packet as reply (probably the server connection has been terminated after/upon GEX Request. I have yet to use AES128 (which I think is the encryption chosen, but I'm not sure how to verify this...), and I'm still sending in a non-compressed format, looking to get the P, G etc. values to make the DH calculations. So where I'm stranded is: RFC 4419 page 3 http://www.ietf.org/rfc/rfc4419.txt I've send SSH_MSG_KEY_DH_GEX_REQUEST, but the server does not respond SSH_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_GROUP. Can anyone give me a little advice on what I'm not understanding here? Does the server not understand my GEX request (due to it expecting encryption, or?)? Any help is very much appreciated, thanks :)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 535 536 537 538 539 540 541 542 543 544 545 546  | Next Page >