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  • Updating a DLL in a Production ASP.NET Web Site bin folder

    - by Josh Stodola
    I want to update a class library (a single DLL file) in a production web application. This web app is pre-compiled (published). I read an answer on StackOverflow (sorry, can't seem to find it anymore because the Search function does not work very well), that led me to believe that I could just paste the new DLL in the bin folder and it would be picked up without problems (this would cause the WP to recycle, which is fine with me because we do not use InProc session state). However, when I tried this, my site blows up and gives a FileLoadException saying that the assembly manifest definition does not match the assembly reference. What in the world is this?! Updating the DLL in Visual Studio and re-deploying the entire site works just fine, but it is a huge pain in the rear. What is the point of having a separate DLL if you have to re-deploy the entire site to implement any changes? Here's the question: How can I update a DLL on a production web site without breaking the app and without re-deploying all of the files?

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  • why i dont get the check nvalue in check box?

    - by udaya
    Hi I have a check box when check that check box the id corresponding to the check box is placed on a text box ... but when there is only single value in the database i cant get the check value why? here is my code <? if(isset($AcceptFriend)) {?> <form action="<?=site_url()?>friends/Accept_Friend" name="orderform" id="orderform" method="post" style="background:#CCCC99"> <input type="text" name="chId" id="chId" > <table border="0" height="50%" id="chkbox" width="50%" > <tr> <? foreach($AcceptFriend as $row) {?> <tr> <td>Name</td><td><?=$row['dFrindName'].'</br>';?></td> <td> <input type="checkbox" name="checkId" id="checkId" value="<? echo $row['dMemberId']; ?>" onClick="get_check_value()" ></td> </tr> <? }}?> </tr> <tr> <td width="10px"><input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" class="buttn" value="AcceptFriend"></td></tr> </table> </form> This is the script i am using function get_check_value() { var c_value = ""; for (var i=0; i < document.orderform.checkId.length; i++) { if (document.orderform.checkId[i].checked) { c_value = c_value + document.orderform.checkId[i].value + "\n"; } } alert(c_value); document.getElementById('chId').value= c_value; }

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  • Sharing session variables from http and https versio

    - by tangurena
    I am trying to fix an ASP.NET site that a friend had botched converting from older technologies. To the user, the site appears to have public and secured sections. Behind the scenes, the public and private sites are separate web applications with separate app pools. The difficulty arises because it appears that the applications share the same session IDs (when going from the public to the secured pages, the session ID remains the same), yet none of the (InProc) session variables are getting passed from the public site to the private one. Basically, the workflow consists of the user checking a checkbox ("I agree" type of stuff) on the public site (let's call that page http://www.boring.gov/iAgree.aspx), then logging in on the secured site (let's call that page https://www.boring.gov/login.aspx). The commandments from the parent agency in DC are that the user may not bookmark the login page, the user has to click "I agree" every time they log in, and that the "I agree" stuff has to be on a separate page. What am I missing? How would you do it? Notes: 1 - This is getting hosted on a single Windows 2003 server. 2 - Yes, it is a government agency. 3 - I would have done things very differently if I was doing the conversion, but I wasn't brought in until the poop hit the fan, and it is too late to redo things. 4 - Two previous SO threads that appear to be related, yet don't apply are this and that

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  • Linq-to-SQL: How to shape the data with group by?

    - by Cheeso
    I have an example database, it contains tables for Movies, People and Credits. The Movie table contains a Title and an Id. The People table contains a Name and an Id. The Credits table relates Movies to the People that worked on those Movies, in a particular role. The table looks like this: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Credits] ( [Id] [int] IDENTITY (1, 1) NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, [PersonId] [int] NOT NULL FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES People(Id), [MovieId] [int] NOT NULL FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES Movies(Id), [Role] [char] (1) NULL In this simple example, the [Role] column is a single character, by my convention either 'A' to indicate the person was an actor on that particular movie, or 'D' for director. I'd like to perform a query on a particular person that returns the person's name, plus a list of all the movies the person has worked on, and the roles in those movies. If I were to serialize it to json, it might look like this: { "name" : "Clint Eastwood", "movies" : [ { "title": "Unforgiven", "roles": ["actor", "director"] }, { "title": "Sands of Iwo Jima", "roles": ["director"] }, { "title": "Dirty Harry", "roles": ["actor"] }, ... ] } How can I write a LINQ-to-SQL query that shapes the output like that? I'm having trouble doing it efficiently. if I use this query: int personId = 10007; var persons = from p in db.People where p.Id == personId select new { name = p.Name, movies = (from m in db.Movies join c in db.Credits on m.Id equals c.MovieId where (c.PersonId == personId) select new { title = m.Title, role = (c.Role=="D"?"director":"actor") }) }; I get something like this: { "name" : "Clint Eastwood", "movies" : [ { "title": "Unforgiven", "role": "actor" }, { "title": "Unforgiven", "role": "director" }, { "title": "Sands of Iwo Jima", "role": "director" }, { "title": "Dirty Harry", "role": "actor" }, ... ] } ...but as you can see there's a duplicate of each movie for which Eastwood played multiple roles. How can I shape the output the way I want?

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  • NSFetchedResultsController: changing predicate not working?

    - by icerelic
    Hi, I'm writing an app with two tables on one screen. The left table is a list of folders and the right table shows a list of files. When tapped on a row on the left, the right table will display the files belonging to that folder. I'm using Core Data for storage. When the selection of folder changes, the fetch predicate of the right table's NSFetchedResultsController will change and perform a new fetch, then reload the table data. I used the following code snippet: NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"list = %@",self.list]; [fetchedResultsController.fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; NSError *error = nil; if (![[self fetchedResultsController] performFetch:&error]) { NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } [table reloadData]; However the fetch results are still the same. I've NSLog'ed "predicate" before and after the fetch, and they were correct with updated information. The fetch results stay the same as initial fetch (when view is loaded). I'm not very familiar with the way Core Data fetches objects (is there a caching system?), but I've done similar things before(changing predicates, re-fetching data, and refreshing table) with single table views and everything went well. If someone could gave me a hint I would be very appreciated. Thanks in advance.

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  • How to setup Lucene search for a B2B web app?

    - by Bill Paetzke
    Given: 5000 databases (spread out over 5 servers) 1 database per client (so you can infer there are 1000 clients) 2 to 2000 users per client (let's say avg is 100 users per client) Clients (databases) come and go every day (let's assume most remain for at least one year) Let's stay agnostic of language or sql brand, since Lucene (and Solr) have a breadth of support The Question: How would you setup Lucene search so that each client can only search within its database? How would you setup the index(es)? Would you need to add a filter to all search queries? If a client cancelled, how would you delete their (part of the) index? (this may be trivial--not sure yet) Possible Solutions: Make an index for each client (database) Pro: Search is faster (than one-index-for-all method). Indices are relative to the size of the client's data. Con: I'm not sure what this entails, nor do I know if this is beyond Lucene's scope. Have a single, gigantic index with a database_name field. Always include database_name as a filter. Pro: Not sure. Maybe good for tech support or billing dept to search all databases for info. Con: Search is slower (than index-per-client method). Flawed security if query filter removed. For Example: Joel Spolsky said in Podcast #11 that his hosted web app product, FogBugz On-Demand, uses Lucene. He has thousands of on-demand clients. And each client gets their own database. His situation is quite similar to mine. Although, he didn't elaborate on the setup (particularly indices); hence, the need for this question. One last thing: I would also accept an answer that uses Solr (the extension of Lucene). Perhaps it's better suited for this problem. Not sure.

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  • Configuring zend to use gmail smtp: Windows Apache dev-environment: "Could not open socket" error - repeatedly - going mad

    - by confused
    My dev environment is Win XP SP2 / Apache 2.something PHP 5.something_or_other My prod env is Linux Ubuntu / Apache 2.something_else PHP 5.something_or_other_else The code is all Zend Framework Version: 1.11.1 I can telnet to: smtp.gmail.com 465 from the PC. I have Mercury configured on my PC to use gmail as it's smtp host and it works just fine. (MercuryC SMTP Client). Mercury is set to use port 465 and SSL on smtp.gmail.com -- No problem. Zend mail works just fine on my production environment using the production mail server to send out mail. It's the same basic application.ini but with different values in the mail variables. On my local PC dev setup, my application.ini contains: (same values as I use in Mercury) mail.templatePath = APPLICATION_PATH "/emails" mail.sender.name = "myAccount" mail.sender.email = "[email protected]" mail.host = smtp.gmail.com mail.smtp.auth = "login" mail.smtp.username = "[email protected]" mail.smtp.password = "myPassWord" mail.smtp.ssl = "ssl" mail.smtp.port = 465 I have been doing trial and error for hours trying to get a single email out with no success. In every case, regardless of server or port settings it throws an error and reports: Could not open socket. Both Apache and Mercury Core are exceptions in my Windows Firewall config. Mercury seems to be having no problem. I have searched stackoverflow before posting this and have been googling for hours -- with no success. I am slowly losing my mind I would be very much obliged for any tip as to what might be wrong. Thanks for reading. =================== BTW When I use the SAME application.ini values on my local PC as on the production host, I get the same "Could not open socket" error. Those values are: mail.templatePath = APPLICATION_PATH "/emails" mail.sender.name = "otherUser" mail.sender.email = "[email protected]" mail.host = smtp.otherServer.com mail.smtp.auth = "login" mail.smtp.username = "[email protected]" mail.smtp.password = "otherPAssWord" mail.smtp.ssl = "ssl" mail.smtp.port = 465 I know these work in the production (Ubuntu) environment. I'm utterly baffled.

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  • Flexible CMS for non-programmers

    - by Bunkerbewohner
    Hello! I'm looking for a content management system that allows creating single pages out of predefined blocks flexibly. For example I have a "product" block that is used to show producs on a page and it may appear numerous times on one page with different contents. But I also might wanna use it on different pages. Also I have simply generic blocks like multiple column text blocks (1 col, 2 col etc.) where I just want to insert this kind of structure into the page and enter any text. So I'm looking for a cms with someething like a building block / module concept for contents. I'm already searching the web but there are so many CMSs that I can't look into every one. So if anyone knows a solution that might be right for me, please tell me! Technology-wise it just has to run on Linux. If it's OpenSource / free that's great, but I might also pay for it, if it offers the features I want. Thanks for any hints in advance!

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  • How to verify the SSL connection when calling an URI?

    - by robertokl
    Hello, I am developing an web application that is authenticated using CAS (A single-sign-on solution: http://www.ja-sig.org/wiki/display/CAS/Home). For security reasons, I need two things to work: The communication between CAS and my application needs to be secure My application needs to accept the certification coming with CAS, so that I can guarantee that the CAS responding is the real CAS Server. This is what I got so far: uri = URI.parse("https://www.google.com/accounts") https = Net::HTTP.new(uri.host, uri.port) https.use_ssl = (uri.scheme == 'https') https.verify_mode = (OpenSSL::SSL::VERIFY_PEER) raw_res = https.start do |conn| conn.get("#{uri.path}?#{uri.query}") end This works just great in my Mac OSX. When I try to reach an insecure uri, it raises an exception, and when I try to reach a secure uri, it allow me normally, just like expected. The problem starts when I deploy my application on my Linux server. I tried in both Ubuntu and Red Hat. Independing of what uri I try to reach, it always raises me this exception: OpenSSL::SSL::SSLError: SSL_connect returned=1 errno=0 state=SSLv3 read server certificate B: certificate verify failed from /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/net/http.rb:586:in `connect' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/net/http.rb:586:in `connect' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/net/http.rb:553:in `do_start' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/net/http.rb:542:in `start' from (irb):7 I think this have something to do with my installed OpenSSL package, but I can't be sure. This are my installed OpenSSL packages: openssl.x86_64 0.9.8e-12.el5 installed openssl-devel.x86_64 0.9.8e-12.el5 installed I tried using HTTParty as well, but it just ignores the SSL certificated. I hope someone can help me, either by telling me a gem that works the way I need. Thanks.

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  • Design Practice Retrieve Multiple Users - PHP

    - by pws5068
    Greetings all, I'm looking for a more efficient way to grab multiple users without too much code redundancy. I have a Users class, (here's a highly condensed representation) Class Users { function __construct() { ... ... } private static function getNew($id) { // This is all only example code $sql = "SELECT * FROM Users WHERE User_ID=?"; $user = new User(); $user->setID($id); .... return $user; } public static function getNewestUsers($count) { $sql = "SELECT * FROM Users ORDER BY Join_Date LIMIT ?"; $users = array(); // Prepared Statement Data Here while($stmt->fetch()) { $users[] = Users::getNew($id); ... } return $users; } // These have more sanity/security checks, demonstration only. function setID($id) { $this->id = $id; } function setName($name) { $this->name = $name; } ... } So clearly calling getNew() in a loop is inefficient, because it makes $count number of calls to the database each time. I would much rather select all users in a single SQL statement. The problem is that I have probably a dozen or so methods for getting arrays of users, so all of these would now need to know the names of the database columns which is repeating a lot of structure that could always change later. What are some other ways that I could approach this problem? My goals include efficiency, flexibility, scalability, and good design practice.

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  • Flash "visible" issue

    - by justkevin
    I'm writing a tool in Flex that lets me design composite sprites using layered bitmaps and then "bake" them into a low overhead single bitmapData. I've discovered a strange behavior I can't explain: toggling the "visible" property of my layers works twice for each layer (i.e., I can turn it off, then on again) and then never again for that layer-- the layer stays visible from that point on. If I override "set visible" on the layer as such: override public function set visible(value:Boolean):void { if(value == false) this.alpha = 0; else {this.alpha = 1;} } The problem goes away and I can toggle "visibility" as much as I want. Any ideas what might be causing this? Edit: Here is the code that makes the call: private function onVisibleChange():void { _layer.visible = layerVisible.selected; changed(); } The changed() method "bakes" the bitmap: public function getBaked():BitmapData { var w:int = _composite.width + (_atmosphereOuterBlur * 2); var h:int = _composite.height + (_atmosphereOuterBlur * 2); var bmpData:BitmapData = new BitmapData(w,h,true,0x00000000); var matrix:Matrix = new Matrix(); var bounds:Rectangle = this.getBounds(this); matrix.translate(w/2,h/2); bmpData.draw(this,matrix,null,null,new Rectangle(0,0,w,h),true); return bmpData; } Incidentally, while the layer is still visible, using the Flex debugger I can verify that the layer's visible value is "false".

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  • JSF/Seam - new component instance on submit?

    - by purecharger
    And my confusion with JSF continues. This is a continuation of a question asked yesterday, but I feel it warrants a new question. I have a single seam component that expects a URL parameter to be injected for retrieving a List<String> from a method. This works perfectly on the first navigation to the page. The List is used to display many different selectOneRadio groups that populate a <h:form/>. Now on the submit, I cannot get the URL parameter to be injected or otherwise set on the component! Adding <h:inputHidden/> causes FacesExceptions to be thrown. Then I tried setting the List as an instance variable on the object, and when the subsequent call is made on the submit (which I also do not understand why that is done) I check to see if the variable is non-null: if it isn't, return it. Now I found that a new instance of the component is created on submit!!! getList() called this.toString(): .BeanAction@5fd98420 #### This is when submit is clicked getList() called this.toString(): .BeanAction@22aacbce The component has the following annotations: Stateful @Scope(ScopeType.CONVERSATION) @Name("bean") @Restrict("#{identity.loggedIn}") Can someone explain why there is a new instance of the component created? I'm really not quite sure how to go about handling this. I thought the hidden parameter would work, because that is how I would do it with straight HTML, and I'm a little surprised that its not working for JSF/Seam.

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  • preg_match_all and newlines inside quotes

    - by David
    Another noob regex problem/question. I'm probably doing something silly so I thought I'd exploit the general ingenuity of the SO regulars ;) Trying to match newlines but only if they occur within either double quotes or single quotes. I also want to catch strings that are between quotes but contain no newlines. Okay so there's what i got, with output. Below that, will be the output I would like to get. Any help would be greatly appreciated! :) I use Regex Coach to help me create my patterns, being a novice and all. According to RC, The pattern I supply does match all occurances within the data, but in my PHP, it skips over the multi-line part. I have tried with the 'm' pattern modifier already, to no avail. Contents of $CompressedData: <?php $Var = "test"; $Var2 = "test2"; $Var3 = "blah blah blah blah blah blah blah blah blah"; $Var4 = "hello"; ?> Pattern / Code: preg_match_all('!(\'|")(\b.*\b\n*)*(\'|")!', $CompressedData, $Matches); Current print_r output of $Matches: Array ( [0] => Array ( [0] => "test" [1] => "test2" [2] => "hello" ) ... } DESIRED print_r output of $Matches: Array ( [0] => Array ( [0] => "test" [1] => "test2" [2] => "blah blah blah blah blah blah blah blah blah" [3] => "hello" ) ... }

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  • dynamically add listener to ajax created content in jQuery

    - by davidP
    I am trying to get the html value of a linked clicked. The links are created dynamically with Ajax so I don't think .bind will work and I don't have latest version with .live $('div#message').click(function() { var valueSelected = $(this).html(); // picks up the whole id. I juust want single href! alert(valueSelected); return false; }); <div id="message"> <br/> <a class="doYouMean" href="#">location A</a> <br/> <a class="doYouMean" href="#">location B</a> <br/> <a class="doYouMean" href="#">location C</a> <br/> <a class="doYouMean" href="#">location D</a> <br/> <a class="doYouMean" href="#">location E</a> <br/> </div>

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  • WPF abnormal CPU usage for animation

    - by 0xDEAD BEEF
    HI! I am developing WPF application and client reports extreamly high CPU usage (90%) (whereas i am unable to repeat that behavior). I have traced bootleneck down to these lines. It is simple glowing animation for small single led control (blinking led). What could be reason for this simple annimation taking up SO huge CPU resources? <Trigger Property="State"> <Trigger.Value> <local:BlinkingLedStatus>Blinking</local:BlinkingLedStatus> </Trigger.Value> <Trigger.EnterActions> <BeginStoryboard Name="beginStoryBoard"> <Storyboard> <DoubleAnimation Storyboard.TargetName="glow" Storyboard.TargetProperty="Opacity" AutoReverse="True" From="0.0" To="1.0" Duration="0:0:0.5" RepeatBehavior="Forever"/> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </Trigger.EnterActions> <Trigger.ExitActions> <StopStoryboard BeginStoryboardName="beginStoryBoard"/> </Trigger.ExitActions> </Trigger>

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  • Monads and custom traversal functions in Haskell

    - by Bill
    Given the following simple BST definition: data Tree x = Empty | Leaf x | Node x (Tree x) (Tree x) deriving (Show, Eq) inOrder :: Tree x -> [x] inOrder Empty = [] inOrder (Leaf x) = [x] inOrder (Node root left right) = inOrder left ++ [root] ++ inOrder right I'd like to write an in-order function that can have side effects. I achieved that with: inOrderM :: (Show x, Monad m) => (x -> m a) -> Tree x -> m () inOrderM f (Empty) = return () inOrderM f (Leaf y) = f y >> return () inOrderM f (Node root left right) = inOrderM f left >> f root >> inOrderM f right -- print tree in order to stdout inOrderM print tree This works fine, but it seems repetitive - the same logic is already present in inOrder and my experience with Haskell leads me to believe that I'm probably doing something wrong if I'm writing a similar thing twice. Is there any way that I can write a single function inOrder that can take either pure or monadic functions?

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  • Doctrine 1.2: How do i prevent a contraint from being assigned to both sides of a One-to-many relati

    - by prodigitalson
    Is there a way to prevent Doctrine from assigning a contraint on both sides of a one-to-one relationship? Ive tried moving the definition from one side to the other and using owning side but it still places a constraint on both tables. when I only want the parent table to have a constraint - ie. its possible for the parent to not have an associated child. For example iwant the following sql schema essentially: CREATE TABLE `parent_table` ( `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ); CREATE TABLE `child_table` ( `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY (`child_id`), CONSTRAINT `parent_table_child_id_FK_child_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `parent_table` (`child_id`) ); However im getting something like this: CREATE TABLE `parent_table` ( `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), CONSTRAINT `child_table_child_id_FK_parent_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `child_table` (`child_id`) ); CREATE TABLE `child_table` ( `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY (`child_id`), CONSTRAINT `parent_table_child_id_FK_child_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `parent_table` (`child_id`) ); I could just remove the constraint manually or modify my accessors to return/set a single entity in the collection (using a one-to-many) but it seems like there should built in way to handle this. Also im using Symfony 1.4.4 (pear installtion ATM) - in case its an sfDoctrinePlugin issue and not necessarily Doctrine itself.

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  • Add new SVN "repo" in poorly constructed repo/project setup

    - by Dave Masselink
    Unfortunately, the answer to this question isn't quite as simple as it sounds... but I hope it can still be relatively simple. Please read all the way through before telling me that the answer is: "svnadmin create... duh" I'm working for a company that set up their SVN server in an odd way (at least in terms of what I'm used to). We've all been there, right? Rather than giving each project a separate repository... they have a folder on the server called "/var/www/svn/repos/" which is the actual SVN repo (has conf/, db/, README.txt, etc. in it). Then they distinguish their projects by adding top level folders into the ONE repository (ex: Project1, Project2, etc.) I don't like this setup and might one day get around to converting the setup to what I'm used to, where each project is its own repository (with separate logs, dbs, etc.) But my question is this: What is the best way to add a new empty project to the current setup? Is there anyway to add a new top level folder/project to the repo through use of svnadmin? It can/should just be an empty folder that I'll start building a new project in. I know that I could do this by checking out the whole singular repository and then adding a new top level folder into my local checkout, then re-committing. But I'd really prefer not to do this because someone has created folders/projects that are just GBs of log data... and I don't want to wait through the download of this just to add a single empty folder. Let me know if there is any more info you'd need to know. I do have root/sudo access on the server in question. Thanks in advance for your help! Dave

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  • How to speed up the reading of innerHTML in IE8?

    - by Dennis Cheung
    I am using JQuery with the DataTable plugin, and now I have a big performnce issue on the following line. aLocalData[jInner] = nTds[j].innerHTML; // jquery.dataTables.js:2220 I have a ajax call, and result string in HTML format. I convert them into HTML nodes, and that part is ok. var $result = $('<div/>').html(result).find("*:first"); // simlar to $result=$(result) but much more faster in Fx Then I activate enable the result from a plain table to a sortable datatable. The speed is acceptable in Fx (around 4sec for 900 rows), but unacceptable in IE8 (more then 100 seconds). I check it deep using the buildin profiler, and found the above single line take all 99.9% of the time, how can I speed it up? anything I missed? nTrs = oSettings.nTable.getElementsByTagName('tbody')[0].childNodes; for ( i=0, iLen=nTrs.length ; i<iLen ; i++ ) { if ( nTrs[i].nodeName == "TR" ) { iThisIndex = oSettings.aoData.length; oSettings.aoData.push( { "nTr": nTrs[i], "_iId": oSettings.iNextId++, "_aData": [], "_anHidden": [], "_sRowStripe": '' } ); oSettings.aiDisplayMaster.push( iThisIndex ); aLocalData = oSettings.aoData[iThisIndex]._aData; nTds = nTrs[i].childNodes; jInner = 0; for ( j=0, jLen=nTds.length ; j<jLen ; j++ ) { if ( nTds[j].nodeName == "TD" ) { aLocalData[jInner] = nTds[j].innerHTML; // jquery.dataTables.js:2220 jInner++; } } } }

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  • Ajax Form submittion in Google App Engine with jQuery

    - by user271785
    could not figure out why it is not working: i need to send request to server, generate some fragment of html in python with meanCal method, and then want that fragment embedded into submitting html file using calculation method and dynamically shows in dyContent div. all the processes are done by single click on submit button in a form. any suggestions??? thanks in advance. the submitting html: <div id="dyContent" style="height: 200px;"> waiting for user... {{ mgs }} </div> <div id="leturetext"> <form id="mean" method="post" action="/calculation"> <select name="meanselect"> <option value=10>example</option> <option value=11>exercise</option> </select> <input type="button" name="btnMean" value="Check Results" /> </form> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { //$("#btnMean").live("click", function() { $("#mean").submit(function(){ $.ajax({ type: "POST", cache: false, url: "/meanCal", success: function(html) { $("#dyContent").html(html); } }); return false; }); }); </script> python: class MainHandler(webapp.RequestHandler): def get(self): path = self.request.path if doRender(self, path): return doRender(self,'index.htm') class calculationHandler(webapp.RequestHandler): def post(self): doRender(self, 'Diagnostic_stats.htm', {'mgs' : "refreshed.", }) def get(self): doRender(self, 'Diagnostic_stats.htm') class meanHandler(webapp.RequestHandler): def get(self): global GL index = self.request.get('meanselect'.value) if (index == 10): allData = GL.exampleData dataString = ','.join(map(str, allData)) dataMean = (str)(stats.lmean(allData)) doRender(self, 'Result.htm', { 'dataIn' : dataString, 'MEAN' : "Example Mean is: " + dataMean, }) return else: allData = GL.exerciseData dataString = ','.join(map(str, allData)) dataMean = (str)(stats.lmean(allData)) doRender(self, 'Result.htm', { 'dataIn' : dataString, 'MEAN' : "Exercise Mean is: " + dataMean, }) def main(): global GL GL = GlobalVariables() application = webapp.WSGIApplication( [('/calculation', calculationHandler), ('/meanCal', meanHandler), ('.*', MainHandler), ], debug=True) wsgiref.handlers.CGIHandler().run(application) if __name__ == '__main__': main()

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  • How can I programmatically add more than just one view object to my view controller?

    - by BeachRunnerJoe
    I'm diving into iPhone OS development and I'm trying to understand how I can add multiple view objects to the "Left/Root" view of my SplitView iPad app. I've figured out how to programmatically add a TableView to that view based on the example code I found in Apple's online documentation... RootViewController.h @interface RootViewController : UITableViewController <NSFetchedResultsControllerDelegate, UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource> { DetailViewController *detailViewController; UITableView *tableView; NSFetchedResultsController *fetchedResultsController; NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext; } RootViewController.m - (void)loadView { UITableView *newTableView = [[UITableView alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] applicationFrame] style:UITableViewStylePlain]; newTableView.autoresizingMask = UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight|UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth; newTableView.delegate = self; newTableView.dataSource = self; [newTableView reloadData]; self.view = newTableView; [newTableView release]; } but there are a few things I don't understand about it and I was hoping you veterans could help clear up some confusion. In the statement self.view = newTableView, I assume I'm setting the entire view to a single UITableView. If that's the case, then how can I add additional view objects to that view alongside the table view? For example, if I wanted to have a DatePicker view object and the TableView object instead of just the TableView object, then how would I programmatically add that? Referencing the code above, how can I resize the table view to make room for the DatePicker view object that I'd like to add? Thanks so much in advance for your help! I'm going to continue researching these questions right now.

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  • SQL Server Compact timed out waiting for a lock

    - by jankhana
    Hi all, I'm having an application in that i use Sql Compact 3.5 with VS2008. I'm running multiple threads in my application which contacts the compact database and accesses the row. It selects and deletes those rows in a fashion i.e selecting and giving to the application 5 rows and deleting those rows from the table. It works great with a single thread but if i use multiple threads i.e if 3 or more threads are running I get very often the TimeOut Error!!! I have increased the Time out property in the connection string but it didn't give me expected result. The error log is as follow: SQL Server Compact timed out waiting for a lock. The default lock time is 2000ms for devices and 5000ms for desktops. The default lock timeout can be increased in the connection string using the ssce: default lock timeout property. [ Session id = 5,Thread id = 4204,Process id = 4808,Table name = XXX,Conflict type = x lock (s blocks),Resource = TAB ] The Query that I use to retrieve is as follows: " select Top(5) * from TableName order by id; delete from TableName where id in(select top(5) id from TableName order by id); " Is there any way by which we can avoid this Time Out exception??????? The above query I un as a transaction in VS2008 one using SQLCECommand and the other using SqlCEDataAdapter. Any Idea!!!!!! Reply

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  • mySQL Efficiency Issue - How to find the right balance of normalization...?

    - by Foo
    I'm fairly new to working with relational databases, but have read a few books and know the basics of good design. I'm facing a design decision, and I'm not sure how to continue. Here's a very over simplified version of what I'm building: People can rate photos 1-5, and I need to display the average votes on the picture while keeping track of the individual votes. For example, 12 people voted 1, 7 people voted 2, etc. etc. The normalization freak of me initially designed the table structure like this: Table pictures id* | picture | userID | Table ratings id* | pictureID | userID | rating With all the foreign key constraints and everything set as they shoudl be. Every time someone rates a picture, I just insert a new record into ratings and be done with it. To find the average rating of a picture, I'd just run something like this: SELECT AVG(rating) FROM ratings WHERE pictureID = '5' GROUP by pictureID Having it setup this way lets me run my fancy statistics to. I can easily find who rated a certain picture a 3, and what not. Now I'm thinking if there's a crapload of ratings (which is very possible in what I'm really designing), finding the average will became very expensive and painful. Using a non-normalized version would seem to be more efficient. e.g.: Table picture id | picture | userID | ratingOne | ratingTwo | ratingThree | ratingFour | ratingFive To calculate the average, I'd just have to select a single row. It seems so much more efficient, but so much more uglier. Can someone point me in the right direction of what to do? My initial research shows that I have to "find the right balance", but how do I go about finding that balance? Any articles or additional reading information would be appreciated as well. Thanks.

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  • How to verify the SSL connection when calling a URI?

    - by robertokl
    Hello, I am developing a web application that is authenticated using CAS (A single-sign-on solution: http://www.ja-sig.org/wiki/display/CAS/Home). For security reasons, I need two things to work: The communication between CAS and my application needs to be secure My application needs to accept the certification coming from CAS, so that I can guarantee that the CAS responding is the real CAS server This is what I got so far: uri = URI.parse("https://www.google.com/accounts") https = Net::HTTP.new(uri.host, uri.port) https.use_ssl = (uri.scheme == 'https') https.verify_mode = (OpenSSL::SSL::VERIFY_PEER) raw_res = https.start do |conn| conn.get("#{uri.path}?#{uri.query}") end This works just great in Mac OS X. When I try to reach an insecure URI, it raises an exception, and when I try to reach a secure URI, it allows me normally, just like expected. The problem starts when I deploy my application on my Linux server. I tried in both Ubuntu and Red Hat. Independent of what URI I try to reach, it always raises this exception: OpenSSL::SSL::SSLError: SSL_connect returned=1 errno=0 state=SSLv3 read server certificate B: certificate verify failed from /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/net/http.rb:586:in `connect' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/net/http.rb:586:in `connect' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/net/http.rb:553:in `do_start' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/net/http.rb:542:in `start' from (irb):7 I think this have something to do with my installed OpenSSL package, but I can't be sure. This are my installed OpenSSL packages: openssl.x86_64 0.9.8e-12.el5 installed openssl-devel.x86_64 0.9.8e-12.el5 installed I tried using HTTParty as well, but it just ignores the SSL certificate. I hope someone can help me, or tell me about a gem that works the way I need. Thanks.

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  • Finding the last focused element

    - by Joshua Cody
    I'm looking to determine which element had the last focus in a series of inputs, that are added dynamically by the user. This code can only get the inputs that are available on page load: $('input.item').focus(function(){ $(this).siblings('ul').slideDown(); }); And this code sees all elements that have ever had focus: $('input.item').live('focus', function(){ $(this).siblings('ul').slideDown(); }); The HTML structure is this: <ul> <li><input class="item" name="goals[]"> <ul> <li>long list here</li> <li>long list here</li> <li>long list here</li> </ul></li> </ul> <a href="#" id="add">Add another</a> On page load, a single input loads. Then with each add another, a new copy of the top unordered list's contents are made and appended, and the new input gets focus. When each gets focus, I'd like to show the list beneath it. But I don't seem to be able to "watch for the most recently focused element, which exists now or in the future." To clarify: I'm not looking for the last occurrence of an element in the DOM tree. I'm looking to find the element that currently has focus, even if said element is not present upon original page load. So in the above image, if I were to focus on the second element, the list of words should appear under the second element. My focus is currently on the last element, so the words are displayed there. Do I have some sort of fundamental assumption wrong?

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