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  • Objective-C Protocols within Protocols

    - by LucasTizma
    I recently began trying my hand at using protocols in my Objective-C development as an (obvious) means of delegating tasks more appropriately among my classes. I completely understand the basic notion of protocols and how they work. However, I came across a roadblock when trying to create a custom protocol that in turn implements another protocol. I since discovered the solution, but I am curious why the following DOES NOT work: @protocol STPickerViewDelegate < UIPickerViewDelegate > - ( void )customCallback; @end @interface STPickerView : UIPickerView { id < STPickerViewDelegate > delegate; } @property ( nonatomic, assign ) id < STPickerViewDelegate > delegate; @end Then in a view controller, which conforms to STPickerViewDelegate: STPickerView * pickerView = [ [ STPickerView alloc ] init ]; pickerView.delegate = self; - ( void )customCallback { ... } - ( NSString * )pickerView:( UIPickerView * )pickerView titleForRow:( NSInteger )row forComponent:( NSInteger )component { ... } The problem was that pickerView:titleForRow:forComponent: was never being called. On the other hand, customCallback was being called just fine, which isn't too surprising. I don't understand why STPickerViewDelegate, which itself conforms to UIPickerViewDelegate, does not notify my view controller when events from UIPickerViewDelegate are supposed to occur. Per my understanding of Apple's documentation, if a protocol (A) itself conforms to another protocol (B), then a class (C) that conforms to the first protocol (A) must also conform to the second protocol (B), which is exactly the behavior I want and expected. What I ended up doing was removing the id< STPickerViewDelegate > delegate property from STViewPicker and instead doing something like the following in my STViewPicker implementation where I want to evoke customCallback: if ( [ self.delegate respondsToSelector:@selector( customCallback ) ] ) { [ self.delegate performSelector:@selector( customCallback ) ]; } This works just fine, but I really am puzzled as to why my original approach did not work.

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  • asp.net mvc formcollection

    - by mazhar
    public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection formValues) { 07. 08. // Retrieve existing dinner 09. Dinner dinner = dinnerRepository.GetDinner(id); 10. 11. // Update dinner with form posted values 12. dinner.Title = Request.Form["Title"]; 13. dinner.Description = Request.Form["Description"]; 14. dinner.EventDate = DateTime.Parse(Request.Form["EventDate"]); 15. dinner.Address = Request.Form["Address"]; 16. dinner.Country = Request.Form["Country"]; 17. dinner.ContactPhone = Request.Form["ContactPhone"]; 18. 19. // Persist changes back to database 20. dinnerRepository.Save(); 21. 22. // Perform HTTP redirect to details page for the saved Dinner 23. return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = dinner.DinnerID }); 24.} formValues is not used in any form, what is the used of it.

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  • JPA 2 Criteria API: why is isNull being ignored when in conjunction with equal?

    - by Vítor Souza
    I have the following entity class (ID inherited from PersistentObjectSupport class): @Entity public class AmbulanceDeactivation extends PersistentObjectSupport implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Temporal(TemporalType.DATE) @NotNull private Date beginDate; @Temporal(TemporalType.DATE) private Date endDate; @Size(max = 250) private String reason; @ManyToOne @NotNull private Ambulance ambulance; /* Get/set methods, etc. */ } If I do the following query using the Criteria API: CriteriaBuilder cb = em.getCriteriaBuilder(); CriteriaQuery<AmbulanceDeactivation> cq = cb.createQuery(AmbulanceDeactivation.class); Root<AmbulanceDeactivation> root = cq.from(AmbulanceDeactivation.class); EntityType<AmbulanceDeactivation> model = root.getModel(); cq.where(cb.isNull(root.get(model.getSingularAttribute("endDate", Date.class)))); return em.createQuery(cq).getResultList(); I get the following SQL printed in the log: FINE: SELECT ID, REASON, ENDDATE, UUID, BEGINDATE, VERSION, AMBULANCE_ID FROM AMBULANCEDEACTIVATION WHERE (ENDDATE IS NULL) However, if I change the where() line in the previous code to this one: cq.where(cb.isNull(root.get(model.getSingularAttribute("endDate", Date.class))), cb.equal(root.get(model.getSingularAttribute("ambulance", Ambulance.class)), ambulance)); I get the following SQL: FINE: SELECT ID, REASON, ENDDATE, UUID, BEGINDATE, VERSION, AMBULANCE_ID FROM AMBULANCEDEACTIVATION WHERE (AMBULANCE_ID = ?) That is, the isNull criterion is totally ignored. It is as if it wasn't even there (if I provide only the equal criterion to the where() method I get the same SQL printed). Why is that? Is it a bug or am I missing something?

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  • how to return multiple array items using json/jquery

    - by Scarface
    Hey guys, quick question, I have a query that will usually return multiple results from a database, while I know how to return one result, I am not sure how to return multiple in jquery. I just want to take each of the returned results and run them through my prepare function. I have been trying to use 'for' to handle the array of data but I don't think it can work since I am returning different array values. If anyone has any suggestions, I would really appreciate it. JQUERY RETRIEVAL for(i=0; i < json.rows; i++) { $('#users_online').append(online_users(json[i])); $('#online_list-' + count2).fadeIn(1500); } PHP PROCESSING $qryuserscount1="SELECT active_users.username,COUNT(scrusersonline.id) AS rows FROM scrusersonline LEFT JOIN active_users ON scrusersonline.id=active_users.id WHERE topic_id='$topic_id'"; $userscount1=mysql_query($qryuserscount1); while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($userscount1)) { $onlineuser= $row['username']; $rows=$row['rows']; if ($username==$onlineuser){ $str2= "<a href=\"statistics.php?user=$onlineuser\"><div class=\"me\">$onlineuser</div></a>"; } else { $str2= "<b><a href=\"statistics.php?user=$onlineuser\"><div class=\"others\">$onlineuser</div></a></b>"; } $data['rows']=$rows; $data['entry']=$str1.$str2; }

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  • How to perform two-way data binding of controls in a user control inside a FormView

    - by Sandor Drieënhuizen
    I'm trying to perform two-way data binding on the controls in my user control, which is hosted inside a FormView template. FormView: <asp:ObjectDataSource runat="server" ID="ObjectDataSource" TypeName="WebApplication1.Data" SelectMethod="GetItem" UpdateMethod="UpdateItem"> </asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:FormView runat="server" ID="FormView" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource"> <ItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> User control: <%@ Control Language="C#" ... %> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="TitleTextBox" Text='<%# Bind("Title") %>'> </asp:TextBox> The binding works fine when the FormView is in View mode but when I switch to Edit mode, upon calling UpdateItem on the FormView, the bindings are lost. I know this because the FormView tries to call an update method on the ObjectDataSource that does not have an argument called 'Title'. I tried to solve this by implementing IBindableTemplate to load the controls that are inside my user control, directly into the templates (just like I had entered them declaratively like in the code above). However, when calling UpdateItem in edit mode, the container that gets passed into the ExtractValues method of the template, does not contain the TextBox anymore. It did in view mode! I have found some questions on SO that relate to this problem but they are rather dated and they don't provide any answers that helped me solve this problem. How do you think I could solve this problem? It seems to be such a simple requirement but apparently it's more like opening a can of worms...

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  • DataGrid finding a control

    - by nat
    HI I have a DataGrid (yes would be nicer if it was a gridview but nothing i can do about that) in the itemDataBound event i am adding a hidden field into the first cell of each row I am setting its ID based on something, and then saving its clientID in a List for later attempts to get the value from it but try as i might i cant find anything with findcontrol have tried here is the itemdatabound bit foreach(page in datasource){ HiddenField hidOrder = new HiddenField(); hidOrder.ID = "order_" + page.Id.ToString(); hidOrder.Value = page.Ordering.ToString(); e.Item.Cells[0].Controls.Add(hidOrder); idList.Add(hidOrder.ClientID); } then this is a button click event.. int numRows = FrontEndDataGrid.Items.Count; for (int i = 0; i < numRows; i++){ foreach(string hidID in idList){ HiddenField hf = FrontEndDataGrid.Items[i].FindControl(hidID) as HiddenField; //ssadly this never finds anything //have also tried looping around the cells for each 'row' - no luck there either } } any ideas? thanks nat

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  • LINQ to SQL - Left Outer Join with multiple join conditions

    - by dan
    I have the following SQL which I am trying to translate to LINQ: SELECT f.value FROM period as p LEFT OUTER JOIN facts AS f ON p.id = f.periodid AND f.otherid = 17 WHERE p.companyid = 100 I have seen the typical implementation of the left outer join (ie. into x from y in x.DefaultIfEmpty() etc.) but am unsure how to introduce the other join condition ('AND f.otherid = 17') EDIT Why is the 'AND f.otherid = 17' condition part of the JOIN instead of in the WHERE clause? Because f may not exist for some rows and I still want these rows to be included. If the condition is applied in the WHERE clause, after the JOIN - then I don't get the behaviour I want. Unfortunately this: from p in context.Periods join f in context.Facts on p.id equals f.periodid into fg from fgi in fg.DefaultIfEmpty() where p.companyid == 100 && fgi.otherid == 17 select f.value seems to be equivalent to this: SELECT f.value FROM period as p LEFT OUTER JOIN facts AS f ON p.id = f.periodid WHERE p.companyid = 100 && AND f.otherid = 17 which is not quite what I'm after.

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  • Sugar CRM Soap call not working properly

    - by Jasim
    I have sugar crm instance and i was trying to get some data from it using soap service. Below is the code which i am using for it. When i run the same code , sometimes it is returning correct data, sometimes it not. Can any one tell me what the problem is?? include "nusoap.php"; $client = new soapclient('http://asdf.net/test/urbancrm_2009_06_22/soap.php'); // Login to SugarCRM $auth_array = array( 'user_auth' => array( 'user_name' => '******', 'password' => '*******' ), ); $response = $client->call('login', $auth_array); if (!$response['error']['number']){ // Successfully logged in $session_id = $response['id']; //$response = $client->call('get_entry_list',array('session'=>$session_id , 'module_name'=>'Users', 'query'=>'', 'order_by'=>'','offset'=>'','select_fields'=>array('id','user_name'))); $response = $client->call('get_entry_list',array('session'=>$session_id , 'module_name'=>'itf_Apartments', "query"=>"itf_apartments_cstm.neighborhood_c='Loop'", 'order_by'=>'','offset'=>'','select_fields'=>array('name','studio','convertible','one_bedroom','one_bedroom_plus_den','two_bedroom','two_bedroom_plus_den','penthouse','photo_c','building_type_c','neighborhood_c'))); //$response = $client->call('get_entry_list',array('session'=>$session_id , 'module_name'=>'itf_Apartments', 'query'=>'itf_apartments_cstm.urbanlux_id_c="1"', 'order_by'=>'','offset'=>'','select_fields'=>array('name','studio','convertible','one_bedroom','one_bedroom_plus_den','two_bedroom','two_bedroom_plus_den','penthouse',))); //store id and user name as a key value pair in array //echo "---"; print_r($response); } else { echo "else"; print_r($response); } ?

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  • ORM model and DAO in my particular case

    - by EugeneP
    I have the DB structure as follows: table STUDENT (say, id, surname, etc) table STUDENT_PROPERTIES (say, name_of_the_property:char, value_of_the_property:char, student_id:FK) table COURSE (id, name, statusofcourse_id) table STATUSOFCOURSE (id, name_of_status:char ('active','inactive','suspended' etc)) table STUDENT_COURSE (student_id,course_id,statusofcourse_id) Let's try to pick up domain objects in my database: Student and Course are main entities. Student has a list of courses he attends, also he has a list of properties, that is all for this student. Next, Course entitity. It may contain a list of students that attend it. But in fact, the whole structure looks like this: the starting point is Student, with it's PK we can look a list of his properties, then we look into the STUDENT_COURSE and extract both FK of the Course entity and also the Status of the combination, it would look like "Student named bla bla, with all his properties, attends math and the status of it is "ACTIVE". now, quotation 1) Each DAO instance is responsible for one primary domain object or entity. If a domain object has an independent lifecycle, it should have its own DAO. 2) The DAO is responsible for creations, reads (by primary key), updates, and deletions -- that is, CRUD -- on the domain object. Now, first question is What are entities in my case? Student, Course, Student_Course, Status = all except for StudentProperties? Do I have to create a separate DAO for every object?

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  • How to code a URL shortener?

    - by marco92w
    I want to create a URL shortener service where you can write a long URL into an input field and the service shortens the URL to "http://www.example.org/abcdef". Instead of "abcdef" there can be any other string with six characters containing a-z, A-Z and 0-9. That makes 56 trillion possible strings. My approach: I have a database table with three columns: id, integer, auto-increment long, string, the long URL the user entered short, string, the shortened URL (or just the six characters) I would then insert the long URL into the table. Then I would select the auto-increment value for "id" and build a hash of it. This hash should then be inserted as "short". But what sort of hash should I build? Hash algorithms like MD5 create too long strings. I don't use these algorithms, I think. A self-built algorithm will work, too. My idea: For "http://www.google.de/" I get the auto-increment id 239472. Then I do the following steps: short = ''; if divisible by 2, add "a"+the result to short if divisible by 3, add "b"+the result to short ... until I have divisors for a-z and A-Z. That could be repeated until the number isn't divisible any more. Do you think this is a good approach? Do you have a better idea?

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  • Pros and cons of making database IDs consistent and "readable"

    - by gmale
    Question Is it a good rule of thumb for database IDs to be "meaningless?" Conversely, are there significant benefits from having IDs structured in a way where they can be recognized at a glance? What are the pros and cons? Background I just had a debate with my coworkers about the consistency of the IDs in our database. We have a data-driven application that leverages spring so that we rarely ever have to change code. That means, if there's a problem, a data change is usually the solution. My argument was that by making IDs consistent and readable, we save ourselves significant time and headaches, long term. Once the IDs are set, they don't have to change often and if done right, future changes won't be difficult. My coworkers position was that IDs should never matter. Encoding information into the ID violates DB design policies and keeping them orderly requires extra work that, "we don't have time for." I can't find anything online to support either position. So I'm turning to all the gurus here at SA! Example Imagine this simplified list of database records representing food in a grocery store, the first set represents data that has meaning encoded in the IDs, while the second does not: ID's with meaning: Type 1 Fruit 2 Veggie Product 101 Apple 102 Banana 103 Orange 201 Lettuce 202 Onion 203 Carrot Location 41 Aisle four top shelf 42 Aisle four bottom shelf 51 Aisle five top shelf 52 Aisle five bottom shelf ProductLocation 10141 Apple on aisle four top shelf 10241 Banana on aisle four top shelf //just by reading the ids, it's easy to recongnize that these are both Fruit on Aisle 4 ID's without meaning: Type 1 Fruit 2 Veggie Product 1 Apple 2 Banana 3 Orange 4 Lettuce 5 Onion 6 Carrot Location 1 Aisle four top shelf 2 Aisle four bottom shelf 3 Aisle five top shelf 4 Aisle five bottom shelf ProductLocation 1 Apple on aisle four top shelf 2 Banana on aisle four top shelf //given the IDs, it's harder to see that these are both fruit on aisle 4 Summary What are the pros and cons of keeping IDs readable and consistent? Which approach do you generally prefer and why? Is there an accepted industry best-practice?

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  • Mapping issue with multi-field primary keys using hibernate/JPA annotations

    - by Derek Clarkson
    Hi all, I'm stuck with a database which is using multi-field primary keys. I have a situation where I have a master and details table, where the details table's primary key contains fields which are also the foreign key's the the master table. Like this: Master primary key fields: master_pk_1 Details primary key fields: master_pk_1 details_pk_2 details_pk_3 In the Master class we define the hibernate/JPA annotations like this: @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.SEQUENCE, generator = "idGenerator") @Column(name = "master_pk_1") private long masterPk1; @OneToMany(cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @JoinColumn(name = "master_pk_1", referencedColumnName = "master_pk_1") private List<Details> details = new ArrayList<Details>(); And in the details class I have defined the id and back reference like this: @EmbeddedId @AttributeOverrides( { @AttributeOverride( name = "masterPk1", column = @Column(name = "master_pk_1")), @AttributeOverride(name = "detailsPk2", column = @Column(name = "details_pk_2")), @AttributeOverride(name = "detailsPk2", column = @Column(name = "details_pk_2")) }) private DetailsPrimaryKey detailsPrimaryKey = new DetailsPrimaryKey(); @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name = "master_pk_1", referencedColumnName = "master_pk_1", insertable=false) private Master master; The goal of all of this was that I could create a new master, add some details to it, and when saved, JPA/Hibernate would generate the new id for master in the masterPk1 field, and automatically pass it down to the details records, storing it in the matching masterPk1 field in the DetailsPrimaryKey class. At least that's what the documentation I've been looking at implies. What actually happens is that hibernate appears to corectly create and update the records in the database, but not pass the key to the details classes in memory. Instead I have to manually set it myself. I also found that without the insertable=true added to the back reference to master, that hibernate would create sql that had the master_pk_1 field listed twice in the insert statement, resulting in the database throwing an exception. My question is simply is this arrangement of annotations correct? or is there a better way of doing it?

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  • Top Container Background Problem

    - by Norbert
    Here's a screenshot: http://dl.getdropbox.com/u/118004/Screen%20shot%202010-04-13%20at%202.50.49%20PM.png The red bar on the left is the background I set for the #personal div and I would like it to align to the top of the container, vertically. The problem is that I have a background for the #container-top div on top of the #container div with absolute positioning. Is there any way to move the #personal div up so there would be no space left? HTML <div id="container"> <div id="container-top"></div> <div id="personal"> <h1>Jonathan Doe</h1> <p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetuer adipiscing elit, sed diam nonummy nibh euismod tincidunt ut laoreet dolore magna aliqua erat volutpat.</p> </div> <!-- end #personal --> </div> <!-- end #container --> CSS #container { background: url(images/bg-mid.png) repeat-y top center; width: 835px; margin: 40px auto; position: relative; } #container-top { background: url(images/bg-top.png) no-repeat top center; position: absolute; height: 12px; width: 835px; top: -12px; } #container-bottom { background: url(images/bg-bottom.png) no-repeat top center; position: absolute; height: 27px; width: 835px; bottom: -27px; } #personal { background: url(images/personal-info.png) no-repeat 0px left; }

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  • jQuery, html5, append()/appendTo() and IE

    - by karbassi
    How to replicate: Create an html5 page. Make sure you have the script from remysharp.com/2009/01/07/html5-enabling-script/ added so that IE will notice the tags. Create an hardcoded <section id='anything'></section> tag. Using jQuery 1.3.2, append another section tag: $('#anything').append('<section id="whatever"></section>'); So far, everything works in all the browsers. Repeat the previous step. $('#whatever').append('<section id="fail"></section>'); This is where IE6/7 fails. Firefox/Safari will continue working. Error This is the error displayed. Thoughts It could be that IE6/7 can't handle the HTML5 section tag. I say this because when I change step 4 from <section> to <div>, IE6/7 will start working. If I use document.createElement() and create my new element, it works, but it seems like jQuery's append() has a problem with html5 elements.

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  • RESTful API design question - how should one allow users to create new resource instances?

    - by Tamás
    I'm working in a research group where we intend to publish implementations of some of the algorithms we develop on the web via a RESTful API. Most of these algorithms work on small to medium size datasets, and in many cases, a user of our services might want to run multiple queries (with different parameters) on the same dataset, so for me it seems reasonable to allow users to upload their datasets in advance and refer to them in their queries later. In this sense, a dataset could be a resource in my API, and an algorithm could be another. My question is: how should I let the users upload their own datasets? I cannot simply let users upload their data to /dataset/dataset_id as letting the users invent their own dataset_ids might result in ID collision and users overwriting each other's datasets by accident. (I believe one of the most frequently used dataset ID would be test). I think an ideal way would be to have a dedicated URL (like /dataset/upload) where users can POST their datasets and the response would contain a unique ID under which the dataset was stored, but I'm not sure that it does not violate the basic principles of REST. What is the preferred way of dealing with such scenarios?

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  • Testing a scoped find in a Rails controller with RSpec

    - by Joseph DelCioppio
    I've got a controller called SolutionsController whose index action is different depending on the value of params[:user_id]. If its nil, then it simply displays all of the solutions on my site, but if its not nil, then it displays all of the solutions for the given user id. Here it is: def index if(params[:user_id]) @solutions = @user.solutions.find(:all) else @solutions = Solution.find(:all) end end and @user is determined like this: private def load_user if(params[:user_id ]) @user = User.find(params[:user_id]) end end I've got an Rspec test to test the index action if the user is nil: describe "GET index" do context "when user_id is nil" do it "should find all of the solutions" do Solution.should_receive(:find).with(:all).and_return(@solutions) get :index end end end however, can someone tell me how I write a similar test for the other half of my controller, when the user id isn't nil? Something like: describe "GET index" do context "when user_id isn't nil" do before(:each) do @user = Factory.create(:user) @solutions = 7.times{Factory.build(:solution, :user => @user)} @user.stub!(:solutions).and_return(@solutions) end it "should find all of the solutions owned by a user" do @user.should_receive(:solutions).and_return(@solutions) get :index, :user_id => @user.id end end end But that doesn't work. Can someone help me out? Joe

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  • Testing a scoped find in a Rails controller with RSpec

    - by Joseph DelCioppio
    I've got a controller called SolutionsController whose index action is different depending on the value of params[:user_id]. If its nil, then it simply displays all of the solutions on my site, but if its not nil, then it displays all of the solutions for the given user id. Here it is: def index if(params[:user_id]) @solutions = @user.solutions.find(:all) else @solutions = Solution.find(:all) end end and @user is determined like this: private def load_user if(params[:user_id ]) @user = User.find(params[:user_id]) end end I've got an Rspec test to test the index action if the user is nil: describe "GET index" do context "when user_id is nil" do it "should find all of the solutions" do Solution.should_receive(:find).with(:all).and_return(@solutions) get :index end end end however, can someone tell me how I write a similar test for the other half of my controller, when the user id isn't nil? Something like: describe "GET index" do context "when user_id isn't nil" do before(:each) do @user = Factory.create(:user) @solutions = 7.times{Factory.build(:solution, :user => @user)} @user.stub!(:solutions).and_return(@solutions) end it "should find all of the solutions owned by a user" do @user.should_receive(:solutions).and_return(@solutions) get :index, :user_id => @user.id end end end But that doesn't work. Can someone help me out? Joe

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  • External API function calls AS3 control timeline

    - by giles
    I have function problem using this code (below), the embedded flash movieclip disappears or completely prevents the scrollto.js query to function in DW cs3. Communication between Flash and JavaScript is without problems, it is the call back I can't find to work and more frustratingly, should be simple, as no values are not required. So far, this has been hours of scouring the net without a workable end in sight...ahrr. What is a function for this to work? JavaScript – to call Flash event from HTML button link, placed between head tags function callExternalInterface() var flashMovie = window.document.menu; flashMovie.menu_up(value); menu_up is the string. Does anyone know of workable function for callback?? HTML <div id="btn_up"><a href="#top" name="charDev" id="charDev" onclick="">top</a></div> Pane navigation div that uses Scrollto.js query, and it's this link I need calling back to the embedded "menubtns.swf" (nested in "AS3Menu_javascript.swf") to play 5 frames of this movieclip, via a JS function. Embedded .swf code, using swfobject.js with allowScriptAccess=always <object classid="clsid:D27CDB6E-AE6D-11cf-96B8-444553540000" name="menu"<br/> width="251" height="251" id="menu"> <param name="movie" value="../~Assets/Flash/AS3Menu_javascript.swf" /> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="always" /> <param name="movie" value="ExternalInterfaceScript.swf" /> <param name="quality" value="high" /> <object type="application/x-shockwave-flash" data="../~Assets/Flash/AS3Menu_javascript.swf" width="250" height="250"> <p>Alternative content</p> </object> </object> AS3 / Flash import flash.external.ExternalInterface;flash.system.Security.allowDomain(/sourceDomain/); ExternalInterface.addCallBack("menu_up", this, resetmenu); function resetmenu(){ gotoAndPlay:("frame label" / "number") }

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  • How do i bind an image to a <asp:Image /> tag in Form View

    - by Ranhiru
    First i have a getProfileImage.aspx which accepts a CusID and TN as query strings and display n image. So getProfileImage.aspx?CusID=10&TN=Y will show the image fine in the browser :) But... Now i am presented with a Form View and i want to bind the src of the image to get the image from the getProfileImage.aspx page... The following code works fine :) 10 is the customer ID and the image is working fine... <asp:Image ID="Image1" runat="server" Height="151px" ImageUrl='~/getProfileImage.aspx?CusID=10&TN=N' /> But now i want to Bind the CusID value... <asp:Image ID="Image1" runat="server" Height="151px" ImageUrl='~/getProfileImage.aspx?CusID=<%# Bind("CusID") %>&TN=N' /> This simply does not work :( The getProfileImage.aspx is called with CusID=<%... where the way i see it the <%# Bind("CusID") % is not parsed by ASP which would have returned 10... <%# Bind("CusID") %> The above tag alone will work... but inserting it to the middle of the tag seems to break it... Any suggestions ? Thanx a lot in advance :)

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  • Fck editor problem

    - by Josemalive
    Hi, Im using FCK Editor control instead a textarea element. I installed it without problems. But when i want to validate it with a Custom validator of ASP.Net 2.0, im not getting the result expected. These lines are the code that i have: <textarea style="width:30px;height:20px;" class="ckeditor" id="txtdescription" runat="server" name="txtdescription" cols="5" rows="10"></textarea> <asp:CustomValidator id="descval" runat="server" ControlToValidate="txtdescription" EnableClientScript="true" Enabled="true" ValidateEmptyText="true" Display="Dynamic" ClientValidationFunction="ValidateTextDesc" Text="*" ErrorMessage="*"/> <asp:Button ID="buttonadd" runat="server" Text="Add text" OnClick="buttonadd_Click" /> And my javascript code that executes the CustomValidator client function is: function ValidateTextDesc(source, args) { var descriptiontext = document.getElementById("txtdescription"); if ((descriptiontext.value.indexOf("<script") != -1) || (descriptiontext.value.length==0)) { args.IsValid=false; } else { args.IsValid = true; } return args.IsValid; } My problem is that i have to click twice my submit button to execute this Client function: Do you know why this issue is happening? Thanks in advance. Regards. Josema.

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  • How to continuously scroll content within a DIV using jQuery?

    - by Camsoft
    Aim The aim is to a have a container DIV with a fixed height and width and have the HTML content within that DIV automatically scroll vertically continuously. Question Basically I've created the code below using jQuery to scroll (move) the child DIV vertically upwards until its outside the bounding parent box where the animation then completes which triggers an event handler which resets the position of the child DIV and starts the process again. This works fine, so the content scrolls up leaving a blank space and then starts from the bottom again and scrolls up. The problem I have is that the requirements for this is for the content to appear as if it was continuously repeating, see below diagram to better explain this, is there a way to do this? (I don't want to use 3rd party plug ins or libraries other than jQuery): What I have so far The HTML: <div id="scrollingContainer"> <div class="scroller"> <h1>This is a title</h1> <p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Suspendisse at orci mi, id gravida tellus. Integer malesuada ante sit amet enim pulvinar congue. Donec pulvinar dolor et arcu posuere feugiat id et felis.</p> <p>More content....</p> </div> </div> The CSS: #scrollingContainer{ height: 300px; width: 300px; overflow: hidden; } #scrollingContainer DIV.scroller{ position: relative; } The JavaScript: /** * Scrolls the content DIV */ function scroll() { if($('DIV.scroller').height() > $('#scrollingContainer').height()) { var t = $('DIV.scroller').position().top + $('DIV.scroller').height(); /* Animate */ $('DIV.scroller').animate( { top: '-=' + t + 'px' } , 4000, 'linear', animationComplete); } } function animationComplete() { $(this).css('top', $('#scrollingContainer').height()); scroll(); }

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  • How would I write the following applescript in Obj-C AppScript? ASTranslate was of no help =(

    - by demonslayer319
    The translation tool isn't able to translate this working code. I copied it out of a working script. set pathToTemp to (POSIX path of ((path to desktop) as string)) -- change jpg to pict tell application "Image Events" try launch set albumArt to open file (pathToTemp & "albumart.jpg") save albumArt as PICT in file (pathToTemp & "albumart.pict") --the first 512 bytes are the PICT header, so it reads from byte 513 --this is to allow the image to be added to an iTunes track later. set albumArt to (read file (pathToTemp & "albumart.pict") from 513 as picture) close end try end tell The code is taking a jpg image, converting it to a PICT file, and then reading the file minus the header (the first 512 bytes). Later in the script, albumArt will be added to an iTunes track. I tried translating the code (minus the comments), but ASTranslate froze for a good 2 minutes before giving me this: Untranslated event 'earsffdr' #import "IEGlue/IEGlue.h" IEApplication *imageEvents = [IEApplication applicationWithName: @"Image Events"]; IELaunchCommand *cmd = [[imageEvents launch] ignoreReply]; id result = [cmd send]; #import "IEGlue/IEGlue.h" IEApplication *imageEvents = [IEApplication applicationWithName: @"Image Events"]; IEReference *ref = [[imageEvents files] byName: @"/Users/Doom/Desktop/albumart.jpg"]; id result = [[ref open] send]; #import "IEGlue/IEGlue.h" IEApplication *imageEvents = [IEApplication applicationWithName: @"Image Events"]; IEReference *ref = [[imageEvents images] byName: @"albumart.jpg"]; IESaveCommand *cmd = [[[ref save] in: [[imageEvents files] byName: @"/Users/Doom/Desktop/albumart.pict"]] as: [IEConstant PICT]]; id result = [cmd send]; 'crdwrread' Traceback (most recent call last): File "objcrenderer.pyc", line 283, in renderCommand KeyError: 'crdwrread' 'cascrgdut' Traceback (most recent call last): File "objcrenderer.pyc", line 283, in renderCommand KeyError: 'cascrgdut' 'crdwrread' Traceback (most recent call last): File "objcrenderer.pyc", line 283, in renderCommand KeyError: 'crdwrread' Untranslated event 'rdwrread' OK I have no clue how to make sense of this. Thanks for any and all help!

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  • Android : Customizing tabs on state : How do I make a selector a drawable

    - by Chrispix
    I know how to put the icon on each tab, that is no problem. I also ran across this : Stack Overflow thread on pretty much same thing I followed one of the links from that question, and found this Pretty much, it said use a selector defined in the xml, sure, did that. But there is no id associated w/ it so I am not sure how to get the selector function as a drawable so I can use it as the icon for the tabs. Maybe I am going about this the wrong way.. But this is what I have, and obviously missing something. <selector android:id="@+id/myselector" xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <!-- Non focused states --> <item android:state_focused="false" android:state_selected="false" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/darklogo" /> <item android:state_focused="false" android:state_selected="true" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" /> <!-- Focused states --> <item android:state_focused="true" android:state_selected="false" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" /> <item android:state_focused="true" android:state_selected="true" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" /> <!-- Pressed --> <item android:state_pressed="true" android:drawable="@drawable/lightlogo" /> </selector> In my code, an example tab is generated using : host.addTab(host.newTabSpec("three") .setIndicator("map",drawables) .setContent(new Intent(this, Map.class))); Right now drawables is just a reference to an drawable image resource. How do I make the selector a drawable? * This is my question *

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  • problem on ajax call

    - by praveen
    hi i am using mootools ajax request in my project. its works properly but when i make request for it aborted first time and second time request mad. consequently abortion of request increase by one at each click. my code is following function addStepConfiguration(id,mystrip,comment,error,submitid) { // alert(id+'\n'+mystrip+'\n'+comment+'\n'+error+'\n'+submitid.value); $(id).addEvent('submit', function(e) { e.stop(); this.set('send', { onRequest:function(html){ $(submitid).setStyle('display','none'); loading_Img(); }, onComplete: function(responseText) { $('loading_img').innerHTML = ''; SplittedResText = responseText.split("|"); s //alert(SplittedResText); if(SplittedResText[1]=='undefined') { $(error).innerHTML=SplittedResText[0]; $(submitid).setStyle('display','block'); } else { $(comment).innerHTML=SplittedResText[0]; $(mystrip).set('class',SplittedResText[1]); //$(image).setProperty('src',SplittedResText[2]); removeMsg.delay(20,'',error); removeMsg.delay(3000,'',comment); $(submitid).setStyle('display','block'); } } }); this.send(); }); }

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  • Selenium onChange not working

    - by tohop
    Hi, I have tried a number of things to try and get Selenium to pick up an 'onchange' event from a drop down menu, none of which has worked. The offending HTML is: <select onchange="doOpperation(this.options[this.selectedIndex]); this.selectedIndex = 0;" name="opps_ondemand" id="opps_ondemand"> <option value="none" id="ondemand">Mark as...</option> <option cmd="blah1" value="add">Something</option> <option cmd="blah2" value="remove">None</option> </select> I have read that Selenium IDE doesn't record some on* events, and so it would be wise to use fireEvent(): $this->click("opps_ondemand"); $this->select("opps_ondemand", "label=Mark as..."); $this->click("//option[@value='add']"); sleep(3); $this->fireEvent("//select[@id='opps_ondemand']", "change"); However, this does not work (with or without the fireEvent). I have also tried using $this->fireEvent("locator", "click"); instead of $this->click("locator"); but this did nothing. Selenium does not complain about these locators not existing so I am assuming it can see the select/option elements fine. The problem seems to be the onChange event. Does anyone know how to resolve this? Thanks.

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