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  • Validating String Characters as Numeric w/ Pascal (FastReport 4)

    - by user2525015
    I'm new to Pascal and FastReport. This question can probably be answered without knowledge of FastReport. Pascal is Delphi. FastReport4. I have a text box accepting an 8 character string as input. Each character should be numeric. I'm attempting to validate each character as numeric. I've tried using the val function... Procedure Val(S : String; var R: Real; Code : Integer); begin end; procedure thisinputOnChange(Sender: TfrxComponent); var S : String; error : Integer; R : Real; begin S := thisinput.lines.text; Val (S, R, error); If error > 0 then Button2.enabled := False; end; I got this code online. The explanation says that the function will return an error with a code greater than zero if the character cannot be converted to an integer. Is that explanation correct? Am I misinterpreting? Right now I am trying to set a button's enabled property to false if the validation fails. I might change that to a message. For now, I would like to get it to work by setting the button property. I'm not sure if I should be using the onChange event or another event. I'm also not sure if I need to send the input to the val function in a loop. Like I said, I'm just learning how to use this function. I am able to validate the length. This code works... procedure thisinputOnChange(Sender: TfrxComponent); begin if length(thisinput.lines.text) = 8 then Button2.enabled := True; end; Any suggestions? Should I use the val function or something else? Let me know if I need to provide more info. I might not be able to check back until later, though. Thanks for any help.

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  • Spring <jee:remote-slsb> and JBoss AS7 - No EJB receiver available for handling

    - by Lech Glowiak
    I have got @Remote EJB on JBoss AS 7, available by name java:global/RandomEjb/DefaultRemoteRandom!pl.lechglowiak.ejbTest.RemoteRandom. Standalone client is Spring application that uses <jee:remote-slsb> bean. When trying to use that bean I get java.lang.IllegalStateException: EJBCLIENT000025: No EJB receiver available for handling [appName:, moduleName:RandomEjb, distinctName:] combination for invocation context org.jboss.ejb.client.EJBClientInvocationContext@1a89031. Here is relevant part of applicationContext.xml: <jee:remote-slsb id="remoteRandom" jndi-name="RandomEjb/DefaultRemoteRandom!pl.lechglowiak.ejbTest.RemoteRandom" business-interface="pl.lechglowiak.ejbTest.RemoteRandom" <jee:environment> java.naming.factory.initial=org.jboss.naming.remote.client.InitialContextFactory java.naming.provider.url=remote://localhost:4447 jboss.naming.client.ejb.context=true java.naming.security.principal=testuser java.naming.security.credentials=testpassword </jee:environment> </jee:remote-slsb> <bean id="remoteClient" class="pl.lechglowiak.RemoteClient"> <property name="remote" ref="remoteRandom" /> </bean> RemoteClient.java public class RemoteClient { private RemoteRandom random; public void setRemote(RemoteRandom random){ this.random = random; } public Integer callRandom(){ try { return random.getRandom(100); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); return null; } } } My jboss client jar: org.jboss.as jboss-as-ejb-client-bom 7.1.2.Final pom pl.lechglowiak.ejbTest.RemoteRandom is available for client application classpath. jndi.properties contains exact properties as in <jee:environment> of <jee:remote-slsb>. Such code runs without exception: Context ctx2 = new InitialContext(); RemoteRandom rr = (RemoteRandom) ctx2.lookup("RandomEjb/DefaultRemoteRandom!pl.lechglowiak.ejbTest.RemoteRandom"); System.out.println(rr.getRandom(10000)); But this: ApplicationContext ctx = new ClassPathXmlApplicationContext("applicationContext.xml"); RemoteClient client = ctx.getBean("remoteClient", RemoteClient.class); System.out.println(client.callRandom()); ends with exception: java.lang.IllegalStateException: EJBCLIENT000025: No EJB receiver available for handling [appName:, moduleName:RandomEjb, distinctName:] combination for invocation context org.jboss.ejb.client.EJBClientInvocationContext@1a89031. jboss.naming.client.ejb.context=true is set. Do you have any idea what am I setting wrong in <jee:remote-slsb>?

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  • Autoloading Development or Production configs (best practices)

    - by Xeoncross
    When programming sites you usually have one set of config files for the development environment and another set for the production server (or one file with both settings). I am assuming all projects should be handled by version control like git or svn. Manual file transfers (like FTP) is wrong on so many levels. How you enable/disable the correct settings (so that your system knows which ones to use) is a problem for me. Each system I work on just kind of jimmy-rigs a solution. Below are the 3 methods I know of and I am hoping that someone can submit a more elegant solutions. 1) File Based The system loads a folder structure based on the URL requested. /site.com /site.fakeTLD /lib index.php For example, if the url is http://site.com then the system loads the production config files located in the site.com folder. However, if I'm working on the site locally I visit http://site.fakeTLD to work on the local copy of the site. To setup this I edit my hosts file and add site.fakeTLD to point to my own computer (127.0.0.1/localhost) and then create a vhost in apache. So now I can work on the codebase locally and then push to the server without any trouble. The problem is that this is susceptible to a "host" injection attack. So someone loading site.com could set the host to site.fakeTLD and then the system would load my development config files instead of production. 2) Config Based The config files contain on section for development - and one for production. The problem is that each time you go to push your changes to the repo you have to edit the file to specify which set of config options should be used. $use = 'production'; //'development'; This leaves the repo open to human error should one of the developers forget to enable the right setting. 3) File System Check Based All the development machines have an extra empty file called "development.txt" or something. Each time the system loads it checks for this file - if found then it knows it is in development mode - if missing then it knows it is in production mode. Since the file is NEVER ADDED to the repo then it will never be pushed (and checked out) on the production machine. However, this just doesn't feel right and causes a slight slow down since all filesystem checks are slow. Is there anyway that the server can auto-detect wither to use the development or production configs?

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  • Playing dynamically embedded sound object via Javascript

    - by Vikram Goyal
    I need to background load some WAV files for an HTML page using AJAX. I use AJAX to get the details of the WAV files, then use the embed tag, and I can confirm that the files have loaded successfully because when I set autostart to true, the files play. However, I need the files to play only when the user clicks on a button (or an event is fired). The following is my code to preload these files: function preloadMedia() { for(var i = 0; i < testQuestions.length; i++) { var soundEmbed = document.createElement("embed"); soundEmbed.setAttribute("src", "/media/sounds/" + testQuestions[i].mediaFile); soundEmbed.setAttribute("hidden", true); soundEmbed.setAttribute("id", testQuestions[i].id); soundEmbed.setAttribute("autostart", false); soundEmbed.setAttribute("width", 0); soundEmbed.setAttribute("height", 0); soundEmbed.setAttribute("enablejavascript", true); document.body.appendChild((soundEmbed)); } } I use the following code to play the file (based on what sound file that user wants to play) function soundPlay(which) { var sounder = document.getElementById(which); sounder.Play(); } Something is wrong here, as none of the browsers I have tested on play the files using the code above. There are no errors, and the code just returns. I would have left it at that (that is - I would have convinced the client to convert all WAV's to MP3 and use MooTools). But I realized that I could play the sound files, which were not dynamically embeded. Thus, the same soundPlay function would work for a file embeded in the following manner: <embed src="/media/sounds/hug_sw1.wav" id="sound2" width="0" heigh="0" autostart="false" enablejavascript="true"/> anywhere within the HTML. And it plays well in all the browsers. Anyone have a clue on this? Is this some sort of undocumented security restriction in all the browsers? (Please remember that the files do get preloaded dynamically, as I can confirm by setting the autostart property to true - They all play). Any help appreciated.

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  • Creating a tiled map with blender

    - by JamesB
    I'm looking at creating map tiles based on a 3D model made in blender, The map is 16 x 16 in blender. I've got 4 different zoom levels and each tile is 100 x 100 pixels. The entire map at the most zoomed out level is 4 x 4 tiles constructing an image of 400 x 400. The most zoomed in level is 256 x 256 obviously constructing an image of 25600 x 25600 What I need is a script for blender that can create the tiles from the model. I've never written in python before so I've been trying to adapt a couple of the scripts which are already there. So far I've come up with a script, but it doesn't work very well. I'm having real difficulties getting the tiles to line up seamlessly. I'm not too concerned about changing the height of the camera as I can always create the same zoomed out tiles at 6400 x 6400 images and split the resulting images into the correct tiles. Here is what I've got so far... #!BPY """ Name: 'Export Map Tiles' Blender: '242' Group: 'Export' Tip: 'Export to Map' """ import Blender from Blender import Scene,sys from Blender.Scene import Render def init(): thumbsize = 200 CameraHeight = 4.4 YStart = -8 YMove = 4 XStart = -8 XMove = 4 ZoomLevel = 1 Path = "/Images/Map/" Blender.drawmap = [thumbsize,CameraHeight,YStart,YMove,XStart,XMove,ZoomLevel,Path] def show_prefs(): buttonthumbsize = Blender.Draw.Create(Blender.drawmap[0]); buttonCameraHeight = Blender.Draw.Create(Blender.drawmap[1]) buttonYStart = Blender.Draw.Create(Blender.drawmap[2]) buttonYMove = Blender.Draw.Create(Blender.drawmap[3]) buttonXStart = Blender.Draw.Create(Blender.drawmap[4]) buttonXMove = Blender.Draw.Create(Blender.drawmap[5]) buttonZoomLevel = Blender.Draw.Create(Blender.drawmap[6]) buttonPath = Blender.Draw.Create(Blender.drawmap[7]) block = [] block.append(("Image Size", buttonthumbsize, 0, 500)) block.append(("Camera Height", buttonCameraHeight, -0, 10)) block.append(("Y Start", buttonYStart, -10, 10)) block.append(("Y Move", buttonYMove, 0, 5)) block.append(("X Start", buttonXStart,-10, 10)) block.append(("X Move", buttonXMove, 0, 5)) block.append(("Zoom Level", buttonZoomLevel, 1, 10)) block.append(("Export Path", buttonPath,0,200,"The Path to save the tiles")) retval = Blender.Draw.PupBlock("Draw Map: Preferences" , block) if retval: Blender.drawmap[0] = buttonthumbsize.val Blender.drawmap[1] = buttonCameraHeight.val Blender.drawmap[2] = buttonYStart.val Blender.drawmap[3] = buttonYMove.val Blender.drawmap[4] = buttonXStart.val Blender.drawmap[5] = buttonXMove.val Blender.drawmap[6] = buttonZoomLevel.val Blender.drawmap[7] = buttonPath.val Export() def Export(): scn = Scene.GetCurrent() context = scn.getRenderingContext() def cutStr(str): #cut off path leaving name c = str.find("\\") while c != -1: c = c + 1 str = str[c:] c = str.find("\\") str = str[:-6] return str #variables from gui: thumbsize,CameraHeight,YStart,YMove,XStart,XMove,ZoomLevel,Path = Blender.drawmap XMove = XMove / ZoomLevel YMove = YMove / ZoomLevel Camera = Scene.GetCurrent().getCurrentCamera() Camera.LocZ = CameraHeight / ZoomLevel YStart = YStart + (YMove / 2) XStart = XStart + (XMove / 2) #Point it straight down Camera.RotX = 0 Camera.RotY = 0 Camera.RotZ = 0 TileCount = 4**ZoomLevel #Because the first thing we do is move the camera, start it off the map Camera.LocY = YStart - YMove for i in range(0,TileCount): Camera.LocY = Camera.LocY + YMove Camera.LocX = XStart - XMove for j in range(0,TileCount): Camera.LocX = Camera.LocX + XMove Render.EnableDispWin() context.extensions = True context.renderPath = Path #setting thumbsize context.imageSizeX(thumbsize) context.imageSizeY(thumbsize) #could be put into a gui. context.imageType = Render.PNG context.enableOversampling(0) #render context.render() #save image ZasString = '%s' %(int(ZoomLevel)) XasString = '%s' %(int(j+1)) YasString = '%s' %(int((3-i)+1)) context.saveRenderedImage("Z" + ZasString + "X" + XasString + "Y" + YasString) #close the windows Render.CloseRenderWindow() try: type(Blender.drawmap) except: #print 'initialize extern variables' init() show_prefs()

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  • Adb shell commands to change settings or perform tasks on a phone

    - by Noah
    How do I use adb to perform some automated tasks on my android phone? I need to find commands that I can issue from the command line (ideally, using a .bat file) that will be capable of more than simply opening an application or sending an input keyevent (button press). For instance, I want to toggle Airplane Mode on or off from the command line. Currently, the best I can do is launch the Wireless & network settings menu and then use input keyevents to click Airplane mode: adb shell am start -a android.settings.AIRPLANE_MODE_SETTINGS adb shell input keyevent 19 & adb shell input keyevent 23 There are quite a few drawbacks to this method, primarily that the screen has to be on and unlocked. Also, the tasks I want to do are much broader than this simple example. Other things I'd like to do if possible: 1.Play an mp3 and set it on repeat. Current solution: adb shell am start -n com.android.music/.MusicBrowserActivity adb shell input keyevent 84 adb shell input keyevent 56 & adb shell input keyevent 66 & adb shell input keyevent 67 & adb shell input keyevent 19 adb shell input keyevent 23 & adb shell input keyevent 21 adb shell input keyevent 19 & adb shell input keyevent 19 & adb shell input keyevent 19 & adb shell input keyevent 22 & adb shell input keyevent 22 & adb shell input keyevent 23 & adb shell input keyevent 23 2.Play a video. (current solution: open MediaGallery, send keyevents, similar to above) 3.Change the volume (current solution: send volume-up button keyevents) 4.Change the display timeout (current solution: open sound & display settings, send keyevents) As before, these all require the screen to be on and unlocked. The other major drawback to using keyevents is if the UI of the application is changed, the keyevents will no longer perform the correct function. If there is no easier way to do these sort of things, is there at least a way to turn the screen on (using adb) when it is off? Or to have keyevents still work when the screen is off? I'm not very familiar with java. That said, I've seen code like the following (source: http://yenliangl.blogspot.com/2009/12/toggle-airplane-mode.html) to change a setting on the phone: Settings.System.putInt(Settings.System.AIRPLANE_MODE_ON, 1 /* 1 or 0 */); How do I translate something like the above into an adb shell command? Is this possible, or the wrong way to think about it? I can provide more details if needed. Thanks!

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  • How do I prevent the concurrent execution of a javascript function?

    - by RyanV
    I am making a ticker similar to the "From the AP" one at The Huffington Post, using jQuery. The ticker rotates through a ul, either by user command (clicking an arrow) or by an auto-scroll. Each list-item is display:none by default. It is revealed by the addition of a "showHeadline" class which is display:list-item. HTML for the UL Looks like this: <ul class="news" id="news"> <li class="tickerTitle showHeadline">Test Entry</li> <li class="tickerTitle">Test Entry2</li> <li class="tickerTitle">Test Entry3</li> </ul> When the user clicks the right arrow, or the auto-scroll setTimeout goes off, it runs a tickForward() function: function tickForward(){ var $active = $('#news li.showHeadline'); var $next = $active.next(); if($next.length==0) $next = $('#news li:first'); $active.stop(true, true); $active.fadeOut('slow', function() {$active.removeClass('showHeadline');}); setTimeout(function(){$next.fadeIn('slow', function(){$next.addClass('showHeadline');})}, 1000); if(isPaused == true){ } else{ startScroll() } }; This is heavily inspired by Jon Raasch's A Simple jQuery Slideshow. Basically, find what's visible, what should be visible next, make the visible thing fade and remove the class that marks it as visible, then fade in the next thing and add the class that makes it visible. Now, everything is hunky-dory if the auto-scroll is running, kicking off tickForward() once every three seconds. But if the user clicks the arrow button repeatedly, it creates two negative conditions: Rather than advance quickly through the list for just the number of clicks made, it continues scrolling at a faster-than-normal rate indefinitely. It can produce a situation where two (or more) list items are given the .showHeadline class, so there's overlap on the list. I can see these happening (especially #2) because the tickForward() function can run concurrently with itself, producing different sets of $active and $next. So I think my question is: What would be the best way to prevent concurrent execution of the tickForward() method? Some things I have tried or considered: Setting a Flag: When tickForward() runs, it sets an isRunning flag to true, and sets it back to false right before it ends. The logic for the event handler is set to only call tickForward() if isRunning is false. I tried a simple implementation of this, and isRunning never appeared to be changed. The jQuery queue(): I think it would be useful to queue up the tickForward() commands, so if you clicked it five times quickly, it would still run as commanded but wouldn't run concurrently. However, in my cursory reading on the subject, it appears that a queue has to be attached to the object its queue applies to, and since my tickForward() method affects multiple lis, I don't know where I'd attach it.

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  • UTF8 encoding not working when using ajax.

    - by Ronedog
    I recently changed some of my pages to be displayed via ajax and I am having some confusion as to why the utf8 encoding is now displaying a question mark inside of a box, whereas before it wasn't. Fore example. The oringal page was index.php. charset was explicitly set to utf8 and is in the <head>. I then used php to query the database Heres is the original index.php page: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> <html lang="en"> <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <title>Title here</title> </head> <body class='body_bgcolor' > <div id="main_container"> <?php Data displayed via php was simply a select statement that output the HTML. ?> </div> However, when I made the change to add a menu that populated the "main_container" via ajax all the utf8 encoding stopped working. Here's the new code: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> <html lang="en"> <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <title>Title here</title> </head> <body class='body_bgcolor' > <a href="#" onclick="display_html('about_us');"> About Us </a> <div id="main_container"></div> The "display_html()" function calls the javascript page which uses jquery ajax call to retrieve the html stored inside a php page, then places the html inside the div with an id of "main_container". I'm setting the charset in jquery to be utf8 like: $.ajax({ async: false, type: "GET", url: url, contentType: "charset=utf-8", success: function(data) { $("#main_container").html(data); } }); What am I doing wrong?

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  • Populating ComboBoxDataColumn items and values

    - by MarceloRamires
    I have a "populate combobox", and I'm so happy with it that I've even started using more comboboxes. It takes the combobox object by reference with the ID of the "value set" (or whatever you want to call it) from a table and adds the items and their respective values (which differ) and does the job. I've recently had the brilliant idea of using comboboxes in a gridview, and I was happy to notice that it worked JUST LIKE a single combobox, but populating all the comboboxes in the given column at the same time. ObjComboBox.Items.Add("yadayada"); //works just like ObjComboBoxColumn.Items.Add("blablabla"); But When I started planning how to populate these comboboxes I've noticed: There's no "Values" property in ComboBoxDataColumn. ObjComboBox.Values = whateverArray; //works, but the following doesn't ObjComboBoxColumn.Values = whateverArray; Questions: 0 - How do I populate it's values ? (I suspect it's just as simple, but uses another name) 1 - If it works just like a combobox, what's the explanation for not having this attribute ? -----[EDIT]------ So I've checked out Charles' quote, and I've figured I had to change my way of populating these bad boys. Instead of looping through the strings and inserting them one by one in the combobox, I should grab the fields I want to populate in a table, and set one column of the table as the "value", and other one as the "display". So I've done this: ObjComboBoxColumn.DataSource = DTConfig; //Double checked, guaranteed to be populated ObjComboBoxColumn.ValueMember = "Code"; ObjComboBoxColumn.DisplayMember = "Description"; But nothing happens, if I use the same object as so: ObjComboBoxColumn.Items.Add("StackOverflow"); It is added. There is no DataBind() function. It finds the two columns, and that's guaranteed ("Code" and "Description") and if I change their names to nonexistant ones it gives me an exception, so that's a good sign. -----[EDIT]------ I have a table in SQL Server that is something like code  |  text —————    1    | foo    2    | bar It's simple, and with other comboboxes (outside of gridviews) i've successfully populated looping through the rows and adding the texts: ObjComboBox.Items.Add(MyDataTable.Rows[I]["MyColumnName"].ToString()); And getting every value, adding it into an array, and setting it like: ObjComboBox.Values = MyArray; I'd like to populate my comboboxColumns just as simply as I do with comboboxes.

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  • Cascade Saves with Fluent NHibernate AutoMapping - Old Anwser Still Valid?

    - by Glenn
    I want to do exactly what this question asks: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/586888/cascade-saves-with-fluent-nhibernate-automapping Using Fluent Nhibernate Mappings to turn on "cascade" globally once for all classes and relation types using one call rather than setting it for each mapping individually. The answer to the earlier question looks great, but I'm afraid that the Fluent Nhibernate API altered its .WithConvention syntax last year and broke the answer... either that or I'm missing something. I keep getting a bunch of name space not found errors relating to the IOneToOnePart, IManyToOnePart and all their variations: "The type or namespace name 'IOneToOnePart' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?)" I've tried the official example dll's, the RTM dll's and the latest build and none of them seem to make VS 2008 see the required namespace. The second problem is that I want to use the class with my AutoPersistenceModel but I'm not sure where to this line: .ConventionDiscovery.AddFromAssemblyOf() in my factory creation method. private static ISessionFactory CreateSessionFactory() { return Fluently.Configure() .Database(SQLiteConfiguration.Standard.UsingFile(DbFile)) .Mappings(m => m.AutoMappings .Add(AutoMap.AssemblyOf<Shelf>(type => type.Namespace.EndsWith("Entities")) .Override<Shelf>(map => { map.HasManyToMany(x => x.Products).Cascade.All(); }) ) )//emd mappings .ExposeConfiguration(BuildSchema) .BuildSessionFactory();//finalizes the whole thing to send back. } Below is the class and using statements I'm trying using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.IO; using FluentNHibernate.Conventions; using FluentNHibernate.Cfg; using FluentNHibernate.Cfg.Db; using NHibernate; using NHibernate.Cfg; using NHibernate.Tool.hbm2ddl; using FluentNHibernate.Mapping; namespace TestCode { public class CascadeAll : IHasOneConvention, IHasManyConvention, IReferenceConvention { public bool Accept(IOneToOnePart target) { return true; } public void Apply(IOneToOnePart target) { target.Cascade.All(); } public bool Accept(IOneToManyPart target) { return true; } public void Apply(IOneToManyPart target) { target.Cascade.All(); } public bool Accept(IManyToOnePart target) { return true; } public void Apply(IManyToOnePart target) { target.Cascade.All(); } } }

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  • How to optimize Core Data query for full text search

    - by dk
    Can I optimize a Core Data query when searching for matching words in a text? (This question also pertains to the wisdom of custom SQL versus Core Data on an iPhone.) I'm working on a new (iPhone) app that is a handheld reference tool for a scientific database. The main interface is a standard searchable table view and I want as-you-type response as the user types new words. Words matches must be prefixes of words in the text. The text is composed of 100,000s of words. In my prototype I coded SQL directly. I created a separate "words" table containing every word in the text fields of the main entity. I indexed words and performed searches along the lines of SELECT id, * FROM textTable JOIN (SELECT DISTINCT textTableId FROM words WHERE word BETWEEN 'foo' AND 'fooz' ) ON id=textTableId LIMIT 50 This runs very fast. Using an IN would probably work just as well, i.e. SELECT * FROM textTable WHERE id IN (SELECT textTableId FROM words WHERE word BETWEEN 'foo' AND 'fooz' ) LIMIT 50 The LIMIT is crucial and allows me to display results quickly. I notify the user that there are too many to display if the limit is reached. This is kludgy. I've spent the last several days pondering the advantages of moving to Core Data, but I worry about the lack of control in the schema, indexing, and querying for an important query. Theoretically an NSPredicate of textField MATCHES '.*\bfoo.*' would just work, but I'm sure it will be slow. This sort of text search seems so common that I wonder what is the usual attack? Would you create a words entity as I did above and use a predicate of "word BEGINSWITH 'foo'"? Will that work as fast as my prototype? Will Core Data automatically create the right indexes? I can't find any explicit means of advising the persistent store about indexes. I see some nice advantages of Core Data in my iPhone app. The faulting and other memory considerations allow for efficient database retrievals for tableview queries without setting arbitrary limits. The object graph management allows me to easily traverse entities without writing lots of SQL. Migration features will be nice in the future. On the other hand, in a limited resource environment (iPhone) I worry that an automatically generated database will be bloated with metadata, unnecessary inverse relationships, inefficient attribute datatypes, etc. Should I dive in or proceed with caution?

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  • Best way to handle multiple tables to replace one big table in Rails? (e.g. 'Books1', 'Books2', etc.

    - by mikep
    Hello, I've decided to use multiple tables for an entity (e.g. Books1, Books2, Books3, etc.), instead of just one main table which could end up having a lot of rows (e.g. just Books). I'm doing this to try and to avoid a potential future performance drop that could come with having too many rows in one table. With that, I'm looking for a good way to handle this in Rails, mainly by trying to avoid loading a bunch of unused associations. (I know that I could use a partition for this, but, for now, I've decided to go the 'multiple tables' route.) Each user has their books placed into a specific table. The actual book table is chosen when the user is created, and all of their books go into the same table. I'm going to split the adds across the tables. The goal is to try and keep each table pretty much even -- but that's a different issue. One thing I don't particularly want to have is a bunch of unused associations in the User class. Right now, it looks like I'd have to do the following: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :books1, :books2, :books3, :books4, :books5 end class Books1 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end class Books2 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end class Books3 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end I'm assuming that the main performance hit would come in terms of memory and possibly some method call overhead for each User object, since it has to load all of those associations, which in turn creates all of those nice, dynamic model accessor methods like User.find_by_. But for each specific user, only one of the book tables would be usable/applicable, since all of a user's books are stored in the same table. So, only one of the associations would be in use at any time and any other has_many :bookX association that was loaded would be a waste. For example, with a user.id of 2, I'd only need books3.find_by_author('Author'), but the way I'm thinking of setting this up, I'd still have access to Books1..n. I don't really know Ruby/Rails does internally with all of those has_many associations though, so maybe it's not so bad. But right now I'm thinking that it's really wasteful, and that there may just be a better, more efficient way of doing this. So, a few questions: 1) Is there's some sort of special Ruby/Rails methodology that could be applied to this 'multiple tables to represent one entity' scheme? Are there any 'best practices' for this? 2) Is it really bad to have so many unused has_many associations for each object? Is there a better way to do this? 3) Does anyone have any advice on how to abstract the fact that there's multiple book tables behind a single books model/class? For example, so I can call books.find_by_author('Author') instead of books3.find_by_author('Author'). Thank you!

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  • RVM can't switch to Ruby 1.9.1

    - by Marco
    I installed Ruby 1.8.7 through apt-get. I then installed 1.9.1 through RVM. The RVM 1.9.1 installation was successful: root: rvm install 1.9.1 <i>Installing Ruby from source to: /usr/local/rvm/rubies/ruby-1.9.1-p378 </i> <i>/usr/local/rvm/src/ruby-1.9.1-p378 has already been extracted. </i> <i>Configuring ruby-1.9.1-p378, this may take a while depending on your cpu(s)... </i> <i>Compiling ruby-1.9.1-p378, this may take a while, depending on your cpu(s)... </i> <i>Installing ruby-1.9.1-p378 </i> <i>Installation of ruby-1.9.1-p378 is complete. </i> <i>Updating rubygems for /usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378@global </i> <i>Updating rubygems for /usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378 </i> <i>adjusting shebangs for ruby-1.9.1-p378 (gem irb erb ri rdoc testrb rake). </i> <i>Installing gems for ruby-1.9.1-p378 (rdoc rake). </i> <i>Installing rdoc to /usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378@global </i> <i>Installing rdoc to /usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378 </i> <i>Installing rake to /usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378@global </i> <i>Installing rake to /usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378 </i> <i>Installation of gems for ruby-1.9.1-p378 is complete. </i> However, I cannot get RVM to switch to the new version: root: ruby -v ruby 1.8.7 (2008-08-11 patchlevel 72) [x86_64-linux] root: rvm 1.9.1 root: ruby -v ruby 1.8.7 (2008-08-11 patchlevel 72) [x86_64-linux] Despite that, it seems to have installed fine: root: /usr/local/rvm/bin/ruby-1.9.1-p378 -v ruby 1.9.1p378 (2010-01-10 revision 26273) [x86_64-linux] I also tried setting the rvm --default to 1.9.1 but that did not help. Why can't RVM switch to the new version? Should I just set an alias for ruby=1.9.1? *running Debian

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  • How to use imported css styles in GWT correctly

    - by Eduard Wirch
    Imagine you created the following simple widget with UiBinder: <!DOCTYPE ui:UiBinder SYSTEM "http://dl.google.com/gwt/DTD/xhtml.ent"> <ui:UiBinder xmlns:ui="urn:ui:com.google.gwt.uibinder" xmlns:g="urn:import:com.google.gwt.user.client.ui"> <ui:style type="my.package.Widget1.Widget1Style"> .childWidgetStyle { border-width: 1px; border-style: dotted; } </ui:style> <g:TextArea styleName="{style.childWidgetStyle}"/> </ui:UiBinder> package my.package; // some imports here public class Widget1 extends Composite { private static Widget1UiBinder uiBinder = GWT.create(Widget1UiBinder.class); interface Widget1UiBinder extends UiBinder<Widget, Widget1> { } public interface Widget1Style extends CssResource { String childWidgetStyle(); } @UiField TextArea textArea; public Widget1(String text) { initWidget(uiBinder.createAndBindUi(this)); textArea.setText(text); } } Than you use this simple widget in another (parent) widget you created: <!DOCTYPE ui:UiBinder SYSTEM "http://dl.google.com/gwt/DTD/xhtml.ent"> <ui:UiBinder xmlns:ui="urn:ui:com.google.gwt.uibinder" xmlns:g="urn:import:com.google.gwt.user.client.ui"> <ui:style> .parentWidgetStyle .childWidgetStyle { margin-bottom: 10px; } </ui:style> <g:VerticalPanel ui:field="listPanel" addStyleNames="{style.parentWidgetStyle}" /> </ui:UiBinder> package my.package; // imports go here public class ParentWidget extends Composite { private static ParentWidgetUiBinder uiBinder = GWT.create(ParentWidgetUiBinder.class); interface ParentWidgetUiBinder extends UiBinder<Widget, ParentWidget> { } @UiField VerticalPanel listPanel; public ParentWidget(final String... texts) { initWidget(uiBinder.createAndBindUi(this)); for (final String text : texts) { final Widget1 entry = new Widget1(text); listPanel.add(entry); } } } What you want to achieve is to get some margin between the Widget1 entries in the list using css. But this won't work. Because GWT will obfuscate the css names. And the obfuscated name for .childWidgetStyle in ParentWidget will be different from the .childWidgetStyle in Widget1. The resulting css will look similar to this: .G1unc9fbE { border-style:dotted; border-width:1px; } .G1unc9fbBB .G1unc9fDa { margin-bottom:10px; } So the margin setting wont apply. How do I do this correctly?

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  • Use a subdirectory as root with htaccess in Apache 1.3

    - by Andrew
    I'm trying to deploy a site generated with Jekyll and would like to keep the site in its own subfolder on my server to keep everything more organized. Essentially, I'd like to use the contents of /jekyll as the root unless a file similarly named exists in the actual web root. So something like /jekyll/sample-page/ would show as http://www.example.com/sample-page/, while something like /other-folder/ would display as http://www.example.com/other-folder. My test server runs Apache 2.2 and the following .htaccess (adapted from http://gist.github.com/97822) works flawlessly: RewriteEngine On # Map http://www.example.com to /jekyll. RewriteRule ^$ /jekyll/ [L] # Map http://www.example.com/x to /jekyll/x unless there is a x in the web root. RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/jekyll/ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /jekyll/$1 # Add trailing slash to directories without them so DirectoryIndex works. # This does not expose the internal URL. RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !/$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ $1/ # Disable auto-adding slashes to directories without them, since this happens # after mod_rewrite and exposes the rewritten internal URL, e.g. turning # http://www.example.com/about into http://www.example.com/jekyll/about. DirectorySlash off However, my production server runs Apache 1.3, which doesn't allow DirectorySlash. If I disable it, the server gives a 500 error because of internal redirect overload. If I comment out the last section of ReWriteConds and rules: RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !/$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ $1/ …everything mostly works: http://www.example.com/sample-page/ displays the correct content. However, if I omit the trailing slash, the URL in the address bar exposes the real internal URL structure: http://www.example.com/jekyll/sample-page/ What is the best way to account for directory slashes in Apache 1.3, where useful tools like DirectorySlash don't exist? How can I use the /jekyll/ directory as the site root without revealing the actual URL structure? Edit: After a ton of research into Apache 1.3, I've found that this problem is essentially a combination of two different issues listed at the Apache 1.3 URL Rewriting Guide. I have a (partially) moved DocumentRoot, which in theory would be taken care of with something like this: RewriteRule ^/$ /e/www/ [R] I also have the infamous "Trailing Slash Problem," which is solved by setting the RewriteBase (as was suggested in one of the responses below): RewriteBase /~quux/ RewriteRule ^foo$ foo/ [R] The problem is combining the two. Moving the document root doesn't (can't?) use RewriteBase—fixing trailing slashes requires(?) it… Hmm…

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  • Http Modules are called on every request when using mvc/routing module

    - by MartinF
    I am developing a http module that hooks into the FormsAuthentication Module through the Authenticate event. While debugging i noticed that the module (and all other modules registered) gets hit every single time the client requests a resource (also when it requests images, stylesheets, javascript files (etc.)). This happens both when running on a IIS 7 server in integrated pipeline mode, and debugging through the webdev server (in non- integrated pipeline mode) As i am developing a website with a lot images which usually wont be cached by the client browser it will hit the modules a lot of unnessecary times. I am using MVC and its routing mechanishm (System.Web.Routing.UrlRoutingModule). When creating a new website the runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests attribute for the IIS 7 (system.webServer) section is per default set to true in the web.config, which as the name indicates make it call all modules for every single request. If i set the runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests attribute to false, no modules will get called. It seems that the reason for this is because of the routing module or mvc (dont know excactly why), which causes that the asp.net (aspx) handler never gets called and therefore the events and the modules never gets called (one time only like supposed). I tested this by trying to call "mydomain.com/Default.aspx" instead of just "mydomain.com/" and correctly it calls the modules only once like it is supposed. How do i fix this so it only calls the modules once when the page is requested and not also when all other resources are requested ? Is there some way i can register that all requests should fire the asp.net (aspx) handler, except requests for specific filetype extensions ? Of course that wont fix the problem if i choose to go with urls like /content/images/myimage123 for the images (without the extension). But i cant think of any other way to fix it. Is there a better way to solve this problem ? I have tried to set up an ignoreRoute like this routes.IgnoreRoute("content/{*pathInfo}"); where the content folder contains all the images, javascripts and stylesheets in seperat subfolders, but it doesnt seem to change anything. I can see there a many different possibilites when setting up a handler but I cant seem to figure out how it should be possible to setup one that will make it possible to use the routing module and have urls like /blog/post123 and not call the modules when requesting images, javascripts and stylesheets (etc.). Hope anyone out there can help me ? Martin

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  • Java: error handling with try-catch, empty-try-catch, dummy-return

    - by HH
    A searh uses recursively defined function that easily throws exceptions. I have tried 3 ways to handle exeptions: to ignore with an empty-try-catch() add-dummy-return stop err-propagation due to exeption throw a specific except. (this part I don't really understand. If I throw except, can I force it to continue elsewhere, not continuing the old except-thrown-path?) Some exceptions I do not realy care like during execution removed files -exception (NullPointer) but some I really do like unknown things. Possible exceptions: // 1. if a temp-file or some other file removed during execution -> except. // 2. if no permiss. -> except. // 3. ? --> except. The code is Very import for the whole program. I earlier added clittered-checks, try-catches, avoided-empty-try-catches but it really blurred the logic. Some stoned result here would make the code later much easier to maintain. It was annoying to track random exeptions due to some random temp-file removal! How would you handle exceptions for the critical part? Code public class Find { private Stack<File> fs=new Stack<File>(); private Stack<File> ds=new Stack<File>(); public Stack<File> getD(){ return ds;} public Stack<File> getF(){ return fs;} public Find(String path) { // setting this type of special checks due to errs // propagation makes the code clittered if(path==null) { System.out.println("NULL in Find(path)"); System.exit(9); } this.walk(path); } private void walk( String path ) { File root = new File( path ); File[] list = root.listFiles(); //TODO: dangerous with empty try-catch?! try{ for ( File f : list ) { if ( f.isDirectory() ) { walk( f.getAbsolutePath() ); ds.push(f); } else { fs.push(f); } } }catch(Exception e){e.printStackTrace();} } } Code refactored from here.

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  • make an http post from server using user credentials - integrated security

    - by opensas
    I'm trying to make a post, from an asp classic server side page, using the user credentials... I'm using msxml2.ServerXMLHTTP to programatically make the post I've tried with several configurations in the IIS 5.1 site, but there's no way I can make IIS run with a specified account... I made a little asp page that runs whoami to verify what account the iis process i using... with IIS 5.1, using integrated security the process uses: my_machine\IWAM_my_machine I disable integrated security, and leave a domain account as anonymous access, and I get the same (¿?) to test the user I do the following private function whoami() dim shell, cmd set shell = createObject("wscript.shell") set cmd = shell.exec( server.mapPath( "whoami.exe" ) ) whoami = cmd.stdOut.readAll() set shell = nothing: set cmd = nothing end function is it because I'm issuing a shell command? I'd like to make http post calls, to another site that works with integrated security... So I need some way to pass the credentials, or at least to run with a specified account, and then configure the remote site to thrust that account... I thought that just setting the site to work with integrated security would be enough... How can I achieve such a thing? ps: with IIS6,happens the same but if I change the pool canfiguration I get the following info from whoami NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE NT AUTHORITY\LOCAL SERVICE NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM if I set a domain account, I get a "service unavailable" message... edit: found this http://www.microsoft.com/technet/prodtechnol/WindowsServer2003/Library/IIS/275269ee-1b9f-4869-8d72-c9006b5bd659.mspx?mfr=true it says what I supossed, "If an authenticated user makes a request, the thread token is based on the authenticated account of the user", but somehow I doesn't seem to work like that... what could I possibly be missing? edit: well the whoami thing is obviously fooling me, I tried with the following function private function whoami_db( serverName, dbName ) dim conn, data set conn = server.createObject("adodb.connection") conn.open "Provider=SQLOLEDB.1;Integrated Security=SSPI;" & _ "Initial Catalog=" & dbName & ";Data Source=" & serverName set data = conn.execute( "select suser_sname() as user_name" ) whoami_db = data("user_name") data.close: conn.close set data = nothing: set conn = nothing end function and everything seemed to be working fine... but how can I make msxml2.ServerXMLHTTP work with the user credentials???

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  • Occasional Date or timezone discrepancy in hudson or maven with jodatime

    - by TheStijn
    hi, I hope following explanation will make sense because it's a weird problem we're facing and hard to describe. We have a maven project which gets build in hudson and that contains some unit tests where dates are used and asserted. The hudson server runs on solaris. Now, occasionally (like 30% of the times) the unit tests using dates fail because 3,5 hours are deducted from the specified time in the unit test and hence asserts start failing. The other 70% everything works fine although nothing at all changed in the code and we run the hudson job several times an hour. I add following code to a unittest to check the time: @Test public void testDate() { System.out.println("new DateMidnight(2011, 1, 5).toDate();"); System.out.println(new DateMidnight(2011, 1, 5).toDate()); System.out.println(new DateMidnight(2011, 1, 5).toDate().getTime()); Calendar cal = Calendar.getInstance(); cal.set(Calendar.YEAR, 2011); cal.set(Calendar.MONTH, 0); cal.set(Calendar.DAY_OF_MONTH, 5); cal.set(Calendar.HOUR, 0); cal.set(Calendar.MINUTE, 0); cal.set(Calendar.SECOND, 0); cal.set(Calendar.MILLISECOND, 0); System.out.println("cal.getTime();"); System.out.println(cal.getTime()); System.out.println(cal.getTime().getTime()); } So basically it should print the same thing when using jodatime or plain old Calendar. This is the case in 70% of the runs; for the other 30% I get following printouts: Running TestSuite new DateMidnight(2011, 1, 5).toDate(); Tue Jan 04 21:30:00 MET 2011 1294173000000 cal.getTime(); Wed Jan 05 12:00:00 MET 2011 1294225200000 Local maven tests never appear the pose this problem and we can't figure out what could be the cause of it. Especially, we can't think of a single reason why the tests sometimes pass and sometimes fail without changing any code nor hudson or server setting. Also, we run the maven install with cobertura which means that the unit tests are run twice. It happens also that they pass the first time and fail the second time or the other way around or that they fail both times. Thanks for any help, Stijn

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  • Adding UIView animation mysteriously changes starting frame

    - by clozach
    I'm working on an app that shows a thumbnail of a photo taken by the user. In order to show a seemless transition from the full-screen image shown in the UIImagePickerController to the thumbnail, I set the frame on my copy of the image to [[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds] and then change the frame to match the frame of an invisible button. (The button allows users to re-take their photo by tapping the thumbnail image.) The trouble is that the starting x-origin of my UIImageView (imageView) is mysteriously starting nearly offscreen to the left: As you can see from the alert, the imageView purports to be located at (0,0), yet it's displaying at something like (-255,0). Here's the code: CGRect frame = [[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]; imageView.frame = frame; [[[[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Yo!" message:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"starting frame:%@",NSStringFromCGRect(imageView.frame)] delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"K." otherButtonTitles:nil] autorelease] show]; // Slide the enlarged image seamlessly "onto" the photo button [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1000]; [UIView setAnimationDelay:.5]; imageView.frame = pictureButton.frame; [UIView commitAnimations]; As if to taunt me, the image actually does go full screen if I comment out the animation code: CGRect frame = [[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]; imageView.frame = frame; [[[[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Yo!" message:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"starting frame:%@",NSStringFromCGRect(imageView.frame)] delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"K." otherButtonTitles:nil] autorelease] show]; // Slide the enlarged image seamlessly "onto" the photo button // [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; // [UIView setAnimationDuration:1000]; // [UIView setAnimationDelay:.5]; // // imageView.frame = pictureButton.frame; // // [UIView commitAnimations]; (Note: animationDuration will of course be set to something more like .5 in production, not 1000 seconds.) Update — Other weirdness worth mentioning in case it's relevant: It turns out the offset changes depending on the orientation of the camera when the photo was taken. If I take the picture with the phone upside-down, for instance, then the image gets offset vertically as well as horizontally. The picker seems to be filling the image's imageOrientation incorrectly: I have to hold the phone sideways, Home button on the left, to get an image with UIImageOrientationUp. At one point I experimented with setting imageView.clipsToBounds = YES;, which revealed that my image view's frame is in fact correct. Rather, it's the UIImage's placement within the UIImageView that gets offset. Fwiw, the image view's contentMode is the default, UIViewContentModeScaleToFill.

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  • Connection Refused running multiple environments on Selenium Grid 1.04 via Ubuntu 9.04

    - by ReadyWater
    Hello, I'm writing a selenium grid test suite which is going to be run on a series of different machines. I wrote most of it on my macbook but have recently transfered it over to my work machine, which is running ubuntu 9.04. That's actually my first experience with a linux machine, so I may be missing something very simple (I have disabled the firewall though). I haven't been able to get the multienvironment thing working at all, and I've been trying and manual reviewing for a while. Any recommendations and help would be greatly, greatly appreciated! The error I'm getting when I run the test is: [java] FAILED CONFIGURATION: @BeforeMethod startFirstEnvironment("localhost", 4444, "*safari", "http://remoteURL:8080/tutor") [java] java.lang.RuntimeException: Could not start Selenium session: ERROR: Connection refused I thought it might be the mac refusing the connection, but using wireshark I determined that no connection attempt was made on the mac . Here's the code for setting up the session, which is where it seems to be dying @BeforeMethod(groups = {"default", "example"}, alwaysRun = true) @Parameters({"seleniumHost", "seleniumPort", "firstEnvironment", "webSite"}) protected void startFirstEnvironment(String seleniumHost, int seleniumPort, String firstEnvironment, String webSite) throws Exception { try{ startSeleniumSession(seleniumHost, seleniumPort, firstEnvironment, webSite); session().setTimeout(TIMEOUT); } finally { closeSeleniumSession(); } } @BeforeMethod(groups = {"default", "example"}, alwaysRun = true) @Parameters({"seleniumHost", "seleniumPort", "secondEnvironment", "webSite"}) protected void startSecondEnvironment(String seleniumHost, int seleniumPort, String secondEnvironment, String webSite) throws Exception { try{ startSeleniumSession(seleniumHost, seleniumPort, secondEnvironment, webSite); session().setTimeout(TIMEOUT); } finally { closeSeleniumSession(); } } and the accompanying build script used to run the test <target name="runMulti" depends="compile" description="Run Selenium tests in parallel (20 threads)"> <echo>${seleniumHost}</echo> <java classpathref="runtime.classpath" classname="org.testng.TestNG" failonerror="true"> <sysproperty key="java.security.policy" file="${rootdir}/lib/testng.policy"/> <sysproperty key="webSite" value="${webSite}" /> <sysproperty key="seleniumHost" value="${seleniumHost}" /> <sysproperty key="seleniumPort" value="${seleniumPort}" /> <sysproperty key="firstEnvironment" value="${firstEnvironment}" /> <sysproperty key="secondEnvironment" value="${secondEnvironment}" /> <arg value="-d" /> <arg value="${basedir}/target/reports" /> <arg value="-suitename" /> <arg value="Selenium Grid Java Sample Test Suite" /> <arg value="-parallel"/> <arg value="methods"/> <arg value="-threadcount"/> <arg value="15"/> <arg value="testng.xml"/> </java>

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  • "RFC 2833 RTP Event" Consecutive Events and the E "End" Bit

    - by brian_d
    Hello, I can send out a RFC 2833 dtmf event as outlined at http://www.ietf.org/rfc/rfc2833.txt When I do set the E "End" bit, but leave it as 0, I get the following behaviour: If for example keys 7874556332111111145855885#3 were pressed, then ALL events would be sent and show up in a program like wireshark, however only 87456321458585#3 would sound. So the first key (which I figure could be a separate issue) and any repeats of an event (ie 11111) are failing to sound. In section 3.9, figure 2 of the above linked document, they give a 911 example. Here all but the last event have the E bit set. When I set the bit for all numbers, I never get an event to sound. I have thought of a couple possible thing but do not know if they are the reason: 1) figure 2 shows payload types of 96 and 97 sent. I have not nor know how to exactly. In section 3.8, codes 96 and 97 are described as "the dynamic payload types 96 and 97 have been assigned for the redundancy mechanism and the telephone event payload respectively" 2) In section 3.5, "E:", "A sender MAY delay setting the end bit until retransmitting the last packet for a tone, rather than on its first transmission" Does anyone have an idea of how to actually do this? I have also fiddled around with timestamp intervals and the RTP marker. Any help is greatly appreciated. Here is a sample wireshark event capture of the relevant areas: 6590 31.159045000 xx.x.x.xxx --.--.---.-- RTP EVENT Payload type=RTP Event, DTMF Pound # (end) Real-Time Transport Protocol Stream setup by SDP (frame 6225) Setup frame: 6225 Setup Method: SDP 10.. .... = Version: RFC 1889 Version (2) ..0. .... = Padding: False ...0 .... = Extension: False .... 0000 = Contributing source identifiers count: 0 0... .... = Marker: False Payload type: telephone-event (101) Sequence number: 0 Extended sequence number: 65536 Timestamp: 0 Synchronization Source identifier: 0x15f27104 (368210180) RFC 2833 RTP Event Event ID: DTMF Pound # (11) 1... .... = End of Event: True .0.. .... = Reserved: False ..00 0000 = Volume: 0 Event Duration: 2048

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  • Trying to send email in Java using gmail always results in username and password not accepted.

    - by Thaeos
    When I call the send method (after setting studentAddress), I get this: javax.mail.AuthenticationFailedException: 535-5.7.1 Username and Password not accepted. Learn more at 535 5.7.1 http://mail.google.com/support/bin/answer.py?answer=14257 y15sm906936wfd.10 I'm pretty sure the code is correct, and 100% positive that the username and password details I'm entering are correct. So is this something wrong with gmail or what? This is my code: import java.util.*; import javax.mail.*; import javax.mail.internet.*; public class SendEmail { private String host = "smtp.gmail.com"; private String emailLogin = "[email protected]"; private String pass = "xxx"; private String studentAddress; private String to; private Properties props = System.getProperties(); public SendEmail() { props.put("mail.smtps.auth", "true"); props.put("mail.smtps.starttls.enable", "true"); props.put("mail.smtp.host", host); props.put("mail.smtp.user", emailLogin); props.put("mail.smtp.password", pass); props.put("mail.smtp.port", "587"); to = "[email protected]"; } public void setStudentAddress(String newAddress) { studentAddress = newAddress; } public void send() { Session session = Session.getDefaultInstance(props, null); MimeMessage message = new MimeMessage(session); try { message.setFrom(new InternetAddress(emailLogin)); InternetAddress[] studentAddressList = {new InternetAddress(studentAddress)}; message.setReplyTo(studentAddressList); message.setRecipient(Message.RecipientType.TO, new InternetAddress(to)); message.setSubject("Test Email"); message.setText("This is a test email!"); Transport transport = session.getTransport("smtps"); transport.connect(host, emailLogin, pass); transport.sendMessage(message, message.getAllRecipients()); transport.close(); } catch (MessagingException me) { System.out.println("There has been an email error!"); me.printStackTrace(); } } } Any ideas...

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  • PHP: POST Request to ASP.NET website results in 500 server error when html tags included

    - by RyanJD
    My situation: I need to send text to an ASP.NET web service using POST. The entire page there is a form: <form name="aspnetForm" method="post" action="Discussion.aspx?classroom=lG39il1cotOAGJwiNvmQlIPfwmjikD%2fAHLhjjGInAZQ%3d&amp;Page=Posts&amp;ID=794239&amp;Sort=&amp;SortOrder=" id="aspnetForm"> So, I figured if I sent a POST request to this form with the correct inputs it would work. And, to an extent, it has. The form inputs are as follows: <input type="hidden" name="__EVENTTARGET" id="__EVENTTARGET" value="" /> <input type="hidden" name="__EVENTARGUMENT" id="__EVENTARGUMENT" value="" /> <input type="hidden" name="__VIEWSTATE" id="__VIEWSTATE" value="/wEPDw..." /> <input type="hidden" name="__EVENTVALIDATION" id="__EVENTVALIDATION" value="/wEWYQLrt..." /> And a bunch of other inputs. The code I have used is as follows: // grab form info $inputs = extract_form_inputs($discussion['body']); $inputs['__EVENTTARGET'] = 'ctl00$cphMain$ctl01$btnSubmit'; $inputs['ctl00$cphMain$ctl01$tbNickname'] = "Your Instructor"; $inputs['ctl00$cphMain$ctl01$reMessage'] = $message; // submit form $r = request_send($discussion['url'], $inputs); extract_form_inputs does exactly that. $discussion['body'] is the content of the page. $discussion['url'] is the URL of the page. request_send has two arguments: ($url, $post_array). It performs rawurlencode on each element of the array and joins them up as keypairs, in the same way as http_build_query. The request is url encoded properly, sent to the correct page, and works fine until I insert html tags. I have checked - the 'greater than' and 'less than' symbols ('<' and '') are url-encoded properly. However, the server responds with a 500 error. It accepts any other text. Has anyone else come across this sort of problem? Is there some setting on an ASP.NET server that denies html? I can't see this being the case - there is a rich text editor on the website that I am sending requests to. This text editor performs the same request as I am, only I am doing it remotely. The rich text editor sends html to the form - I have checked that, too, using javascript. Note: I do not have the power to modify the ASP.NET server.

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  • Can a View Controller manage more than 1 nib based view?

    - by Hugo Brynjar
    I have a VC controlling a screen of content that has 2 modes; a normal mode and an edit mode. Can I create a single VC with 2 views, each from separate nibs? In many situations on the iphone, you have a VC which controls an associated view. Then on a button press or other event, a new VC is loaded and its view becomes the top level view etc. But in this situation, I have 2 modes that I want to use the same VC for, because they are closely related. So I want a VC which can swap in/out 2 views. As per here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/863321/iphone-how-to-load-a-view-using-a-nib-file-created-with-interface-builder/2683153#2683153 I have found that I can load a VC with an associated view from a nib and then later on load a different view from another nib and make that new view the active view. NSArray *nibObjects = [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"EditMode" owner:self options:nil]; UIView *theEditView = [nibObjects objectAtIndex:0]; self.editView = theEditView; [self.view addSubview:theEditView]; The secondary nib has outlets wired up to the VC like the primary nib. When the new nib is loaded, the outlets are all connected up fine and everything works nicely. Unfortunately when this edit view is then removed, there doesn't seem to be any elegant way of getting the outlets hooked up again to the (normal mode) view from the original nib. Nib loading and outlet setting seems a once only thing. So, if you want to have a VC that swaps in/out 2 views without creating a new VC, what are the options? 1) You can do everything in code, but I want to use nibs because it makes creating the UI simpler. 2) You have 1 nib for your VC and just hide/show elements using the hidden property of UIView and its subclasses. 3) You load a new nib as described above. This is fine for the new nib, but how do you sort the outlets when you go back to the original nib. 4) Give up and accept having a 1:1 between VCs and nibs. There is a nib for normal mode, a nib for edit mode and each mode has a VC that subclasses a common superclass. In the end, I went with 4) and it works, but requires a fair amount of extra work, because I have a model class that I instantiate in normal mode and then have to pass to the edit mode VC because both modes need access to the model. I'm also using NSTimer and have to start and stop the timer in each mode. It is because of all this shared functionality that I wanted a single VC with 2 nibs in the first place.

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