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• Offline backup synchronization

  - by Pavan Kumar

  There is a Central Server running Windows Server 2003 and SQL Server 2005 and there are 7 client machines situated in various places and has XP Pro & SQL Server 2005 installed in all of them. They are not interconnected so they are physically seperate. One person goes to each of these centers maybe twice a month and takes the backup (Full database consisting of mdf and ldf files) with a pen drive and brings it to the Central server which contains the central database holding same schema as all the other client databases. I need to synchronize each backup database (belonging to different centers) one by one to update the existing data or inserting new data in the central database . The solution i got was Replication. The pendrive is brought to central server consisting of 7 instances of the databases and then the databases is attached to the central server one by one to the same SQL Server where the central database exists. Then my idea was to replicate the backup database one by one i.e using single subscription (Central Database) and multiple publication ( i.e 7 instances of databases in my case) toplogy by performing replication locally (i.e in the same machine). So i tried to develop a UI in C# .Net to programatically run the Transactional Replication with push subscription using RMO Programming (which is incomplete as of now because there is no point in developing when you already know it is not the solution). Transactional Replication can either be set to initialize with a snapshot or without a snapshot. If i go for the first option i.e with a snapshot , the data whatever is present in Central Database is overwritten by the new data . So the data present initially in the central database is lost. If i try to initialize without snapshot , no data (the data already has the updated and new data) will be sent from the backup database to server. The replication will work in a scenario where any incremental changes is done only after you set the replication . So the initial data whatever was present in the backup database when setting up the replication will not be replicated when running the snapshot agent for the first time to synchronize. Only changes in the backup database thereafter will be reflected to the central database .(Remember I am not going to insert new data or make any changes to the backup database after i attach it to the Central Server. ) So this solution is not feasible. I want a solution for synchronizing from one client database to central database present in the same machine using C#.NET. If you can provide me small example maybe with two databases(with same schema) DB1(Client) to DB2(Server) consisting of one or two tables it will be very helpful. The synchronization is not bidirectional.I want to only update existing data or insert new data from DB1 to DB2 (DB2 may contain some data initially). Thanks and Regards Pavan

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• Which third party website thumbnailing services do you use?

  - by Ben Delarre

  I've got a requirement for showing thumbnails of arbitrary websites. I need to be able to show small thumbnails (120px by 90px), and larger thumbnails of around 480px wide. I'll need to specify the queue and invalid placeholder images and preferably have a pingback when the queued images are processed so I can respond appropriately. I'd also need a simple API I can use either directly embedded in my HTML, or from a simple web request to queue the images. I've been looking at various services ranging from low-fi services, to large scale ones - here's some examples: www.bitpixels.com Uses Google AppEngine, seems like a prototype or a toy. Free! www.websnapr.com Tried using this, made a free account and requested a thumbnail. Waited a few minutes and refreshed a couple of times, and ended up having the account banned. Free is tricky yes, but if I can't try it out successfully I'm disinclined to pay. www.shrinktheweb.com Free account seems to be very quick. Lots of documentation on the site, and even covers local caching of the images to your own server (documentation mostly in PHP). Quality of thumbnails look good, and there appear to be sufficient options for setting thumbnail placeholder images and parameters for altering how the thumbnailing is done. Also supports large 'screenshots' of URLs - very useful for me. Discovered the PRO pricing is an à la carte menu, allowing me to select just the features I want and keep the monthly cost low. Excellent stuff, have decided to use this service. www.thumbalizr.com Good coverage of thumbnail sizes and control options - even allowing specification for browser width when thumbnailing. No ping-back, but I can live without that. Supports local caching of images with PHP API, would prefer .NET, but can port it if necessary. Looks like a fairly professional service but seems fairly expensive for the number of thumbnails you get to generate. apologies for lack of proper linking - spam protection! I'm not entirely convinced by any of them, and since this will be a long term service I'd like some stability and support. I'm willing to pay for the service, but I'd want something that fulfills most if not all of my requirements for that. I should also mention that we're hosted on Windows under IIS, so local solutions involving Xvfb and the like sadly can't be used for this project. So my question is: what services do you use? How have they panned out, are you happy with them?

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• With sqlalchemy how to dynamically bind to database engine on a per-request basis

  - by Peter Hansen

  I have a Pylons-based web application which connects via Sqlalchemy (v0.5) to a Postgres database. For security, rather than follow the typical pattern of simple web apps (as seen in just about all tutorials), I'm not using a generic Postgres user (e.g. "webapp") but am requiring that users enter their own Postgres userid and password, and am using that to establish the connection. That means we get the full benefit of Postgres security. Complicating things still further, there are two separate databases to connect to. Although they're currently in the same Postgres cluster, they need to be able to move to separate hosts at a later date. We're using sqlalchemy's declarative package, though I can't see that this has any bearing on the matter. Most examples of sqlalchemy show trivial approaches such as setting up the Metadata once, at application startup, with a generic database userid and password, which is used through the web application. This is usually done with Metadata.bind = create_engine(), sometimes even at module-level in the database model files. My question is, how can we defer establishing the connections until the user has logged in, and then (of course) re-use those connections, or re-establish them using the same credentials, for each subsequent request. We have this working -- we think -- but I'm not only not certain of the safety of it, I also think it looks incredibly heavy-weight for the situation. Inside the __call__ method of the BaseController we retrieve the userid and password from the web session, call sqlalchemy create_engine() once for each database, then call a routine which calls Session.bind_mapper() repeatedly, once for each table that may be referenced on each of those connections, even though any given request usually references only one or two tables. It looks something like this: # in lib/base.py on the BaseController class def __call__(self, environ, start_response): # note: web session contains {'username': XXX, 'password': YYY} url1 = 'postgres://%(username)s:%(password)s@server1/finance' % session url2 = 'postgres://%(username)s:%(password)s@server2/staff' % session finance = create_engine(url1) staff = create_engine(url2) db_configure(staff, finance) # see below ... etc # in another file Session = scoped_session(sessionmaker()) def db_configure(staff, finance): s = Session() from db.finance import Employee, Customer, Invoice for c in [ Employee, Customer, Invoice, ]: s.bind_mapper(c, finance) from db.staff import Project, Hour for c in [ Project, Hour, ]: s.bind_mapper(c, staff) s.close() # prevents leaking connections between sessions? So the create_engine() calls occur on every request... I can see that being needed, and the Connection Pool probably caches them and does things sensibly. But calling Session.bind_mapper() once for each table, on every request? Seems like there has to be a better way. Obviously, since a desire for strong security underlies all this, we don't want any chance that a connection established for a high-security user will inadvertently be used in a later request by a low-security user.

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• Sql Server Compact 2005 on Visual Studio 2008

  - by Tim

  I'm working on a Windows Forms application that interacts with a Sql Compact database file created by SQL Server 2005. This application was originally developed in Visual Studio 2005 but was recently converted to a Visual Studio 2008 solution. In regards to Sql Compact, we made sure the references were all still set to the assemblies that handle the 2005 version of Sql Compact rather than Sql Compact 3.5. Having done this, the application still runs just as it should - it will still interact with the Compact database, perform synchronization operations, etc. However, I just discovered today that Visual Studio tools such as the DataSet Designer do not play well with a Sql Compact database file of an older version than 3.5. If I go to the New Connection... wizard, the only Sql Compact Data Source / Data Provider are for Sql Compact 3.5. I assume that Visual Studio 2008 just doesn't include the data provider for the older version of Sql Compact by default. Is there a way you can add the old version of Sql Compact to the list of "Data Sources" for the connection wizard? To see exactly what I'm referring to, click on the Tools menu of Visual Studio 2008 and click Connect to Database... In the window that comes up, click Change... next to the Data source setting. From this dialog there is no way I can select the earlier version of Sql Compact - only 3.5 is available. Maybe I need to add an assembly reference somewhere? Or copy some file(s) from my Visual Studio 2005 directory over to 2008? I would think there would have to be a way for Visual Studio 2008 to be able to interact with a Sql Compact database from Sql Server 2005. To provide one more bit of detail, I discovered this problem when I went to my DataSet, right-clicked and tried to add a TableAdapter. The first screen that comes up says, "Choose Your Data Connection". If I leave it set to the Sql Compact connection that we've always used, I now get the following error when clicking the Next button: Failed to open a connection to the database "The selected database was created with an earlier version of SQL Server Compact and needs to be upgraded to SQL Server Compact 3.5 before the connection can be opened or tested. Upgrade the database by creating a new data connection and completing the Add Connection dialog box." Check the connection and try again. The only problem here is that we still use Sql Server 2005, and if my understanding is correct, it does not produce subscription files that are compatible with Sql Compact 3.5. If I am wrong in this assumption, please correct me. Any help you can provide is greatly appreciated. Thank you.

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• Silverlight ControlTemplate and F#

  - by akaphenom

  Has anybody had any success incorporating a Silverlight ControlTemplate into an F# Silverlight application. I am trying to add transitions to the Navgiation.Frame element and following along on with a C# example: http://www.davidpoll.com/2009/07/19/silverlight-3-navigation-adding-transitions-to-the-frame-control The downloaded source uses the MSBUILD:Compile option on the template XAML and the file is included as a "Page"... ILDASM doesn't show any object created for the XAML; In my project I incldued it as a "Resource" (same as I have done for my pages) and referenced it in app.xaml: <Application xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" x:Class="Module1.MyApp"> <Application.Resources> <ResourceDictionary> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="/FSSilverlightApp;component/TransitioningFrame.xaml"/> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> </Application.Resources> </Application> the TransitioningFrame.xaml is as follows: <ResourceDictionary xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:navigation="clr-namespace:System.Windows.Controls;assembly=System.Windows.Controls.Navigation" xmlns:toolkit="clr-namespace:System.Windows.Controls;assembly=System.Windows.Controls.Layout.Toolkit"> <ControlTemplate x:Key="TransitioningFrame" TargetType="navigation:Frame"> <Border Background="{TemplateBinding Background}" BorderBrush="{TemplateBinding BorderBrush}" BorderThickness="{TemplateBinding BorderThickness}" HorizontalAlignment="{TemplateBinding HorizontalContentAlignment}" VerticalAlignment="{TemplateBinding VerticalContentAlignment}"> <toolkit:TransitioningContentControl Content="{TemplateBinding Content}" Cursor="{TemplateBinding Cursor}" Margin="{TemplateBinding Padding}" HorizontalAlignment="{TemplateBinding HorizontalContentAlignment}" VerticalAlignment="{TemplateBinding VerticalContentAlignment}" HorizontalContentAlignment="{TemplateBinding HorizontalContentAlignment}" VerticalContentAlignment="{TemplateBinding VerticalContentAlignment}" Transition="DefaultTransition" /> </Border> </ControlTemplate> </ResourceDictionary> My page objects all load their respective xaml with the follwoing code: type Page1() as this = inherit UriUserControl("/FSSilverlightApp;component/Page1.xaml") do Application.LoadComponent(this, base.uri) and somewhere in app startup: let p1 = new Page1() I donot have a comparable piece for the ControlTemplate - though I was hoping the application object and App.xaml would pull it in magically (as an aside, the reliance on this magic has made setting up a 100% f# silverlight application rather tricky - as nearly all the published articles I find are based around wizards and short cuts - very little on the acual plumbing - ugh). Any advice or thougts on the subject are appreciated.

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• Adding ComboBoxItem to a combobox inside a user control (XAML/WPF)

  - by byte

  I am currently learning to create custom controls in WPF. I successfully created a simple custom control using a Label and a Text Box. I was able to allow setting the Label text by DependencyProperty. Now I am creating a user control that has a ComboBox. I need to allow adding items to this ComboBox from outside the control. To achieve this, I tried exposing a DependencyProperty of type ItemsCollection and it will allows access to the ComboBox's Items property (the DP in my control sample is named 'CbItems'). But I get errors because Items property of Combobox is ReadOnly. Control XAML <UserControl x:Class="MyWpfApp.Controls.MyControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Height="Auto" Width="Auto"> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition /> <ColumnDefinition /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Label Grid.Column="0" Content="{Binding FieldLabel}"></Label> <ComboBox Name="cmb" Grid.Column="1" Width="150"></ComboBox> </Grid> </UserControl> MainWindow XAML <Window x:Class="MyWpfApp.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:ctl="clr-namespace:MyWpfApp.Controls" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Grid> <ctl:MyControl> <ctl:MyControl.CbItems> <ComboBoxItem>Hello</ComboBoxItem> <ComboBoxItem>World</ComboBoxItem> <ComboBoxItem>Hi</ComboBoxItem> </ctl:LobCombox.CbItems> </ctl:LobCombox> </Grid> </Window> I would like to know what the correct way is to achieve this functionality. I believe the answer to this might also help with other controls like GridView etc Many Thanks

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• Rush Hour - Solving the game

  - by Rubys

  Rush Hour if you're not familiar with it, the game consists of a collection of cars of varying sizes, set either horizontally or vertically, on a NxM grid that has a single exit. Each car can move forward/backward in the directions it's set in, as long as another car is not blocking it. You can never change the direction of a car. There is one special car, usually it's the red one. It's set in the same row that the exit is in, and the objective of the game is to find a series of moves (a move - moving a car N steps back or forward) that will allow the red car to drive out of the maze. I've been trying to think how to solve this problem computationally, and I can really not think of any good solution. I came up with a few: Backtracking. This is pretty simple - Recursion and some more recursion until you find the answer. However, each car can be moved a few different ways, and in each game state a few cars can be moved, and the resulting game tree will be HUGE. Some sort of constraint algorithm that will take into account what needs to be moved, and work recursively somehow. This is a very rough idea, but it is an idea. Graphs? Model the game states as a graph and apply some sort of variation on a coloring algorithm, to resolve dependencies? Again, this is a very rough idea. A friend suggested genetic algorithms. This is sort of possible but not easily. I can't think of a good way to make an evaluation function, and without that we've got nothing. So the question is - How to create a program that takes a grid and the vehicle layout, and outputs a series of steps needed to get the red car out? Sub-issues: Finding some solution. Finding an optimal solution (minimal number of moves) Evaluating how good a current state is Example: How can you move the cars in this setting, so that the red car can "exit" the maze through the exit on the right?

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• Apache HttpClient CoreConnectionPNames.CONNECTION_TIMEOUT does nothing ?

  - by Maxim Veksler

  Hi, I'm testing some result from HttpClient that looks irrational. It seems that setting CoreConnectionPNames.CONNECTION_TIMEOUT = 1 has no effect because send request to different host return successfully with connect timeout 1 which IMHO can't be the case (1ms to setup TCP handshake???) Am I misunderstood something or is something very strange going on here? The httpclient version I'm using as can be seen in this pom.xml is <dependency> <groupId>org.apache.httpcomponents</groupId> <artifactId>httpclient</artifactId> <version>4.0.1</version> <type>jar</type> </dependency> Here is the code: import java.io.IOException; import java.util.Random; import org.apache.http.HttpEntity; import org.apache.http.HttpResponse; import org.apache.http.client.ClientProtocolException; import org.apache.http.client.HttpClient; import org.apache.http.client.methods.HttpGet; import org.apache.http.client.methods.HttpUriRequest; import org.apache.http.impl.client.DefaultHttpClient; import org.apache.http.params.CoreConnectionPNames; import org.apache.http.util.EntityUtils; import org.apache.log4j.Logger; public class TestNodeAliveness { private static Logger log = Logger.getLogger(TestNodeAliveness.class); public static boolean nodeBIT(String elasticIP) throws ClientProtocolException, IOException { try { HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); // The time it takes to open TCP connection. client.getParams().setParameter(CoreConnectionPNames.CONNECTION_TIMEOUT, 1); // Timeout when server does not send data. client.getParams().setParameter(CoreConnectionPNames.SO_TIMEOUT, 5000); // Some tuning that is not required for bit tests. client.getParams().setParameter(CoreConnectionPNames.STALE_CONNECTION_CHECK, false); client.getParams().setParameter(CoreConnectionPNames.TCP_NODELAY, true); HttpUriRequest request = new HttpGet("http://" + elasticIP); HttpResponse response = client.execute(request); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); if(entity == null) { return false; } else { System.out.println(EntityUtils.toString(entity)); } // Close just in case. request.abort(); } catch (Throwable e) { log.warn("BIT Test failed for " + elasticIP); e.printStackTrace(); return false; } return true; } public static void main(String[] args) throws ClientProtocolException, IOException { nodeBIT("google.com?cant_cache_this=" + (new Random()).nextInt()); } } Thank you.

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• Grails Liferay portlet not invoking action

  - by RJ Regenold

  I am trying to create a simple portlet for Liferay 5.2.2 using Grails 1.2.1 with the grails-portlets 0.7 and grails-portlets-liferay 0.2 plugins. I created and deployed a stock portlet (just updated title, description, etc...). It deploys correctly and the view renders correctly. However, when I submit the default form that is in view.gsp it never hits the actionView function. Here are the relevant code bits: SearchPortlet.groovy class SearchPortlet { def title = 'Search' def description = ''' A simple search portlet. ''' def displayName = 'Search' def supports = ['text/html':['view', 'edit', 'help']] // Liferay server specific configurations def liferay_display_category = 'Category' def actionView = { println "In action view" } def renderView = { println "In render view" //TODO Define render phase. Return the map of the variables bound to the view ['mykey':'myvalue'] } ... } view.gsp <%@ taglib uri="http://java.sun.com/portlet" prefix="portlet" %> <div> <h1>View Page</h1> The map returned by renderView is passed in. Value of mykey: ${mykey} <form action="${portletResponse.createActionURL()}"> <input type="submit" value="Submit"/> </form> </div> The tomcat terminal prints In render view whenever I view the portlet, and after I press the submit button. It never prints the In action view statement. Any ideas? Update I turned on logging and this is what I see whenever I click the submit button in the portlet: [localhost].[/gportlet] - servletPath=/Search, pathInfo=/invoke, queryString=null, name=null [localhost].[/gportlet] - Path Based Include portlets.GrailsDispatcherPortlet - DispatcherPortlet with name 'Search' received render request portlets.GrailsDispatcherPortlet - Bound render request context to thread: com.liferay.portlet.RenderRequestImpl@7a158e portlets.GrailsDispatcherPortlet - Testing handler map [org.codehaus.grails.portlets.GrailsPortletHandlerMapping@1f06283] in DispatcherPortlet with name 'Search' portlets.GrailsDispatcherPortlet - Testing handler adapter [org.codehaus.grails.portlets.GrailsPortletHandlerAdapter@74f72b] portlets.GrailsPortletHandlerAdapter - portlet.handleMinimised not set, proceeding with normal render portlet.SearchPortlet - In render view portlets.GrailsPortletHandlerAdapter - Couldn't resolve action view /search/null.gsp portlets.GrailsPortletHandlerAdapter - Trying to render mode view /search/view.gsp portlets.GrailsDispatcherPortlet - Setting portlet response content type to view-determined type [text/html;charset=ISO-8859-1] [localhost].[/gportlet] - servletPath=/WEB-INF/servlet/view, pathInfo=null, queryString=null, name=null [localhost].[/gportlet] - Path Based Include portlets.GrailsDispatcherPortlet - Cleared thread-bound render request context: com.liferay.portlet.RenderRequestImpl@7a158e portlets.GrailsDispatcherPortlet - Successfully completed request The fourth line in that log snippet says Bound render request..., which I don't understand because the action in the form that is in the portlet is to the action url. I would've thought that should be an action request.

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• DropDownList not updating value

  - by annelie

  Hello, I posted a question earlier but have another problem after making those changes. The previous thread can be found here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2700028/binding-a-dropdownlist-inside-a-detailsview Basically, I've got a dropdownlist that's dynamically populated with a list of regions. It selects the correct region when viewing the dropdown, but when I try to edit it changes the value to null. I think it might be because it doesn't know which field to update. Previously, when the dropdown list was hardcoded, I had SelectedValue='<%# Bind("region_id")%' set on the dropdown list, and when I updated it worked fine. However, I had to move the setting of the selected value into the code behind and now it just gets set to null every time I update. Here's the aspx code: <asp:DetailsView id="DetailsView1" runat="server" AutoGenerateRows="false" DataSourceID="myMySqlDataSrc" DataKeyNames="id" AutoGenerateDeleteButton="True" AutoGenerateEditButton="True" AutoGenerateInsertButton="False" OnDataBound="DetailsView1_DataBound" > <Fields> <snip> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Region"> <ItemTemplate><%# Eval("region_name") %></ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:DropDownList ID="RegionDropdownList" runat="server"> </asp:DropDownList> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Fields> </asp:DetailsView> And here's the code behind: protected void DetailsView1_DataBound(object sender, EventArgs e) { ArrayList regionsList = BPBusiness.getRegions(); if (DetailsView1.CurrentMode == DetailsViewMode.Edit) { DropDownList ddlRegions = (DropDownList)DetailsView1.FindControl("RegionDropdownList"); if (ddlRegions != null) { ddlRegions.DataSource = regionsList; ddlRegions.DataValueField = "Value"; ddlRegions.DataTextField = "Text"; ddlRegions.DataBind(); if (ddlRegions.Items.Contains(ddlRegions.Items.FindByValue(objBusiness.iRegionID.ToString()))) { ddlRegions.SelectedIndex = ddlRegions.Items.IndexOf(ddlRegions.Items.FindByValue(objBusiness.iRegionID.ToString())); } } } } EDIT: The database is MySql, and the update statement looks like this: myMySqlDataSrc.UpdateCommand = "UPDATE myTable SET business_name = ?, addr_line_1 = ?, addr_line_2 = ?, addr_line_3 = ?, postcode = ?, county = ?, town_city = ?, tl_url = ?, customer_id = ?, region_id = ?, description = ?, approval_status = ?, tl_user_name = ?, phone = ?, uploaders_own = ? WHERE id = ?"; Thanks, Annelie

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• SSIS DTS Package flat file error - "The file name specified in the connection was not valid"

  - by MisterZimbu

  I have a pretty basic SSIS package that is attempting to read a file hosted on a share, and import its contents to a database table. The package runs fine when I run it manually within SSIS. However, when I set up a SQL Agent job and attempt to execute it, I get the following error: Executed as user: DOMAIN\UserName. Microsoft (R) SQL Server Execute Package Utility Version 9.00.3042.00 for 64-bit Copyright (C) Microsoft Corp 1984-2005. All rights reserved. Started: 10:14:17 AM Error: 2010-05-03 10:14:17.75 Code: 0xC001401E Source: DataImport Connection manager "Data File Local" Description: The file name "\10.1.1.159\llpf\datafile.dat" specified in the connection was not valid. End Error Error: 2010-05-03 10:14:17.75 Code: 0xC001401D Source: DataAnimalImport Description: Connection "Data File Local" failed validation. End Error DTExec: The package execution returned DTSER_FAILURE (1). Started: 10:14:17 AM Finished: 10:14:17 AM Elapsed: 0.594 seconds. The package execution failed. The step failed. This leads me to believe it's a permissions issue, but every attempt I've made to fix it has failed. What I've tried so far: Run as the SQL Agent account (DOMAIN\SqlAgent) - yields same error. DOMAIN\SqlAgent has "Full Control" permissions on both the share and the uploaded file. Set up a proxy account with a different account's credentials (DOMAIN\Account) - yields same error. Like above, "Full Control" permissions were given over the share to that account. Gave "Everyone" full control permissions over the share (temporarily!). Yielded same error. Manually copied the file to a local path and tested with the SQL Agent account. Worked properly. Added an ActiveX script task that would first copy the remotely hosted file to a local path, and then have the DTS package reference the local file. Gave a completely nondescriptive (even by SSIS standards) error when trying to run the script. Set up a proxy account, using my own personal account's credentials - worked correctly. However, this is not an acceptable solution as there are password policies in place on my account, as well as being a bad practice to set things up this way in general. Any ideas? I'm still convinced it's a permissions issue. However, what I've read from various searches more or less says giving the executing account permissions on the share should work. However, this is not the case here (unless I'm missing something obscure when I'm setting up permissions on the share).

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• Exporting a report from Crystal 8.5 causes the report to first refresh, then export, with unexpected

  - by LittleBobbyTables

  We have a VB6 application that can generate reports using the Crystal Reports 8.5 runtime. To generate one of the more complicated reports we have, the VB app does the following: Deletes records from a SQL table (we'll call it Foo) based on the session ID of the user Performs a select statement, and populates the Foo table with the contents of the select statement. Massages the data in Foo. Executes the report (we'll call it Bar). The Bar report uses the Foo table as part of some outer joins to get some descriptions. After the report is opened and populated, the code then deletes the records in Foo. If you ever look in Foo there will be no data since it is always purged at the end, but the Crystal Report will still have the data, since Foo wasn't cleared out until after the report ran. Most sites can export this report afterwards, to either PDF or Excel, with no issue. One site, however, has two servers in production where if you attempt to export the Bar report (doesn't matter what format it is exported to), the report will visibly refresh and then export the report in the requested format. This refresh, however, causes the exported data to be invalid because the report is still doing the outer joins to the Foo table, which is now empty. I'm at a total loss why the report refreshes before printing on these two servers. One server has Crystal Reports 8.5 installed on it as well as the Crystal Reports 8.5 runtime (so they can modify reports). The other server only has the Crystal Reports 8.5 runtime (so you can generate reports from the VB application, but can't modify them on that server). Both of the servers belong to a French site. Another support staff here said the issue sounded vaguely familiar to an issue a few years ago, and suggested re-registering DLLs. I have tried unregistering and re-registering the following DLLs out of frustration: Crystl32.ocx crxlat32.dll cpeau32.dll exportmodeller.dll crtslv.dll atl.dll Unregistering and re-registering the above DLLs does not fix the issue. If we take the problem report, and run it on any of our development or QA servers, we have no issues; the report does NOT refresh before exporting, and the data looks consistent. It seems like a server or regional setting may be causing this, but what could possibly cause the report to refresh before exporting on only two of our servers? The most obvious solution is to simply alter the code so the Foo table isn't purged after the report is run, only when the report is run, but this is a production issue, the customer wants a fix now, and there's quite a few hoops to jump through to make the change.

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• Potential issues using member's "from" address and the "sender" header

  - by Paul Burney

  Hi all, A major component of our application sends email to members on behalf of other members. Currently we set the "From" address to our system address and use a "Reply-to" header with the member's address. The issue is that replies from some email clients (and auto-replies/bounces) don't respect the "Reply-to" header so get sent to our system address, effectively sending them to a black hole. We're considering setting the "From" address to our member's address, and the "Sender" address to our system address. It appears this way would pass SPF and Sender-ID checks. Are there any reasons not to switch to this method? Are there any other potential issues? Thanks in advance, -Paul Here are way more details than you probably need: When the application was first developed, we just changed the "from" address to be that of the sending member as that was the common practice at the time (this was many years ago). We later changed that to have the "from" address be the member's name and our address, i.e., From: "Mary Smith" <[email protected]> With a "reply-to" header set to the member's address: Reply-To: "Mary Smith" <[email protected]> This helped with messages being mis-categorized as spam. As SPF became more popular, we added an additional header that would work in conjunction with our SPF records: Sender: <[email protected]> Things work OK, but it turns out that, in practice, some email clients and most MTA's don't respect the "Reply-To" header. Because of this, many members send messages to [email protected] instead of the desired member. So, I started envisioning various schemes to add data about the sender to the email headers or encode it in the "from" email address so that we could process the response and redirect appropriately. For example, From: "Mary Smith" <[email protected]> where the string after "messages" is a hash representing Mary Smith's member in our system. Of course, that path could lead to a lot of pain as we need to develop MTA functionality for our system address. I was looking again at the SPF documentation and found this page interesting: http://www.openspf.org/Best_Practices/Webgenerated They show two examples, that of evite.com and that of egreetings.com. Basically, evite.com is doing it the way we're doing it. The egreetings.com example uses the member's from address with an added "Sender" header. So the question is, are there any potential issues with using the egreetings method of the member's from address with a sender header? That would eliminate the replies that bad clients send to the system address. I don't believe that it solves the bounce/vacation/whitelist issue since those often send to the MAIL FROM even if Return Path is specified.

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• Unable to verify body hash for DKIM

  - by Joshua

  I'm writing a C# DKIM validator and have come across a problem that I cannot solve. Right now I am working on calculating the body hash, as described in Section 3.7 Computing the Message Hashes. I am working with emails that I have dumped using a modified version of EdgeTransportAsyncLogging sample in the Exchange 2010 Transport Agent SDK. Instead of converting the emails when saving, it just opens a file based on the MessageID and dumps the raw data to disk. I am able to successfully compute the body hash of the sample email provided in Section A.2 using the following code: SHA256Managed hasher = new SHA256Managed(); ASCIIEncoding asciiEncoding = new ASCIIEncoding(); string rawFullMessage = File.ReadAllText(@"C:\Repositories\Sample-A.2.txt"); string headerDelimiter = "\r\n\r\n"; int headerEnd = rawFullMessage.IndexOf(headerDelimiter); string header = rawFullMessage.Substring(0, headerEnd); string body = rawFullMessage.Substring(headerEnd + headerDelimiter.Length); byte[] bodyBytes = asciiEncoding.GetBytes(body); byte[] bodyHash = hasher.ComputeHash(bodyBytes); string bodyBase64 = Convert.ToBase64String(bodyHash); string expectedBase64 = "2jUSOH9NhtVGCQWNr9BrIAPreKQjO6Sn7XIkfJVOzv8="; Console.WriteLine("Expected hash: {1}{0}Computed hash: {2}{0}Are equal: {3}", Environment.NewLine, expectedBase64, bodyBase64, expectedBase64 == bodyBase64); The output from the above code is: Expected hash: 2jUSOH9NhtVGCQWNr9BrIAPreKQjO6Sn7XIkfJVOzv8= Computed hash: 2jUSOH9NhtVGCQWNr9BrIAPreKQjO6Sn7XIkfJVOzv8= Are equal: True Now, most emails come across with the c=relaxed/relaxed setting, which requires you to do some work on the body and header before hashing and verifying. And while I was working on it (failing to get it to work) I finally came across a message with c=simple/simple which means that you process the whole body as is minus any empty CRLF at the end of the body. (Really, the rules for Body Canonicalization are quite ... simple.) Here is the real DKIM email with a signature using the simple algorithm (with only unneeded headers cleaned up). Now, using the above code and updating the expectedBase64 hash I get the following results: Expected hash: VnGg12/s7xH3BraeN5LiiN+I2Ul/db5/jZYYgt4wEIw= Computed hash: ISNNtgnFZxmW6iuey/3Qql5u6nflKPTke4sMXWMxNUw= Are equal: False The expected hash is the value from the bh= field of the DKIM-Signature header. Now, the file used in the second test is a direct raw output from the Exchange 2010 Transport Agent. If so inclined, you can view the modified EdgeTransportLogging.txt. At this point, no matter how I modify the second email, changing the start position or number of CRLF at the end of the file I cannot get the files to match. What worries me is that I have been unable to validate any body hash so far (simple or relaxed) and that it may not be feasible to process DKIM through Exchange 2010.

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• WCF Self Host Service - Endpoints in C#

  - by Kyle

  My first few attempts at creating a self hosted service. Trying to make something up which will accept a query string and return some text but have have a few issues: All the documentation talks about endpoints being created automatically for each base address if they are not found in a config file. This doesn't seem to be the case for me, I get the "Service has zero application endpoints..." exception. Manually specifying a base endpoint as below seems to resolve this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.ServiceModel; using System.ServiceModel.Description; namespace TestService { [ServiceContract] public interface IHelloWorldService { [OperationContract] string SayHello(string name); } public class HelloWorldService : IHelloWorldService { public string SayHello(string name) { return string.Format("Hello, {0}", name); } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { string baseaddr = "http://localhost:8080/HelloWorldService/"; Uri baseAddress = new Uri(baseaddr); // Create the ServiceHost. using (ServiceHost host = new ServiceHost(typeof(HelloWorldService), baseAddress)) { // Enable metadata publishing. ServiceMetadataBehavior smb = new ServiceMetadataBehavior(); smb.HttpGetEnabled = true; smb.MetadataExporter.PolicyVersion = PolicyVersion.Policy15; host.Description.Behaviors.Add(smb); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IHelloWorldService), new BasicHttpBinding(), baseaddr + "SayHello"); //for some reason a default endpoint does not get created here host.Open(); Console.WriteLine("The service is ready at {0}", baseAddress); Console.WriteLine("Press to stop the service."); Console.ReadLine(); // Close the ServiceHost. host.Close(); } } } } I still think I'm doing something wrong as I don't get the normal "This is a web service...etc..." page when I load up the url How would I go about setting this up to return the value of name in SayHello(string name) when requested thusly: localhost:8080/HelloWorldService/SayHello?name=kyle Do I have to create an endpoing for the SayHello contract as well? I'm trying to walk before running, but this just seems like crawling...Service has zero application endpoints...

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• emulator crashes

  - by Dave

  I am setting up an Android environment for the first time on Eclipse. I have many years of Eclipse experience, but new to Android. This is being done on an Apple Mac Mini, running MacOSX 10.6.3. I am using the latest Eclipse Classic, version 3.5.2. I am trying to get the tiny hello world program running. When I run it, I get the following in the console window of Eclipse: [2010-06-12 13:48:08 - HelloAndroid] Automatic Target Mode: launching new emulator with compatible AVD 'Android2.2AVD' [2010-06-12 13:48:08 - HelloAndroid] Launching a new emulator with Virtual Device 'Android2.2AVD' [2010-06-12 13:48:11 - HelloAndroid] New emulator found: emulator-5554 [2010-06-12 13:48:11 - HelloAndroid] Waiting for HOME ('android.process.acore') to be launched... [2010-06-12 13:48:12 - Emulator] 2010-06-12 13:48:12.783 emulator[50495:903] Warning once: This application, or a library it uses, is using NSQuickDrawView, which has been deprecated. Apps should cease use of QuickDraw and move to Quartz. [2010-06-12 13:48:19 - HelloAndroid] emulator-5554 disconnected! Cancelling 'com.example.helloandroid.HelloAndroid activity launch'! The emulator crashes with the following info. I have followed all the instructions for running the hello world sample. Anyone have any ideas? Process: emulator [50398] Path: /Users/jeremy/android-sdk-mac_86/tools/emulator Identifier: emulator Version: ??? (???) Code Type: X86 (Native) Parent Process: eclipse [50388] Date/Time: 2010-06-12 13:28:38.595 -0400 OS Version: Mac OS X 10.6.3 (10D573) Report Version: 6 Interval Since Last Report: 363037 sec Crashes Since Last Report: 9 Per-App Crashes Since Last Report: 7 Exception Type: EXC_BAD_ACCESS (SIGSEGV) Exception Codes: KERN_INVALID_ADDRESS at 0x00000000007fd000 Crashed Thread: 4 Thread 0: Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread 0 emulator 0x000eed4e helper_set_cp15 + 30 Thread 1: 0 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020bbd2 __workq_kernreturn + 10 1 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020c168 _pthread_wqthread + 941 2 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020bd86 start_wqthread + 30 Thread 2: Dispatch queue: com.apple.libdispatch-manager 0 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020cb42 kevent + 10 1 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020d25c _dispatch_mgr_invoke + 215 2 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020c719 _dispatch_queue_invoke + 163 3 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020c4be _dispatch_worker_thread2 + 240 4 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020bf41 _pthread_wqthread + 390 5 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020bd86 start_wqthread + 30 Thread 3: 0 libSystem.B.dylib 0x901e635a semaphore_timedwait_signal_trap + 10 1 libSystem.B.dylib 0x90213ea1 _pthread_cond_wait + 1066 2 libSystem.B.dylib 0x90242a28 pthread_cond_timedwait_relative_np + 47 3 com.apple.audio.CoreAudio 0x9056f965 CAGuard::WaitFor(unsigned long long) + 219 4 com.apple.audio.CoreAudio 0x90572997 CAGuard::WaitUntil(unsigned long long) + 289 5 com.apple.audio.CoreAudio 0x90570294 HP_IOThread::WorkLoop() + 1892 6 com.apple.audio.CoreAudio 0x9056fb2b HP_IOThread::ThreadEntry(HP_IOThread*) + 17 7 com.apple.audio.CoreAudio 0x9056fa42 CAPThread::Entry(CAPThread*) + 140 8 libSystem.B.dylib 0x90213a19 _pthread_start + 345 9 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9021389e thread_start + 34 Thread 4 Crashed: 0 emulator 0x00040380 audioInDeviceIOProc + 96 Thread 4 crashed with X86 Thread State (32-bit): eax: 0x00000000 ebx: 0x007fd000 ecx: 0x000001fe edx: 0x0198f3f0 edi: 0x00000200 esi: 0x01119850 ebp: 0x01119800 esp: 0xb020fad0 ss: 0x0000001f efl: 0x00010212 eip: 0x00040380 cs: 0x00000017 ds: 0x0000001f es: 0x0000001f fs: 0x0000001f gs: 0x00000037 cr2: 0x007fd000

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• Tunnel over HTTPS

  - by ephemient

  At my workplace, the traffic blocker/firewall has been getting progressively worse. I can't connect to my home machine on port 22, and lack of ssh access makes me sad. I was previously able to use SSH by moving it to port 5050, but I think some recent filters now treat this traffic as IM and redirect it through another proxy, maybe. That's my best guess; in any case, my ssh connections now terminate before I get to log in. These days I've been using Ajaxterm over HTTPS, as port 443 is still unmolested, but this is far from ideal. (Sucky terminal emulation, lack of port forwarding, my browser leaks memory at an amazing rate...) I tried setting up mod_proxy_connect on top of mod_ssl, with the idea that I could send a CONNECT localhost:22 HTTP/1.1 request through HTTPS, and then I'd be all set. Sadly, this seems to not work; the HTTPS connection works, up until I finish sending my request; then SSL craps out. It appears as though mod_proxy_connect takes over the whole connection instead of continuing to pipe through mod_ssl, confusing the heck out of the HTTPS client. Is there a way to get this to work? I don't want to do this over plain HTTP, for several reasons: Leaving a big fat open proxy like that just stinks A big fat open proxy is not good over HTTPS either, but with authentication required it feels fine to me HTTP goes through a proxy -- I'm not too concerned about my traffic being sniffed, as it's ssh that'll be going "plaintext" through the tunnel -- but it's a lot more likely to be mangled than HTTPS, which fundamentally cannot be proxied Requirements: Must work over port 443, without disturbing other HTTPS traffic (i.e. I can't just put the ssh server on port 443, because I would no longer be able to serve pages over HTTPS) I have or can write a simple port forwarder client that runs under Windows (or Cygwin) Edit DAG: Tunnelling SSH over HTTP(S) has been pointed out to me, but it doesn't help: at the end of the article, they mention Bug 29744 - CONNECT does not work over existing SSL connection preventing tunnelling over HTTPS, exactly the problem I was running into. At this point, I am probably looking at some CGI script, but I don't want to list that as a requirement if there's better solutions available.

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• Transitioning accordions from small height to full height with CSS

  - by arkanciscan

  I am building an accordion list and I want it to animate open and closed using a CSS -webkit-transition:. The animation is triggered by an event handler that simply toggles the .open class on and off. The problem is that when I click it, the animation goes from closed height to 0px height then jerks back to full height instead of smoothly animating to full height. HTML <ul class="accordion"> <li>Foo <p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Nunc quis leo sit amet justo vulputate volutpat. Suspendisse potenti. Aliquam aliquet justo ut turpis suscipit adipiscing.</p> </li> <li class="open">Baz <p>Ut velit magna, sagittis at blandit accumsan, vestibulum et dolor. Aliquam elit ante, congue vel pharetra ut, ultricies non est. In hac habitasse platea dictumst. Donec velit ligula, sodales a imperdiet non, sagittis id mauris.</p> </li> <li>Bar <p>Cras sit amet gravida lacus. Nulla consequat molestie nunc nec fermentum. Donec lobortis pretium quam sit amet scelerisque.</p> </li> </ul>? Javascript $('.accordion').delegate('li', 'click', function(li){ $(this).toggleClass('open'); }); Css .accordion li.open{ -webkit-transition: height 1s; } .accordion li:not(.open){ height: 1em; -webkit-transition: height 1s; } ? Try it on JSFiddle and see what I mean. I've already figured out how to make it work, but it requires setting an explicit height on the .open class. The accordions have variable height however, and creating an explicit selector for each one is obtrusive and unmaintainable. Can anyone give me a better solution than this? Here it is working with an explicit height that doesn't fit the content

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• Window Media Player issues two requests for the audio on web page

  - by Ron Harlev

  I'm using Windows Media Player in a web page. I have version 11 installed so that is the version I'm testing with right now. The player is embedded on the page with this HTML: <OBJECT id='MS_mediaPlayer' width="400" height="45" classid='CLSID:6BF52A52-394A-11D3-B153-00C04F79FAA6' codebase='http://activex.microsoft.com/activex/controls/mplayer/en/nsmp2inf.cab#Version=5,1,52,701' standby='Loading Microsoft Windows Media Player components...' type='application/x-oleobject'> <param name='autoStart' value="false"> <param name='uiMode' value="invisible"> <param name='loop' value="false"> </OBJECT> I'm calling in JavaScript: MS_mediaPlayer.URL = "SomeAudioFile.mp3" MS_mediaPlayer.controls.play(); When I look at Fiddler I can see that the player actually downloads "SomeAudioFile.mp3" twice. Is there some setting I have wrong? I was trying to set the "autoPlay" to true and avoid calling "play()". Got the same result - two downloads. UPDATE: The first request's user-agent is "Windows-Media-Player/11.0.5721.5268". The second has "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 7.0; Windows NT 5.1; GTB6; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.0.04506.30; .NET CLR 3.0.04506.648; .NET CLR 3.5.21022; .NET CLR 3.0.4506.2152; .NET CLR 3.5.30729)". Looks like the browser is running the same request the second time. No Idea why Any ideas? UPDATE (4/1/10): Still no solution. I debugged the JS thoroughly and there is only one call to MediaPlayer.URL='.....' to set the audio file. Nothing else triggers the media player to load the file and there is no other place referencing the audio file on the page. One other interesting fact is that this doesn't happen (the double loading of the audio) when I run the browser locally on my development web server. But other remote requests to the same web server generate the double audio loading. I believe I eliminated any correlation with specific IE version or media player version. This happens with IE6-8 and WM9-12

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• Am I Leaking ADO.NET Connections?

  - by HardCode

  Here is an example of my code in a DAL. All calls to the database's Stored Procedures are structured this way, and there is no in-line SQL. Friend Shared Function Save(ByVal s As MyClass) As Boolean Dim cn As SqlClient.SqlConnection = Dal.Connections.MyAppConnection Dim cmd As New SqlClient.SqlCommand Try cmd.Connection = cn cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure cmd.CommandText = "proc_save_my_class" cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@param1", s.Foo) cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@param2", s.Bar) Return True Finally Dal.Utility.CleanupAdoObjects(cmd, cn) End Try End Function Here is the Connection factory (if I am using the correct term): Friend Shared Function MyAppConnection() As SqlClient.SqlConnection Dim cn As New SqlClient.SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("MyConnectionString").ToString) cn.Open() If cn.State <> ConnectionState.Open Then ' CriticalException is a custom object inheriting from Exception. Throw New CriticalException("Could not connect to the database.") Else Return cn End If End Function Here is the Dal.Utility.CleaupAdoObjects() function: Friend Shared Sub CleanupAdoObjects(ByVal cmd As SqlCommand, ByVal cn As SqlConnection) If cmd IsNot Nothing Then cmd.Dispose() If cn IsNot Nothing AndAlso cn.State <> ConnectionState.Closed Then cn.Close() End Sub I am getting a lot of "Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding." error messages reported by the users. The application's DAL opens a connection, reads or saves data, and closes it. No connections are ever left open - intentionally! There is nothing obvious on the Windows 2000 Server hosting the SQL Server 2000 that would indicate a problem. Nothing in the Event Logs and nothing in the SQL Server logs. The timeouts happen randomly - I cannot reproduce. It happens early in the day with only 1 to 5 users in the system. It also happens with around 50 users in the system. The most connections to SQL Server via Performance Monitor, for all databases, has been about 74. The timeouts happen in code that both saves to, and reads from, the database in different parts of the application. The stack trace does not point to one or two offending DAL functions. It's happened in many different places. Does my ADO.NET code appear to be able to leak connections? I've goolged around a bit, and I've read that if the connection pool fills up, this can happen. However, I'm not explicitly setting any connection pooling. I've even tried to increase the Connection Timeout in the connection string, but timeouts happen long before the 300 second (5 minute) value: <add name="MyConnectionString" connectionString="Data Source=MyServer;Initial Catalog=MyDatabase;Integrated Security=SSPI;Connection Timeout=300;"/> I'm at a total loss already as to what is causing these Timeout issues. Any ideas are appreciated.

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• Java Hardware Acceleration

  - by Freezerburn

  I have been spending some time looking into the hardware acceleration features of Java, and I am still a bit confused as none of the sites that I found online directly and clearly answered some of the questions I have. So here are the questions I have for hardware acceleration in Java: 1) In Eclipse version 3.6.0, with the most recent Java update for Mac OS X (1.6u10 I think), is hardware acceleration enabled by default? I read somewhere that someCanvas.getGraphicsConfiguration().getBufferCapabilities().isPageFlipping() is supposed to give an indication of whether or not hardware acceleration is enabled, and my program reports back true when that is run on my main Canvas instance for drawing to. If my hardware acceleration is not enabled now, or by default, what would I have to do to enable it? 2) I have seen a couple articles here and there about the difference between a BufferedImage and VolatileImage, mainly saying that VolatileImage is the hardware accelerated image and is stored in VRAM for fast copy-from operations. However, I have also found some instances where BufferedImage is said to be hardware accelerated as well. Is BufferedImage hardware accelerated as well in my environment? What would be the advantage of using a VolatileImage if both types are hardware accelerated? My main assumption for the advantage of having a VolatileImage in the case of both having acceleration is that VolatileImage is able to detect when its VRAM has been dumped. But if BufferedImage also support acceleration now, would it not have the same kind of detection built into it as well, just hidden from the user, in case that the memory is dumped? 3) Is there any advantage to using someGraphicsConfiguration.getCompatibleImage/getCompatibleVolatileImage() as opposed to ImageIO.read() In a tutorial I have been reading for some general concepts about setting up the rendering window properly (tutorial) it uses the getCompatibleImage method, which I believe returns a BufferedImage, to get their "hardware accelerated" images for fast drawing, which ties into question 2 about if it is hardware accelerated. 4) This is less hardware acceleration, but it is something I have been curious about: do I need to order which graphics get drawn? I know that when using OpenGL via C/C++ it is best to make sure that the same graphic is drawn in all the locations it needs to be drawn at once to reduce the number of times the current texture needs to be switch. From what I have read, it seems as if Java will take care of this for me and make sure things are drawn in the most optimal fashion, but again, nothing has ever said anything like this clearly. 5) What AWT/Swing classes support hardware acceleration, and which ones should be used? I am currently using a class that extends JFrame to create a window, and adding a Canvas to it from which I create a BufferStrategy. Is this good practice, or is there some other type of way I should be implementing this? Thank you very much for your time, and I hope I provided clear questions and enough information for you to answer my several questions.

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• using checkbox yo update MySql table

  - by Martin

  Hi All I have been searching round the internet for days on this matter but I keep coming up against a brick wall. What I have is a table full of checkboxes inside an admin area acting as a monthly "to-do" list. It's essentially a worksheet of 30 or so things to do each month that must be checked off each month and notes added if applicable. I have managed to get the checkboxes to update via mysql and be shown somewhere as a list of ticks. I simply did this my setting the value to 1 and on submission it updates the sql table. I have to cover my bases here and also offer the option to un-tick items if they have been ticked b y mistake. But I cant figure out how this is done. Below is my checking code... any help on this matter would be great. <?php $currentTask = ''; echo "<tr class='tr'>"; while ($seolistRow = mysql_fetch_array($seolistRes)) { $taskValue = $seolistRow["taskValue"]; $worksheetID = $seolistRow["worksheetID"]; $taskName = $seolistRow["taskName"]; $taskInfo = $seolistRow["taskInfo"]; if ($taskValue == 1) { $taskDone = "<input type='checkbox' value='1' class='checkbox' name='checkbox".$worksheetID."' id=checkbox'".$worksheetID."' checked='checked' /><div class='taskinfo'>".$taskInfo."</div>"; } else { $taskDone = "<input type='checkbox' value='0' class='checkbox' name='checkbox".$worksheetID."' id='checkbox".$worksheetID."' />"; } if ($currentTask != $taskName) { echo "</tr>"; echo "<tr class='tr'>"; echo "<td class='task'>".$taskName."</td>"; } echo "<td class='tick'>".$taskDone."</td>"; $currentTask = $taskName; } echo "</tr>"; ?>

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• Consuming Web Services requiring Authentication from behind Proxy server

  - by Jan Petersen

  Hi All, I've seen a number of post about Proxy Authentication, but none that seams to address this problem. I'm building a SharePoint Web Service consuming desktop application, using Java, JAX-WS in NetBeans. I have a working prototype, that can query the server for authentication mode, successfully authenticate and retrieve a list of web site. However, if I run the same app from a network that is behind a proxy server (the proxy does not require authentication), then I'm running into trouble. The normal -dhttp.proxyHost ... settings does not seam to help any. But I have found that by creating a ProxySelector class and setting it as default, I can regain access to the authentication web service, but I still can't retrieve the list of web sites from the SharePoint server. It's almost as if the authentication I provide is going to the proxy rather than the SharePoint server. Anyone have any experience on how to make this work? I have put the source text java class files of a demo app up, showing the issue at the following urls (it's a bit to long even in the short demo form to post here). link text When running the code from a network behind a proxy server, I successfully retrieve the Authentication mode from the server, but the request for the Web Site list generates an exception originating at: com.sun.xml.internal.ws.transport.http.client .HttpClientTransport.readResponseCodeAndMessage(HttpClientTransport.java:201) The output from the source when no proxy is on the network is listed below: Successfully retrieved the SharePoint WebService response for Authentication SharePoint authentication method is: WINDOWS Calling Web Service to retrieve list of web site. Web Service call response: -------------- XML START -------------- <Webs xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/"> <Web Title="Collaboration Lab" Url="http://host.domain.com/collaboration"/> <Web Title="Global Data Lists" Url="http://host.domain.com/global_data_lists"/> <Web Title="Landing" Url="http://host.domain.com/Landing"/> <Web Title="SharePoint HelpDesk" Url="http://host.domain.com/helpdesk"/> <Web Title="Program Management" Url="http://host.domain.com/programmanagement"/> <Web Title="Project Site" Url="http://host.domain.com/Project Site"/> <Web Title="SharePoint Administration Tools" Url="http://host.domain.com/admin"/> <Web Title="Space Management Project" Url="http://host.domain.com/spacemgmt"/> </Webs> -------------- XML END -------------- Br Jan

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• Why am I seeing a crash when trying to call CDHtmlDialog::OnInitDialog()

  - by Tim

  I added a helpAbout menu item to my mfc app. I decided to make the ddlg derive from CDHTMLDialog. I override the OnInitDialog() method in my derived class and the first thing I do is call the parent's OnInitDialog() method. I then put in code that sets the title. On some machines this works fine, but on others it crashes in the call to CDHtmlDialog::OnInitDialog() - Trying to read a null pointer. the call stack has nothing useful - it is in mfc90.dll Is this a potential problem with mismatches of mfc/win32 dlls? It works on my vista machines but crashes on a win2003 server box. BOOL HTMLAboutDlg::OnInitDialog() { // CRASHES on the following line CDHtmlDialog::OnInitDialog(); CString title = "my title"; // example of setting title // i try to get version info //set the title CModuleVersion ver; char filename[ _MAX_PATH ]; GetModuleFileName( AfxGetApp()->m_hInstance, filename, _MAX_PATH ); ver.GetFileVersionInfo(filename); // get version from VS_FIXEDFILEINFO struct CString s; s.Format("Version: %d.%d.%d.%d\n", HIWORD(ver.dwFileVersionMS), LOWORD(ver.dwFileVersionMS), HIWORD(ver.dwFileVersionLS), LOWORD(ver.dwFileVersionLS)); CString version = ver.GetValue(_T("ProductVersion")); version.Remove(' '); version.Replace(",", "."); title = "MyApp - Version " + version; SetWindowText(title); return TRUE; // return TRUE unless you set the focus to a control } And here is the relevant header file: class HTMLAboutDlg : public CDHtmlDialog { DECLARE_DYNCREATE(HTMLAboutDlg) public: HTMLAboutDlg(CWnd* pParent = NULL); // standard constructor virtual ~HTMLAboutDlg(); // Overrides HRESULT OnButtonOK(IHTMLElement *pElement); HRESULT OnButtonCancel(IHTMLElement *pElement); // Dialog Data enum { IDD = IDD_DIALOG_ABOUT, IDH = IDR_HTML_HTMLABOUTDLG }; protected: virtual void DoDataExchange(CDataExchange* pDX); // DDX/DDV support virtual BOOL OnInitDialog(); DECLARE_MESSAGE_MAP() DECLARE_DHTML_EVENT_MAP() }; I can't figure out what is going on - why it works on some machins and crashes on others. Both have VS2008 installed EDIT: VS versions VISTA - no crashes 9.0.30729.1 SP 2003 server: (crashes) 9.0.21022.8 RTM

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• What is the best python module skeleton code?

  - by user213060

  == Subjective Question Warning == Looking for well supported opinions or supporting evidence. Let us assume that skeleton code can be good. If you disagree with the very concept of module skeleton code then fine, but please refrain from repeating that opinion here. Many python IDE's will start you with a template like: print 'hello world' That's not enough... So here's my skeleton code to get this question started: My Module Skeleton, Short Version: #!/usr/bin/env python """ Module Docstring """ # ## Code goes here. # def test(): """Testing Docstring""" pass if __name__=='__main__': test() and, My Module Skeleton, Long Version: #!/usr/bin/env python # -*- coding: ascii -*- """ Module Docstring Docstrings: http://www.python.org/dev/peps/pep-0257/ """ __author__ = 'Joe Author ([email protected])' __copyright__ = 'Copyright (c) 2009-2010 Joe Author' __license__ = 'New-style BSD' __vcs_id__ = '$Id$' __version__ = '1.2.3' #Versioning: http://www.python.org/dev/peps/pep-0386/ # ## Code goes here. # def test(): """ Testing Docstring""" pass if __name__=='__main__': test() Notes: """ ===MODULE TYPE=== Since the vast majority of my modules are "library" types, I have constructed this example skeleton as such. For modules that act as the main entry for running the full application, you would make changes such as running a main() function instead of the test() function in __main__. ===VERSIONING=== The following practice, specified in PEP8, no longer makes sense: __version__ = '$Revision: 1.2.3 $' for two reasons: (1) Distributed version control systems make it neccessary to include more than just a revision number. E.g. author name and revision number. (2) It's a revision number not a version number. Instead, the __vcs_id__ variable is being adopted. This expands to, for example: __vcs_id__ = '$Id: example.py,v 1.1.1.1 2001/07/21 22:14:04 goodger Exp $' ===VCS DATE=== Likewise, the date variable has been removed: __date__ = '$Date: 2009/01/02 20:19:18 $' ===CHARACTER ENCODING=== If the coding is explicitly specified, then it should be set to the default setting of ascii. This can be modified if necessary (rarely in practice). Defaulting to utf-8 can cause anomalies with editors that have poor unicode support. """ There are a lot of PEPs that put forward coding style recommendations. Am I missing any important best practices? What is the best python module skeleton code? Update Show me any kind of "best" that you prefer. Tell us what metrics you used to qualify "best".

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