Search Results

Search found 14745 results on 590 pages for 'setting'.

Page 543/590 | < Previous Page | 539 540 541 542 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550  | Next Page >

  • Adding UIView animation mysteriously changes starting frame

    - by clozach
    I'm working on an app that shows a thumbnail of a photo taken by the user. In order to show a seemless transition from the full-screen image shown in the UIImagePickerController to the thumbnail, I set the frame on my copy of the image to [[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds] and then change the frame to match the frame of an invisible button. (The button allows users to re-take their photo by tapping the thumbnail image.) The trouble is that the starting x-origin of my UIImageView (imageView) is mysteriously starting nearly offscreen to the left: As you can see from the alert, the imageView purports to be located at (0,0), yet it's displaying at something like (-255,0). Here's the code: CGRect frame = [[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]; imageView.frame = frame; [[[[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Yo!" message:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"starting frame:%@",NSStringFromCGRect(imageView.frame)] delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"K." otherButtonTitles:nil] autorelease] show]; // Slide the enlarged image seamlessly "onto" the photo button [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1000]; [UIView setAnimationDelay:.5]; imageView.frame = pictureButton.frame; [UIView commitAnimations]; As if to taunt me, the image actually does go full screen if I comment out the animation code: CGRect frame = [[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]; imageView.frame = frame; [[[[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Yo!" message:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"starting frame:%@",NSStringFromCGRect(imageView.frame)] delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"K." otherButtonTitles:nil] autorelease] show]; // Slide the enlarged image seamlessly "onto" the photo button // [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; // [UIView setAnimationDuration:1000]; // [UIView setAnimationDelay:.5]; // // imageView.frame = pictureButton.frame; // // [UIView commitAnimations]; (Note: animationDuration will of course be set to something more like .5 in production, not 1000 seconds.) Update — Other weirdness worth mentioning in case it's relevant: It turns out the offset changes depending on the orientation of the camera when the photo was taken. If I take the picture with the phone upside-down, for instance, then the image gets offset vertically as well as horizontally. The picker seems to be filling the image's imageOrientation incorrectly: I have to hold the phone sideways, Home button on the left, to get an image with UIImageOrientationUp. At one point I experimented with setting imageView.clipsToBounds = YES;, which revealed that my image view's frame is in fact correct. Rather, it's the UIImage's placement within the UIImageView that gets offset. Fwiw, the image view's contentMode is the default, UIViewContentModeScaleToFill.

    Read the article

  • Java Hardware Acceleration

    - by Freezerburn
    I have been spending some time looking into the hardware acceleration features of Java, and I am still a bit confused as none of the sites that I found online directly and clearly answered some of the questions I have. So here are the questions I have for hardware acceleration in Java: 1) In Eclipse version 3.6.0, with the most recent Java update for Mac OS X (1.6u10 I think), is hardware acceleration enabled by default? I read somewhere that someCanvas.getGraphicsConfiguration().getBufferCapabilities().isPageFlipping() is supposed to give an indication of whether or not hardware acceleration is enabled, and my program reports back true when that is run on my main Canvas instance for drawing to. If my hardware acceleration is not enabled now, or by default, what would I have to do to enable it? 2) I have seen a couple articles here and there about the difference between a BufferedImage and VolatileImage, mainly saying that VolatileImage is the hardware accelerated image and is stored in VRAM for fast copy-from operations. However, I have also found some instances where BufferedImage is said to be hardware accelerated as well. Is BufferedImage hardware accelerated as well in my environment? What would be the advantage of using a VolatileImage if both types are hardware accelerated? My main assumption for the advantage of having a VolatileImage in the case of both having acceleration is that VolatileImage is able to detect when its VRAM has been dumped. But if BufferedImage also support acceleration now, would it not have the same kind of detection built into it as well, just hidden from the user, in case that the memory is dumped? 3) Is there any advantage to using someGraphicsConfiguration.getCompatibleImage/getCompatibleVolatileImage() as opposed to ImageIO.read() In a tutorial I have been reading for some general concepts about setting up the rendering window properly (tutorial) it uses the getCompatibleImage method, which I believe returns a BufferedImage, to get their "hardware accelerated" images for fast drawing, which ties into question 2 about if it is hardware accelerated. 4) This is less hardware acceleration, but it is something I have been curious about: do I need to order which graphics get drawn? I know that when using OpenGL via C/C++ it is best to make sure that the same graphic is drawn in all the locations it needs to be drawn at once to reduce the number of times the current texture needs to be switch. From what I have read, it seems as if Java will take care of this for me and make sure things are drawn in the most optimal fashion, but again, nothing has ever said anything like this clearly. 5) What AWT/Swing classes support hardware acceleration, and which ones should be used? I am currently using a class that extends JFrame to create a window, and adding a Canvas to it from which I create a BufferStrategy. Is this good practice, or is there some other type of way I should be implementing this? Thank you very much for your time, and I hope I provided clear questions and enough information for you to answer my several questions.

    Read the article

  • Offline backup synchronization

    - by Pavan Kumar
    There is a Central Server running Windows Server 2003 and SQL Server 2005 and there are 7 client machines situated in various places and has XP Pro & SQL Server 2005 installed in all of them. They are not interconnected so they are physically seperate. One person goes to each of these centers maybe twice a month and takes the backup (Full database consisting of mdf and ldf files) with a pen drive and brings it to the Central server which contains the central database holding same schema as all the other client databases. I need to synchronize each backup database (belonging to different centers) one by one to update the existing data or inserting new data in the central database . The solution i got was Replication. The pendrive is brought to central server consisting of 7 instances of the databases and then the databases is attached to the central server one by one to the same SQL Server where the central database exists. Then my idea was to replicate the backup database one by one i.e using single subscription (Central Database) and multiple publication ( i.e 7 instances of databases in my case) toplogy by performing replication locally (i.e in the same machine). So i tried to develop a UI in C# .Net to programatically run the Transactional Replication with push subscription using RMO Programming (which is incomplete as of now because there is no point in developing when you already know it is not the solution). Transactional Replication can either be set to initialize with a snapshot or without a snapshot. If i go for the first option i.e with a snapshot , the data whatever is present in Central Database is overwritten by the new data . So the data present initially in the central database is lost. If i try to initialize without snapshot , no data (the data already has the updated and new data) will be sent from the backup database to server. The replication will work in a scenario where any incremental changes is done only after you set the replication . So the initial data whatever was present in the backup database when setting up the replication will not be replicated when running the snapshot agent for the first time to synchronize. Only changes in the backup database thereafter will be reflected to the central database .(Remember I am not going to insert new data or make any changes to the backup database after i attach it to the Central Server. ) So this solution is not feasible. I want a solution for synchronizing from one client database to central database present in the same machine using C#.NET. If you can provide me small example maybe with two databases(with same schema) DB1(Client) to DB2(Server) consisting of one or two tables it will be very helpful. The synchronization is not bidirectional.I want to only update existing data or insert new data from DB1 to DB2 (DB2 may contain some data initially). Thanks and Regards Pavan

    Read the article

  • DropDownList not updating value

    - by annelie
    Hello, I posted a question earlier but have another problem after making those changes. The previous thread can be found here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2700028/binding-a-dropdownlist-inside-a-detailsview Basically, I've got a dropdownlist that's dynamically populated with a list of regions. It selects the correct region when viewing the dropdown, but when I try to edit it changes the value to null. I think it might be because it doesn't know which field to update. Previously, when the dropdown list was hardcoded, I had SelectedValue='<%# Bind("region_id")%' set on the dropdown list, and when I updated it worked fine. However, I had to move the setting of the selected value into the code behind and now it just gets set to null every time I update. Here's the aspx code: <asp:DetailsView id="DetailsView1" runat="server" AutoGenerateRows="false" DataSourceID="myMySqlDataSrc" DataKeyNames="id" AutoGenerateDeleteButton="True" AutoGenerateEditButton="True" AutoGenerateInsertButton="False" OnDataBound="DetailsView1_DataBound" > <Fields> <snip> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Region"> <ItemTemplate><%# Eval("region_name") %></ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:DropDownList ID="RegionDropdownList" runat="server"> </asp:DropDownList> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Fields> </asp:DetailsView> And here's the code behind: protected void DetailsView1_DataBound(object sender, EventArgs e) { ArrayList regionsList = BPBusiness.getRegions(); if (DetailsView1.CurrentMode == DetailsViewMode.Edit) { DropDownList ddlRegions = (DropDownList)DetailsView1.FindControl("RegionDropdownList"); if (ddlRegions != null) { ddlRegions.DataSource = regionsList; ddlRegions.DataValueField = "Value"; ddlRegions.DataTextField = "Text"; ddlRegions.DataBind(); if (ddlRegions.Items.Contains(ddlRegions.Items.FindByValue(objBusiness.iRegionID.ToString()))) { ddlRegions.SelectedIndex = ddlRegions.Items.IndexOf(ddlRegions.Items.FindByValue(objBusiness.iRegionID.ToString())); } } } } EDIT: The database is MySql, and the update statement looks like this: myMySqlDataSrc.UpdateCommand = "UPDATE myTable SET business_name = ?, addr_line_1 = ?, addr_line_2 = ?, addr_line_3 = ?, postcode = ?, county = ?, town_city = ?, tl_url = ?, customer_id = ?, region_id = ?, description = ?, approval_status = ?, tl_user_name = ?, phone = ?, uploaders_own = ? WHERE id = ?"; Thanks, Annelie

    Read the article

  • using checkbox yo update MySql table

    - by Martin
    Hi All I have been searching round the internet for days on this matter but I keep coming up against a brick wall. What I have is a table full of checkboxes inside an admin area acting as a monthly "to-do" list. It's essentially a worksheet of 30 or so things to do each month that must be checked off each month and notes added if applicable. I have managed to get the checkboxes to update via mysql and be shown somewhere as a list of ticks. I simply did this my setting the value to 1 and on submission it updates the sql table. I have to cover my bases here and also offer the option to un-tick items if they have been ticked b y mistake. But I cant figure out how this is done. Below is my checking code... any help on this matter would be great. <?php $currentTask = ''; echo "<tr class='tr'>"; while ($seolistRow = mysql_fetch_array($seolistRes)) { $taskValue = $seolistRow["taskValue"]; $worksheetID = $seolistRow["worksheetID"]; $taskName = $seolistRow["taskName"]; $taskInfo = $seolistRow["taskInfo"]; if ($taskValue == 1) { $taskDone = "<input type='checkbox' value='1' class='checkbox' name='checkbox".$worksheetID."' id=checkbox'".$worksheetID."' checked='checked' /><div class='taskinfo'>".$taskInfo."</div>"; } else { $taskDone = "<input type='checkbox' value='0' class='checkbox' name='checkbox".$worksheetID."' id='checkbox".$worksheetID."' />"; } if ($currentTask != $taskName) { echo "</tr>"; echo "<tr class='tr'>"; echo "<td class='task'>".$taskName."</td>"; } echo "<td class='tick'>".$taskDone."</td>"; $currentTask = $taskName; } echo "</tr>"; ?>

    Read the article

  • Which third party website thumbnailing services do you use?

    - by Ben Delarre
    I've got a requirement for showing thumbnails of arbitrary websites. I need to be able to show small thumbnails (120px by 90px), and larger thumbnails of around 480px wide. I'll need to specify the queue and invalid placeholder images and preferably have a pingback when the queued images are processed so I can respond appropriately. I'd also need a simple API I can use either directly embedded in my HTML, or from a simple web request to queue the images. I've been looking at various services ranging from low-fi services, to large scale ones - here's some examples: www.bitpixels.com Uses Google AppEngine, seems like a prototype or a toy. Free! www.websnapr.com Tried using this, made a free account and requested a thumbnail. Waited a few minutes and refreshed a couple of times, and ended up having the account banned. Free is tricky yes, but if I can't try it out successfully I'm disinclined to pay. www.shrinktheweb.com Free account seems to be very quick. Lots of documentation on the site, and even covers local caching of the images to your own server (documentation mostly in PHP). Quality of thumbnails look good, and there appear to be sufficient options for setting thumbnail placeholder images and parameters for altering how the thumbnailing is done. Also supports large 'screenshots' of URLs - very useful for me. Discovered the PRO pricing is an à la carte menu, allowing me to select just the features I want and keep the monthly cost low. Excellent stuff, have decided to use this service. www.thumbalizr.com Good coverage of thumbnail sizes and control options - even allowing specification for browser width when thumbnailing. No ping-back, but I can live without that. Supports local caching of images with PHP API, would prefer .NET, but can port it if necessary. Looks like a fairly professional service but seems fairly expensive for the number of thumbnails you get to generate. apologies for lack of proper linking - spam protection! I'm not entirely convinced by any of them, and since this will be a long term service I'd like some stability and support. I'm willing to pay for the service, but I'd want something that fulfills most if not all of my requirements for that. I should also mention that we're hosted on Windows under IIS, so local solutions involving Xvfb and the like sadly can't be used for this project. So my question is: what services do you use? How have they panned out, are you happy with them?

    Read the article

  • With sqlalchemy how to dynamically bind to database engine on a per-request basis

    - by Peter Hansen
    I have a Pylons-based web application which connects via Sqlalchemy (v0.5) to a Postgres database. For security, rather than follow the typical pattern of simple web apps (as seen in just about all tutorials), I'm not using a generic Postgres user (e.g. "webapp") but am requiring that users enter their own Postgres userid and password, and am using that to establish the connection. That means we get the full benefit of Postgres security. Complicating things still further, there are two separate databases to connect to. Although they're currently in the same Postgres cluster, they need to be able to move to separate hosts at a later date. We're using sqlalchemy's declarative package, though I can't see that this has any bearing on the matter. Most examples of sqlalchemy show trivial approaches such as setting up the Metadata once, at application startup, with a generic database userid and password, which is used through the web application. This is usually done with Metadata.bind = create_engine(), sometimes even at module-level in the database model files. My question is, how can we defer establishing the connections until the user has logged in, and then (of course) re-use those connections, or re-establish them using the same credentials, for each subsequent request. We have this working -- we think -- but I'm not only not certain of the safety of it, I also think it looks incredibly heavy-weight for the situation. Inside the __call__ method of the BaseController we retrieve the userid and password from the web session, call sqlalchemy create_engine() once for each database, then call a routine which calls Session.bind_mapper() repeatedly, once for each table that may be referenced on each of those connections, even though any given request usually references only one or two tables. It looks something like this: # in lib/base.py on the BaseController class def __call__(self, environ, start_response): # note: web session contains {'username': XXX, 'password': YYY} url1 = 'postgres://%(username)s:%(password)s@server1/finance' % session url2 = 'postgres://%(username)s:%(password)s@server2/staff' % session finance = create_engine(url1) staff = create_engine(url2) db_configure(staff, finance) # see below ... etc # in another file Session = scoped_session(sessionmaker()) def db_configure(staff, finance): s = Session() from db.finance import Employee, Customer, Invoice for c in [ Employee, Customer, Invoice, ]: s.bind_mapper(c, finance) from db.staff import Project, Hour for c in [ Project, Hour, ]: s.bind_mapper(c, staff) s.close() # prevents leaking connections between sessions? So the create_engine() calls occur on every request... I can see that being needed, and the Connection Pool probably caches them and does things sensibly. But calling Session.bind_mapper() once for each table, on every request? Seems like there has to be a better way. Obviously, since a desire for strong security underlies all this, we don't want any chance that a connection established for a high-security user will inadvertently be used in a later request by a low-security user.

    Read the article

  • How to avoid this PDO exception: Cannot execute queries while other unbuffered queries are active

    - by Vittorio Vittori
    Hi, I'd like to print a simple table in my page with 3 columns, building name, tags and architecture style. If I try to retrieve the list of building names and arch. styles there is no problem: SELECT buildings.name, arch_styles.style_name FROM buildings INNER JOIN buildings_arch_styles ON buildings.id = buildings_arch_styles.building_id INNER JOIN arch_styles ON arch_styles.id = buildings_arch_styles.arch_style_id LIMIT 0, 10 My problem starts on retreaving the first 5 tags for every building of the query I've just wrote. SELECT DISTINCT name FROM tags INNER JOIN buildings_tags ON buildings_tags.tag_id = tags.id AND buildings_tags.building_id = 123 LIMIT 0, 5 The query itself works perfectly, but not where I thought to use it: <?php // pdo connection allready active, i'm using mysql $pdo_conn->setAttribute(PDO::MYSQL_ATTR_USE_BUFFERED_QUERY, true); $sql = "SELECT buildings.name, buildings.id, arch_styles.style_name FROM buildings INNER JOIN buildings_arch_styles ON buildings.id = buildings_arch_styles.building_id INNER JOIN arch_styles ON arch_styles.id = buildings_arch_styles.arch_style_id LIMIT 0, 10"; $buildings_stmt = $pdo_conn->prepare ($sql); $buildings_stmt->execute (); $buildings = $buildings_stmt->fetchAll (PDO::FETCH_ASSOC); $sql = "SELECT DISTINCT name FROM tags INNER JOIN buildings_tags ON buildings_tags.tag_id = tags.id AND buildings_tags.building_id = :building_id LIMIT 0, 5"; $tags_stmt = $pdo_conn->prepare ($sql); $html = "<table>"; // i'll use it to print my table foreach ($buildings as $building) { $name = $building["name"]; $style = $building["style_name"]; $id = $building["id"]; $tags_stmt->bindParam (":building_id", $id, PDO::PARAM_INT); $tags_stmt->execute (); // the problem is HERE $tags = $tags_stmt->fetchAll (PDO::FETCH_ASSOC); $html .= "... $name ... $style"; foreach ($tags as $current_tag) { $tag = $current_tag["name"]; $html .= "... $tag ..."; // let's suppose this is an area of the table where I print the first 5 tags per building } } $html .= "...</table>"; print $html; I'm not experienced on queries, so i though something like this, but it throws the error: PHP Fatal error: Uncaught exception 'PDOException' with message 'SQLSTATE[HY000]: General error: 2014 Cannot execute queries while other unbuffered queries are active. Consider using PDOStatement::fetchAll(). Alternatively, if your code is only ever going to run against mysql, you may enable query buffering by setting the PDO::MYSQL_ATTR_USE_BUFFERED_QUERY attribute. What can I do to avoid this? Should I change all and search a different way to get this kind of queries?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET Client to Server communication

    - by Nelson
    Can you help me make sense of all the different ways to communicate from browser to client in ASP.NET? I have made this a community wiki so feel free to edit my post to improve it. Specifically, I'm trying to understand in which scenario to use each one by listing how each works. I'm a little fuzzy on UpdatePanel vs CallBack (with ViewState): I know UpdatePanel always returns HTML while CallBack can return JSON. Any other major differences? ...and CallBack (without ViewState) vs WebMethod. CallBack goes through most of the Page lifecycle, WebMethod doesn't. Any other major differences? IHttpHandler Custom handler for anything (page, image, etc.) Only does what you tell it to do (light server processing) Page is an implementation of IHttpHandler If you don't need what Page provides, create a custom IHttpHandler If you are using Page but overriding Render() and not generating HTML, you probably can do it with a custom IHttpHandler (e.g. writing binary data such as images) By default can use the .axd or .ashx file extensions -- both are functionally similar .ashx doesn't have any built-in endpoints, so it's preferred by convention Regular PostBack (System.Web.UI.Page : IHttpHandler) Inherits Page Full PostBack, including ViewState and HTML control values (heavy traffic) Full Page lifecycle (heavy server processing) No JavaScript required Webpage flickers/scrolls since everything is reloaded in browser Returns full page HTML (heavy traffic) UpdatePanel (Control) Control inside Page Full PostBack, including ViewState and HTML control values (heavy traffic) Full Page lifecycle (heavy server processing) Controls outside the UpdatePanel do Render(NullTextWriter) Must use ScriptManager If no client-side JavaScript, it can fall back to regular PostBack with no JavaScript (?) No flicker/scroll since it's an async call, unless it falls back to regular postback. Can be used with master pages and user controls Has built-in support for progress bar Returns HTML for controls inside UpdatePanel (medium traffic) Client CallBack (Page, System.Web.UI.ICallbackEventHandler) Inherits Page Most of Page lifecycle (heavy server processing) Takes only data you specify (light traffic) and optionally ViewState (?) (medium traffic) Client must support JavaScript and use ScriptManager No flicker/scroll since it's an async call Can be used with master pages and user controls Returns only data you specify in format you specify (e.g. JSON, XML...) (?) (light traffic) WebMethod Class implements System.Web.Service.WebService HttpContext available through this.Context Takes only data you specify (light traffic) Server only runs the called method (light server processing) Client must support JavaScript No flicker/scroll since it's an async call Can be used with master pages and user controls Returns only data you specify, typically JSON (light traffic) Can create instance of server control to render HTML and sent back as string, but events, paging in GridView, etc. won't work PageMethods Essentially a WebMethod contained in the Page class, so most of WebMethod's bullet's apply Method must be public static, therefore no Page instance accessible HttpContext available through HttpContext.Current Accessed directly by URL Page.aspx/MethodName (e.g. with XMLHttpRequest directly or with library such as jQuery) Setting ScriptManager property EnablePageMethods="True" generates a JavaScript proxy for each WebMethod Cannot be used directly in user controls with master pages and user controls Any others?

    Read the article

  • emulator crashes

    - by Dave
    I am setting up an Android environment for the first time on Eclipse. I have many years of Eclipse experience, but new to Android. This is being done on an Apple Mac Mini, running MacOSX 10.6.3. I am using the latest Eclipse Classic, version 3.5.2. I am trying to get the tiny hello world program running. When I run it, I get the following in the console window of Eclipse: [2010-06-12 13:48:08 - HelloAndroid] Automatic Target Mode: launching new emulator with compatible AVD 'Android2.2AVD' [2010-06-12 13:48:08 - HelloAndroid] Launching a new emulator with Virtual Device 'Android2.2AVD' [2010-06-12 13:48:11 - HelloAndroid] New emulator found: emulator-5554 [2010-06-12 13:48:11 - HelloAndroid] Waiting for HOME ('android.process.acore') to be launched... [2010-06-12 13:48:12 - Emulator] 2010-06-12 13:48:12.783 emulator[50495:903] Warning once: This application, or a library it uses, is using NSQuickDrawView, which has been deprecated. Apps should cease use of QuickDraw and move to Quartz. [2010-06-12 13:48:19 - HelloAndroid] emulator-5554 disconnected! Cancelling 'com.example.helloandroid.HelloAndroid activity launch'! The emulator crashes with the following info. I have followed all the instructions for running the hello world sample. Anyone have any ideas? Process: emulator [50398] Path: /Users/jeremy/android-sdk-mac_86/tools/emulator Identifier: emulator Version: ??? (???) Code Type: X86 (Native) Parent Process: eclipse [50388] Date/Time: 2010-06-12 13:28:38.595 -0400 OS Version: Mac OS X 10.6.3 (10D573) Report Version: 6 Interval Since Last Report: 363037 sec Crashes Since Last Report: 9 Per-App Crashes Since Last Report: 7 Exception Type: EXC_BAD_ACCESS (SIGSEGV) Exception Codes: KERN_INVALID_ADDRESS at 0x00000000007fd000 Crashed Thread: 4 Thread 0: Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread 0 emulator 0x000eed4e helper_set_cp15 + 30 Thread 1: 0 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020bbd2 __workq_kernreturn + 10 1 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020c168 _pthread_wqthread + 941 2 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020bd86 start_wqthread + 30 Thread 2: Dispatch queue: com.apple.libdispatch-manager 0 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020cb42 kevent + 10 1 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020d25c _dispatch_mgr_invoke + 215 2 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020c719 _dispatch_queue_invoke + 163 3 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020c4be _dispatch_worker_thread2 + 240 4 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020bf41 _pthread_wqthread + 390 5 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020bd86 start_wqthread + 30 Thread 3: 0 libSystem.B.dylib 0x901e635a semaphore_timedwait_signal_trap + 10 1 libSystem.B.dylib 0x90213ea1 _pthread_cond_wait + 1066 2 libSystem.B.dylib 0x90242a28 pthread_cond_timedwait_relative_np + 47 3 com.apple.audio.CoreAudio 0x9056f965 CAGuard::WaitFor(unsigned long long) + 219 4 com.apple.audio.CoreAudio 0x90572997 CAGuard::WaitUntil(unsigned long long) + 289 5 com.apple.audio.CoreAudio 0x90570294 HP_IOThread::WorkLoop() + 1892 6 com.apple.audio.CoreAudio 0x9056fb2b HP_IOThread::ThreadEntry(HP_IOThread*) + 17 7 com.apple.audio.CoreAudio 0x9056fa42 CAPThread::Entry(CAPThread*) + 140 8 libSystem.B.dylib 0x90213a19 _pthread_start + 345 9 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9021389e thread_start + 34 Thread 4 Crashed: 0 emulator 0x00040380 audioInDeviceIOProc + 96 Thread 4 crashed with X86 Thread State (32-bit): eax: 0x00000000 ebx: 0x007fd000 ecx: 0x000001fe edx: 0x0198f3f0 edi: 0x00000200 esi: 0x01119850 ebp: 0x01119800 esp: 0xb020fad0 ss: 0x0000001f efl: 0x00010212 eip: 0x00040380 cs: 0x00000017 ds: 0x0000001f es: 0x0000001f fs: 0x0000001f gs: 0x00000037 cr2: 0x007fd000

    Read the article

  • Apache HttpClient CoreConnectionPNames.CONNECTION_TIMEOUT does nothing ?

    - by Maxim Veksler
    Hi, I'm testing some result from HttpClient that looks irrational. It seems that setting CoreConnectionPNames.CONNECTION_TIMEOUT = 1 has no effect because send request to different host return successfully with connect timeout 1 which IMHO can't be the case (1ms to setup TCP handshake???) Am I misunderstood something or is something very strange going on here? The httpclient version I'm using as can be seen in this pom.xml is <dependency> <groupId>org.apache.httpcomponents</groupId> <artifactId>httpclient</artifactId> <version>4.0.1</version> <type>jar</type> </dependency> Here is the code: import java.io.IOException; import java.util.Random; import org.apache.http.HttpEntity; import org.apache.http.HttpResponse; import org.apache.http.client.ClientProtocolException; import org.apache.http.client.HttpClient; import org.apache.http.client.methods.HttpGet; import org.apache.http.client.methods.HttpUriRequest; import org.apache.http.impl.client.DefaultHttpClient; import org.apache.http.params.CoreConnectionPNames; import org.apache.http.util.EntityUtils; import org.apache.log4j.Logger; public class TestNodeAliveness { private static Logger log = Logger.getLogger(TestNodeAliveness.class); public static boolean nodeBIT(String elasticIP) throws ClientProtocolException, IOException { try { HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); // The time it takes to open TCP connection. client.getParams().setParameter(CoreConnectionPNames.CONNECTION_TIMEOUT, 1); // Timeout when server does not send data. client.getParams().setParameter(CoreConnectionPNames.SO_TIMEOUT, 5000); // Some tuning that is not required for bit tests. client.getParams().setParameter(CoreConnectionPNames.STALE_CONNECTION_CHECK, false); client.getParams().setParameter(CoreConnectionPNames.TCP_NODELAY, true); HttpUriRequest request = new HttpGet("http://" + elasticIP); HttpResponse response = client.execute(request); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); if(entity == null) { return false; } else { System.out.println(EntityUtils.toString(entity)); } // Close just in case. request.abort(); } catch (Throwable e) { log.warn("BIT Test failed for " + elasticIP); e.printStackTrace(); return false; } return true; } public static void main(String[] args) throws ClientProtocolException, IOException { nodeBIT("google.com?cant_cache_this=" + (new Random()).nextInt()); } } Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Adding ComboBoxItem to a combobox inside a user control (XAML/WPF)

    - by byte
    I am currently learning to create custom controls in WPF. I successfully created a simple custom control using a Label and a Text Box. I was able to allow setting the Label text by DependencyProperty. Now I am creating a user control that has a ComboBox. I need to allow adding items to this ComboBox from outside the control. To achieve this, I tried exposing a DependencyProperty of type ItemsCollection and it will allows access to the ComboBox's Items property (the DP in my control sample is named 'CbItems'). But I get errors because Items property of Combobox is ReadOnly. Control XAML <UserControl x:Class="MyWpfApp.Controls.MyControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Height="Auto" Width="Auto"> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition /> <ColumnDefinition /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Label Grid.Column="0" Content="{Binding FieldLabel}"></Label> <ComboBox Name="cmb" Grid.Column="1" Width="150"></ComboBox> </Grid> </UserControl> MainWindow XAML <Window x:Class="MyWpfApp.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:ctl="clr-namespace:MyWpfApp.Controls" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Grid> <ctl:MyControl> <ctl:MyControl.CbItems> <ComboBoxItem>Hello</ComboBoxItem> <ComboBoxItem>World</ComboBoxItem> <ComboBoxItem>Hi</ComboBoxItem> </ctl:LobCombox.CbItems> </ctl:LobCombox> </Grid> </Window> I would like to know what the correct way is to achieve this functionality. I believe the answer to this might also help with other controls like GridView etc Many Thanks

    Read the article

  • Silverlight ControlTemplate and F#

    - by akaphenom
    Has anybody had any success incorporating a Silverlight ControlTemplate into an F# Silverlight application. I am trying to add transitions to the Navgiation.Frame element and following along on with a C# example: http://www.davidpoll.com/2009/07/19/silverlight-3-navigation-adding-transitions-to-the-frame-control The downloaded source uses the MSBUILD:Compile option on the template XAML and the file is included as a "Page"... ILDASM doesn't show any object created for the XAML; In my project I incldued it as a "Resource" (same as I have done for my pages) and referenced it in app.xaml: <Application xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" x:Class="Module1.MyApp"> <Application.Resources> <ResourceDictionary> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="/FSSilverlightApp;component/TransitioningFrame.xaml"/> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> </Application.Resources> </Application> the TransitioningFrame.xaml is as follows: <ResourceDictionary xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:navigation="clr-namespace:System.Windows.Controls;assembly=System.Windows.Controls.Navigation" xmlns:toolkit="clr-namespace:System.Windows.Controls;assembly=System.Windows.Controls.Layout.Toolkit"> <ControlTemplate x:Key="TransitioningFrame" TargetType="navigation:Frame"> <Border Background="{TemplateBinding Background}" BorderBrush="{TemplateBinding BorderBrush}" BorderThickness="{TemplateBinding BorderThickness}" HorizontalAlignment="{TemplateBinding HorizontalContentAlignment}" VerticalAlignment="{TemplateBinding VerticalContentAlignment}"> <toolkit:TransitioningContentControl Content="{TemplateBinding Content}" Cursor="{TemplateBinding Cursor}" Margin="{TemplateBinding Padding}" HorizontalAlignment="{TemplateBinding HorizontalContentAlignment}" VerticalAlignment="{TemplateBinding VerticalContentAlignment}" HorizontalContentAlignment="{TemplateBinding HorizontalContentAlignment}" VerticalContentAlignment="{TemplateBinding VerticalContentAlignment}" Transition="DefaultTransition" /> </Border> </ControlTemplate> </ResourceDictionary> My page objects all load their respective xaml with the follwoing code: type Page1() as this = inherit UriUserControl("/FSSilverlightApp;component/Page1.xaml") do Application.LoadComponent(this, base.uri) and somewhere in app startup: let p1 = new Page1() I donot have a comparable piece for the ControlTemplate - though I was hoping the application object and App.xaml would pull it in magically (as an aside, the reliance on this magic has made setting up a 100% f# silverlight application rather tricky - as nearly all the published articles I find are based around wizards and short cuts - very little on the acual plumbing - ugh). Any advice or thougts on the subject are appreciated.

    Read the article

  • "RFC 2833 RTP Event" Consecutive Events and the E "End" Bit

    - by brian_d
    Hello, I can send out a RFC 2833 dtmf event as outlined at http://www.ietf.org/rfc/rfc2833.txt When I do set the E "End" bit, but leave it as 0, I get the following behaviour: If for example keys 7874556332111111145855885#3 were pressed, then ALL events would be sent and show up in a program like wireshark, however only 87456321458585#3 would sound. So the first key (which I figure could be a separate issue) and any repeats of an event (ie 11111) are failing to sound. In section 3.9, figure 2 of the above linked document, they give a 911 example. Here all but the last event have the E bit set. When I set the bit for all numbers, I never get an event to sound. I have thought of a couple possible thing but do not know if they are the reason: 1) figure 2 shows payload types of 96 and 97 sent. I have not nor know how to exactly. In section 3.8, codes 96 and 97 are described as "the dynamic payload types 96 and 97 have been assigned for the redundancy mechanism and the telephone event payload respectively" 2) In section 3.5, "E:", "A sender MAY delay setting the end bit until retransmitting the last packet for a tone, rather than on its first transmission" Does anyone have an idea of how to actually do this? I have also fiddled around with timestamp intervals and the RTP marker. Any help is greatly appreciated. Here is a sample wireshark event capture of the relevant areas: 6590 31.159045000 xx.x.x.xxx --.--.---.-- RTP EVENT Payload type=RTP Event, DTMF Pound # (end) Real-Time Transport Protocol Stream setup by SDP (frame 6225) Setup frame: 6225 Setup Method: SDP 10.. .... = Version: RFC 1889 Version (2) ..0. .... = Padding: False ...0 .... = Extension: False .... 0000 = Contributing source identifiers count: 0 0... .... = Marker: False Payload type: telephone-event (101) Sequence number: 0 Extended sequence number: 65536 Timestamp: 0 Synchronization Source identifier: 0x15f27104 (368210180) RFC 2833 RTP Event Event ID: DTMF Pound # (11) 1... .... = End of Event: True .0.. .... = Reserved: False ..00 0000 = Volume: 0 Event Duration: 2048

    Read the article

  • Rush Hour - Solving the game

    - by Rubys
    Rush Hour if you're not familiar with it, the game consists of a collection of cars of varying sizes, set either horizontally or vertically, on a NxM grid that has a single exit. Each car can move forward/backward in the directions it's set in, as long as another car is not blocking it. You can never change the direction of a car. There is one special car, usually it's the red one. It's set in the same row that the exit is in, and the objective of the game is to find a series of moves (a move - moving a car N steps back or forward) that will allow the red car to drive out of the maze. I've been trying to think how to solve this problem computationally, and I can really not think of any good solution. I came up with a few: Backtracking. This is pretty simple - Recursion and some more recursion until you find the answer. However, each car can be moved a few different ways, and in each game state a few cars can be moved, and the resulting game tree will be HUGE. Some sort of constraint algorithm that will take into account what needs to be moved, and work recursively somehow. This is a very rough idea, but it is an idea. Graphs? Model the game states as a graph and apply some sort of variation on a coloring algorithm, to resolve dependencies? Again, this is a very rough idea. A friend suggested genetic algorithms. This is sort of possible but not easily. I can't think of a good way to make an evaluation function, and without that we've got nothing. So the question is - How to create a program that takes a grid and the vehicle layout, and outputs a series of steps needed to get the red car out? Sub-issues: Finding some solution. Finding an optimal solution (minimal number of moves) Evaluating how good a current state is Example: How can you move the cars in this setting, so that the red car can "exit" the maze through the exit on the right?

    Read the article

  • SSIS DTS Package flat file error - "The file name specified in the connection was not valid"

    - by MisterZimbu
    I have a pretty basic SSIS package that is attempting to read a file hosted on a share, and import its contents to a database table. The package runs fine when I run it manually within SSIS. However, when I set up a SQL Agent job and attempt to execute it, I get the following error: Executed as user: DOMAIN\UserName. Microsoft (R) SQL Server Execute Package Utility Version 9.00.3042.00 for 64-bit Copyright (C) Microsoft Corp 1984-2005. All rights reserved. Started: 10:14:17 AM Error: 2010-05-03 10:14:17.75 Code: 0xC001401E Source: DataImport Connection manager "Data File Local" Description: The file name "\10.1.1.159\llpf\datafile.dat" specified in the connection was not valid. End Error Error: 2010-05-03 10:14:17.75 Code: 0xC001401D Source: DataAnimalImport Description: Connection "Data File Local" failed validation. End Error DTExec: The package execution returned DTSER_FAILURE (1). Started: 10:14:17 AM Finished: 10:14:17 AM Elapsed: 0.594 seconds. The package execution failed. The step failed. This leads me to believe it's a permissions issue, but every attempt I've made to fix it has failed. What I've tried so far: Run as the SQL Agent account (DOMAIN\SqlAgent) - yields same error. DOMAIN\SqlAgent has "Full Control" permissions on both the share and the uploaded file. Set up a proxy account with a different account's credentials (DOMAIN\Account) - yields same error. Like above, "Full Control" permissions were given over the share to that account. Gave "Everyone" full control permissions over the share (temporarily!). Yielded same error. Manually copied the file to a local path and tested with the SQL Agent account. Worked properly. Added an ActiveX script task that would first copy the remotely hosted file to a local path, and then have the DTS package reference the local file. Gave a completely nondescriptive (even by SSIS standards) error when trying to run the script. Set up a proxy account, using my own personal account's credentials - worked correctly. However, this is not an acceptable solution as there are password policies in place on my account, as well as being a bad practice to set things up this way in general. Any ideas? I'm still convinced it's a permissions issue. However, what I've read from various searches more or less says giving the executing account permissions on the share should work. However, this is not the case here (unless I'm missing something obscure when I'm setting up permissions on the share).

    Read the article

  • Can a View Controller manage more than 1 nib based view?

    - by Hugo Brynjar
    I have a VC controlling a screen of content that has 2 modes; a normal mode and an edit mode. Can I create a single VC with 2 views, each from separate nibs? In many situations on the iphone, you have a VC which controls an associated view. Then on a button press or other event, a new VC is loaded and its view becomes the top level view etc. But in this situation, I have 2 modes that I want to use the same VC for, because they are closely related. So I want a VC which can swap in/out 2 views. As per here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/863321/iphone-how-to-load-a-view-using-a-nib-file-created-with-interface-builder/2683153#2683153 I have found that I can load a VC with an associated view from a nib and then later on load a different view from another nib and make that new view the active view. NSArray *nibObjects = [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"EditMode" owner:self options:nil]; UIView *theEditView = [nibObjects objectAtIndex:0]; self.editView = theEditView; [self.view addSubview:theEditView]; The secondary nib has outlets wired up to the VC like the primary nib. When the new nib is loaded, the outlets are all connected up fine and everything works nicely. Unfortunately when this edit view is then removed, there doesn't seem to be any elegant way of getting the outlets hooked up again to the (normal mode) view from the original nib. Nib loading and outlet setting seems a once only thing. So, if you want to have a VC that swaps in/out 2 views without creating a new VC, what are the options? 1) You can do everything in code, but I want to use nibs because it makes creating the UI simpler. 2) You have 1 nib for your VC and just hide/show elements using the hidden property of UIView and its subclasses. 3) You load a new nib as described above. This is fine for the new nib, but how do you sort the outlets when you go back to the original nib. 4) Give up and accept having a 1:1 between VCs and nibs. There is a nib for normal mode, a nib for edit mode and each mode has a VC that subclasses a common superclass. In the end, I went with 4) and it works, but requires a fair amount of extra work, because I have a model class that I instantiate in normal mode and then have to pass to the edit mode VC because both modes need access to the model. I'm also using NSTimer and have to start and stop the timer in each mode. It is because of all this shared functionality that I wanted a single VC with 2 nibs in the first place.

    Read the article

  • compiling opencv 2.4 on a 64 bit mac in Xcode

    - by Walt
    I have an opencv project that I've been developing under ubuntu 12.04, on a parellels VM on a mac which has an x86_64 architecture. There have been many screen switching performance issues that I believe are due to the VM, where linux video modes flip around for a couple seconds while camera access is made by the opencv application. I decided to moved the project into Xcode on the mac side of the computer to continue the opencv development. However, I'm not that familiar with xcode and am having trouble getting the project to build correctly there. I have xcode installed. I downloaded and decompressed the latest version of opencv on the mac, and ran: ~/src/opencv/build/cmake-gui -G Xcode .. per the instructions from willowgarage and various other locations. This appeared to work fine (however I'm wondering now if I'm missing an architecture setting in here, although it is 64-bit intel in Xcode). I then setup an xcode project with the source files from the linux project and changed the include directories to use /opt/local/include/... rather than the /usr/local/include/... I switched xcode to use the LLVM GCC compiler in the build settings for the project then set the Apple LLVM Dialog for C++ to Language Dialect to GNU++11 (which seems possibly inconsistant with the line above) I'm not using a makefile in xcode, (that I'm aware of - it has its own project file...) I was also running into a linker issue that looked like they may be resolved with the addition of this linker flag: -lopencv_video based on a similar posting here: other thread however in that case the person was using a Makefile in their project. I've tried adding this linker flag under "Other Linker Flags" in xcode build settings but still get build errors. I think I may have two issues here, one with the architecture settings when building the opencv libraries with Cmake, and one with the linker flag settings in my project. Currently the build error list looks like this: Undefined symbols for architecture x86_64: "cv::_InputArray::_InputArray(cv::Mat const&)", referenced from: _main in main.o "cv::_OutputArray::_OutputArray(cv::Mat&)", referenced from: _main in main.o "cv::Mat::deallocate()", referenced from: cv::Mat::release() in main.o "cv::Mat::copySize(cv::Mat const&)", referenced from: cv::Mat::Mat(cv::Mat const&)in main.o cv::Mat::operator=(cv::Mat const&)in main.o "cv::Mat::Mat(_IplImage const*, bool)", referenced from: _main in main.o "cv::imread(std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> > const&, int)", referenced from: _main in main.o ---SNIP--- ld: symbol(s) not found for architecture x86_64 collect2: ld returned 1 exit status Can anyone provide some guidance on what to try next? Thanks, Walt

    Read the article

  • Start a short video when an incoming call is detected, first case using the emulator.

    - by Emanuel
    I want to be able to start a short video on an incoming phone call. The video will loop until the call is answered. I've loaded the video onto the emulator sdcard then created the appropriate level avd with a path to the sdcard.iso file on disk. Since I'm running on a Mac OS x snow leopard I am able to confirm the contents of the sdcard. All testing has be done on the Android emulator. In a separate project TestVideo I created an activity that just launches the video from the sdcard. That works as expected. Then I created another project TestIncoming that creates an activity that creates a PhoneStateListener that overrides the onCallStateChanged(int state, String incomingNumber) method. In the onCallStateChanged() method I check if state == TelephonyManager.CALL_STATE_RINGING. If true I create an Intent that starts the video. I'm actually using the code from the TestVideo project above. Here is the code snippet. PhoneStateListener callStateListener = new PhoneStateListener() { @Override public void onCallStateChanged(int state, String incomingNumber) { if(state == TelelphonyManager.CALL_STATE_RINGING) { Intent launchVideo = new Intent(MyActivity.this, LaunchVideo.class); startActivity(launchVideo); } } }; The PhoneStateListener is added to the TelephonyManager.listen() method like so, telephonyManager.listen(callStateListener, PhoneStateListener.LISTEN_CALL_STATE); Here is the part I'm unclear on, the manifest. What I've tried is the following: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="com.example.incomingdemo" android:versionCode="1" android:versionName="1.0"> <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name"> <activity android:name=".IncomingVideoDemo" android:label="@string/app_name"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.ANSWER" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT" /> </intent-filter> </activity> <activity android:name=".LaunchVideo" android:label="LaunchVideo"> </activity> </application> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="2" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.READ_PHONE_STATE"/> </manifest> I've run the debugger after setting breakpoints in the IncomingVideoDemo activity where the PhoneStateListener is created and none of the breakpoints are hit. Any insights into solving this problem is greatly appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Potential issues using member's "from" address and the "sender" header

    - by Paul Burney
    Hi all, A major component of our application sends email to members on behalf of other members. Currently we set the "From" address to our system address and use a "Reply-to" header with the member's address. The issue is that replies from some email clients (and auto-replies/bounces) don't respect the "Reply-to" header so get sent to our system address, effectively sending them to a black hole. We're considering setting the "From" address to our member's address, and the "Sender" address to our system address. It appears this way would pass SPF and Sender-ID checks. Are there any reasons not to switch to this method? Are there any other potential issues? Thanks in advance, -Paul Here are way more details than you probably need: When the application was first developed, we just changed the "from" address to be that of the sending member as that was the common practice at the time (this was many years ago). We later changed that to have the "from" address be the member's name and our address, i.e., From: "Mary Smith" <[email protected]> With a "reply-to" header set to the member's address: Reply-To: "Mary Smith" <[email protected]> This helped with messages being mis-categorized as spam. As SPF became more popular, we added an additional header that would work in conjunction with our SPF records: Sender: <[email protected]> Things work OK, but it turns out that, in practice, some email clients and most MTA's don't respect the "Reply-To" header. Because of this, many members send messages to [email protected] instead of the desired member. So, I started envisioning various schemes to add data about the sender to the email headers or encode it in the "from" email address so that we could process the response and redirect appropriately. For example, From: "Mary Smith" <[email protected]> where the string after "messages" is a hash representing Mary Smith's member in our system. Of course, that path could lead to a lot of pain as we need to develop MTA functionality for our system address. I was looking again at the SPF documentation and found this page interesting: http://www.openspf.org/Best_Practices/Webgenerated They show two examples, that of evite.com and that of egreetings.com. Basically, evite.com is doing it the way we're doing it. The egreetings.com example uses the member's from address with an added "Sender" header. So the question is, are there any potential issues with using the egreetings method of the member's from address with a sender header? That would eliminate the replies that bad clients send to the system address. I don't believe that it solves the bounce/vacation/whitelist issue since those often send to the MAIL FROM even if Return Path is specified.

    Read the article

  • Consuming Web Services requiring Authentication from behind Proxy server

    - by Jan Petersen
    Hi All, I've seen a number of post about Proxy Authentication, but none that seams to address this problem. I'm building a SharePoint Web Service consuming desktop application, using Java, JAX-WS in NetBeans. I have a working prototype, that can query the server for authentication mode, successfully authenticate and retrieve a list of web site. However, if I run the same app from a network that is behind a proxy server (the proxy does not require authentication), then I'm running into trouble. The normal -dhttp.proxyHost ... settings does not seam to help any. But I have found that by creating a ProxySelector class and setting it as default, I can regain access to the authentication web service, but I still can't retrieve the list of web sites from the SharePoint server. It's almost as if the authentication I provide is going to the proxy rather than the SharePoint server. Anyone have any experience on how to make this work? I have put the source text java class files of a demo app up, showing the issue at the following urls (it's a bit to long even in the short demo form to post here). link text When running the code from a network behind a proxy server, I successfully retrieve the Authentication mode from the server, but the request for the Web Site list generates an exception originating at: com.sun.xml.internal.ws.transport.http.client .HttpClientTransport.readResponseCodeAndMessage(HttpClientTransport.java:201) The output from the source when no proxy is on the network is listed below: Successfully retrieved the SharePoint WebService response for Authentication SharePoint authentication method is: WINDOWS Calling Web Service to retrieve list of web site. Web Service call response: -------------- XML START -------------- <Webs xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/"> <Web Title="Collaboration Lab" Url="http://host.domain.com/collaboration"/> <Web Title="Global Data Lists" Url="http://host.domain.com/global_data_lists"/> <Web Title="Landing" Url="http://host.domain.com/Landing"/> <Web Title="SharePoint HelpDesk" Url="http://host.domain.com/helpdesk"/> <Web Title="Program Management" Url="http://host.domain.com/programmanagement"/> <Web Title="Project Site" Url="http://host.domain.com/Project Site"/> <Web Title="SharePoint Administration Tools" Url="http://host.domain.com/admin"/> <Web Title="Space Management Project" Url="http://host.domain.com/spacemgmt"/> </Webs> -------------- XML END -------------- Br Jan

    Read the article

  • WCF Self Host Service - Endpoints in C#

    - by Kyle
    My first few attempts at creating a self hosted service. Trying to make something up which will accept a query string and return some text but have have a few issues: All the documentation talks about endpoints being created automatically for each base address if they are not found in a config file. This doesn't seem to be the case for me, I get the "Service has zero application endpoints..." exception. Manually specifying a base endpoint as below seems to resolve this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.ServiceModel; using System.ServiceModel.Description; namespace TestService { [ServiceContract] public interface IHelloWorldService { [OperationContract] string SayHello(string name); } public class HelloWorldService : IHelloWorldService { public string SayHello(string name) { return string.Format("Hello, {0}", name); } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { string baseaddr = "http://localhost:8080/HelloWorldService/"; Uri baseAddress = new Uri(baseaddr); // Create the ServiceHost. using (ServiceHost host = new ServiceHost(typeof(HelloWorldService), baseAddress)) { // Enable metadata publishing. ServiceMetadataBehavior smb = new ServiceMetadataBehavior(); smb.HttpGetEnabled = true; smb.MetadataExporter.PolicyVersion = PolicyVersion.Policy15; host.Description.Behaviors.Add(smb); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IHelloWorldService), new BasicHttpBinding(), baseaddr + "SayHello"); //for some reason a default endpoint does not get created here host.Open(); Console.WriteLine("The service is ready at {0}", baseAddress); Console.WriteLine("Press to stop the service."); Console.ReadLine(); // Close the ServiceHost. host.Close(); } } } } I still think I'm doing something wrong as I don't get the normal "This is a web service...etc..." page when I load up the url How would I go about setting this up to return the value of name in SayHello(string name) when requested thusly: localhost:8080/HelloWorldService/SayHello?name=kyle Do I have to create an endpoing for the SayHello contract as well? I'm trying to walk before running, but this just seems like crawling...Service has zero application endpoints...

    Read the article

  • Sql Server Compact 2005 on Visual Studio 2008

    - by Tim
    I'm working on a Windows Forms application that interacts with a Sql Compact database file created by SQL Server 2005. This application was originally developed in Visual Studio 2005 but was recently converted to a Visual Studio 2008 solution. In regards to Sql Compact, we made sure the references were all still set to the assemblies that handle the 2005 version of Sql Compact rather than Sql Compact 3.5. Having done this, the application still runs just as it should - it will still interact with the Compact database, perform synchronization operations, etc. However, I just discovered today that Visual Studio tools such as the DataSet Designer do not play well with a Sql Compact database file of an older version than 3.5. If I go to the New Connection... wizard, the only Sql Compact Data Source / Data Provider are for Sql Compact 3.5. I assume that Visual Studio 2008 just doesn't include the data provider for the older version of Sql Compact by default. Is there a way you can add the old version of Sql Compact to the list of "Data Sources" for the connection wizard? To see exactly what I'm referring to, click on the Tools menu of Visual Studio 2008 and click Connect to Database... In the window that comes up, click Change... next to the Data source setting. From this dialog there is no way I can select the earlier version of Sql Compact - only 3.5 is available. Maybe I need to add an assembly reference somewhere? Or copy some file(s) from my Visual Studio 2005 directory over to 2008? I would think there would have to be a way for Visual Studio 2008 to be able to interact with a Sql Compact database from Sql Server 2005. To provide one more bit of detail, I discovered this problem when I went to my DataSet, right-clicked and tried to add a TableAdapter. The first screen that comes up says, "Choose Your Data Connection". If I leave it set to the Sql Compact connection that we've always used, I now get the following error when clicking the Next button: Failed to open a connection to the database "The selected database was created with an earlier version of SQL Server Compact and needs to be upgraded to SQL Server Compact 3.5 before the connection can be opened or tested. Upgrade the database by creating a new data connection and completing the Add Connection dialog box." Check the connection and try again. The only problem here is that we still use Sql Server 2005, and if my understanding is correct, it does not produce subscription files that are compatible with Sql Compact 3.5. If I am wrong in this assumption, please correct me. Any help you can provide is greatly appreciated. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Symfony2 - PdfBundle not working

    - by ElPiter
    Using Symfony2 and PdfBundle to generate dynamically PDF files, I don't get to generate the files indeed. Following documentation instructions, I have set up all the bundle thing: autoload.php: 'Ps' => __DIR__.'/../vendor/bundles', 'PHPPdf' => __DIR__.'/../vendor/PHPPdf/lib', 'Imagine' => array(__DIR__.'/../vendor/PHPPdf/lib', __DIR__.'/../vendor/PHPPdf/lib/vendor/Imagine/lib'), 'Zend' => __DIR__.'/../vendor/PHPPdf/lib/vendor/Zend/library', 'ZendPdf' => __DIR__.'/../vendor/PHPPdf/lib/vendor/ZendPdf/library', AppKernel.php: ... new Ps\PdfBundle\PsPdfBundle(), ... I guess all the setting up is correctly configured, as I am not getting any "library not found" nor anything on that way... So, after all that, I am doing this in the controller: ... use Ps\PdfBundle\Annotation\Pdf; ... /** * @Pdf() * @Route ("/pdf", name="_pdf") * @Template() */ public function generateInvoicePDFAction($name = 'Pedro') { return $this->render('AcmeStoreBundle:Shop:generateInvoice.pdf.twig', array( 'name' => $name, )); } And having this twig file: <pdf> <dynamic-page> Hello {{ name }}! </dynamic-page> </pdf> Well. Somehow, what I just get in my page is just the normal html generated as if it was a normal Response rendering. The Pdf() annotation is supposed to give the "special" behavior of creating the PDF file instead of rendering normal HTML. So, having the above code, when I request the route http://www.mysite.com/*...*/pdf, all what I get is the following HTML rendered: <pdf> <dynamic-page> Hello Pedro! </dynamic-page> </pdf> (so a blank HTML page with just the words Hello Pedro! on it. Any clue? Am I doing anything wrong? Is it mandatory to have the alternative *.html.twig apart from the *.pdf.twig version? I don't think so... :(

    Read the article

  • JQGrid and JQuery Autocomplete

    - by Neff
    When implementing JQGrid 4.3.0, Jquery 1.6.2, and JQuery UI 1.8.16 Ive come across an issue with the Inline edit. When the inline edit is activated, some of the elements get assigned an auto complete. When the inline edit is canceld or saved, the auto complete does not always go away (selecting text by double clicking it then hitting delete, then hitting escape to exit row edit). Leaving the auto complete controls in edit mode when the row is no longer considered in edit mode. Perhaps you can tell me if there is a problem with the initialization or if I you are aware of an event post-"afterrestorefunc" that the fields can be returned to their "original" state. Original state being displayed as data in the JQGrid row. I've tried removing the DOM after row close, .remove() and .empty(): ... "afterrestorefunc": function(){ $('.ui-autocomplete-input').remove(); } ... but that causes other issues, such as the jqgrid is not able to find the cell when serializing the row for data or edit, and requires a refresh of the page, not just jqgrid, to be able to once again see the data from that row. Auto complete functionality for the element is created on the double click of the row: function CreateCustomSearchElement(value, options, selectiontype) { ... var el; el = document.createElement("input"); ... $(el).autocomplete({ source: function (request, response) { $.ajax({ url: '<%=ResolveUrl("~/Services/AutoCompleteService.asmx/GetAutoCompleteResponse") %>', data: "{ 'prefixText': '" + request.term + "', 'contextKey': '" + options.name + "'}", dataType: "json", type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", success: function (data) { response($.map(data.d, function (item) { return { label: Trim(item), value: Trim(item), searchVal: Trim(item) } })) } }); }, select: function (e, item) { //Select is on the event of selection where the value and label have already been determined. }, minLength: 1, change: function (event, ui) { //if the active element was not the search button //... } }).keyup(function (e) { if (e.keyCode == 8 || e.keyCode == 46) { //If the user hits backspace or delete, check the value of the textbox before setting the searchValue //... } }).keydown(function (e) { //if keycode is enter key and there is a value, you need to validate the data through select or change(onblur) if (e.keyCode == '13' && ($(el).val())) { return false; } if (e.keyCode == '220') { return false } }); } Other Sources: http://www.trirand.com/jqgridwiki/doku.php?id=wiki:inline_editing http://api.jqueryui.com/autocomplete/ Update: I tried only creating the autocomplete when the element was focused, and removing it when onblur. That did not resolve the issue either. It seems to just need the autocomplete dropdown to be triggered.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 539 540 541 542 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550  | Next Page >