Search Results

Search found 31013 results on 1241 pages for 'dictionary to object'.

Page 543/1241 | < Previous Page | 539 540 541 542 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550  | Next Page >

  • Can I make PDOStatement->fetchObject not use non-member variables?

    - by threendib
    Lets say I have a class like this: Class User { var $id var $name; } And I run a query using PDO in php like so: $stm = $db->prepare('select * from users where id = :id'); $r = $stm->execute(array(':id' => $id)); $user = $r->fetchObject('User'); If I vardump my user object it has all kinds of other fields in it that I have not defined in the User class. Obviously I could make my query specific so that it only gives me back the fields I need/want. But if I don't want to do that is there any way to make this work the way I want it to? I like the idea of fetchObject, because it's one line of code to create this object and set member variables for me. I just don't want it to set variables I haven't defined in my class.

    Read the article

  • Does isolation frameworks (Moq, RhinoMock, etc) lead to test overspecification?

    - by Marius
    In Osherove's great book "The Art of Unit Testing" one of the test anti-patterns is over-specification which is basically the same as testing the internal state of the object instead of some expected output. To my experience, using Isolation frameworks can cause the same unwanted side effects as testing internal behavior because one tends to only implement the behavior necessary to make your stub interact with the object under test. Now if your implementation changes later on (but the contract remains the same), your test will suddenly break because you are expecting some data from the stub which was not implemented. So what do you think is the best approach to counter this? 1) Implement your stubs/mocks fully, this has the negative side-effect of potentially making your test less readable and also specifying more than necessary to make your test pass. 2) Favor manual, fully implemented fakes. 3) Implement your stubs/fakes so that they make your test just pass, and then deal with the brittleness that this might introduce.

    Read the article

  • Specializing a template on a lambda in C++0x

    - by Tony A.
    I've written a traits class that lets me extract information about the arguments and type of a function or function object in C++0x (tested with gcc 4.5.0). The general case handles function objects: template <typename F> struct function_traits { template <typename R, typename... A> struct _internal { }; template <typename R, typename... A> struct _internal<R (F::*)(A...)> { // ... }; typedef typename _internal<decltype(&F::operator())>::<<nested types go here>>; }; Then I have a specialization for plain functions at global scope: template <typename R, typename... A> struct function_traits<R (*)(A...)> { // ... }; This works fine, I can pass a function into the template or a function object and it works properly: template <typename F> void foo(F f) { typename function_traits<F>::whatever ...; } int f(int x) { ... } foo(f); What if, instead of passing a function or function object into foo, I want to pass a lambda expression? foo([](int x) { ... }); The problem here is that neither specialization of function_traits<> applies. The C++0x draft says that the type of the expression is a "unique, unnamed, non-union class type". Demangling the result of calling typeid(...).name() on the expression gives me what appears to be gcc's internal naming convention for the lambda, main::{lambda(int)#1}, not something that syntactically represents a C++ typename. In short, is there anything I can put into the template here: template <typename R, typename... A> struct function_traits<????> { ... } that will allow this traits class to accept a lambda expression?

    Read the article

  • Coldfusion CFC creation taking a variable amout of time to execute.

    - by Bazza
    I've been doing some logging of object creation times in our open account process in production. Periodically, initializing an object would take way longer than expected. By initializing I mean calling it's init() and passing a couple of arguments that may be simple variables or objects. e.g. <cfset validateObj = createObject("component", "compExample").init( productionMode = VARIABLES.productionMode, ipWhiteListed = isWhiteListed, ipLocatorObj = VARIABLES.ipLocatorObj ) /> Thats all that happens in init() methods. Generally the execution time would be 0ms, but at random times I might get 3 or 3.5 seconds. This is not specific to one particular server or to our generally busy period. It appears to be quite random. One thought was that these templates were being evicted from our template cache as they are not especially frequently used, although I checked cfstat on a number of servers and the max CP/Sec is -1. Running CF 8,0,1 Has anybody else ever come across this?

    Read the article

  • Binding sub report in Crystal report

    - by Aijaz Chauhan
    Is it compulsory to bind sub report if we put sub report in main report ? here is my problem : code snippet : DataTable dtExtraDoc = dtDocSub.Select("DocumentId=14").Length == 0 ? null : dtDocSub.Select("DocumentId=14").CopyToDataTable(); if (dtExtraDoc != null && dtExtraDoc.Rows.Count > 0) { if (dtExtraDoc.Rows[0]["ResponceId"].ToString() == "2") { repdoc.Subreports["subRpt-extra-Doc-textile-claim-query-letter.rpt"].SetDataSource(dtExtraDoc); } } If dtExtraDoc is null then it will not bind the sub report and hence it gives me error " Object reference not set to an instance of object" I am totally new to crystal reports please help me.. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Use SQL query to populate property in nHibernate mapping file

    - by brainimus
    I have an object which contains a property that is the result of an SQL statement. How do I add the SQL statement to my nHibernate mapping file? Example Object: public class Library{ public int BookCount { get; set; } } Example Mapping File: <hibernate-mapping> <class name="Library" table="Libraries"> <property name="BookCount" type="int"> <- This is where I want the SQL query to populate the value. -> </class> </hibernate-mapping> Example SQL Query: SELECT COUNT(*) FROM BOOKS WHERE BOOKS.LIBRARY_ID = LIBRARIES.ID

    Read the article

  • How do I know if I'm iterating on the last item of the collection?

    - by Camilo Martin
    I want to do something different on the last KeyValuePair of the Dictionary I'm iterating on. For Each item In collection If ItsTheLastItem DoX() Else DoY() End If Next Is this possible? Edit: As Jon correctly remarks, Dictionaries are not the kind of thing that's sorted, so I should mention that I only want to do this when displaying results to the user, and it doesn't matter if later on the last item is different. In another note, I'll use my own answer but I'll accept the most upvoted one after I check back in some hours.

    Read the article

  • Is there any method in Cocoa that helps iterating through all NSColor values(R,G,B only, alpha not t

    - by krasnyk
    You may ask why do I need it? I have to detect all white objects at the B/W image. I'm coloring each object and taking its rect. In order fill each object with different color I would be very happy to use a function that can for a given color gimme a next one or so. In Qt there is a nice one that is called nextColor or so, returns the integer representing the next color(which can be easily translated to RGB). Does Cocoa have sth like that?

    Read the article

  • How to make pytest display a custom string representation for fixture parameters?

    - by Björn Pollex
    When using builtin types as fixture parameters, pytest prints out the value of the parameters in the test report. For example: @fixture(params=['hello', 'world'] def data(request): return request.param def test_something(data): pass Running this with py.test --verbose will print something like: test_example.py:7: test_something[hello] PASSED test_example.py:7: test_something[world] PASSED Note that the value of the parameter is printed in square brackets after the test name. Now, when using an object of a user-defined class as parameter, like so: class Param(object): def __init__(self, text): self.text = text @fixture(params=[Param('hello'), Param('world')] def data(request): return request.param def test_something(data): pass pytest will simply enumerate the number of values (p0, p1, etc.): test_example.py:7: test_something[p0] PASSED test_example.py:7: test_something[p1] PASSED This behavior does not change even when the user-defined class provides custom __str__ and __repr__ implementations. Is there any way to make pytest display something more useful than just p0 here? I am using pytest 2.5.2 on Python 2.7.6 on Windows 7.

    Read the article

  • passing parameters to a thread

    - by assassin
    I want to pass a function that takes a parameter to the ThreadStart Constructor in C#. But, it seems that this is not possible, as I get a syntax error it I try to do something like this Thread t1 = new Thread(new Thread Start(func1(obj1)); where obj1 is an object of type List<string> (say). If I want a thread to execute this function that takes in an object as a parameter, and I plan to create 2 such threads simultaneously with different parameter values what is the best method to achieve this?

    Read the article

  • get content of a div from a variable using jQuery

    - by devdarsh
    i am building a php form with ajax and i am submitting the form variables to the same page where the form resides. my validating code looks like if($valid){ echo "<div id='retmsg'>Your message has been submitted successfully</div>"; } else { echo "<div id='retmsg'>An error occured!</div>"; } My ajax code function form_submit() { $('#response').html('Loading...').fadeIn(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "<?php $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; ?>", data: "title=" + $('#title').val() + "&content=" + $('#contents').val(), success: function(html){ var message = $("#retmsg").html(html); alert(message); } }); } i need to alert the contents of div id "retmsg". But the alert shows me like "[Object Object]". Please help me...

    Read the article

  • How To Query Many-to-Many Table (one table's values becomes column headers)

    - by CRice
    Given this table structure, I want to flatten out the many-to-many relationships and make the values in the Name field of one table into column headers and the quantities from the same table into column values. The current idea which will work is to put the values into a Dictionary (hashtable) and represent this data in code but im wondering if there is a SQL way to do this. I am also using Linq-to-SQL for data access so a Linq-to-SQL solution would be ideal. [TableA] (int Id) [TableB] (int id, string Name) [TableAB] (int tableAId, int tableBId, int Quantity) fk: TableA.Id joins to TableAB.tableAId fk: TableB.Id joins to TableAB.tableBId Is there a way I can query the three tables and return one result for example: TableA [Id] 1 TableB [Id], [Name] 1, "Red" 2, "Green" 3, "Blue" TableAB [TableAId], [TableBId], [Quantity] 1 1 5 1 2 6 1 3 7 Query Result: [TableA.Id], [Red], [Green], [Blue] 1, 5, 6, 7

    Read the article

  • Python - Is there a better/efficient way to find a node in tree?

    - by Sej P
    I have a node data structure defined as below and was not sure the find_matching_node method is pythonic or efficient. I am not well versed with generators but think there might be better solution using them. Any ideas? class HierarchyNode(): def __init__(self, nodeId): self.nodeId = nodeId self.children = {} # opted for dictionary to help reduce lookup time def addOrGetChild(self, childNode): return self.children.setdefault(childNode.nodeId,childNode) def find_matching_node(self, node): ''' look for the node in the immediate children of the current node. if not found recursively look for it in the children nodes until gone through all nodes ''' matching_node = self.children.get(node.nodeId) if matching_node: return matching_node else: for child in self.children.itervalues(): matching_node = child.find_matching_node(node) if matching_node: return matching_node return None

    Read the article

  • SQL Alchemy: Relationship with grandson

    - by giomasce
    I'm building a SQL Alchemy structure with three different levels of objects; for example, consider a simple database to store information about some blogs: there are some Blog object, some Post object and some Comment objects. Each Post belongs to a Blog and each Comment belongs to a Post. Using backref I can automatically have the list of all Posts belonging to a Blog and similarly for Comments. I drafted a skeleton for such a structure. What I would like to do now is to have directly in Blog an array of all the Comments belonging to that Blog. I've tried a few approaches, but they don't work or even make SQL Alchemy cry in ways I can't fix. I'd think that mine is quite a frequent need, but I couldn't find anything helpful. Colud someone suggest me how to do that? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Writing secure java code with RMI

    - by jtnire
    Hi Everyone, This may seem like a very broad question, but any help is appreciated. I have a client/server solution written in java which uses the Cajo project (which uses RMI). I just want to try and make my solution as secure as possible, given the sensitive data that will be transferred between server and client. So far, my ideas are to make all my classes "final" as well as throw a "non-serializable" exception for all my classes in the server (except for the object bound in the RMI registry, and any objects that actually do need to be transferred of course). Can anyone think of any other ideas? I know that someone could write a malicious client - this isn't hard to do as you can find out the remote object's API using reflection. However is there anything I can do to protect a malicious client access classes/objects within the server that they are not supposed to access? Many Thanks

    Read the article

  • Programmatically triggering events in Javascript for IE using jQuery

    - by Dan Herbert
    When an Event is triggered by a user in IE, it is set to the window.event object. The only way to see what triggered the event is by accessing the window.event object (as far as I know) This causes a problem in ASP.NET validators if an event is triggered programmatically, like when triggering an event through jQuery. In this case, the window.event object stores the last user-triggered event. When the onchange event is fired programmatically for a text box that has an ASP.NET validator attached to it, the validation breaks because it is looking at the element that fired last event, which is not the element the validator is for. Does anyone know a way around this? It seems like a problem that is solvable, but from looking online, most people just find ways to ignore the problem instead of solving it. To explain what I'm doing specifically: I'm using a jQuery time picker plugin on a text box that also has 2 ASP.NET validators associated with it. When the time is changed, I'm using an update panel to post back to the server to do some things dynamically, so I need the onchange event to fire in order to trigger the postback for that text box. The jQuery time picker operates by creating a hidden unordered list that is made visible when the text box is clicked. When one of the list items is clicked, the "change" event is fired programmatically for the text box through jQuery's change() method. Because the trigger for the event was a list item, IE sees the list item as the source of the event, not the text box, like it should. I'm not too concerned with this ASP.NET validator working as soon as the text box is changed, I just need the "change" event to be processed so my postback event is called for the text box. The problem is that the validator throws an exception in IE which stops any event from being triggered. Firefox (and I assume other browsers) don't have this issue. Only IE due to the different event model. Has anyone encountered this and seen how to fix it? I've found this problem reported several other places, but they offer no solutions: jQuery's forum, with the jQuery UI Datepicker and an ASP.NET Validator ASP.NET forums, bug with ValidatorOnChange() function

    Read the article

  • $.get sends prototype functions in request URL?

    - by pimvdb
    I have some prototype functions added to Object which in my opinion were practical in certain scenarios. However, I noticed that when I executed a $.get, the prototype functions are handled as data members and are sent like http://...?prototypefunc=false. This is rather useless as I don't supply these as data members, but they are added to the query string. To be exact, I have this code: Object.prototype.in = function() { for(var i=0; i<arguments.length; i++) if(arguments[i] == this) return true; return false; } $.get('http://localhost/test.php', {'test': 'foo'}, function(text) { }); The corresponding URL constructed is: http://localhost/test.php?test=foo&in=false How can I avoid this?

    Read the article

  • C#.NET: FTP Several Files

    - by Steve Kiss
    Hi, I have what would seem like a common problem, but I cannot find an appropriate solution on any forums. I need to FTP an entire directory structure using .NET. I have found several code examples all of which show how you can FTP a single file by creating an FtpWebRequest object. Unfortunately, there is no information on how to deal with several files. Do I simply create a FtpWebRequest object for every single file? Any help would be appreciated. Thanks

    Read the article

  • .NET Free memory usage (how to prevent overallocation / release memory to the OS)

    - by Ronan Thibaudau
    I'm currently working on a website that makes large use of cached data to avoid roundtrips. At startup we get a "large" graph (hundreds of thouthands of different kinds of objects). Those objects are retrieved over WCF and deserialized (we use protocol buffers for serialization) I'm using redgate's memory profiler to debug memory issues (the memory didn't seem to fit with how much memory we should need "after" we're done initializing and end up with this report Now what we can gather from this report is that: 1) Most of the memory .NET allocated is free (it may have been rightfully allocated during deserialisation, but now that it's free, i'd like for it to return to the OS) 2) Memory is fragmented (which is bad, as everytime i refresh the cash i need to redo the memory hungry deserialisation process and this, in turn creates large object that may throw an OutOfMemoryException due to fragmentation) 3) I have no clue why the space is fragmented, because when i look at the large object heap, there are only 30 instances, 15 object[] are directly attached to the GC and totally unrelated to me, 1 is a char array also attached directly to the GC Heap, the remaining 15 are mine but are not the cause of this as i get the same report if i comment them out in code. So my question is, what can i do to go further with this? I'm not really sure what to look for in debugging / tools as it seems my memory is fragmented, but not by me, and huge amounts of free spaces are allocated by .net , which i can't release. Also please make sure you understand the question well before answering, i'm not looking for a way to free memory within .net (GC.Collect), but to free memory that is already free in .net , to the system as well as to defragment said memory. Note that a slow solution is fine, if it's possible to manually defragment the large heap i'd be all for it as i can call it at the end of RefreshCache and it's ok if it takes 1 or 2 second to run. Thanks for your help! A few notes i forgot: 1) The project is a .net 2.0 website, i get the same results running it in a .net 4 pool, idem if i run it in a .net 4 pool and convert it to .net 4 and recompile. 2) These are results of a release build, so debug build can not be the issue. 3) And this is probably quite important, i do not get these issues at all in the webdev server, only in IIS, in the webdev i get memory consumption rather close to my actual consumption (well more, but not 5-10X more!)

    Read the article

  • java memory usage

    - by xdevel2000
    I know I always post a similar question about array memory usage but now I want post the question more specific. After I read this article: http://www.javamex.com/tutorials/memory/object_memory_usage.shtml I didn't understand some things: the size of a data type is always the same also on different platform (Linux / Windows 32 / 64 bit)??? so an int will be always 32 bit?; when I compute the memory usage I must put also the reference value itself? If I have an object to a class that has an int field its memory will be 12 (object header) + 4 reference + 4 (the int field) + 3 (padding) = 24 bytes??

    Read the article

  • Finding the attributes on the properties of an instance of a class

    - by Dan
    Given an instance of a class I want to set properties on attributes at runtime. So I tried this, but as far as I can tell this finds the attributes on the class not the instance, so any changes I make to the attribute properties have no effect. var properties = myObject.GetType().GetProperties(); foreach (object prop in properties) { var attribute =prop.GetCustomAttributes(typeof(MyAttribute), true)[0]; //attribute.MyProp do some stuff } If I try using type descriptor like below, there is no way of getting to the attributes on the properties. var myObject= (MyClass) object; PropertyDescriptorCollection props = TypeDescriptor.GetProperties(myObject); //There is no props[0].GetCustomAttributes(

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 539 540 541 542 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550  | Next Page >